Tecnam P2006T Question Bank PDF

TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK 1. Wing span 37.4 feet 2. Wing surface 158.9 sq ft 3. Dihedral 1° 4. Aspect ratio 8.80 5. Main landing gear track 2.0 m 6. Aileron travel limit Up 20° Down 17° 7....

TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK 1. Wing span 37.4 feet 2. Wing surface 158.9 sq ft 3. Dihedral 1° 4. Aspect ratio 8.80 5. Main landing gear track 2.0 m 6. Aileron travel limit Up 20° Down 17° 7. Stabilator travel limit Up 4° Down 15° 8. Rudder travel limit RH 26° LH 26° 9. Flaps travel limit 0°; 40° 10. Engine model 912 S3 11. Engine type 4 cylinders horizontally opposed with 1352 cc of overall displacement , liquid cooled cylinder heads, ram air cooled cylinders, two carburetors, integrated reduction gear box with torsional shock absorber and overload clutch 12. Max Power (at declared rpm) 73.5kW (98.6hp)@ 5800 rpm – 5 min max 69.0 kW (92.5hp) @ 5500 rpm (continuous) 13. Propeller manufacturer MT Propeller 14. Propeller blade 2 wood/ composite blades – aluminum hub 15. Propeller diameter 1780 mm (no reduction allowed) 16. Propeller type Variable pitch- hydraulically controlled 17. Approved fuel type MOGAS ASTM D4814 MOGAS EN 228 Super/ Superplus (min. RON 95) AVGAS 100 LL (ASTM D910) 18. Fuel tanks Two integrated tanks (one in each wing) fitted with drainable sump and drain valve 19. Tanks overall capacity 200 litres (52.8 US gallons) 20. Overall usable fuel 194.4 litres (51.35 US gallons) 21. Overall unusable fuel 5.6 litres (1.48 US gallons) 22. Lubrication system Forced type with external reservoir 23. Oil Use only oil with API classification SG or higher 24. Oil capacity Max 3.0 litres – min 2.0 liters (per tank) 25. Cooling system Ram air cooled cylinder, liquid cooled cylinder heads (closed and pressurized circuit) 26. Coolant liquid Certified for water/ coolant mixture 27. TOR is the take off distance measured from actual start to wheel lift off point 28. TOD is the takeoff distance measured from start to 15m obstacle clearing 29. Datum Reference Datum is an imaginary vertical plane from which all horizontal distances are measured for balance purposes. 30. VNE 171 KIAS 31. VA 122 KIAS  TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK 32. VLE 93 KIAS 33. VLO 93 KIAS 34. VFE 93 KIAS 35. VMC 62 KIAS 36. Red line on ASI 62 KIAS 37. Blue line on ASI 84 KIAS 38. Yellow band on ASI 138-171 KIAS 39. Red line on ASI 171 KIAS 40. RPM on tachometer displays propeller rpm 41. Maximum prop rpm is 2388 42. Max CHT 135°C 43. Oil pressure Minimum 0.8 bar / 12 psi Normal 2-5 Bar / 29-73 psi Maximum 7 Bar / 102 psi 44. Engine starting allowable temperature range -25°C to +50°C 45. In event of cold starting operation, it is permitted a maximum oil pressure of 7 bar for a short period. 46. Governor Hydraulically controlled (oil pressure to reduce the pitch) 47. Maximum operating altitude is 14000 ft (4260m) MSL. At altitudes above 12500 ft up to and including 14000 ft, flight must be limited to 30 minutes, unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration. 48. Flight in expected and/or known icing condition is forbidden. 49. Fuel pressure Minimum 2.2 psi Maximum 5.8 psi 50. Voltmeter Green arc 12-14 V 51. Maximum takeoff weight 1230 kg 52. Aerobatic maneuvers includes: a) Spin b) Turn more than 60° c) Stall with one engine inoperative d) All of the above 53. Maneuver load factor limits are: +3.8g and -1.78g 54. Maximum number of occupants 4 people (including pilot) Minimum crew: 1 pilot 55. Prolonged use of Aviation Fuel Avgas 100LL results in a) Greater wear of valve seats b) Greater combustion deposits inside cylinders due to higher lead content. c) Avoid using this type of fuel unless strictly necessary d) All above are correct 56. Maximum baggage load is 80 kg 57. The lower pressure limit of landing gear hydraulic system is 20 bar 58. During taxi, take off and rear seats must be kept in the lowest and full aft position  TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK 59. First action to be taken after engine failure before rotation is Throttle lever Both Idle 60. The red alert on annunciation window is to indicate emergency conditions. 