Pathology Past Papers PDF 2024

Pathology credit pp for 2024 23 studiers today Leave the first rating Save Students also studied Study guides Slide test patho Pathophysiology 2nd Credit Test Mi... Pat...

Pathology credit pp for 2024 23 studiers today Leave the first rating Save Students also studied Study guides Slide test patho Pathophysiology 2nd Credit Test Mi... Pathology - credit test Patho 75 terms 640 terms 550 terms 115 terms michal_dardik Preview michal_dardik Preview fayeds Preview sote Terms in this set (838) With which of the following histological e. Fluorescent microscopy techniques are UV rays used as the source a. Light field microscopy b. Dark field microscopy c. Phase-contrast microscopy d. Polarized light microscopy e. Fluorescent microscopy In Green trichrome stain, erythrocytes are b. Orange stained a. Red b. Orange c. Green d. Yellow e. Blue-red What is the chemical name for the a. Diaminobenzidine substance used in the peroxidase immunohistochemistry stain that forms a Brown color change a. Diaminobenzidine b. Fast red TR c. 3-amino-9-ethylcarbazole d. Nitro blue tetrazolium e. Acid fuchsin Which color does Hematoxylin stain b. Blue a. Orange b. Blue c. Pink d. Yellow e. Green Which of the following substances are used e. Picric acid simultaneously like both a fixative and a stain a. Eosin b. Uranylacetate c. Acid fuchsin d. Alizar red e. Picric acid Iron in hemosiderin is stained by b. Pearl`s reaction a. Von Kossa stain b. Pearl`s reaction c. Chromogenic reactions d. Virchow`s reaction e. Schmorl reaction Which substance is stained by Berlin blue d. Iron (Prussian blue) a. Sodium b. Potassium c. Calcium d. Iron e. Copper Which of the following statements about b. Calcium in tissue indirectly visualize ionic bonds of silver to phosphate evidence/proof of Calcium in tissue are true a. Calcium in tissue demonstrates direct bonds of silver nitrate b. Calcium in tissue indirectly visualize ionic bonds of silver to phosphate c. The calcium visible in tissue represents the free form d. It`s imposible to visualize calcium in tissue e. Calcium are stained brown in Hematoxylin-eosin As a rule, for diagnostic excisions its b. It stops autolysis and the tissue structures are preserved spatially appropriate to take a part of the tissue to a liquid fixative (usually formaldehyde), because a. Formaldehyde don`t dissolve neutral lipids and they may then be visualized in the tissue b. It stops autolysis and the tissue structures are preserved spatially c. Formaldehyde dissolves neutral fat and the tissue can therefore be impregnated by paraffin d. The tissue is fixed and it`s posible to cut without saturating in paraffin e. Formaldehyde fixation completely conserve tissue antigens for later antigen testing Orthochromasia means a. That existing structures are colored the same color, like that of the dye a. That existing structures are colored the same color, like that of the dye b. That existing structures are colored another color then the applied dye solution c. It`s synonymous with ahromasia d. It`s used if all the structures in the prepárate are colored the same color e. It indicates normal organization of chromatin in normal cells Metachromasia means b. That existing structures are colored another color then the applied dye solution a. That existing structures are colored the same color like the color of the dye b. That existing structures are colored another color then the applied dye solution c. It`s synonymous with ahromasia d. It`s used if all the structures in the prepárate are colored the same color e. It indicates the normal organization of chromatin in normal cells 13. Ziehl-Neelson method shows d. Mycobacterium leprae a. Pseudomonas aeruginosa b. Pneumocystis carini c. Chromium d. Mycobacterium leprae e. Copper Which step follows after staining of the e. Dehydration tissue during a routine H and E a. Fixation b. Bathe in paraffin c. Staining d. Cutting e. Dehydration Tissue samples goes through the following e. Electron transmission microscopy solutions or chemicals: Glutaraldehyde, 100% alcohol, Osmium tetroxide, and lead acetate. With the sample prepared with these substances, which of the following histological techniques are used a. Immunohistochemistry b. Autoradiography c. Phase-contrast microcsopy d. Polarized-light microscopy e. Electron transmission microscopy On tissue sections one first applies a. Indirect immunohistochemistry untagged rabbit antibodies against the wanted antigen and after that one applies tagged goat antibodies against the rabbit antibodies. Which of the following histological techniques are used for visualization a. Indirect immunohistochemistry b. Direct immunohistochemistry c. Phase-contrast microscopy d. Autoradiography for electron microscope e. Autoradiography for light microscope What is the thickness for routine paraffin c. 4-8 um sections/cuts in histopathology a. 4-8 nm b. 40-80 nm c. 4-8 um d. 40-80 um e. Neither of the answers are correct How are collagen fibers stained in the blue b. Blue trichrome stain a. Orange b. Blue c. Yellow d. Pink e. Green Which of the following structures do we b. Fat primarily use the Sudan stain for a. Blood b. Fat c. Nervous tissue d. Elastic fibers e. Decalcified bone matrix Which of the following substances don`t b. Adipocytes we use the PAS reaction to identify a. Mucopolysaccharides b. Adipocytes c. Glycogen d. Basement membrane e. Mycotic hyphae Fibrin in the Green trichrome stain stains b. Red a. Green b. Red c. Orange d. Prussian blue e. It don`t stain at all For identification of which of the following c. Calcium deposits substances are the von Kossa stain used a. Acidic mucopolysaccharides b. Neutral fat in fat necrosis c. Calcium deposits d. Basement membrane e. Elastic fibers Which of the following statements about d. 10% formaldehyde equals 4% aquous solution of formaldehyde formaldehyde are not true a. It`s a colorless liquid with a pungy smell b. It`s used most often in the form of neutral 10% formaldehyde c. 100% solution of formalin equals to 4% aqueous solution of formaldehyde d. 10% formaldehyde equals 4% aquous solution of formaldehyde i. It`s written formol, which may mean 10% formaldehyde solution or simply formaldehyde e. It`s used for chemical fixation of specimens Which of the following structures will be c. Hepatocytes stained dark blue to blue-black with hematoxylin-eosin a. Cytoplasm b. Collagen fibers c. Hepatocytes d. Elastic fibers e. Decalcified bone matrix How is connective tisue stained in the e. Green Green trichrome stain a. Orange b. Blue c. Pink d. Red e. Green Which step follows after embedding tissue d. Cutting in paraffin during routine hematoxylin-eosin prepration a. Fixation b. Embedding in paraffin c. Staining d. Cutting e. Dehydration Which tissue component stains with e. Intracellular mucus Mucicarmine a. Basement membrane b. Fat c. Nervous tissue d. Elastic fibers e. Intracellular mucus What is the speed of permeation of a. 1 mm/hour formaldehyde to tissue a. 1 mm/hour b. 1 cm/hour c. 1 mm/day d. 1 mm/week e. Permeation to the bulk of the tissue within 5 minutes How are hepatocytes stained by a. Dark blue hematoxylin-eosin a. Dark blue b. Yellow c. They`re not stained d. Red e. Fine/Mild pink What is correct regarding volume of a. 10-30x the removed tissue fixative liquid for tissue samples a. 10-30x the removed tissue b. 100-300x the removed tissue c. It's enough to only immerise the tissue sample 25 fast to the fixative and then you can send it without fixative liquid d. The fixative liquid must be the same volume like the volume of the tissue simple e. It depends only on the wish of the doctor who sent it Which of the following statements are c. Acidic mucopolysaccharides stains orthochromatic incorrect a. Toluidine blue is a metachromatic dye b. Many of the basophilic substances are metachromatic c. Acidic mucopolysaccharides stains orthochromatic d. Structures which stains metachromatic with toluidine blue becomes red- purple e. Structures which stains orthochromatic with toluidine blue becomes blue Common resolution of the light a. 0.2-0.5 um microscope is a. 0.2-0.5 um b. 5-10 um c. 25-50 um d. 1 mm e. 100 nm With electrophoresis on agar gel we see a. Apoptosis so-called DNA laddering typical of a. Apoptosis b. Thalassemia c. Sickle cell disease d. Tuberculosis e. All necrotic cells Which of the following techniques are used b. Northern blot to identify DNA a. Southern blot b. Northern blot c. Western blot d. Eastern blot e. All of the above answers are correct Mutations arise from a. Changes of base sequence of DNA a. Changes of base sequence of DNA b. Changes of base sequence of RNA c. Changes of amino acid sequence of proteins d. Substitutions of basic amino acids with others e. Substititions of amino acid sequences in histones In which phase of the cell cycle are DNA a. S phase synthesis occurring a. S phase b. G1 phase c. G2 phase d. M phase e. It occurs evenly in all of the phases Where are the TCA/Kreb cycle located c. Mitochondria a. Endoplasmic reticulum b. Golgi apparatus c. Mitochondria d. Peroxisomes e. Free ribosomes Basophilic cytoplasm are not due to d. Proteins of the cytoskeleton a. The presence of smooth ER b. The presence of granular ER c. High concentrations of polysomes d. Proteins of the cytoskeleton e. Precipitated pigments of the peroxisomes To detect and quantify antigens and b. ELISA test antibodies we use a. PCR b. ELISA test c. Flow cytometry d. Electron microscopy e. In situ hybridization Which of the following statements about a. It`s used for recognition of histogenetic (cell origin) causes of immunohistochemical analyses are malignancy correct a. It`s used for recognition of histogenetic (cell origin) causes of malignancy b. It`s used to identify intracellular enzyme activity c. It serves to recognize aneuploid cells d. It`s synonymous with FISH e. At present we still don`t have a wide application for it Evidence of actin and desmin in neoplastic d. Mesenchymal (muscular) origin of the tumor cells indicates a. Epithelial origin of the tumor b. Neuroectodermal origin of the tumor c. Germinal origin of the tumor d. Mesenchymal (muscular) origin of the tumor e. It doesn't give any useful information since these proteins are present in all cells Expression of CD117/c-kit is a typical marker a. