NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Physics PDF

NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 Physics - Section A 4 What is the period of oscillation of the block...

NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 Physics - Section A 4 What is the period of oscillation of the block shown in the figure? 1 If the displacement (x) and velocity (v) of a particle executing simple harmonic motion are related by the expression 4v2 = 25 − x2 , then its time period is: 1. π 2. 2π 3. 4π 4. 6π 2 Given below are two statements: A pressure wave can be generated from Statement I: 2π√ 2π√ a displacement wave. M 4M 1. 2. Displacement and pressure waves have a k k Statement II: phase difference of π. π√ 2π√ M M 2 3. 4. k 2k 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. 5 An ideal spring with spring constant k is hung from 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. the ceiling, and a block of mass M is attached to its 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. lower end. The mass is released with the spring initially 4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.unstretched. The maximum extension in the spring is: 4Mg 2Mg 3 A spring pendulum is placed on a rotating table. 1. k 2. k The initial angular velocity of the table is ω0 and the Mg Mg time period of the pendulum is T0. If the the angular 3. k 4. 2k velocity of the table becomes 2ω0 , then the new time period of the pendulum will be: 6 The speed of sound in a medium depends on: 1. 2T0 1. the elastic property but not the inertial property 2. T0 √2 3. the same 2. the inertial property but not the elastic property T0 3. both the elastic and inertial properties 4. √2 4. neither the elastic property nor the inertial property 7 A pipe is 15 cm long and is open at both ends. Which harmonic mode of the pipe will resonate with a 2.2 kHz sound source? (Given: the velocity of sound in air = 330 m/s) 1. fundamental 2. second harmonic 3. third harmonic 4. fourth harmonic Page: 1  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 8 Regarding linear simple harmonic motion (SHM), 11 The time period of a simple pendulum is T. The consider the following statements: 5 time taken to complete oscillations starting from the 8 α (A) The acceleration is maximum at the mean position. mean position is T. The value of α is: (B) The velocity is maximum at the extreme position. β 1. 3 (C) Acceleration is maximum at the extreme position. 2. 6 (D) The velocity is maximum at the mean position. 3. 7 4. 10 Which of the above statements are true? −3 1. (B), (C), and (D) 12 A wire with a linear mass density 9.8 × 10 kg/m 2. (A) and (D) passes over a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. 3. (A) and (B) A transverse wave propagates along the string from end 4. (C) and (D) A to B with a speed of 100 m/s. If m1 = 20 kg, the value of m2 is: 9 A tuning fork, placed in a room, vibrates according (take g = 9.8 m/s2) Y = (10−4 m) sin ( ) where Y 2πt to the equation: 0.01 s is the displacement of the tip of a prong. The speed of sound in air is 330 m/s. If an additional tuning fork of frequency 102 Hz is sounded together with this, then a beat frequency of: 1. 1 Hz will be heard. 2. 2 Hz will be heard. 6 20 1. kg 2. kg 3. 202 Hz will be heard. 5 3 14 9 4. 101 Hz will be heard. 3. kg 4. kg 5 7 10 Given below are two statements: 13 The dimensional formula for the wave number is: A glass tube partially filled with water Assertion (A): 1. [M L T ] 2. [M L T ] 0 −1 0 0 0 −1 represents an open organ pipe. The open end corresponds to an 3. [M L T ] 4. [M L T ] 0 1 0 0 0 1 Reason (R): antinode and the end in contact with water, to a node. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct 14 Which one of the following relationships between answer from the options given below: acceleration, a and the displacement, x of a particle Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct involves simple harmonic motion? 1. explanation of (A). 1. a = −50x3 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is not the correct 2. a = 50x2 2. explanation of (A). 