Neuroanatomy Past Paper PDF

The vertebral arteries form which of the following vascular structures in the brain? A\) Internal carotid artery B\) Circle of Willis C\) Basilar artery D\) Anterior spinal artery Answer: B) Circle of Willis A blockage of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) could result in which of the following...

The vertebral arteries form which of the following vascular structures in the brain? A\) Internal carotid artery B\) Circle of Willis C\) Basilar artery D\) Anterior spinal artery Answer: B) Circle of Willis A blockage of the middle cerebral artery (MCA) could result in which of the following deficits? A\) Visual field deficits B\) Paralysis and sensory loss in the lower limb C\) Hemiparesis and aphasia D\) Ataxia and dysmetria Answer: C) Hemiparesis and aphasia Which of the following structures provides a barrier between the brain and the venous system? A\) Dural venous sinuses B\) Arachnoid granulations C\) Subdural space D\) Pia mater Answer: A) Dural venous sinuses What is the function of the arachnoid villi? A\) Absorbing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) into the venous system B\) Producing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) C\) Protecting the brain from injury D\) Supplying nutrients to the meninges Answer: A) Absorbing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) into the venous system Which of the following meningeal layers is closest to the brain and spinal cord? A\) Arachnoid mater B\) Dura mater C\) Pia mater D\) Epidural space Answer: C) Pia mater The fourth ventricle connects to the spinal cord through which structure? A\) Cerebral aqueduct B\) Foramen of Monro C\) Foramen of Luschka D\) Central canal Answer: D) Central canal The choroid plexus is responsible for the production of which of the following? A\) Blood-brain barrier B\) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) C\) Meningeal layers D\) Neurons in the ventricular system Answer: B) Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) A blockage in the aqueduct of Sylvius could result in which condition? A\) Hydrocephalus B\) Meningitis C\) Stroke D\) Cerebral hemorrhage Answer: A) Hydrocephalus Which cranial nerve is responsible for the sensation of smell? A\) Olfactory nerve (I) B\) Optic nerve (II) C\) Vagus nerve (X) D\) Trigeminal nerve (V) Answer: A) Olfactory nerve (I) Which cranial nerve controls the majority of the eye\'s movements, including pupil constriction? A\) Oculomotor nerve (III) B\) Trochlear nerve (IV) C\) Abducens nerve (VI) D\) Optic nerve (II) Answer: A) Oculomotor nerve (III) Which of the following is a function of the glossopharyngeal nerve (IX)? A\) Control of facial muscles B\) Taste sensation from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue C\) Sensory and motor function for the pharynx D\) Control of heart rate and respiration Answer: C) Sensory and motor function for the pharynx Which of the following is true regarding the gray matter of the spinal cord? A\) It is composed mainly of myelinated axons. B\) It is located on the outer surface of the spinal cord. C\) It is involved in sensory and motor processing. D\) It contains only motor neurons. Answer: C) It is involved in sensory and motor processing. Which of the following describes the function of the dorsal horn of the spinal cord? A\) Transmitting motor signals B\) Processing sensory information C\) Controlling autonomic functions D\) Coordinating reflexes Answer: B) Processing sensory information A lesion in the corticospinal tract at the level of the spinal cord would lead to which type of paralysis? A\) Upper motor neuron paralysis B\) Lower motor neuron paralysis C\) Sensory loss D\) Loss of autonomic function Answer: A) Upper motor neuron paralysis Which structure is part of the brainstem and is involved in controlling vital functions such as heart rate and respiration? A\) Thalamus B\) Medulla oblongata C\) Cerebellum D\) Basal ganglia Answer: B) Medulla oblongata The midbrain contains the substantia nigra, which is involved in which function? A\) Pain and temperature sensation B\) Regulation of mood and motor control C\) Sensory processing for vision and hearing D\) Reflex control of the eyes Answer: B) Regulation of mood and motor control Which cranial nerve nuclei are located in the pons? A\) Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII B\) Nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and VI C\) Nuclei of cranial nerves IX, X, and XII D\) Nuclei of cranial nerves II, III, and IV Answer: A) Nuclei of cranial nerves V, VI, VII, and VIII Which of the following is a primary function of the cerebellum? A\) Memory formation B\) Coordination and regulation of voluntary movements C\) Sensory processing D\) Regulation of the autonomic nervous system Answer: B) Coordination and regulation of voluntary movements Which of the following structures is part of the diencephalon? A\) Cerebellum B\) Pineal gland C\) Medulla oblongata D\) Basal ganglia Answer: B) Pineal gland Damage to the cerebellum is most likely to result in which of the following? A\) Hemiplegia B\) Ataxia and loss of balance C\) Seizures D\) Visual deficits Answer: B) Ataxia and loss of balance Which sulcus separates the frontal and parietal lobes of the