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors of a. Gastrointestinal stromal tumors b. Leiomyomas c. Malignant melanomas d. Adenocarcinomas of the colon e. Hepatocellular carcinomas Which color does hyaline stain in Blue a. Blue trichrome stain a. Blue b. Pink-red c. Green d. Orange e. It don` stain We currently use electron microscopy to c. Classification of non-Hodgkins lymphomas to T and B diagnose all of the following diseases except a. Identification of immune complexes in glomerulonephritides b. Identification of viruses in tissue c. Classification of non-Hodgkins lymphomas to T and B d. Diagnosis of Whipple`s disease e. Classification of vesicular skin conditions We use hybrid techniques (Southern blot b. Diagnosis of different types of anemia or in-situ hybridization) to diagnose all of the following conditions, except a. Identification of viral DNA in specimens b. Diagnosis of different types of anemia c. Classification of B lymphomas d. Differentiation of ovarian carcinomas from breast carcinoma e. Classification of T lymphomas For which of the following purposes are b. To identify enzyme activity immunohistochemistry inappropriate a. To identify histogenetic causes of neoplasms b. To identify enzyme activity c. Identification of tissue-specific markers of neoplasms d. Detection of hormones and their receptors e. Detection of auto-antibodies Which of the following statements are e. For perioperational examination it`s necessary to send tissue in incorrect fixative liquid, the best is formaldehyde a. Fixation of testicular tissue is best performed with Bouin fixative b. The speed of permeation of formaldehyde to tissue is about 1 mm/hour c. For FACS (Fluorescent activated cell sorting) it`s necessary to have tissue that is not fixated/native d. For fixation of urate crystals the best option is alcohol fixation e. For perioperational examination it`s necessary to send tissue in fixative liquid, the best is formaldehyde Apoptotic cells are removed by a. Phagocytosis undergoing a. Phagocytosis b. Autophagy c. Autolysis d. Necrosis e. Transformation into so-called `ghost- cells¨ Which of the following cell types are most b. Neurons susceptible to necrosis in the case of complete ischemia a. Epithelial renal tubules b. Neurons c. Fibroblasts d. Cardiomyocytes e. Hepatocytes Which of the following statements about b. With necrosis cells can become autolysed and heterolyzed necrosis and autolysis are correct a. They occur only in living organisms b. With necrosis cells can become autolysed and heterolyzed c. Autolysis occurs only in death organisms d. Necrosis occurs immediately in necrotic tissue e. Autolysis initiates/happens in the preliminary part of apoptosis Cystic dilatation of the endoplasmic e. Severe, but reversible ischemic damage reticulum is associated with a. Lipid accumulation b. Hypertrophic cells c. Intracellular dehydration d. Apoptosis e. Severe, but reversible ischemic damage Which cations exist in high concentration in b. Calcium cells which are undergoing coagulation necrosis a. Potassium b. Calcium c. Iron d. Cobalt e. Copper Which of the following types of necroses a. Coagulation necrosis have preservation of cell contour and shape, and recognizable architectural integrity of the tissue a. Coagulation necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Fat necrosis e. Wet gangrene Raised eosinophilia of the cytoplasm in c. Denaturation of proteins cells undergoing ischemic necrosis are due to a. Reduced intracellular ATP b. Increased intracellular Na concentration c. Denaturation of proteins d. Calcium accumulation e. Fibrosis Which of the following conditions are e. Embolus to the superior mesenteric artery leading to colonic infarct examples of coagulation necrosis a. Lobar pneumonia in alcoholics b. Liver abscesses in patients with amebiasis c. Pseudomembranous colitis in patients using ampicillin d. Cerebral atrophy in patients with Alzheimer`s disease e. Embolus to the superior mesenteric artery leading to colonic infarct Which of the following types of necrosis c. Caseous necrosis are histologically characterized by regions of amorphous eosinophilic material with basophilic regions, without cell residues or recognizable tissue architecture a. Coagulation necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Gangrene If ischemic coagulation necrosis gets c. Wet gangrene infected, it gives rise to a. Caseous necrosis b. Enzymatically modified fat necrosis c. Wet gangrene d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Dystrophic calcification Pseudomelanosis of the abdominal organs a. Hydrogen sulphide and abdominal wall are caused by a. Hydrogen sulphide b. Amylase c. Bile acids d. Hydrochloric acid e. Lipase Which morphological picture is present in c. Liquefactive necrosis classic ischemic cerebral infarcts a. Abscess b. Coagulative necrosis c. Liquefactive necrosis d. Gangrene e. Fibrinoid necrosis Which of the following processes is a. Apotosis connected with increased caspase activity a. Apotosis b. Autolysis c. Heterolysis d. Hyperplasia e. Enzymatic necrosis of fatty tissue Which of the following manifestations d. Areflexia don`t belong to certain/sure death signs a. Postmortem spots (Livores) (absent of reflexes) b. Postmortem stiffness (Rigor mortis) c. Cold (Algor mortis) d. Areflexia e. Brain death Postmortem stiffness b. Starts with the masticatory musculature a. Is caused by release of tissue proteases b. Starts with the masticatory musculature c. Originates from action of amylase on glycogen in muscle fibers d. Starts in the legs e. Is caused by postmortem blood coagulation A 70-year-old man is hospitalized after a d. Nuclear disintegration stroke. In the hospital he immediately develops chest pain. Serum enzyme analysis and EKG confirms myocardial infarct. The patient dies from an arrhythmia. Which of the following morphologic manifestations would confirm myocardial necrosis a. Increased intracellular volume/size b. Swelling and calcium deposits of the mitochondria c. Disintegration of polyribosomes d. Nuclear disintegration e. Lymphocytic infiltration Fat necrosis is associated with all of the c. Peroxidation of triglyceride esters following conditions except a. Trauma of the mammary glands b. Acute pancreatitis c. Peroxidation of triglyceride esters d. Hydrolysis of triglycerides to glycerol e. Inflammatory reaction During taking a tissue sample from an d. Karyorrhexis abscess, it`s noticed extensive granulocytic degenerative changes, with the cell nuclei succumbing to fragmentation. What is this process called a. Caseous necrosis b. Coagulation necrosis c. Karyolysis d. Karyorrhexis e. Pyknosis Fibrinoid necrosis are found in b. Hypertensive damage a. Gangrenous altered tissue b. Hypertensive damage c. In striated muscle d. In the area surrounding liquefactive necrosis e. During acute pancreatitis Zenker wax necrosis/Zenker b. Coagulation necrosis degeneration/Wax degeneration is a variation of a. Liquefactive necrosis (due to necrosis of skeletal muscle, typical in some infections) b. Coagulation necrosis c. Dry gangrene d. Fat necrosis e. Hemorrhagic necrosis 77. Poprašková necrosis (Refers to c. Caseous necrosis histological appearance - ''necrosis dusted over with chromatin grains'') is another term for a. Liquefactive necrosis b. Coagulation necrosis filled with anthracotic pigments c. Caseous necrosis d. Fat necrosis of peritoneal tissue during acute necrosis of the pancreas The source of calcium connected with b. Mitochondriae of dying cells tissue death is/are a. Fibroblasts b. Mitochondriae of dying cells c. By the means of increased tubular absorption of the kidneys d. Plasma e. Bones In which of the following tissues are d. Brain liquefactive necrosis followed by ischemic injury a. Spleen b. Lungs c. Heart d. Brain e. Intestine In which of the following processes does a. Apoptosis the bax gene become expressed a. Apoptosis b. Proliferation c. Cell division d. Inhibition of Ras/Ras inhibition e. Angiogenesis Which of the following types of necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis are not macroscopically detectable a. Coagulation necrosis b. Fat necrosis c. Liquefactive necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Caseous necrosis Which of the following changes a. Autolysis characterizes the most severe lethal cellular damage a. Autolysis b. Autophagy c. Drop of calcium levels d. Intracellular glycogen accumulation e. Intracellular protein accumulation Apoptosis is characterized by a. Increased levels of the protein Bax a. Increased levels of the protein Bax b. Lipid peroxidation c. Inflammatory response of the organism d. Rupture of the plasma membrane e. Intercellular hyaline deposits Apoptosis is associated with d. Transfer of initiating signals across the plasma membrane a. Rupture of the plasma membrane b. Drop in intracellular pH c. Secondary inflammatory responses d. Transfer of initiating signals across the plasma membrane e. Intact nuclear chromatin Which of the following changes can during c. Intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes ischemic injury be considered manifestations of irreversible change a. Increase/Aggregate of glycogen b. Aggregation of nuclear chromatin c. Intracellular release of lysosomal enzymes d. Decreased protein synthesis e. Depletion of intracellular calcium Which process is together with mitotic d. Apoptosis activity and growth characteristic for alteration of tissue in the process of embryonal development a. Atrophy b. Dysplasia c. Autolysis d. Apoptosis e. Dystrophy Which of the following types of necrosis c. Fat necrosis are expressed like opaque, chalky nodules a. Coagulation necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Fat necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Gangrene Which would be the most likely change at d. Swelling of the ER the cellular level in patients with myocardial infarct, whose myocardium would be examined microscopically after immediate thrombolytic therapy: a. Karyorrhexis b. Pyknosis c. Karyolysis d. Swelling of the ER e. Autolysis Which of the following terms are defined a. Autolysis - Degradation of tissue by intracellular enzymes correctly a. Autolysis - Degradation of tissue by intracellular enzymes b. Heterolysis - Alteration of tissue by the action of fixation solution c. Fibrinoid necrosis - Ischemic necrosis originating from obstruction of an arterial lumen secondary to coagulation d. Apoptosis - Balloon swelling of cytoplasm due to aggregations of lipid substances e. Necrosis - Cell death without accompanying inflammatory change Zenker degeneration/Wax degeneration is a. Coagulation - Skeletal muscle - Infectious processes (For example a variant of... necroses occurring in typhoid fever).... During... (Fill inn the right answers) a. Coagulation - Skeletal muscle - Infectious processes (For example typhoid fever) b. Caseous - Skeletal muscle - Infectious processes (For example typhoid fever) c. Coagulation - Brain - Acute pancreatitis d. Liquefactive - Brain - Pancreatitis e. Fibrinoid - Heart - Anaphylactic shock Calcium plays a role in cellular damage by b. Activating phospholipases... a. Causing ATP depletion b. Activating phospholipases c. Causing autophagocytosis d. Developing pyknosis e. Works like a free radical Which of the following cellular changes are a. Glycogen depletion reversible a. Glycogen depletion b. Karyorrhexis c. Autolysis d. Defect plasma membrane e. High density of mitochondrial matrix Which of the following enzymes are b. Catalase present in peroxisomes a. Phospholipase A b. Catalase c. P450 oxidase d. NADPH oxidase e. Calpain I A 60-year-old man is transported to the c. Reactive oxygen species hospital with acute liver failure. He undergoes successful orthotopic liver transplantation, but the donated liver in the first 3 days produces only a little amount of bile. Dysfunction of the graft in the are ascribed to reperfusion injury. Which of the following substances are the most probable cause of reperfusion injury of the graft a. Cationic proteins b. Lysosomal acid hydrolases c. Reactive oxygen species d. Free ionic iron e. Hydrochloric acid Which of the following enzymes/molecules e. Xanthine oxidase are not involved in inactivation of free radicals a. Superoxide dismutase (Xanthine oxidase > generates ROS) b. Vitamin E c. Catalase d. Glutathion peroxidase e. Xanthine oxidase Which of the following gene products b. P53 stimulates apoptosis a. C-erb-B2/HER-2/neu b. P53 c. Myc d. Ras e. Bcl-2 For the so-called reperfusion injury b. Free oxygen radicals occurring after ischemic events, which of the following substances are responsible a. Calcium ions b. Free oxygen radicals c. Lysosomal enzymes