TYBSC Sem V Paper III-Form and Function-III (MCQ) PDF

TYBSC Sem V Paper III-Form and Function-III (MCQ) UNIT- I-Cytology and Mol Biology 1.Which of the following is initiator codon a AGU b AUG c AGG d ACC 2.The triplet code was first suggested by a Watson b Crick c Gamov d Mendel 3.The c...

TYBSC Sem V Paper III-Form and Function-III (MCQ) UNIT- I-Cytology and Mol Biology 1.Which of the following is initiator codon a AGU b AUG c AGG d ACC 2.The triplet code was first suggested by a Watson b Crick c Gamov d Mendel 3.The chain initiator in prokaryotic translation is a Formyl methionine b Methionine c Formyl Gunaine d Gunaine 4.UAA is which terminator a Ochre b Amber c Opal d Copal 5.Salivary glands giant chromosomes are found a Hibiscus b Dog c Earthwarm d Drosophila 6.The store house of all genetic information is a Mitochondria b Chloroplast c Nucleus d Chromoplast 7.The outer memberane of the nucleus is continuous with a Endoplasmic reticulum b Vesicles c Plastids d Lysosomes 8.A thickened ring surrounding nuclear pore is called as a Annulus b Diaphragm c Lens d Disc 9.Ribosomes are manufactured in a Nucleolus b Chromosomes c Nucleoplasm d Cytoplasm 10.The vacuoles of plant cell are bounded by a Chloroplast b Tonoplast c Chromoplast d Leucoplast 11. In unicellular organisms like Paramecium the function of osmoregulation is done by a Plasma membrane b Vacuole c Lysosomes d Cellwall 12.The ribosome binding site is prokaryotic mRNA is called a SE Sequence b SD Sequence c SM Sequence d SG Sequence 13.The genetic code has how many codons a 60 b 62 c 64 d 66 1.Which of the following codons codes for Methionine a.AGU b.AGG c.ACC d.AUG 2.The experimental evidence of triplet code was provided by a.Watson b.Crick c.Gamov d.Mendel 3.The chain initiator in Eukaryotic translation is a.Methionine b.Guanine c.Valine d.Serine 4.UGA is which teminator a.Ochre b.Opal c.Amber d.Copal 5.Salivary gland chromosome of Drosophila has how many arms a.4 b.6  c.8 d.10 6. Chromatin material is present in a.Nucleus b.Cellwall c.Vacuole d.Vesicles 8. The nucleolus is the active site for production a.Vitamins b.Lipids c.RNA d.DNA 9. Polytene chromosomes were discovered by a.Punett b.Balbiani c.Maggio d.Wobble 11. Sequestration of toxic substances is brought about by a.Vacuoles b.Ribosome c.Chromosomes d.Plastids 12. SD sequence stands for a.Standard deviation b.Standard difference c.Shine Delgarno d.Shine Deficient 13. The genetic code dictionary has how many stop codons a.2 b.3 c.4 d.5 Structure and Function of the Nucleus 1. The nucleus is surrounded by a double membrane known as the __________. A. Plasma membrane B. Nuclear envelope C. Cell wall D. Ribosome membrane 2. The region within the nucleus where ribosomal RNA is synthesized is called the __________. A. Nucleoid B. Chromatin C. Nucleolus D. Lysosome 3. The fluid inside the nucleus is referred to as __________. A. Cytosol B. Nucleoplasm  4. C. Cytoplasm D. Matrix 5. __________ are thread-like structures found in the nucleus that carry genetic information. A. Mitochondria B. Ribosomes C. Chromosomes 6. D. Chloroplasts 7. During cell division, the nuclear envelope disassembles in the phase of __________. A. Telophase B. Anaphase C. Prophase D. Metaphase Structure and Function of the Vacuole 6. The large central vacuole in plant cells is primarily involved in __________. A. Photosynthesis B. Storage and maintaining turgor pressure 7. C. Protein synthesis D. Respiration 8. The membrane that surrounds the plant vacuole is known as the __________. A. Tonoplast B. Cell wall C. Plasmodesmata D. Nuclear membrane 9. Vacuoles in plant cells store __________, which helps regulate water balance. A. Starch B. Ions (Correct) C. Proteins D. Glycogen 10. A primary function of the vacuole in maintaining plant rigidity is through __________. A. Cell wall production B. Cytoplasmic streaming C. Turgor pressure (Correct) D. Active transport Structure and Function of Giant Chromosomes 11. Giant chromosomes are most commonly found in the __________ cells of certain insects. A. Muscle B. Salivary gland  C. Neurons D. Stem cells 12. Giant chromosomes are often referred to as __________ chromosomes. A. Lampbrush B. Polytene C. Circular D. Linear 13. In giant chromosomes, the visible bands correspond to regions of __________. A. Centromeres B. Active genes C. Non-coding regions D. Telomeres 14. The polytene chromosomes were first discovered in __________. A. Drosophila