brain? A\) Central sulcus B\) Lateral sulcus (Sylvian fissure) C\) Parieto-occipital sulcus D\) Calcarine sulcus Answer: A) Central sulcus The Broca\'s area, responsible for speech production, is located in which lobe? A\) Parietal lobe B\) Occipital lobe C\) Temporal lobe D\) Frontal lobe Answer: D) Frontal lobe Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing auditory information? A\) Temporal lobe B\) Parietal lobe C\) Occipital lobe D\) Frontal lobe Answer: A) Temporal lobe Damage to the left hemisphere of the brain is most likely to result in which of the following? A\) Aphasia and difficulty with speech and language B\) Loss of visual processing C\) Loss of coordination and motor control D\) Impaired autonomic regulation Answer: A) Aphasia and difficulty with speech and language The sympathetic nervous system is primarily involved in which of the following responses? A\) Rest and digest B\) Fight or flight C\) Decreasing heart rate D\) Stimulating digestion Answer: B) Fight or flight Which of the following is a key difference between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems? A\) The sympathetic system releases acetylcholine, while the parasympathetic system releases norepinephrine. B\) The sympathetic system has long preganglionic fibers, while the parasympathetic system has short preganglionic fibers. C\) The parasympathetic system stimulates the \"fight or flight\" response, while the sympathetic system promotes rest and recovery. D\) The sympathetic system has a more widespread effect on the body compared to the parasympathetic system. Answer: D) The sympathetic system has a more widespread effect on the body compared to the parasympathetic system. Which neurotransmitter is primarily used by the parasympathetic nervous system at the postganglionic synapse? A\) Norepinephrine B\) Acetylcholine C\) Dopamine D\) Epinephrine Answer: B) Acetylcholine Which imaging modality is best suited for visualizing soft tissue structures like the brain and spinal cord? A\) X-ray B\) CT scan C\) MRI D\) Ultrasound Answer: C) MRI Which of the following is a typical finding in a brain MRI of a patient with multiple sclerosis? A\) Enlarged ventricles without lesions B\) White matter lesions in periventricular regions C\) Hyperintensities in the basal ganglia D\) Widespread brain atrophy Answer: B) White matter lesions in periventricular regions Which of the following features on a CT scan is indicative of an acute hemorrhagic stroke? A\) Hypodense area in the brain B\) Hyperdense area in the brain C\) No change in the brain\'s appearance D\) Enlargement of the ventricles Answer: B) Hyperdense area in the brain Which of the following is a typical feature of an epidural hematoma on imaging? A\) Crescent-shaped lesion with mass effect B\) Biconvex shape, limited to one side of the brain C\) Diffuse white matter changes D\) Fluid accumulation in the subarachnoid space Answer: B) Biconvex shape, limited to one side of the brain Which structure in the spinal cord is responsible for the sensation of touch, pressure, and proprioception? A\) Anterior horn B\) Lateral horn C\) Dorsal column D\) Corticospinal tract Answer: C) Dorsal column The white matter of the spinal cord is primarily composed of: A\) Myelinated axons B\) Cell bodies of neurons C\) Unmyelinated axons D\) Glial cells Answer: A) Myelinated axons Which of the following describes the function of the corticospinal tract? A\) Sensory input from the skin and muscles B\) Motor control of voluntary movement C\) Coordination of reflexes D\) Autonomic regulation of heart rate and breathing Answer: B) Motor control of voluntary movement Which part of the brainstem contains the nuclei responsible for regulating cardiac and respiratory functions? A\) Medulla oblongata B\) Pons C\) Midbrain D\) Thalamus Answer: A) Medulla oblongata The superior colliculus, located in the midbrain, is involved in which of the following functions? A\) Vision and eye movements B\) Auditory processing C\) Regulation of heart rate D\) Memory formation Answer: A) Vision and eye movements Which cranial nerve exits the brainstem at the level of the midbrain? A\) Oculomotor nerve (III) B\) Trochlear nerve (IV) C\) Trigeminal nerve (V) D\) Vagus nerve (X) Answer: A) Oculomotor nerve (III) A 45-year-old male presents with a severe headache and difficulty in moving his right eye. Imaging reveals a mass in the cavernous sinus. Which cranial nerves are most likely involved? A\) CN II and CN III B\) CN III, CN IV, CN V1, and CN VI C\) CN V2 and CN VI D\) CN I, CN II, and CN III Answer: B) CN III, CN IV, CN V1, and CN VI Explanation: The cavernous sinus houses the oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), ophthalmic (V1), and abducens (VI) nerves. A mass here can affect these cranial nerves. During embryonic development, the neural tube undergoes differentiation into primary brain vesicles. Which of the following is NOT one of the primary brain vesicles? A\) Prosencephalon B\) Mesencephalon C\) Rhombencephalon D\) Myelencephalon Answer: D) Myelencephalon Explanation: The primary brain vesicles are the prosencephalon, mesencephalon, and rhombencephalon. The myelencephalon develops later as part of the rhombencephalon. A newborn exhibits signs of hydrocephalus and poor muscle