d. Bacterias e. Complement Lipid peroxidation in cells exposed to c. Hydroxyl radicals ionizing radiation is mediated by a. Catalase b. Superoxide anions c. Hydroxyl radicals d. Hydrogen peroxide e. Glutathione Caseous necrosis is b. On section its seen as granular rests of chromatin a. Present in muscle tissue during tetanus b. On section its seen as granular rests of chromatin c. Present in sarcoidosis d. A variant of liquefactive necrosis e. In the surroundings of foreign bodies Basement membrane and/or extracellular e. Lamin matrix is composed of all of the following components, except a. Collagen type IV b. Collagen type III c. Laminin d. Fibronectin e. Lamin Early reversible phenomena, which occurs b. Evaginations of the plasma membrane (so-called blebs) during potential lethal hypoxic cellular injury is/are a. Flocculant/precipitated densities in the mitochondria b. Evaginations of the plasma membrane (so-called blebs) c. Release of lysosomal enzymes d. Loss of nuclear basophilia e. Autolysis Irreversible cellular changes includes all of a. Hydropic degeneration the following except a. Hydropic degeneration b. Apoptosis c. Karyorrhexis d. Karyolysis e. Lysosomal rupture Which of the following ultrastructural are c. Decline of amount of RNA responsible for loss of cytoplasmic basophilia (/increase in eosinophilia) seen in light microscope a. Amyloid accumulation b. Marked mitochondrial swelling c. Decline of amount of RNA d. Aggregation of the plasma membranes e. Increased protein synthesis Which of the following statements about b. It occurs most often in the lungs liquefactive necrosis are incorrect a. It can be caused by lye (NaOH) b. It occurs most often in the lungs c. It originates in tissue with low protein content d. During its healing pseudocysts are often formed e. It`s a `substrate`/base for encephalomalacia What is typical following cellular ischemia b. Increased levels of intracellular calcium a. Increased oxidative phosphorylation b. Increased levels of intracellular calcium c. Decreased amount of intracellular water d. Increased amount of intracellular potassium e. Increased proteosynthesis Reperfusion injury is best characterized by c. Reactive oxygen species the formation of potentially toxic substances, the most important are a. Lysosomal enzymes b. Proteases c. Reactive oxygen species d. Hydrogen compounds e. Hydrochloric acid compounds Gangrene is d. Modified necrosis, for example due to drying a. The designation for the decay of dead tissue due to putrefactive organisms b. Modified necrosis by changing temperatures c. Synonym for wet gangrene, i.e. necrosis modified by wet conditions d. Modified necrosis, for example due to drying e. Necrosis whose appearance is modified by autoimmune mechanisms Which of the following pathological c. Karyolysis in the myocardium changes best reflect irreversible cellular injury a. Steatosis of hepatocytes b. Hydrophobic vacuolization of epithelial tubules in the kidneys c. Karyolysis in the myocardium d. Deposition of glycogen in the nuclei of hepatocytes (so-called glycogen nuclei e. Protein droplets in the cytoplasm of renal tubular cells Which of the following types of cells are e. Fibroblasts the least sensitive to anoxia a. Neurons (Anoxia = No oxygen) b. Cardiomyocytes c. Absorptive epithelia of the small intestine d. Proximal tubular cells of the kidney e. Fibroblasts Which of the following organs are the least b. Heart resistant to hypoxia a. Liver b. Heart c. Kidneys d. Spleen e. Tendon Which of the following organs typically a. Skin undergoes simple necrosis a. Skin b. Heart c. Liver d. Brain e. Kidneys Enzymatic digestion of tissue with c. Fat necrosis formation of chalky soap are characteristic of a. Coagulation necrosis b. Caseous necrosis c. Fat necrosis d. Liquefactive necrosis e. Fibrinoid necrosis For which of the following diseases are b. TBC caseous necrosis typical a. Acute myocardial infarct b. TBC c. Acute pancreatitis d. Cerebral infarct e. Pulmonary pneumoconiosis Which of the following types of necroses a. Coagulation necrosis are characteristic for myocardial infarcts a. Coagulation necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Zenker degeneration/Wax degeneration/Zenker wax necrosis Which of the following statements about e. Between two basic types belongs coagulative and liquefactive necrosis are true necroses a. The cell membranes stay intact b. The organelles remain intact c. The nuclear membrane stays intact d. Necrosis don`t induce any inflammatory reaction e. Between two basic types belongs coagulative and liquefactive necroses All the following items are markers for a. Lipofuscin necrosis except a. Lipofuscin b. Pyknosis c. Karyolysis d. Karyorrhexis e. Rupture of cell membranes All of the following substances are b. Hydrogen peroxide examples of exogenous and endogenous antioxidants except a. Catalase b. Hydrogen peroxide c. Glutathione d. Vitamin E e. Vitamin C Free radicals injures cells by chemical c. Glycogen droplets/supply alterations to all of the following structures except a. Cell membranes b. Nucleotides c. Glycogen droplets/supply d. Phospholipids e. Disulfide-bridged proteins Which of the following statements about b. All necrotic cells are dead cell death are true a. All cell death are necrotic b. All necrotic cells are dead c. Every cell death is physiological d. Every cell death is pathological e. Some types of necrotic tissue can regenerate Which of the following phenomena don`t a. Death spots (Livores) belong along the uncertain markers of death a. Death spots (Livores) b. Cessation of breathing c. Cessation of cardiac activity d. Areflexia e. Fall in body temperature Necrosis affecting the pancreas during c. Fat necrosis pancreatitis is termed a. Coagulation necrosis b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Fat necrosis d. Caseous necrosis e. Fibrinoid necrosis Choose which of the following statements b. Its evoked by activating the gene BCL-2 about apoptosis are incorrect a. It affect single cells or groups b. Its evoked by activating the gene BCL-2 c. We can encounter it during viral hepatitis d. It occurs by fragmentation of nuclear chromatin e. It can be physiologic or pathologic For which of the following diseases is e. Viral hepatitis apoptosis the main mechanism of injury a. Brown atrophy of the liver b. Alcoholic injury of the liver c. Overdose of barbiturates d. Acute pancreatitis e. Viral hepatitis At a patient that died from sepsis during b. Coagulation necrosis bacterial endocarditis, it was during autopsy of the parenchyma of the left kidney and spleen found yellow wedge-shaped foci of inflammation under the capsule. It most likely represents a. Liquefactive necrosis b. Coagulation necrosis c. Caseous necrosis d. Hemorrhagic necrosis e. Fibrinoid necrosis Zahn infarct: b. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the intrahepatic branches of the portal vein a. Acute myocardial infarct b. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the intrahepatic branches of the portal vein c. Infarction of the liver due to occlusion of the hepatic artery d. Splenic infarct e. Combined infarct of the liver and spleen due to portal hypertension Which of the statements about dry e. It most often originates secondary to trauma gangrene are correct a. It always develops secondary to venous thrombosis/On the base of venous thrombosis b. It affects predominantly the upper extremities c. Its caused by saprophytic bacteria d. It spreads rapidly and uncontrollably to healthy tissue e. It most often originates secondary to trauma Which of the following manifestations is the c. Karyolysis most reliable indicator of cell death a. Eosinophilic cytoplasm b. Granular cytoplasm c. Karyolysis d. Cell swelling e. Lipofuscin aggregates Hepatocytes undergoing apoptosis from d. Councilman bodies viral disease are represented like a. Barr bodies b. Fibrinoid bodies c. Apoptosomes d. Councilman bodies e. Corpora amylacea Atrophy are least likely caused by d. Progressive hyperplasia a. Deinnervation b. Reduced arterial blood supply c. Aging d. Progressive hyperplasia e. Reduction of hormonal stimulation Hypoplasia originates during c. Inadequate in utero development a. Cells lost secondary to injury in puberty b. Atrophy as a consequence of hormonal failure c. Inadequate in utero development d. Disuse of biological structures e. Ischemia Atrophy is most often associated with d. Chronic decrease of blood supply a. Autolysis b. Enlarged cells c. Abnormal cellular differentiation d. Chronic decrease of blood supply e. Increased cellular proliferation Which of the following changes can be a. Atrophy observed in kidneys during longstanding ureteral obstruction a. Atrophy b. Dysplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy e. Metaplasia All of the following situations are examples d. Endometrium after long-term administration of estrogen of atrophy except a. Skeletal muscle after severing of its motorneuron (opposite) b. Skeletal muscle after long-term immobilization for extremity fracture healed in a cast c. Ovary after hypophysectomy d. Endometrium after long-term administration of estrogen e. Brain in a very old person Which of the following statements about d. Brown atrophy occurs in parenchymatous organs atrophy are correct a. Simple atrophy is the opposite of hyperplasia b. Numerical atrophy can`t originate from permanent cell populations c. Simple atrophy and numerical atrophy can`t be combined d. Brown atrophy occurs in parenchymatous organs e. One of the mechanisms of simple atrophy is autophagocytosis In which of the following organs are aging e. All the answers are correct associated with atrophic changes a. Bone b. Kidneys c. Bone marrow d. Brain e. All the answers are correct Which of the following statements about b. It is a type of simple atrophy (atrophy with fusca atrophy are correct lipofuscin deposition) a. It is a type of numerical atrophy b. It is a type of simple atrophy c. It`s characteristic for CNS d. It occurs during hemosiderin accumulation in tissue e. None of the answers are correct Which of the following are examples of c. Gelatinous atrophy simple atrophy a. Attenuation of the bone marrow b. Aplastic anemia (occurs in bone marrow typically. Serous fat atrophy. Seen in cancer cachexia e.g.) c. Gelatinous atrophy d. Lipomatous atrophy e. Atrophy due to irradiation A 56-year-old obese lady (BMI = 32 kg/m2) d. Atrophy comes in with the development of stenosis of the ureter. Which adaptive changes from chronic ischemia will be displayed by the affected kidney a. Hyperplasia b. Hypertrophy c. Neoplasia d. Atrophy e. Dysplasia During autopsy it's found a marked c. Atrophy and hyaline reduction in the size of the kidney with numerous 1-3 mm large scars on the surface. What will be the most likely histological morphology with this finding a. Edema and neutrophil granulocytosis b. Edema and fibrin c. Atrophy and hyaline d. Lymphocytes and fibrin e. Macrophages and edema Gelatinous atrophy is b. A type of atrophy of adipose tissue a. A type of numerical atrophy b. A type of atrophy of adipose tissue c. Normal and commonly occurs as part d. Characteristic for the bone marrow Which will be the most likely finding on m. c. Reduction in the number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber gastrocnemius of a 35 year-old lady after removal of the cast from the leg after 6 weeks of immobilization a. Conversion of the muscle to fast muscle fibers b. Reduction in the number of muscle fibers c. Reduction