61. Choose the correct option: a) Switching OFF avionic LH and ADF will permit to shed non essential electrical power b) The battery and a single generator are able to supply the electrical power necessary for flight, but redundancy is lost c) Switching CROSS BUS OFF will further reduce alternator load; the decision mainly depends on weather conditions. d) All are correct 62. The battery can supply electrical power for at least 30 minutes 63. If door is open or locking device is unlocked, land as soon as possible 64. If engine’s CHT is 135°C, the steps to be taken for affected engine are: a) Reduce power setting to reduce CHT up to minimum practical b) Land as soon as practical c) Secure affected engine d) All of the above 65. Choose the correct statement regarding landing gear pump: a) The GEAR PUMP ON caution light turns ON when the landing gear hydraulic pump is electrically supplied. b) After the landing gear retraction, if the red TRANS light turns OFF and the GEAR PUMP ON caution stays turned ON, this could indicate a gear pump relay failure to ON c) The electrical gear pump, continuously supplied, causes a current absorption which does not affect the mission unless this failure is coupled with the overall electrical failure. d) All are correct 66. In the event of a display failure, the G950 system: a) Automatically switches to reversionary (backup) mode. b) In backup mode, all important flight information is presented on the remaining display in the same format as in normal operating mode. c) The change to backup paths is completely automated for all LRUs and no pilot action is required. d) All are correct. 67. The procedure for engine securing in flight: Throttle- IDLE, Ignition- BOTH OFF, Propeller lever – FEATHER, Fuel Selector- OFF , Electrical fuel pump – OFF 68. In case of propeller overspeeding, apply the following procedure: Throttle lever – Reduce power to minimum practical Propeller lever – Reduce as practical RPM indicator – CHECK 69. If it is not possible to decrease propeller rpm: a) Apply engine securing procedure b) Land as soon as possible c) Maximum propeller rpm exceedance may cause the engine components damage.  TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK d) All are correct 70. If oil temperature exceeds maximum limit and oil pressure is within limit a) Reduce power setting to minimum applicable b) Keep propeller speed higher than 2000 rpm c) A and B are correct d) All are correct 71. If engine roughness/ vibrations or erratic behavior is detected: a) Secure affected engine b) Land as soon as possible c) Apply one engine inoperative landing procedure d) All are correct 72. Mark the correct statement a) Excessive oil pressure drop leads to high pitch propeller configuration with propeller feathering and engine stopping b) An excessive oil pressure value can be counteracted by decreasing propeller rpm c) Both a and b are correct 73. Emergency is carried out at a) VLE b) VNO c) VMC d) VX 74. Mark the correct statement regarding unintentional flight into icing condition: a) In event of ice build-up in correspondence of wing leading edges, stall speed decreases. b) Ice build-up on wing, tail fin or flight control surfaces unexpected sudden roll and/or pitch tendencies can be experienced and may lead to unusual attitude and loss of aircraft control c) Do not use autopilot when icing formation is suspected or detected. d) All are correct 75. Choose the correct statement: a) Carburetor heating selected to ON will cause engine RPM reduction of about 100 rpm causing a sensible available engine power decrease b) Flap UP take off, requires a takeoff distance increased by about 20% c) If the flaps control fails, consider the higher stall speed and an increased landing distance of about 25%. d) All are correct 76. During one engine inoperative procedures, it is advisable to bank the aircraft of about 5° to the side of the operating engine. 77. One engine inoperative touchdown speed is 70 KIAS 78. If a complete landing gear up or a nose landing gear up position is reported, touchdown should be carried out at as low as 50 KIAS with flap 79. A fully charged battery can supply electrical power for at least 30 minutes. 80. Unintentional spin recovery a) Both engine throttles – idle b) Flight controls – centralize c) Rudder – fully against rotation until it stops d) All are correct  TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK 81. Mark the correct statement regarding propeller governor ground check: a) The drop should not be above 150/200 prop rpm b) Ground check of governor should be performed by slowly and gently c) The purging cycle should be repeated up to 3 times d) All are correct 82. Rotation speed with T/O flaps (VR) is 64 KIAS 83. Best angle of climb speed (VX) is 73 KIAS 84. Manoevuring speed (VA) is 118 KIAS 85. Never Exceed Speed (VNE) is 167 KIAS 86. Recommended safe simulated OEI speed (VSSE) is 70 KIAS 87. For cold engine starting: a) Throttle Idle (fully closed) b) Chokes fully opened c) Soon after starting, advance the throttle 800 rpm and slowly close the choke. Keep engine at 900 rpm for warm up period. d) All are correct. 