tone. Upon imaging, the forebrain appears abnormally small, and the ventricles are dilated. Which primary brain vesicle is most likely affected? A\) Prosencephalon B\) Mesencephalon C\) Rhombencephalon D\) Myelencephalon Answer: A) Prosencephalon Explanation: Hydrocephalus, especially with abnormalities in the forebrain and dilated ventricles, suggests issues with the prosencephalon. A 68-year-old male with a history of hypertension presents with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. CT scan shows a right middle cerebral artery (MCA) infarction. Which part of the brain is most likely affected? A\) Temporal lobe and occipital lobe B\) Parietal lobe and frontal lobe C\) Occipital lobe and cerebellum D\) Medulla oblongata and pons Answer: B) Parietal lobe and frontal lobe Explanation: The MCA supplies the lateral aspects of the frontal, temporal, and parietal lobes. MCA infarctions typically affect motor and speech centers in the frontal and parietal lobes. A patient undergoes a stroke involving the anterior cerebral artery (ACA). What area of the body would most likely show signs of paralysis? A\) Upper limb and face B\) Lower limb C\) Visual fields D\) Respiratory muscles Answer: B) Lower limb Explanation: The ACA primarily supplies the medial aspects of the frontal and parietal lobes, which control lower limb movement. A 28-year-old woman presents with severe headache, nausea, and vomiting. MRI reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage. Which structure is likely affected in this condition? A\) Epidural space B\) Subdural space C\) Subarachnoid space D\) Dural folds Answer: C) Subarachnoid space Explanation: A subarachnoid hemorrhage involves bleeding into the subarachnoid space, where cerebrospinal fluid circulates. During a routine spinal surgery, the surgeon notices a structure that anchors the spinal cord to the vertebral column. Which structure is he observing? A\) Arachnoid mater B\) Dura mater C\) Denticulate ligament D\) Pia mater Answer: C) Denticulate ligament Explanation: The denticulate ligament is a modification of the pia mater that helps anchor the spinal cord to the vertebral column. A patient with facial trauma develops a swollen eye and signs of venous congestion. CT scan reveals thrombosis in the cavernous sinus. Which cranial nerve dysfunction is most likely? A\) Oculomotor nerve (CN III) B\) Facial nerve (CN VII) C\) Trigeminal nerve (CN V) D\) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) Answer: A) Oculomotor nerve (CN III) Explanation: The cavernous sinus is closely associated with the oculomotor nerve (CN III), so thrombosis here often leads to dysfunction of CN III. VENTRICULAR SYSTEM OF BRAIN A patient presents with increasing intracranial pressure and abnormal CSF flow. MRI shows enlargement of the ventricles but no obstruction. Which condition is most likely responsible for this finding? A\) Hydrocephalus ex vacuo B\) Non-communicating hydrocephalus C\) Communicating hydrocephalus D\) Chiari malformation Answer: A) Hydrocephalus ex vacuo Explanation: Hydrocephalus ex vacuo occurs when there is brain atrophy without blockage of CSF flow, leading to ventricular enlargement. A 5-year-old child presents with irritability, vomiting, and headache. MRI shows blockage of the cerebral aqueduct, leading to dilated lateral and third ventricles. What is the most likely diagnosis? A\) Hydrocephalus ex vacuo B\) Obstructive hydrocephalus C\) Normal pressure hydrocephalus D\) Meningitis Answer: B) Obstructive hydrocephalus Explanation: Blockage of the cerebral aqueduct can lead to obstructive hydrocephalus, causing increased pressure and ventricular enlargement. A 60-year-old man presents with loss of taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue, along with dry mouth and difficulty swallowing. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected? A\) Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX) B\) Vagus nerve (CN X) C\) Facial nerve (CN VII) D\) Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) Answer: C) Facial nerve (CN VII) Explanation: The facial nerve (CN VII) is responsible for taste on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and controls salivation and some aspects of swallowing. A 32-year-old man presents with weakness and sensory loss in the upper limbs, but his lower limbs remain unaffected. MRI shows a lesion in the cervical region of the spinal cord. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms? A\) Anterior horn cell lesion B\) Posterior column lesion C\) Lateral corticospinal tract lesion D\) Central cord syndrome Answer: D) Central cord syndrome Explanation: Central cord syndrome, often caused by cervical spinal cord injuries, leads to weakness and sensory loss in the upper limbs while sparing the lower limbs. A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with sudden-onset weakness in her right arm, slurred speech, and difficulty swallowing. CT reveals a stroke in the medulla. Which cranial nerve nuclei are most likely involved? A\) CN I and CN II B\) CN III and CN IV C\) CN IX and CN X D\) CN V and CN VII Answer: C) CN IX and CN X Explanation: The medulla contains the nuclei for the glossopharyngeal (CN IX) and vagus (CN X) nerves, which are involved in swallowing and speech.