in the number of myofibrils in the muscle fiber d. Increase of mitochondria in muscle fibers e. Increased numbers of satellite cells A 28 year-old lady is confined to bed rest e. Atrophy after a fracture of the tibia. When the cast is taken of after 6 weeks, her leg is weak and the patient notices that in comparison with the other the circumference is reduced. Which of the following terms best describes the change that has taken place in the affected musculature a. Metaplasia b. Ischemic necrosis c. Hyperplasia d. Irreversible cellular injury e. Atrophy To the morphologic manifestations of d. Atrophic angular muscle fibers neurogenic muscular atrophy belongs a. Absence of dystrophy b. Perivascular mixed inflammatory infiltrate c. Subtle dispersed necrosis of muscle fibers d. Atrophic angular muscle fibers e. Zenker degeneration Which of the following don`t belong to c. Chronic atrophic cholecystitis simple atrophy a. So-called brown atrophy b. Senile atrophy of the skin c. Chronic atrophic cholecystitis d. Muscular atrophy during denervation e. Muscular atrophy during inactivity Neurogenic atrophy can occur in a. Skeletal muscle a. Skeletal muscle b. The brain c. The spinal cord d. Diencephalon e. Myocardium Which type of amyloid occurs in Familial a. AA amyloid Mediterranean fever a. AA amyloid b. Beta-2-microglobulin c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. Amyloid derived from gelsolin What is the origin of amyloid deposits in d. AL amyloid the kidney in nephrotic syndrome from multiple myeloma a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid A 40-year-old woman has a long-standing b. Tertiary structure of beta-pleated sheets history of abdominal colic and constipation. During biopsy of the large intestine with H and E stain, it's found deposits of light-pink, unstructured material around the vessels in the submucosa. After staining the specimen with Congo, the substance exhibits green birefringence. With which of the following characteristics of proteins are the presence of birefringence connected a. The ability to bind to acid b. Tertiary structure of beta-pleated sheets c. Electrophoretic mobility d. Content of hydroxyproline in the protein e. Molecular weight of the protein During autopsy of a 80-year-old man d. Transthyretin without known genetic disease, there were found subtle deposits of amyloid in the heart. There were not found amyloid deposits in any of the other organs and the patient did not have a history of any chronic inflammatory conditions. What will be the most likely composition of the amyloid a. Amyloid-associated protein (AAP) b. Light-chain immunoglobulins c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. Transthyretin e. Beta-2-amyloid Which type of amyloid occurs in patients a. AA with long-standing rheumatoid arthritis a. AA b. AL c. Prion protein d. AE e. None of the answers are correct Amyloid precusors in the serum don`t d. Fibrinogen include a. SAA b. Beta-2-microglobulin c. Light-chain immunoglobulins d. Fibrinogen e. Prealbumin What is the origin of amyloid deposits in a. AA amyloid patients with paraneoplastic complications of renal carcinoma a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid Interleukin-1 stimulates the liver to produce a. AA amyloid precursors of which of the following amyloids a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid What is the most common cause of death a. Kidney failure in systemic AA amyloidosis a. Kidney failure b. Liver failure c. Intractable diarrhea with metabolic disorders d. Respiratory failure e. None of the answers are correct Deposits of amyloid with beta-2- b. In the synovia and tendons microglobulins we typically find a. In the heart b. In the synovia and tendons c. In skeletal muscle d. In parenchymal organs e. In the leptomeninges Which type of amyloid are found in a. AA amyloid patients with bronchiectasis and chronic inflammation a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid What is the cause of amyloid deposits in b. Beta-amyloid the brain of patients with trisomy 21 a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid Which type of amyloid deposits inside c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin neurons in familial amyloid polyneuropathy a. AA amyloid b. Beta-2-microglobulin c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid What is the correct term for amyloidosis of d. Isolated atrial amyloidosis the heart based on atrial natriuretic polypeptide a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. Isolated atrial amyloidosis e. AE amyloid Which type of amyloid deposits in patients c. Beta-2-microglobulin on hemodialysis a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid Which of the statements about gout don`t c. In chronic gout more joints are normally affected apply a. It`s caused by increased levels of uric acid b. The afflicted suffers from repeated attacks of acute arthritis c. In chronic gout more joints are normally affected d. The characteristic lesion are gouty tophi e. Precipitated urate crystals breach the lysosomal membranes Which substance accumulate in Krabbe`s b. Galactocerebrosides disease a. Glucocerebrosides b. Galactocerebrosides (Krabbe = Spingolipidose. E.g. Affects brain mostly) c. GM2 gangliosides d. Ceramides e. Copper Deficiency of the enzyme alpha-1,4- b. Pompe disease glucosidase cause a. Cori disease b. Pompe disease c. Hurler syndrome d. McArdle syndrome e. Gaucher disease Congenital metabolic disease of c. Glucose-6-phosphatase saccharide metabolism that is characterized by abnormal increase in (Von Gierke disease) concentration of hepatic glycogen of normal structure and failure of increase of serum glucose after peroral intake of fructose. Based on the information given determine which enzyme is affected in this disease a. Fructokinase b. Glucokinase c. Glucose-6-phosphatase d. Phosphoglucomutase e. UDPG-glycogen transglucosylase Which of the organs are affected in Tay- c. Brain Sachs disease a. Endothelia b. Liver c. Brain d. Spleen e. Kidneys What applies to glycogenosis type 1 c. Defect of release of glucose from glycogen in the liver a. Block of conversion of glycogen to maltose b. Defect of glycolysis in the muscle c. Defect of release of glucose from glycogen in the liver d. Accumulation of proteoglycans e. None of the answers are correct In which of the following diseases are the d. Krabbe disease injury mainly to glial cells a. Marfan's disease b. Fabry's disease c. Niemann-Pick disease d. Krabbe disease e. Anderson disease In which of the following diseases is there a a. Niemann-Pick disease characteristic accumulation in macrophages a. Niemann-Pick disease b. Fabry disease c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Cereoidlipofuschinosis e. Pompe disease Leukodystrophy is a term that indicates a. Lysosomal dysfunction of the glial cells a. Lysosomal dysfunction of the glial cells b. Lysosomal dysfunction of leukocytes c. Lysosomal dysfunction of endothelia d. Regressive changes of leukocytes e. This term don`t exist In which of the following diseases does c. Tay-Sachs disease hepatosplenomegaly not occur a. Leukemia b. Lysosomal enzymopathy c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Gierke disease e. Gaucher disease Hepatosplenomegaly is discovered in a 3- c. Lysosomal hydrolases year-old body with mental retardation. Analysis of the tissue specimen obtained by biopsy shows unusually large amounts of glcuocerebrosides. This disease reflect a deficiency in which of the following enzymes a. Hormone-sensitive lipase b. Lipoprotein-lipase c. Lysosomal hydrolases d. Sphingolipid synthase e. Tissue phospholipases Which of the following lysosomal storage c. Gaucher disease diseases are caused by deficiency of beta-glucocerebrosidase a. Pompe disease b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Gaucher disease d. Niemann-Pick disease e. Fucosidosis Defect of hexosaminidase A is the cause of d. Tay-Sachs disease which disease a. Von Gierke disease b. Pompe disease c. McArdle disease d. Tay-Sachs disease e. Wilson`s disease What is the lethal lysosomal disease c. Tay-Sachs disease termed which manifests itself in infancy with mental retardation and blindness a. Phenylketonuria b. Spina bifida c. Tay-Sachs disease d. Osteogenesis imperfecta e. Duchenne muscular dystrophy Which of the following diseases don`t a. Alcaptonuria belong among lysosomal storage disorders a. Alcaptonuria b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Gaucher disease d. Niemann-Pick disease e. Mucopolysaccharidoses What is the origin of amyloid deposits in d. AL amyloid patients with B non-Hodgkins lymphoma? a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid Which of the following stains stain amyloid a. Congo red a. Congo red b. Thioflavin-T c. Methyl violet d. Alcian blue e. Prussian blue What is the origin of the most common a. AA amyloid amyloid deposit in patients with Hodgkin`s disease a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid Amyloidosis arising from chronic b. SAA protein (Serum amyloid A) inflammatory conditions are responsible for the increase in serum levels of which of the following proteins a. Immunoglobulins b. SAA protein (Serum amyloid A) c. Transthyretin d. Beta-2-microglobulin e. Calcitonin Amyloid a. Is always localized extracellularly a. Is always localized extracellularly b. Is bound to epithelial structures c. Is commonly a component of cells of parenchymal organs d. Usually doesn't injure organs e. Induce inflammatory changes in its surroundings Amyloid have all of the following e. Induces an inflammatory reaction in the surroundings components except a. Amorphic eosinophilic appearance in histological specimens stained with H and E b. Yellow-green birefringence after staining with Congo red c. Fibrillary structure in electron microscopy d. Stains similarly as starch with Lugol solution e. Induces an inflammatory reaction in the surroundings Which type of amyloidosis can arise in the a. AA amyloid setting of chronic suppurative osteomyelitis a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid What is the origin of deposits of amyloid in e. AE amyloid the islets of Langerhans in a patient with diabetes mellitus a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Amyloid derived from transthyretin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid Which enzyme is defective in Fabry disease a. Alpha-galactosidase a. Alpha-galactosidase b. Hexosaminidase A and B c. Fructokinase d. Beta-galactosidase e. Acid lipase Patients with Fabry disease usually die from b. Cardiovasculars injury a. Anemia b. Cardiovasculars injury c. Liver failure d. Respiratory failure e. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma of the B line Patients with Pompe disease will most likely a. Cells with cytoplasmic brightening or vacuolization have a. Cells with cytoplasmic brightening or vacuolization b. Accumulation of hyaline c. Cells with abnormal staining with Prussian blue d. Accumulation of pigment e. Metaplastic cells in some organ What is the best description of hyaline a. Eosinophilic amorphous material present intra- or extracellularly a. Eosinophilic amorphous material present intra- or extracellularly b. Eosinophilic amorphous material present only extracellularly c. Refractive material with Sudan black d. Granular material connected with necrotic tissue e. Light-colored cells as a result of increased content of water Example of dystrophic calcification is: a. Calcification damaging the aortic valve a. Calcification damaging the aortic valve (anything heart valves, caseous necrosis, atherosclerosis, porcelain gall bladder) b. Bone ossification in the process of skeletal growth c. Deposits of calcium in the kidneys during hyperparathyroidism d. Renal concrements e. Saponification in necrosis Which of the following applies to acute d. It can occur after therapy for hematologic malignancies gout a. It can occur after a large ingestion of chicken meat in a short period b. It can be caused by taking ASA in hypersensitive individuals c. It`s a primary metabolic defect d. It can occur after therapy for hematologic malignancies e. Cholesterol ester crystals can be demonstrated What is the most common cause of c. Ethanol steatosis of the liver a. Anemia b. Chloroform c. Ethanol d. Hypercholesterolemia e. Pre-eclampsia (EPH gestóza) Cells exposed to hypoxia can have all of d. Decrease of glycolysis the following consequences except a. Damaged oxidative phosphorylation b. Decrease in ATP reserve c. Release of enzymes to the blood d. Decrease of glycolysis e. Decrease of cell volume Which of the following statements applies a. Clinical triad - Neuropathy, Myopathy, Cardiomyopathy to congenital mitochondrial defects a. Clinical triad - Neuropathy, Myopathy, Cardiomyopathy b. Hypoglycemia c. AD heredity d. AR heredity e. Decreased levels of lactate What are the causes of steatosis of the liver b. Inhibition of oxidation of fatty acids from the effects of free radicals on enzymes a. Ingrowth of adipose tissue to the stromal connective tissue b. Inhibition of oxidation of fatty acids from the effects of free radicals on enzymes c. Action of pancreatic enzymes on triglycerides d. Changes of the staining properties of cells due to accumulation of ER e. Accumulation of apoprotein as a consequence of increased proteosynthesis In which form are lipids accumulated in e. Triglycerides hepatocytes in hepatic steatosis a. Cholesterol ester b. Fatty acids c. Lipoproteins d. Phospholipids e. Triglycerides Which of the following terms are not d. Tiger effect on heart connected with progressive lysosomal dysfunction (Tiger heart = Yellow stripes of heart due to fatty degeneration) a. Granulocytes in the CNS b. Sphingomyelinosis c. Strawberry gallbladder d. Tiger effect on heart e. Post-inflammatory pseudoxanthoma Which of the following terms don't belong d. Gangliosidosis to steatosis from lysosomal dysfunction a. Tiger effect on heart b. Green Amanita/Amanita phalloides mushroom poisoning c. Phosphorus intoxication d. Gangliosidosis e. Starvation In which of the following conditions can d. Hypokalemia one see hydropic degeneration of the epithelia of the renal tubules a. Chronic alcoholism b. Tetrachlormethane/CCl4 poisoning c. Excessive renal loss of sodium d. Hypokalemia e. Lead poisoning Which of the following e. Water substances/organelles are increased in so- called tumefactio turbida a. Calcium b. ER c. Lipids d. Potassium e. Water Hyaline transformation of connective tissue b. Corpus albicans are found physiologically in a. Ganglions b. Corpus albicans c. Fibrinoid necrosis d. Cornea e. Corpora amylacea Russel bodies are represented like d. Gammaglobulins in plasma cells a. Inclusions in Rabies-infected ganglion cells b. Intranuclear inclusions in epidermal cells in Varicella c. Intracytoplasmic bodies in Variola d. Gammaglobulins in plasma cells e. Inclusions of products from the ubiquitination process in old people Perisplenitis cartilaginea is an example of e. Fibrous transformation of connective tissue a. Fibrinoid transformation of connective tissue b. Transparent transformation of connective tissue c. Myxoid transformation of connective tissue d. Hyaline transformation of connective tissue e. Fibrous transformation of connective tissue Which of the following are not examples of e. Splendore-Hoeppli bodies/phenomenon 'hyaline droplets' deposits a. Mallory bodies b. Russel bodies c. Crooke hyaline degeneration/change of the basophilic hypophysis d. Deposits of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the liver e. Splendore-Hoeppli bodies/phenomenon Transparent connective tissue is c. Cornea characteristic for a. Ganglion b. Myxedema c. Cornea d. Corpus albicans e. Stroma of the renal papillary What is the origin of amyloid deposits in e. AE amyloid medullary carcinoma of the thyroid a. AA amyloid b. Beta-amyloid c. Beta-2-microglobulin d. AL amyloid e. AE amyloid Marfan syndrome is a. Autosomal-dominant defect of the glycoprotein fibrillin a. Autosomal-dominant defect of the glycoprotein fibrillin b. Genetic determined defect of collagen type III c. Defect of maturation of collagen type I d. Hyalinosis of the wall of coronary vessels e. One of the glycogenoses Contago disease (polyserositis) are based a. Hyaline alteration of connective tissue on a. Hyaline alteration of connective tissue b. Fibrinoid alteration of connective tissue c. Myxoid alteration of connective tissue d. Transparent alteration of connective tissue e. Storage disease Fibrinoid changes of connective tissue c. Rheumatic fever typically occurs during a. Hyperuricemia b. Diabetes c. Rheumatic fever d. Myxedema e. Chronic irritation Which of the following conditions c. Hypercalcemia predispose to metastatic calcification a. Necrosis of adipose tissue b. Bone fracture c. Hypercalcemia d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. TBC Which of the following statements applies b. It can be caused by caseous necrosis to dystrophic calcification a. It can originate during hypercalcemia b. It can be caused by caseous necrosis c. It can be caused by hyperthyroidism (Dystrophic calcifications = Occur in necrotic or other regressive changed tissues) d. It can be caused by hypoparathyroidism e. It can develop from osteolytic malignant metastases Which of the following sentences don`t a. Increased number of cytoplasmic organelles relate to hydropic cell swelling a. Increased number of cytoplasmic organelles b. Dilated cisterns of ER c. Injury to the cell volume regulatory mechanisms d. Influx of sodium ion to the cell e. Efflux of potassium out of the cell Which of the following are examples of a a. Myxoid modulation of connective tissue ganglion ? a. Myxoid modulation of connective tissue b. Transparent modulation of connective tissue c. Fibrinoid modulation of connective tissue d. Hyaline modulation of connective tissue e. Proliferative changes So-called pemzové (''spongious'') lungs are c. Osteolytic metastases most commonly found in patients with a. Lipidosis b. Mucoviscidosis c. Osteolytic metastases d. Connective tissue defects e. Kidney failure on dialysis Which of the following statements about c. Dystrophic calcification often originates from caseous necrosis calcification are correct a. Metastatic calcification is most commonly caused by hypervitaminosis D b. Dystrophic calcification never originates from neoplasms c. Dystrophic calcification often originates from caseous necrosis d. Metastatic calcification affects the tunica media of muscular arteries e. Calcification never affects the cornea Which substance cause thorny, hard, dark- b. Oxalate brown concrements a. Urate b. Oxalate c. Cholesterol d. Mixed e. Phosphate What are examples of lipomatosis d. The presence of adipocytes between muscle fibers of the right ventricle of the heart a. Aggregations of cholesterol in macrophages b. Aggregations of neutral fat in hepatocytes during alcoholic liver damage c. Digestion of adipose tissue of the peritoneum during acute necrotic pancreatitis d. The presence of adipocytes between muscle fibers of the right ventricle of the heart e. Hyperlipidemia during nephrotic syndrome The cause of Reye's syndrome is usually b. Defects of beta-oxidation of fatty acids a. Disorders of lipoprotein synthesis b. Defects of beta-oxidation of fatty acids c. Excessive endocytosis of lipids d. Glycogen aggregations e. None of the answers are correct Which of the following statements are e. Hyaline in the dye blue trichrome stains blue, like collagen in connective tissue correct a. Caseous necrosis is a typical cause of tissue ischemia b. Amyloid exhibits light green birefringence after staining with Berlin blue c. Post-mortem autolysis is characteristic for the vital reaction (inflammation) to necrotic cells d. Russel bodies are produced predominantly by ubiquitination e. Hyaline in the dye blue trichrome stains blue, like collagen in connective tissue In the tissue of patients with Tay-Sachs c. GM2 gangliosides disease we find increased content of a. Sphingomyelin b. Hexosaminidase A c. GM2 gangliosides d. Cerebrosides e. Keratin sulfate Which of the following diseases are c. Gaucher disease connected with defects in the degradation of cerebrosides a. Tay-Sachs disease b. Niemann-Pick disease c. Gaucher disease d. Wolman disease e. Tangier disease Hunter and Hurler`s disease belongs to a. Mucopolysaccharidoses a. Mucopolysaccharidoses b. Mucoviscidoses c. Gangliosidoses d. Glycogenoses e. A and B are correct Which of the following characteristics are d. Its caused by inflammatory reactions not typical for amyloid a. It has an amorphous eosinophilic appearance in histologic preparations b. It shows yellow-green birefringence after being stained with Congo red c. In electron microscopy it has a fibrillary structure d. Its caused by inflammatory reactions e. It stains similarly to starch with Lugol solution The liver are not injured during e. Tay-Sachs disease a. Glycogenosis type IV/Andersen disease b. Galactosemia c. Niemann-Pick disease d. Wilson`s disease e. Tay-Sachs disease The clinical manifestations of patients with a. Mental retardation Niemann-Pick disease don`t include a. Mental retardation b. Lung involvement c. Liver involvement d. Renal involvement e. Muscle defects Homogenous eosinophilic cytoplasmic c. Russel bodies inclusions in plasma cells are called a. Dutcher bodies b. Corpora amylacea c. Russel bodies d. Hyaline nuclei e. Glycogen nuclei The foci of aggregation of macrophages b. Cholesterolosis filled with cholesterol esters in the mucosa of the gallbladder are known as a. Lipomatous atrophy b. Cholesterolosis c. Atheroma d. Granuloma e. Xanthoma During porphyria porphyrins accumulate in a. Bones a. Bones b. Brain (porphyria = accumulation of porphyrin. Porphyrin = heme constituent) c. Lungs d. Gut e. Stomach Spotty depigmentation after inflammation b. Leukoderma or burns are known as a. Vitiligo b. Leukoderma c. Café-au-lait d. Lentigo e. Amelanosis To visualize melanin we use c. Fontana-Masson stain a. Von Kossa stain b. Cajal stain c. Fontana-Masson stain d. Melanin can't be stained in tissue e. Sulfátem nilské modře Ochronosis is characterized by b. Defect of homogentisic acid metabolism a. Presence of birefringent crystals in the synovium (Oochronosis = Accumulation of phenolic acids in CT > Yellow discolouration of b. Defect of homogentisic acid metabolism tendons) c. It's connected with homocystinuria d. It originates as a consequence of hyperuricemia e. None of the answers are correct The essence of ochronosis is a metabolic a. Tyrosine defect of a. Tyrosine b. Phenylalanine c. Melanin d. Alanine e. Purines Hepatocellular icterus is not characterized e. It's synonymous with so-called verdin icterus in patients with neoplastic diseases by a. Acholic (pale) stools b. Rubin colored skin c. Biirubin in the urine d. Pruritus e. It's synonymous with so-called verdin icterus in patients with neoplastic diseases Rubin icterus is the designation for d. Hepatocellular icterus