3. a = 50x 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. a = −50x 4. (A) is False but (R) is True. Page: 2  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 15 Which of the following expressions represents a 18 A mechanical wave propagates in a medium along wave? the X-axis. The particles of the medium: 1. y = A sin(ωt − kx) (a) must move on the X-axis 2. y = A cos2 (at − bx + c) + A sin2 (at − bx + c) (b) must move on the Y-axis 3. y = A sin kx (c) may move on the X-axis 4. y = A sin ωt (d) may move on the Y-axis 16 The graph of potential energy (U) versus Choose the correct option from the given ones: displacement (x) is shown. Which of the following 1. (a) and (b) only describes the oscillation about the mean position, x = 0? 2. (b) and (c) only 3. (c) and (d) only 4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) 1. 2. 19 The differential equation of simple harmonic d2x motion for a particle is given by, a + bx = 0. The dt2 ratio of the maximum acceleration to the maximum velocity of the particle is: b a 1. 2. a b √ √b 3. 4. a 3. 4. b a 20 A particle moves on a circular path with uniform speed about the origin. The (x − t) graph will 17 Which of the following statements is true about the be: velocity of a pendulum bob at its lowest point? (x : value of x−coordinate; t−time) 1. It increases as the mass of the bob increases. It decreases as the initial displacement angle 2. increases. It increases as the cord length increases, given the 1. 2. 3. same initial displacement angle of the pendulum. It decreases as the cord length increases, given the 4. same initial displacement angle of the pendulum. 3. 4. Page: 3  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 21 A spring-block system is brought from the 25 Assume there are two identical simple pendulums. Earth's surface to deep inside the mine. Its period of Clock-1 is placed on Earth, and Clock-2 is placed on a oscillation will: space station located at a height h above Earth's surface. 1. increase Clock-1 and Clock-2 operate with time periods of 4 s 2. decrease and 6 s, respectively. The value of h is: (Given: the radius of Earth, RE = 6400 km and the 3. remain the same may increase or decrease depending on the mass of acceleration due to gravity on Earth, g = 10 m/s2) 4. 1. 1200 km the block 2. 1600 km 3. 3200 km 22 A sitar wire is replaced by another wire of the same 4. 4800 km length and material but with double the radius. If the tension in the wire remains the same, the fundamental 26 A taut string, fixed at both ends, is allowed to frequency will become: vibrate in its fundamental mode with a maximum 1. nine times amplitude A. The total energy of vibration is 2. double proportional to: 3. half 1. A 4. one-ninth 2. A2 3. A4 23 A particle performing simple harmonic motion with 1 amplitude, A starts from x = 0 and reaches x = A/2 in 4. 2 A 2 s. The time required for the particle to go from x = A/2 to x = A is: 27 In simple harmonic motion, the acceleration of a 1. 1.5 s particle is: 2. 4 s 1. always zero 3. 6 s 2. always constant 4. 1 s 3. maximum at the extreme position Given below are two statements: 4. maximum at the equilibrium position 24 In simple harmonic motion, the velocity 28 The first overtone of an open organ pipe has the Assertion (A): is maximum when the displacement is minimum. same frequency as the first overtone of a closed pipe of length L. The length of the open organ pipe will be: Displacement and velocity of simple Reason (R): 2L harmonic motion differ in phase by π/2. 1. L 2. 3 3L 4L Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. 4. 1. 4 3 explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. Page: 4  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 29 The figure shows a pendulum at the bottom of its 32 Two particles are performing simple harmonic swing. motions represented by: y1 = 5[sin(2πt) + √3 cos(2πt)] and y2 = 5 sin(2πt + π 4 ) The ratio of their amplitudes is: 1. 1 : 1 2. 2 : 1 3. 1 : 3 4. √3 : 1 33 Given below are two statements: What is the direction of the net force acting on the If the amplitude of a simple harmonic pendulum bob? Assertion (A): oscillator is doubled, its total energy becomes doubled. 1. 2. The total energy is directly proportional Reason (R): to the amplitude of the vibration of the 3. 4. The net force is zero. harmonic oscillator. 30 The restoring force of a spring, with a block Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. attached to the free end of the spring, is represented by: explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. 2. 