88. For flooded engine starting: a) Keep chokes closed b) Open throttle full and start the engine c) Then quickly reduce throttle to idle. d) All are correct 89. Governor check is carried out at 1650 rpm 90. Maximum All up weight (AUW) is 1230 kg 91. Mark the correct statement regarding towing: a) When the a/c is moved on the ground, the Master Switch must be turned ON until the a/c is parked b) To tow the aircraft it is necessary to use a metal stiff bar connected to the nose gear. c) Do not turn nose wheel above 20° either side of center; greater steering angles can damage the wheel stop. d) All are correct 92. Mark the correct statement: a) Do not engage the parking brakes at low ambient temperature; accumulation of moisture may cause the brakes to freeze. b) As in a) and in this case use wheel chokes. c) Mooring is strongly recommended when the wind is more than 15 knots and the a/c is completely refueled. d) All are correct 93. Each wing consists of a central light alloy torque box which carries all the wing loads of a) Bending b) shear c) torque d) all 94. Rudder is connected to the vertical tail at: a) Two hinge points  TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK b) Three hinge points c) One hinge point d) All are incorrect 95. Aileron control is of a) Push rods b) Cables c) Mixed type with push rods and cables d) None is correct 96. Left aileron has a trim tab which is adjustable on ground only 97. Flaps: a) Are extended via a single actuator controlled by a switch on the instrument panel b) Flaps act in continuous mode c) The analogue indicator displays three markings related to 0°, take off (T/O), and landing (FULL) positions. d) All are correct 98. Aural warning is generated when a) Flaps are lowered to the FULL position and the landing gear is not down locked. b) Rudder is operated through a cable system 99. Cooling system is designed for a) Liquid cooling of cylinder heads b) Ram air cooling of cylinders c) Coolant flow is forced by water pump d) All are correct 100. The engine is provided a) With a dry sump forced lubrication system with an oil pump with integrated pressure regulator. b) A thermostatic valve regulates the oil flow to the heat exchanger (oil radiator) c) As in b) ; on the basis of oil temperature; this allows the engine starting in cold conditions. d) All are correct 101. In fuel system: a) Left fuel selector manages the left engine feeding, allowing fuel supply from the left fuel tank or from the right one (crossfeed) b) Right fuel selector manages the right engine feeding, allowing fuel supply from the right fuel tank or from the left one (crossfeed) c) Each selector can be set in OFF position only pulling and simultaneously rotating the lever; this avoids an unintentional operation. d) All are correct 102. Use of Aviation Fuel Avgas 100 LL results in a) Greater wear of valve seats b) Greater combustion deposits inside cylinders due to higher lead content. c) Make reference to Rotax Maintenance manual who provides dedicated checks due to the prolonged use of Avgas.  TECNAM P2006T QUESTION BANK d) All are correct 103. The landing gear retraction system: a) Is of electro-hydraulic type b) Powered by a reversible pump which is electrically controlled by the LG control knob located on the LH instrument panel c) As in b) and by the legs position micro switches which allow for detecting landing gear “down locked” and “up” position d) All are correct 104. Normal operation provides gear extension and retraction by the means of a) Hydraulic jacks c) Electrical b) Mechanically d) all are correct 105. One red light in landing gear indication system is: a) Transition light, turned ON during transition phase 106. Three green lights in landing gear indication system is leg position light which is turned ON when the pertinent leg is extended and locked and located on the LH instrument panel 107. Push to test is the light for landing gear red and green lights operational check 108. Mark the correct statement for cabin heat: a) The cabin heating system utilizes hot air coming from engines heat exchangers b) Cold ram air is warmed by engine exhaust gases and then it is routed to the heating system hoses. c) Left knob controls the warm air from LH engine heat exchanger, right knob controls the warm air from RH engine heat exchanger d) All are correct 109. Mark the correct statement regarding doors: a) An electro-mechanical device locks the door latch when left engine runs b) A pressure switch senses engine oil pressure and allows for electrical supply to a solenoid which engages the door lock mechanism c) This prevents the latch opening when left engine runs but, if needed, the device can be also manually by-passed operating either from the door inside panel or from outside. d) All are correct 110. Primary DC power is provided by a) One engine driven generator b) Two engine driven generators c) Three engine driven generators 111. Each generator is rated at a) 14.2 – 14.8 Vdc, 40 Amp b) 24-28 Vdc, 60 Amp c) 14.2 – 14.8 Vdc, 60 Amp