a. Hemolytic icterus b. Nuclear icterus c. Obstructive icterus d. Hepatocellular icterus e. It don't exist Which of the following statements about c. Have tightly bound iron Malaria pigment are correct a. Originates from the cell wall of plasmodia b. Originating from globin defects c. Have tightly bound iron d. Can be visualized by the Pearls reaction e. Correspond with anthracotic pigments from impurities of the remains of plasmodia The pigment hematin is found a. In gangrenous tissue changes a. In gangrenous tissue changes b. During intracellular hemolysis c. In Wilson's disease d. In the pancreas in so-called bronze diabetes e. During hemosiderosis During porphyria porphyrins don't c. In the intestine accumulate a. In the liver (Porphyria = accumulation of porphyrins (part of heme) > affects skin mostly) b. In the teeth c. In the intestine d. In cartilage e. In erythrocytes The pigment hematin can be found a. In the foam of bleeding peptic ulcers a. In the foam of bleeding peptic ulcers b. In secondary hemochromatosis c. During siderosis d. During intravascular hemolysis e. In pigmented cirrhosis Hemosiderosis is associated with e. Repeated hemolysis a. Decreased levels of iron transport proteins b. Increased intestinal absorption of iron c. Excessive iron supply in food d. CNS involvement e. Repeated hemolysis In ochronosis homogentisic acid b. Cartilage accumulates in a. Muscle b. Cartilage c. Bone d. Kidneys e. Liver Which type of icterus accompanies pruritus a. Mechanical a. Mechanical b. Hepatotoxic c. Hemolytic (Pruritus = itchiness) d. Nuclear e. None All of the following substances cause c. Carbon particles reversible accumulation in hepatocytes except a. Fat from consumption of fatty food products b. Iron from hemolyzed erythrocytes c. Carbon particles d. Vitamin B12 e. Glycogen Which of the following substances causes b. Bilirubin the so-called kernicterus (nuclear icterus) a. Melanin b. Bilirubin c. Lipofuscin d. Hemosiderin e. Hematin A 45-year-old man with abdominal c. Hemosiderin discomfort discovers a yellow discoloration of his sclera and skin. Physical exam reveals hepatomegaly and icterus. Pearls stain of a liver biopsy is clearly positive. Which substance are stored in the hepatocytes a. Haptoglobin b. Hematin c. Hemosiderin d. Bilirubin e. Transferrin Which of the following statements about e. It stains like fat (neutral lipids) lipofuscin are incorrect a. Its located in residual lysosomal bodies b. Its commonly found in organs of the elderly c. Its soluble in organic solvents d. It can occur in the cytoplasm of neurons e. It stains like fat (neutral lipids) Which of the following pigments have a d. Nonconjugated bilirubin toxic effect on neurons a. Melanin b. Ceroid c. Hematin d. Nonconjugated bilirubin e. Conjugated bilirubin Which of the following substances d. Ceroid accumulates in the intestine in melanosis coli a. Hemosiderin b. Melanin c. Lipochrome d. Ceroid e. Hematoidin A 3-week old boy arrives to the doctor e. Biliary obstruction with jaundice. The mom says the child has been having dark urine, and the symptoms have lasted around 2 weeks. The boy has hepatomegaly, fluid ashen- gray, acholic stools. Blood tests show elevated levels of conjugated bilirubin. What is the most likely cause of his hyperbilirubinemia a. Defect in cholesterol synthesis b. Deficiency of UDP- Glucuronyltransferase c. Hemolysis d. Inflammation of the terminal ileum e. Biliary obstruction During degradation of hemoglobin, iron is a. To the liver transported a. To the liver b. To the spleen c. To the bone marrow d. To the kidneys e. None of the answers are correct Which of the following clinically associated e. Vitiligo - Melanin manifestations and increased deposits of pigment or other compound are incorrectly matched (It is not increased but decreased pigment) a. CCl4 poisoning - Fat b. Hemolytic anemia - Bilirubin c. Hereditary hemochromatosis - Hemosiderin d. Atrophy of hepatocytes and myocytes - Lipofuscin e. Vitiligo - Melanin Which of the following pigments are a. Hemosiderin stained by Preussian blue a. Hemosiderin b. Melanin c. Bilirubin d. Lipofuscin e. Anthracotic pigments During autopsy of a 90-year-old female c. Advanced age with compensated diabetes and Alzheimer disease the pathologist notices yellow-brown deposits in the (General wear and tear = Lipofuscin accumulation) hepatocytes that don't stain with Pearls reaction. Which of the following conditions accounts for this pigment accumulation a. Alzheimer disease b. Diabetic ketoacidosis c. Advanced age d. Hereditary hemochromatosis e. Congested heart failure Which of the following statements about b. It can normally be discovered in macrophages hemosiderin are correct a. To maintain its stable concentration in the body the excess is secreted in bile b. It can normally be discovered in macrophages c. It can originate from degraded porphyrin rings d. It's the source of Mallory bodies e. It's generated as a complex of iron and cellular lipids Chloasma uterinum: c. Its increased pigmentation in the region of linea fusca and the breasts a. Is a localized hormonally conditioned decrease of skin pigmentation b. It originates from UV radiation c. Its increased pigmentation in the region of linea fusca and the breasts d. It originates from superficial skin inflammations e. Its increased levels of lipofuscin pigmentation of the myometrium during pregnancy A 65-year-old man dies from a myocardial d. Anthracosis infarct. A histopathological exam of the lungs reveals numerous dark- (in my mind it makes so much more sense that it would be silicosis) colored regions and there are similarly pigmented intrathoracic lymph nodes. The pleura show similar discoloration, but in the ribs the pigmentation is weaker. What is the correct diagnosis: a. Hemosiderosis b. Sarcoidosis c. Silicosis d. Anthracosis e. Asbestosis The hepatocytes contain cytoplasmic a. Hemosiderin, Lipofuscin, or bilirubin brown granular pigments. Which pigments can it be a. Hemosiderin, Lipofuscin, or bilirubin b. Lipofuscin, Hematin, Mallory hyaline c. Mallory hyaline, Lipofuscin, Hemosiderin d. Anthracotic pigment, Amyloid, Lipofuscin e. Bilirubin, Neutral lipids, Hemosiderin, Melanin Which of the following substances only d. Lipofuscin accumulates intracellularly a. Amyloid b. Lipids c. Melanin d. Lipofuscin e. Hematoidin Which of the following pigments are b. Lipofuscin associated with brown atrophy a. Melanin b. Lipofuscin c. Bilirubin d. Hemosiderin e. Anthracotic pigment Yellowish-brown granules, which stains b. Hemosiderin blue with Berlin blue were found in hepatocytes and Kuppfer cells in a man with hemochromatosis. Which substance does the granules contain a. Transferrin b. Hemosiderin c. Hemoglobin d. Bilirubin e. Biliverdin Change of the color of the lung c. Anthracotic pigments parenchyma in city dwellers can be caused by a. Melanin b. Bilirubin c. Anthracotic pigments d. Hemosiderin e. Lipofuscin Which of the following pigments are a. Melanin derived from tyrosine (Think of Albinism, which is a tyrosinase deficiency) a. Melanin b. Bilirubin c. Lipofuscin d. Hemosiderin e. Anthracotic pigment In which of the following locations are b. Macrophages of the bone marrow there normally found hemosiderin a. Hepatocytes b. Macrophages of the bone marrow c. Mucosa of the small intestine d. Alveolar macrophages e. Basal layer of keratinocytes Which of the following statements about a. We can detect it in atrophied organs lipofuscin are correct a. We can detect it in atrophied organs b. Its amount declines with age c. Its toxic for cells. Its high levels cause cell death d. Usually it originates in the process of coagulation necrosis e. It can be stained by Preussian blue Secondary gout are not associated with d. Abetalipoproteinemia a. Repeated transfusions b. Hemolytic anemia c. Leukemia d. Abetalipoproteinemia e. Chemotherapy Macrophages produce all of the following d. Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMPs) mediators except a. Growth factors b. Cytokines c. Metalloproteinases d. Tissue inhibitors of metalloproteinases (TIMPs) e. Free radicals Which of the following cells are capable of e. Macrophages proper phagocytosis a. T lymphocytes b. Plasma cells c. B lymphocytes d. Mast cells e. Macrophages Which of the following types of cells are c. T lymphocytes present in the highest amount a. Basophils b. B lymphocytes c. T lymphocytes d. Plasma cells e. Mast cells All of the following statements about the c. Conjugate bilirubin monocyte-macrophage system are correct, except a. They work as the main line of defense during liquidation of Histoplasma capsulatum b. They phagocytose old or impaired host cells c. Conjugate bilirubin d. Produce mediators facilitating cell growth e. Store iron All the following substances mediate c. TGF-beta increased vascular permeability except a. Histamine b. C5a c. TGF-beta d. Bradykinin e. Leukotriene C4 Histamine mediates d. Increased vascular permeability a. Leukocytosis in the acute phase of the inflammatory response b. Emigration and chromatosis c. Phagocytosis d. Increased vascular permeability e. Increased secretion during bacterial infection Charcot joint (Degenerative joint disease of e. Tabes dorsalis 3rd stage of syphilis) is due to a. Production of immune complexes (Tabes dorsalis = demyelination of dorsal horns due to syphillis) b. Central paresis c. Production of gummae in the syonviae d. Severe vasculitis of the synovial membrane e. Tabes dorsalis A 4-year-old boy with recurrent infections d. NADPH oxidase deficiency with S. aureus and failure of the respiratory burst most likely has a. Defect of spectrin of the cell membrane b. Defect of polymerization of microtubules c. IgG deficiency d. NADPH oxidase deficiency e. Myeloperoxidase deficiency Granule from which of the following cell c. Eosinophils types contains refractory material that can produce Charcot-Leyden crystals in the sputum of asthmatics a. Neutrophils b. Macrophages c. Eosinophils d. Mast cells e. Plasma cells Which of the following tissue changes is c. Fibrinoid necrosis with a histiocytic rim characteristic for rheumatic nodules a. Caseous necrosis with a histiocytic rim b. Suppurative necrosis with granulocytes c. Fibrinoid necrosis with a histiocytic rim d. Necrotizing arteritis with regional infection e. Several multinuclear giant cells from foreign bodies with crystals Which of the following statements about c. It has a wall formed of connective tissue, without epithelia pseudocysts of the pancreas are correct a. Its lined by mucin-producing epithelium b. It's a congenital anomaly associated with CF of the pancreas c. It has a wall formed of connective tissue, without epithelia d. Its an acquired condition, predisposition is of AD heredity e. It's a neoplastic origin, lined by dysplastic epithelium X-ray of a patient with chronic cough e. Granuloma reveals well-confined spherical foci in the upper lung lobe. Histologically the foci produces a necrotic center surrounded by macrophages, a small amount of lymphocytes and scattered multinuclear giant cells. What is the most likely diagnosis a. Amyloidosis b. Abscess c. Pulmonary infarct d. Fibrinous exudate e. Granuloma In tuberculous leprosy we can find d. Langhans cells a. Mikulicz cells b. Facies leontina c. Virchow cells d. Langhans cells e. Granulomas with caseous necrosis and multiple mycobacteria If a macrophage increases in size, becomes b. Epitheloid cell round, and increase its amount of cytoplasm, we can call it a a. Giant cell b. Epitheloid