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 34 A simple harmonic oscillator consists of a block attached to a spring with a spring constant, k = 200 N/m. The block slides on a frictionless horizontal surface, with an equilibrium point x = 0. A graph of the block's velocity, v as a function of time t is 3. 4. shown. Correctly match the required information in the Column I with the values given in the Column II. (use π 2 = 10) 31 An unknown tuning fork sounded together with a tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz emits two beats per second. On loading the tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz, the number of beats heard is 1 per second. The frequency of the unknown tuning fork is: 1. 257 Hz 2. 258 Hz 3. 256 Hz 4. 254 Hz Page: 5  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 Column-I Column-II 38 Given the spring-mass-string system depicted in the A. The mass of the block in kg P. −0.20 figure, what is the time period of the system? The x-coordinate of the block at t = 0 in B. Q. −200 metres The acceleration of block at t = 0.10 s in C. 2 R. 0.20 m/s The block's maximum kinetic energy in D. S. 4.0 Joule Codes: A B C D 1. π√ + π√ 1. P R Q S m m 2. R P Q S 2k 2k + √ 3. R Q P S m π m 2. π√ 4. R P S Q 2k 2 k m 3. 2π√ 35 The time period of a simple pendulum in a 3k stationary trolley is T1. If the trolley is moving with a 4. √ m constant speed, then the time period is T2. Then: k 1. T1 > T2 2. T1 < T2 39 n waves are produced on a string in one second. If 3. T1 = T2 the radius of the string is doubled and the tension is 4. T2 = ∞ maintained the same, the number of waves produced in one second for the same harmonic will be: Physics - Section B 1. 2n n 2. 36 The mass per unit length of a uniform wire is 0.135 3 n g/cm. A transverse wave of the form 3. 2 y = −0.21 sin(x + 30t) is produced in it, where x is in 4. n meter and t is in second. The expected value of the √2 tension in the wire is: 1. 12.15 N 40 The pressure wave 2. 30.12 N −2 P = 0.01 sin(1000t − 3x) Nm , corresponds to the 3. 45.35 N 4. 50.24 N sound produced by a vibrating blade on a day when the atmospheric temperature is 0∘ C. On some other day, 37 The time period of oscillation of a simple pendulum when the temperature is T , the speed of sound produced by the same blade and at the same frequency is found to of length L, suspended from the roof of a vehicle, which −1 be 336 ms. The approximate value of T is: moves without friction down an inclined plane of 1. 4∘ C inclination α, is given by: 2. 12∘ C 1. 2π√ 2. 2π√ L L 3. 11∘ C g cosα g sinα 4. 15∘ C 3. 2π√ 4. 2π√ L L g g tanα Page: 6  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 41 Given below are two statements: 43 A uniform thin rope of length 12 m and mass 6 kg In a progressive wave motion, the hangs vertically from a rigid support and a block of mass Assertion (A): particle velocity remains constant at all 2 kg is attached to its free end. A transverse short wave- times. train of wavelength 6 cm is produced at the lower end of During the propagation of sound, the the rope. What is the wavelength of the wavetrain Reason (R): density of the medium is uniform (in cm) when it reaches the top of the rope? throughout. 1. 12 2. 9 3. 3 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. 4. 6 explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 44 Two tennis players play a game where the ball is 2. explanation of (A). struck by the players, so that it rebounds and retraces its 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. path back and forth. The players (A, B) strike the ball at 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. the same height above the ground. The maximum height risen by the ball, after a strike, is H and its horizontal 42 The correct figure that shows, schematically, the speed is u. Neglect any air resistance. wave pattern produced by the superposition of two waves of frequencies 9 Hz and 11 Hz, is: 1. The separation between the players is (nearly): 1. √ u2.H 2. 2g 2. 2√ u2.H 2g √ 1 u2 3..H 2 2g 4. 4√ u2.H 2g 3. 4. Page: 7  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 45 A travelling wave pulse is given by the equation; 49 A spring has spring constant 400 N/m. When mass 4 of M kg is attached to it and the other end is fixed to the y= , 3x2 + 48t2 + 24xt + 2 ceiling, it executes simple harmonic motion with a where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The frequency f. The spring is cut into four equal parts, and velocity of the wave is: all the parts are placed side by side and hung from the 1. 