B. Arabidopsis C. Yeast D. C. elegans 15. The characteristic banding pattern of giant chromosomes is due to their __________ structure. A. Compact B. Repetitive (Correct) C. Spiral D. Interphase The Genetic Code: Characteristics of the Genetic Code 16. The genetic code is said to be __________, meaning that more than one codon can specify the same amino acid. A. Ambiguous B. Redundant (Correct) C. Non-overlapping D. Universal 17. The start codon for translation is __________. A. UAA B. UAG C. AUG D. UGA 18. The genetic code is considered __________, as it is used by almost all living organisms. A. Non-overlapping B. Universal C. Conservative D. Polar  19. Each codon consists of __________ nucleotides. A. Two B. Four C. Three D. Five 20. A stop codon signals __________ in translation. A. The start of transcription B. The end of translation C. The beginning of replication D. The continuation of protein synthesis Translation in Prokaryotes 21. Translation in prokaryotes begins when the ribosome binds to the __________ sequence. A. TATA B. Shine-Dalgarno C. Promoter D. Kozak 22. In prokaryotes, the __________ subunit of the ribosome first associates with the mRNA during translation initiation. A. 30S B. 40S C. 50S D. 60S 23. The first amino acid in prokaryotic protein synthesis is usually __________. A. Serine B. Methionine C. Formylmethionine D. Leucine 24. In prokaryotes, translation and __________ occur simultaneously. A. Replication B. Transcription C. Cell division D. Splicing 25. During elongation in prokaryotes, aminoacyl-tRNA binds to the __________ site of the ribosome. A. A B. P C. E D. S Translation in Eukaryotes 26. Translation initiation in eukaryotes requires the recognition of the __________ cap structure at the 5' end of the mRNA. A. Methylated B. Phosphorylated C. Adenylated D. Glycosylated 27. In eukaryotes, the ribosome scans the mRNA from the 5' end until it finds the __________ codon. A. Stop B. AUG C. Shine-Dalgarno D. Intron 28. The ribosome in eukaryotes consists of two subunits, __________ and __________. A. 30S, 50S B. 40S, 60S C. 20S, 40S D. 60S, 80S 29. The energy for peptide bond formation during translation is provided by __________. A. ATP B. GTP C. ADP D. NADH 30. In eukaryotic cells, translation occurs in the __________. A. Nucleus B. Mitochondria C. Cytoplasm D. Golgi apparatus UNIT-II-Plant Physiology 1. Which of the following best defines water potential (Ψ)? a) The energy required to transport water from roots to leaves b) A measure of the potential energy of water relative to pure water  c) The osmotic pressure required to maintain turgor pressure in cells d) The gravitational energy of water at the top of a plant 2. What is the water potential (Ψ) of pure water under standard conditions? a) +1 MPa b) -1 MPa c) 0 MPa d) 1 kPa 3. Which component of water potential is primarily affected by the presence of solutes in a solution? a) Pressure potential (Ψp) b) Osmotic potential (Ψs) c) Gravitational potential (Ψg) d) Kinetic potential 4. What happens to the water potential (Ψ) of a cell when it experiences exosmosis? a) It increases b) It becomes more negative c) It remains constant d) It becomes positive 5. Which of the following is true about pressure potential (Ψp)? o a) It is always negative in plants o b) It only applies to water in soil o c) It can be positive due to turgor pressure in plant cells o d) It is not a component of water potential 6. Gravitational potential (Ψg) becomes significant when: o a) The plant is short and close to the ground o b) The plant is growing in an arid environment o c) Water is present in a vertical column, such as in tall trees o d) The solute concentration is high in the plant cells 7. Water moves from regions of: o a) Lower water potential to higher water potential o b) Higher water potential to lower water potential o c) Higher osmotic potential to lower osmotic potential o d) Negative pressure potential to positive pressure potential 8. What type of osmosis occurs when water moves into a cell, leading to cell swelling? o a) Exosmosis o b) Endosmosis o c) Plasmolysis o d) Hyperosmosis 9. Which of the following statements is correct about osmotic pressure? o a) It is the force that drives water out of a cell o b) It prevents further movement of water during osmosis o c) It is higher in hypotonic solutions than in hypertonic solutions o d) It measures the gravitational pull on water molecules 10. Plasmolysis occurs