cell c. Langhans cell d. Myofibroblast e. Monocyte Fistula is best defined as b. Abnormal communication among surfaces and cavities a. Focal defect of superficial tissue b. Abnormal communication among (Fistula = Abnormal connection between 2 cavities. Usually due to a trauma) surfaces and cavities c. Any area of tissue necrosis d. Focal accumulation of pus e. Epithelium lining a cavity filled with liquid Which of the following statements about c. It's a form of hyaline deposit granulation tissue are not correct a. It produces proliferating capillaries and fibroblasts b. It plays the most important role in healing by secondary intention c. It's a form of hyaline deposit d. Myofibroblasts are typically present e. It's an integrated part of the inflammation process Which of the following substances are e. Histamine released from the granules of leukocytes a. Bradykinin b. C3a c. Leukotriene B4 d. C5a e. Histamine Tissue swelling in association with e. Increased vascular permeability inflammation are caused primarily by a. Lymphatic obstruction b. Increased hydrostatic pressure c. Fluid transudation d. Increased amount of intracellular liquid e. Increased vascular permeability The main clinical signs of inflammation are' b. Erythema a. Pallor b. Erythema c. Increased appetite d. Affected tissues are cold on palpation e. Dryness of the affected tissue C3a and C5a activates c. Mast cells a. Eosinophilic granules b. Polymorphonuclear granulocytes c. Mast cells d. Macrophages e. Plasma cells Which of the following diseases are c. SLE typically associated with antiphospholipid antibodies a. Polymyositis (SLE = Systemic Lupus Erythomateoutus kukfettskithelvete) b. Ankylosing spondylitis c. SLE d. CREST syndrome e. Sjogren syndrome Which of the following substances are d. Bradykinin involved in acute inflammation to increase the vascular permeability and cause pain a. Endotoxin b. Complement c. Histamin d. Bradykinin e. Interleukin 6 Which of the following findings are the a. Increased levels of serum fibrinogen most typical for reactions of the acute inflammatory phase a. Increased levels of serum fibrinogen b. Hypertension c. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate d. Decreased degradation of skeletal muscle protein e. Decreased release of PGE2 in hypothalamus Which of the following substances b. Antigen-antibody complexes primarily activate the complement system a. Kallikrein b. Antigen-antibody complexes c. Free oxygen radicals d. Leukotrienes e. IL-1 Emigration and accumulation of d. Chemotaxis polymorphonuclear cells in the area of acute inflammation are due to a. Active hyperemia b. Hydrostatic pressure c. Increased microvascular permeability d. Chemotaxis e. None of the answers are correct A skin biopsy is taken at the site of infection b. Leukotriene B4 in a patient with recurrent infections. The biopsy shows marked decreased numbers of neutrophils in the inflammatory foci. Which of the following chemical mediators are the patient most likely to be deficient in a. C3a b. Leukotriene B4 c. C3b d. Histamine e. Leukotriene E4 Select from the following qualities which a. Surface receptors for complement best characterizes neutrophils a. Surface receptors for complement b. Kidney-shaped nucleus c. Gene rearrangement d. Metachromatic granules e. Antibody production Which autoimmune disease is characterized a. Systemic lupus erythematosus by immune deposits in the skin, lungs, and kidneys a. Systemic lupus erythematosus b. Sjogren syndrome c. Systemic scleroderma d. Graft-versus-host reaction e. Calcinosis cuti All of the following statements about a. They contain azurophilic granules macrophages are correct except a. They contain azurophilic granules (Azurophilic granules = In neutrophils) b. They stimulate fibroblast proliferation c. They stimulate endothelial proliferation d. They release lytic enzymes to their surrounding environment e. They present antigen Chose from the following options what b. Inhibit phospholipase A2 best explains the anti- inflammatory effect of corticosteroids a. Increase leukocyte adhesion to endothelia b. Inhibit phospholipase A2 c. Destroy eosinophils d. Inhibit COX e. Inhibit lipoxygenase Which of the following processes are d. Phagosome-lysosome fusion affected in Chediak-Higashi syndrome a. Margination (Chediak-Higashi = AR, lysosoma trafficking protein is lacking > No phagolysosome b. Recognition fusion) c. Antibody production d. Phagosome-lysosome fusion e. Apoptosis of autoimmune clones of lymphocytes Which of the following diseases are b. Hashimoto thyroiditis autoimmune a. Asthma bronchiale (Hashimoto = Progressive thyroid destruction. Gives hypothyroidism.) b. Hashimoto thyroiditis c. Histoplasmosis d. AIDS e. Hepatitis B Which of the following substances don't a. Anaphylotoxins originate from phospholipids in the plasma membrane (Anaphylotoxins = Complement peptides. e.g. C5a and C3a) a. Anaphylotoxins b. Platelet activating factor c. Thromboxane A2 d. PGE2 e. Leukotriene B4 A peripheral leukocyte count of 17 000/ml c. Leukocytosis is regarded as a. Normal (>12.000 = Leukocytosis. HOCl-(bleach)) a. Killing bacteria b. Recognizing bacteria c. The process of marginating to vessels d. Chemotaxis e. Ingesting bacteria C5a is produced by activation of the a. C5a is the main component of the final membrane attack complex, which cause complement system, which exerts its bacterial lysis most important role in the acute inflammatory reaction. Which of the following statements about C5a are not correct a. C5a is the main component of the final membrane attack complex, which cause bacterial lysis b. C5a is produced during activation of the complement system by the classic pathway c. C5a is produced during activation of the alternative complement pathway d. C5a is the main agent causing chemotaxis for neutrophils during acute inflammation e. C5a don't participate in cell adhesion to endothelia Which of the following substances mediate a. IL-1 and TNF the systemic effects of inflammation, have chemotactic properties and stimulates adhesion molecules a. IL-1 and TNF b. C5a and Leukotriene B4 c. C3b and C5-9 d. Leukotrienes C4-E4 e. Bradykinin and prostaglandin E2 Which of the following substances are not d. Interferon gamma produced by activated macrophages (IFN-y is used to activate macrophages. Produced by Th cells + others) a. Transforming growth factor beta (TGF- beta) b. PDGF c. Nitric oxide d. Interferon gamma e. Arachidonic acid metabolites Which of the following statements applies c. They contain two types of cytoplasmic granules to polymorphonuclear cells a. Their granules contains histamine b. They recirculate permanently in the bloodstream c. They contain two types of cytoplasmic granules d. They originate from monocytes/macrophages e. They contain abundant rough endoplasmic reticulum A newborn arrives with failure of d. Neutrophil adhesion molecules segregation of the umbilical cord. Histologic section taken surgically from the umbilical cord reveals a lack of marginalization and diapedesis of leukocytes. These clinical and histologic features are most likely associated with a defect of a. Complement activation b. Microtubule polymerization c. Respiratory burst d. Neutrophil adhesion molecules e. Myeloperoxidase production Schloffer tumor a. Variant of granuloma from foreign bodies a. Variant of granuloma from foreign bodies b. Metastasis of mucin-producing adenocarcinoma to ovary c. Renal clear cell carcinoma d. Diffuse adenocarcinoma of the stomach e. Ulcus rodens (basal cell carcinoma) localized in the temporal region Which of the following substances are most b. Leukotriene B4 important for chemotaxis a. Histamine b. Leukotriene B4 c. Leukotriene C4 d. Prostaglandin D2 e. Hagemann factor Tuberculous leprosy predominantly e. Peripheral nerves involves the a. Liver b. Lymph nodes c. Face d. Nose e. Peripheral nerves Bacteria can from the infectious focus c. integration to host DNA spread or disseminate/propagate by all of the following means, except a. Production of hyaluronidase b. Phagocytosis c. integration to host DNA d. Invasion to blood vessels e. Invasion to lymphatic vessels Acute red discoloration of the skin in the b. Congestion of capillaries in the dermis earliest phase of a sun burn is caused by a. Multiplication of pigment in the basal (Congestion = Excessive fluid in tissues) layer of the epidermis b. Congestion of capillaries in the dermis c. Edema of the dermis d. Fibrinoid necrosis e. Bleeding to the dermis The content of blisters is an example of a. Serous which type of exudate a. Serous b. Fibrinous c. Suppurative d. Pseudomembranous e. Catarrhal Which of the following types of a. Serous inflammation is typical for acute rhinitis a. Serous b. Pablan c. Fibrinous d. Purulent e. Interstitial Military TB is directly caused by a. Hematogenous spread of TBC a. Hematogenous spread of TBC b. Endobronchial spread of TBC c. Respiratory primary infection of TBC in a host with decreased immunity d. Respiratory reinfection of TBC in a host with decreased immunity e. Miliary scrofulosis Which of the following cells are d. Neutrophilic granulocytes characteristic for suppurative inflammations a. Lymphocytes b. Fibroblasts c. Plasma cells d. Neutrophilic granulocytes e. Macrophages Which of the following conditions are least e. Metaplasia likely to be seen in an area of acute inflammation a. Congested vessels b. Polymorphonuclear cells c. Edema d. Necrosis e. Metaplasia The presence of which of the following a. Epithelioid macrophages findings characterizes a completely developed granuloma a. Epithelioid macrophages b. Liquefactive necrosis c. Fibrinous exudate d. Suppurative inflammation e. Mass of mast cells Which of the following infections/infectious e. Pertussis agents don't cause granulomatous inflammation a. Berylliosis b. Reaction around foreign material c. Mycotic infections d. Leprosy e. Pertussis A 1-year-old boy has had repeated S. b. Chronic granulomatosis aureus infections. NADPH oxidase deficiency, that is, the inability to create hydrogen peroxide is discovered in the (Chronic granulomatosis = Group of diseases that all have problem forming ROS > neutrophils. What is the most likely Worse ability to kill pathogens) diagnosis a. Chediak-Higashi syndrome b. Chronic granulomatosis c. Job syndrome d. Lazy leukocyte syndrome e. Myeloperoxidase defect In which of the following inflammatory b. Furuncle disorders does one find regular necrosis without exudate a. Phlegmon b. Furuncle c. Erysipelas d. Serous inflammation e. Empyema Rank the right order of the following b. 2-1-3-4 processes seen in inflammatory reactions. 