4 m/s same point, with the same mass attached to the other end 2. 2 m/s (as shown in the figure). The new frequency of 3. 8 m/s oscillation will be: 4. 12 m/s 46 A wave travels uniformly in all directions from a point source in an isotropic medium. The displacement of the medium at any point at a distance r from the source can be represented by: (where A is a constant representing the strength of the source) A 1. sin(kr − ωt) 1. f √r f A 2. 2. sin(kr − ωt) 2 r 3. 2f 3. Ar sin(kr − ωt) 4. 4f A 4. sin(kr − ωt) r2 50 Two particles execute simple harmonic motion with the same amplitude and frequency along the same 47 If the vertical spring-mass system is dipped in a straight-line path. They pass each other while moving in non-viscous liquid, then: opposite directions, each time their displacement is half 1. Only the mean position changes. of their amplitude. The phase difference between them 2. Only the time period changes. is: 5π 2π 3. Both the time period and mean position change. 1. 2. 6 3 Both the time period and mean position remain the π π 4. same. 3. 4. 3 6 48 The ratio of the speed of sound in nitrogen gas to that in helium gas, at 300 K is: 1. √ 2 7 2. √ 1 7 √3 3. 5 √6 4. 5 Page: 8  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 Chemistry - Section A 51 The molecule that exhibits non-planarity is: 1. 2. 1. 2. 3. 4. 3. 4. 54 In which of the following carbanions, electron will be delocalized in d-orbital? 52 Kjeldahl method is not used for Assertion (A): pyridine. Nitrogen of pyridine does not change to Reason (R): ammonium sulphate under these 1. 2. conditions. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 53 The product formed in the reaction given below is: 3. 4. 55 Which of the following statement is correct? + Allyl carbonium ion (CH2 = CH − CH2 ) is more 1. stable than propyl carbonium ion. Propyl carbonium ion is more stable than allyl 2. carbonium ion. 3. Both are equally stable. 4. Propyl carbonium shows + R effect Page: 9  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 56 Among the following, the property that is true about 58 In the reaction sequence given below, (A) will be: the following compound is: 1. 1-Bromo-2-ethyl cyclopentane 1. Non-planar 2. 1-Bromo-1-methyl cyclopentane 2. C + is sp2 -hybridized 3. 1-Bromo-5-methyl cyclopentane 3. Electrophile can attack C + 4. 5-Bromo-1-methyl cyclopentane 4. Does not undergo hydrolysis 59 Which of the following meta-directing substituents in aromatic substitution is the most deactivating? 57 Arrange the following in increasing order of 1. -C≡N stability: 2. -SO3 H 3. -COOH 4. -NO2 60 How many chain isomers does butene have? 1. 2 2. 3 3. 0 1. 4. 1 61 What is correct about the following structure? 2. 3. 1. Total stereoisomers =4 2. Number of chiral carbons =1 3. Number of optical isomers =2 4. Number of meso compounds= 2 4. Page: 10  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 62 Arrange the following in decreasing order of α− 65 Which alkyne(s) will yield 3-ethylhexane upon hydrogen: catalytic hydrogenation? 1. 2. 1. i > ii > iii 3. 4. All of the above 2. ii > i > iii 3. ii > iii > i 4. iii > ii > i 66 Arrange the following carbanions in correct order of 63 The ratio of Rf value for P and R is : stability: I. II. III. IV. 1. 0.50 2. 0.80 3. 0.65 4. 2.0 1. I > II > III> IV 2. II > III > I > IV 64 Which of the following compounds does not exhibit 3. III > II > IV > I resonance stabilization involving the benzene ring? 4. III > I > II > IV 1. C6 H5 Cl 2. C6 H5 OH 3. C6 H5 NH3 + 4. C6 H5 NH2 Page: 11  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 ∘ ∘ ∘ 67 Which of the compound contains only 1 , 2 and 4 71 Compounds that yield an aromatic compound as the carbon atoms? major product are: a. a. b. b. c. d. c. Choose the correct option: 1. (a),(b),(d) 2. (c),(d) d. 3. (a),(d) 4. (a),(b) 1. a, c 68 The basic strength of the following anions, ordered 2. b, c 3. b, d from most to least, is: ¯ ¯¯¯ 4. None of the above. OH − , HCOO− , CH3 COO− , OR (I) (II) (III) (IV ) 72 Which of the following is not a functional isomer of 1. II > III > I > IV the other compound given in the options? 