in plant cells when: o a) The cell is placed in a hypotonic solution o b) The cell is placed in an isotonic solution o c) The cell is placed in a hypertonic solution o d) The pressure potential is very high 11. In which scenario would osmotic potential (Ψs) be the most negative? o a) Pure water o b) A dilute solution of sugar o c) A highly concentrated salt solution o d) Distilled water at room temperature 12. Osmosis is a passive process because: o a) It requires energy in the form of ATP o b) It only occurs in plants o c) Water moves based on its kinetic energy, not external energy o d) It occurs against the concentration gradient 13. The pressure required to stop the flow of water during osmosis is called: o a) Hydrostatic pressure o b) Osmotic equilibrium o c) Osmotic pressure o d) Water potential 14. What happens to the turgor pressure in a plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution? o a) It increases o b) It remains the same o c) It decreases, leading to plasmolysis o d) It becomes positive SET III 1. Which of the following is a terminator codon a UAA b UUU c AUU d GUU 3. Formyl methionine acts as an initiator in prokaryotic a Transversion b Translation c Transduction d Translocation 4. UAG is which terminator a Ochre b Amber c Opal d Copal 5. Where are giant chromosomes found in chironomous larve a Head b Tail c Guts d Salivary glands 6. The hereditary material in a cell is present in a Vacuole b Nucleus c Mitochondria d Lysosomes 7. The exchange of material between nucleus and cytoplasm is regulated by a Nucleopores b Nucleoplasm c Nucleous d Chromosomes 8. The outer diameter of annulus is about a 600A b 800A c 1000A d 1200A 9. E.G. Balblani discovered a Jumping genes b Lethal chromosomes c Laggards d Polytene chromosomes 10.Tonoplast is semi permeable membrane enclosing the a Mitochondria b Vesicles  c Vacuole d Ribosomes 11.One of the important functions of vacuole is a Respiration b Mechanical support c Translation d Reproduction 12.The leader sequence in prokaryotic gene expression is a SD b SE c SM d SG Q1.In plant cells, by-product of metabolic pathways are store in__ a.Mitochondria b.Chloroplast c.Vacuole d.Nucleus Q2.Tonoplast is a__ a.Toxic compound b.Membrane c.Glycoprotein d.Sphingolipid Q3.water enters vacuole by_ a.Osmosis b. Reverse osmosis c.Active diffusion d.Passive diffusion Q4.Tonoplast is a differentially permeable membrane surrounding the a.Vacuole b.Cytoplasm c.Nucleus d.Chloroplast Q5.Plant cell accumulate a variety of toxin compounds in a.Mitochondria b.Nucleus c.Vacuole d.Chloroplast Q6. The membrane around the vacuole is known as a.Tonoplast b.Cytoplast c.Elaioplast d.Amyloplast Q7.All the metabolic activities of cell is controlled by a.Lysosomes b.Mitochondria c. Nucleus d.Endoplasmic reticulum Q9.The protein Network that lines the inner side of nuclear membrane is called a.Nucleolus b. Nuclear Matrix c. Nuclear lamina d.Nuclear proteins Q10. Nucleus consists of a homogenous matrix of a fluid substance called a.Cytoplasm b. Protoplasm c. Cell sap d. Nuclear sap 11.Major Function of Nucleolus is a.DNA synthesis b. Protein synthesis c.rRNA source d.mRNA 12.Nuclear pore were first observed by a. Callan b. Fontana c. Robert brown d.Vincent Q13. Enzymes present in the nucleolus is a.Phosphatase b.Ligase c.Aldolase d. Amylase Q14 Chromosomes found in the salivary gland of Chironomous larva Is a. Polytene b. Lampbrush c.Supernumerary d.B-chromosomes Q16 Puffs or balbiani rings in the salivary gland chromosome are the sites of (a) Protein synthesis (b) RNA synthesis (c) DNA replication (d) DNA duplication Q17.Genetic code is not a.universal b.degenerate c.overlappining d.Triplet Q18.Opal is coded by a.UUG b.UGA c.UAA d.UAG Q20. Which one of these is not an mRNA codon a.AUG b.GUC c.CAU d.TAG Q21.Ingenious technique for artificially synthesizing mRNA with repeated sequence of Known nucleotides was devised by a.Nirenberg b.Watson c.Korenberg d.Khorana Q23.The anticodon sequence is located in a.mRNA b.tRNA c.DNA d.rRNA Q24.The Shine-Dalgarno (SD) sequence in prokaryote is the part of a.tRNA b.rRNA c.mRNA d. DNA Q25.Clover leaf shape structure is of a. mRNA b. t.RNA c. r.RNA d.Ribosome Q.26.During the initiation of translation in prokaryote which of the following is first to dissociate from the 30S ribosomal subunit? a.IF1 b.IF2 c.IF3 d.GTP Q27The eukaryotic initiation codon recognizes a. f-Met-tRNA-f-Met b. Met-tRNAi-Met c. f-Met-tRNAi-Met