1. Diapedesis 2. Adhesion to the endothelium 3. Chemotaxis 4. Degranulation a. 1-2-3-4 b. 2-1-3-4 c. 3-2-4-1 d. 2-3-1-4 e. 4-1-3-2 In which of the following conditions do we a. Asthma bronchiale find large numbers of eosinophilic granulocytes in the exudate a. Asthma bronchiale b. Viral infection c. Leprosy d. Coccidioidomycosis e. TBC Purulent exudate is best characterized like c. Neutrophils and fluid rich in protein a. Pus mixed with necrotic epithelia b. Macrophages and connective tissue c. Neutrophils and fluid rich in protein d. Fluid without protein present e. Proliferating fibroblasts Phagocytosis is amplified by the action of d. C3b a. C1 (C3b works by opsonization) b. C3a c. Lysozyme d. C3b e. C5a Inflammatory reactions d. Neutrophils participates mainly in the inflammatory reactions caused by bacteria a. Differ completely from immune reactions b. Chemotaxis acts only on lymphocytes and macrophages c. Macrophages participates always only in the last phase of inflammation d. Neutrophils participates mainly in the inflammatory reactions caused by bacteria e. Leukocytes participates always in the last phase of inflammation Which of the following are the main factors d. Absorption of fluid from newly formed capillaries in its periphery causing an increase in the size of chronic abscesses a. Multiplication of the causative bacteria b. Formation of semipermeable membranes on its periphery c. Continued tissue necrosis d. Absorption of fluid from newly formed capillaries in its periphery e. Gas from anaerobic microorganisms A congested pericardium without c. Fibrinous inflammation glossiness, but with rough areas on the surface are most likely caused by a. Lymphangitis b. Pseudomembranous inflammation c. Fibrinous inflammation d. Fibrosis e. Granuloma formation Ghon complex is a term which describes a. A primary complex a. A primary complex b. Early generalized TBC c. Generalized TBC in an immunecompromised host d. Phtysis e. Late generalized TBC Foreign-body type multinuclear cells d. Fusion or division of the nuclei of macrophages originates from a. Nuclear division of granulocytes b. Atypical regeneration of epithelia c. Megakaryocytes d. Fusion or division of the nuclei of macrophages e. Multiplication of the nuclei of surrounding fibroblasts Granulomatous inflammation often leads to a. Fibrosis of the involved tissue a. Fibrosis of the involved tissue b. Coagulation necrosis of the involved tissue c. Resolution with return to normal tissue architecture d. Liquefaction of the involved tissue e. Ulceration of the involved tissue Which of the following conditions are d. Generalized mililary TBC usually not associated with postprimary TBC a. Endogenous reactivation b. Reinfection c. TBC superinfection d. Generalized mililary TBC e. Localized TBC in the kidneys Which of the following statements about b. Suppurative inflammation is characterized by accumulation of inflammation are correct neutrophils a. The cardinal signs describes microscopical manifestations of inflammation b. Suppurative inflammation is characterized by accumulation of neutrophils c. Inflammatory mediators are synonymous with cytokines d. Histiocyes phagocytose small particles, which is designated as microphagy e. Typically occurs in the setting of apoptotic cells Long-term chronic inflammatory reactions c. Fibrosis and atrophy of the involved tissue in tissue generally end with a. Resolution b. Liquefaction c. Fibrosis and atrophy of the involved tissue d. Progressive ischemia e. Fibrinous exudate Among morphologic changes e. Multinuclear giant cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes characteristic for sarcoidosis belongs a. Neutrophils, lymphocytes, and liquefactive necrosis b. Neutrophils, macrophages, and fibrosis c. Lymphocytes, plasma cells, and fibrosis d. Multinuclear giant cells, eosinophils, and fibrin e. Multinuclear giant cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes Which of the following statements about b. Inflammation is a general tissue reaction mediated by noxious agents on vessels inflammation are correct a. Inflammation only originates from the action of chemically noxious substances in the tissue b. Inflammation is a general tissue reaction mediated by noxious agents on vessels c. The nervous system plays the most important role during inflammatory reactions d. Chemotaxis is a general process of chemical substances during inflammation e. Inflammation is an reaction strictly to chemical injury on the organism Which part of the vascular bed are d. Postcapillary venules involved in changing permeability and producing exudation in acute inflammation a. Small arteries b. Arterioles c. Capillaries d. Postcapillary venules e. Veins Arrange the vascular changes originating e. 1-3-4-2 during acute inflammation. 1. Temporary vasoconstriction 2. Margination of leukocytes 3. Vasodilation 4.Hemostasis a. 3-1-4-2 b. 4-3-2-1 c. 1-2-3-4 d. 2-1-3-4 e. 1-3-4-2 Which of the following signs don't belong c. Rigor among the cardinal signs of inflammation a. Calor b. Rubor c. Rigor d. Tumor e. Dolor Which cell type are not involved in a. Eosinophilic granulocytes granulomatous inflammation a. Eosinophilic granulocytes b. Epithelioid cells c. Fibroblasts d. Lymphocytes e. Multinuclear giant cells Which of the following characteristics are d. Accumulation of macrophages in the tissue not typical for catarrhal inflammations a. Hyperproduction of mucus b. Little alternating part of inflammation c. Presence of sporadic granulocytes in the exudate d. Accumulation of macrophages in the tissue e. Mucosal edema Granuloma formation is most often e. Poorly digestible pathogenic organisms associated with a. Acute inflammation b. Healing on secondary intention c. Wound contraction d. Fibrinous exudate e. Poorly digestible pathogenic organisms Miliary tuberculosis originates from d. Hematogenous dissemination a. Spreading by seeding b. The change of tuberculous processes on the meninges c. Only in childhood d. Hematogenous dissemination e. Lymphogenous dissemination All of the following symptoms are main e. Thrombosis signs of inflammation except a. Pain b. Swelling c. Reddening d. Increased temperature e. Thrombosis Which of the following statements don't c. It is often associated with rheumatoid arthritis of large joints apply for rheumatic endomyocarditis a. It has a tendency to recur b. It often originates in children and the young c. It is often associated with rheumatoid arthritis of large joints d. We can find Aschoff bodies in the affected area e. It can lead to mitral and aortic stenosis or insufficiency In which of the following locations can we c. Pericardium most often find purely fibrosing inflammation a. Leptomeninges b. Cerebral ventricles c. Pericardium d. Bones of the lower extremity e. Skin Colitis caused by antibiotic therapy cause b. Pseudomembranous which type of inflammation a. Ulcerous-necrotizing b. Pseudomembranous (Pseudomembraneous colitis = Swelling due to Clostridium Difficile) c. Exudate-hemorrhagic d. Serous-catarrhal e. Gangrenous In which of the following organs does c. Lungs sarcoidosis most often manifest a. Liver b. Spleen c. Lungs d. Heart e. Brain Primary infection (In the place where TBC e. Skin enters the organism) are NOT mostly localized to the a. Oral cavity b. Tonsils c. Intestine d. Lungs e. Skin Which of the following statements about e. It affects peripheral nerves TBC are incorrect a. The most common mode of transmission is respiratory b. In patients with AIDS, TBC can manifest like sepsis tuberculosa acutissima (Landouzy sepsis) c. Miliary TBC can also develop into tuberculous meningitis d. We can find cavitations in the lung e. It affects peripheral nerves Which of the following statements are not a. It's associated with extreme leukocytosis correct for peracute tuberculous sepsis (Landouzy sepsis) a. It's associated with extreme leukocytosis b. It's not formed during typical tuberculous granulomas c. It can develop like a late complication of organizing TBC d. It originates during areactive necrosis e. It can develop in patients with AIDS Which type of inflammation is found in a. (Hemorrhagic)-necrotizing inflammation association with agranulocytosis a. (Hemorrhagic)-necrotizing inflammation b. Catarrhal inflammation c. Granulomatous inflammation d. Abscess-forming inflammation e. Fibrinous inflammation Which of the following substances/cells are e. IgE and its specific antigen essential for degranulation of basophils and mast cells during anaphylactic shock a. Arylsulfatase b. Eosinophilic granulocytes c. IgA and its specific antigen d. IgM and its specific antigen e. IgE and its specific antigen Septic granulomatosis (Chronic d. Inability of the macrophages to destroy the phagocytosed bacteria granulomatous disease) are caused by a. Congenital defect of the complement system with the gene located on chromosome Y b. Chronic toxoplasmosis infection c. Superoxide dismutase defect d. Inability of the macrophages to destroy the phagocytosed bacteria e. Immune defect with hyperplasia of the thymus and deficiency of T- lymphocytes The secondary stage of syphilis are not d. Aortitis characterized by: a. Fever b. Lymphadenopathy c. Skin rashes d. Aortitis e. Spirochetes on dark-field microscopy Aneurysms originating in syphilitic a. Most often involve the thoracic aorta infections a. Most often involve the thoracic aorta b. Are caused by gummae c. Spirochetes can possibly be found in the wall of the affected vessel d. It can be cured by antibiotic therapy e. The wall is weakened by fibrinoid necrosis of the tuncia media The characteristic cell type for Aschoff b. Anitschow cells nodules is a. Langhans cells (Anitschow cells = Rheumatoid heart disease associated. They are enlarged b. Anitschow cells macrophages) c. Mikulicz cells d. Lymphocytes e. Fibroblats If one identifies numerous eosinophilic a. Type I granulocytes and mast cells in an inflammatory infiltrate, which type of inflammatory is this most likely a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV e. Type V Cor villosum originates following which d. Fibrinous type of inflammation a. Serous b. Non-suppurative c. Suppurative d. Fibrinous e. Gangrenous Which of the following lesions can be d. Vasculitis observed in all stages of syphilis a. Chancre b. Condylomata lata c. Gumma d. Vasculitis e. Tabes dorsalis Which of the following manifestations are d. Carcinoma not complications of secondary pulmonary TBC a. Scar formation b. Calcification c. Massive hemorrhage d. Carcinoma e. Pleuritis What is true about fat emboli? b) May occur as a brain embolism a) Occurs most frequently after blunt c) Occurs most frequently in long bone fractures abdominal trauma b) May occur as a brain embolism c) Occurs most frequently in long bone fractures d) Do not lead to severe symptoms e) Can occur following the ingestion of fatty food Which of the following conditions does not a) Use of Acylpyrin have an increased tendency to thromboses? (Same as aspirin) a) Use of Acylpyrin b) Atherosclerosis c) Increased blood viscosity d) Carcinoma of pancreas e) Intravascular catheter What is true about thrombosis? c) Infected thrombus is a source of pyemia a) Does not occur in flowing blood b) Does not arise in the heart (Pyemia = Sepsis that leads to widespread abscesses) c) Infected thrombus is a source of pyemia d) Obturating thrombus always induces ischemic necrosis e) Only arises in the lower extremities Which of the following conditions will c) Lung infarction macroscopically present like a hemorrhagic coagulative necrosis? a) Nutmeg liver b) Lung abscess c) Lung infarction d) Kidney infarction e) Traumatic hematoma Under what circumstances occur air d) During rapid ascend to the surface embolism? a) In the state of weighnessless b) Carbon monoxide poisoning c) During rapid descend under the surface d) During rapid ascend to the surface e) With fast release of oxygen from blood in the form of bubbles Characteristics of neurogenic, septic, and d) Normal circulatory blood volume in early stages cardiogenic shock: a) Excellent prognosis if treated b) Need blood transfusion c) Peripheral vasodilation in early stages d) Normal circulatory blood volume in early stages e) Increased urine output Which of the following best describes fluid c) Increased protein content exudate? a) Increased sodium content b) Low specific weight c) Increased protein content d) Chronic flu