2. IV > I > III > II 1. Acetone and Propionaldehyde 3. III > IV > I > II 2. Alkyl cyanide and Alkyl isocyanide 4. I > IV > II > III 3. Propanoic acid and Methyl ethanoate 4. Nitroalkane and Alkyl nitrate 69 Which of the following species cannot function as an electrophile? 73 The given compound is classified as: 1. HCl 2. C̈ Cl2 3. SF2 4. CH2=CH2 1. Alicyclic 70 What is the end product of the following sequences 2. Aromatic 3. Antiaromatic of operations? H2 O Dil.H2 SO4 Ni 4. Acyclic CaC2 −→ A −−−−−→ B → C Hg2+ H2 1. Methyl alcohol 2. Acetaldehyde 3. Ethyl alcohol 4. Ethene Page: 12  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 74 List the following compounds in order of 78 The compound that contains only sp³ hybridized decreasing basicity: carbon atoms is: 1. HCOOH 2. (NH2 )2 CO 3. (CH3 )3 COH 4. CH3 CHO 79 The IUPAC name for the following compound is: 1. i > ii> iii 2 iii> i > ii 3. i > iii> ii 4. ii> iii > i 75 The reaction of propene with HOCl (Cl2 + H2 O) proceeds through the intermediate: 1. CH3 − CH(OH) − CH2+ 2. CH3 − CHCl − CH2+ 1. 3-Methyl-4-(3-methylprop-1-enyl)-1-heptyne 3. CH3 − CH + − CH2 − OH 2. 3,5-Dimethyl-4-propylhept-6-en-1-yne 4. CH3 − CH + − CH2 − Cl 3. 3-Methyl-4-(1-methylprop-2-ynl)-1-heptene 4. 3,5-Dimethyl-4-propylhept-1-en-6-yne 76 Arrange the following in increasing order of their stability: 80 Which of the following is/are used as adsorbent in adsorption chromatography? 1. Silica gel a. b. 2. Alumina 3. Benzene 4. Both (1) and (2) c. d. 1. (a) < (b) < (c) < (d) 2. (a) < (d) < (c) < (b) 3. (a) < (c) < (d) < (b) 4. (d) < (c) < (a) < (b) 77 During the estimation of nitrogen present in an organic compound by Kjeldahl’s method, the ammonia evolved from 1.3 g of the compound in Kjeldahl’s estimation of nitrogen, neutralized 10 mL of 1 M H2SO4. The percentage of nitrogen in the compound is 1. 56.00 2. 21.53 3. 33.76 4. 29.34 Page: 13  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 81 How many of the following compounds are 84 The stability of the given compounds, in descending optically active? order, is: (I) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − Cl (II) CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − OH (III) A. B. (IV) C. D. (V) 1. A > B > C > D 2. D > B > C > A 1. Zero 3. D > C > B > A 2. (I), (II), (III) 4. A > B > D > C 3. (IV), (III), (V) 4. (II), (III) 85 The number of acetylenic bonds in the given compound is/are : 82 Which of the following molecules/intermediates/species is/are electrophile(s)? A. BH3 B. SiH4 C. PCl3 D. :CH2 E. NH3 1. A, B, C, and D only 2. A, B, and C only 3. A only 4. A and D only 83 Which compound with the molecular formula C7 H16 shows optical isomerism? 1. 2-Methylhexane 1. 3 2. 2, 2-Dimethylpentane 2. 1 3. 2, 3-Dimethylpentane 3. 4 4. None of the above. 4. 5 Page: 14  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 Chemistry - Section B 89 Identify A and B as the major products in the following reaction sequence: 86 Acidity of acetylene is more than: 1. HOH 2. ROH 3. C6 H5 OH 4. NH3 87 Soda-lime is a specific reagent for: 1. 1. Decarboxylation 2. Dehalogenation 3. Dehydration 4. Dehydrogenation 88 Toluene, when treated with Br2 /F e, gives p- 2. bromotoluene as the major product because CH3 group: a. Is para directing b. Is meta directing c. Activates the ring by hyperconjugation d. Deactivates the ring Which of the above statements are correct? 1. a, c 3. 2. b, c 3. b, d 4. None of the above 4. 90 Arrange the C-H bonds labeled 1,2,3 and 4 in the molecule (given below) in increasing order of their ease for homolytic fission: 1. 4 < 2 < 3 < 1 2. 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 3. 4 < 1 < 2 < 3 4. 2 < 4 < 1 < 3 Page: 15  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 91 The provided pair of structures illustrates: 94 Which of the following statements are incorrect in relation to the halogenation of alkane? The reactivity of chlorine is less than bromine a. towards alkanes. For photochemical chlorination of methane, Cl is b. formed in slowest step. Free radicals are pyramidal intermediate, stabilized c. by hyperconjugation and resonance. Bromine has much higher regioselectivity than 1. Conformational isomers d. chlorine in abstracting 3° hydrogen. 2. Positional isomers 1. a, c, d 3. Chain isomers 2. a, b, c 4. Identical compounds 3, c, d, b 4. None of the above 92 An organic compound weighing 0.16 g gave on various estimations, 0.08 g of silver bromide. The 95 The correct order of the rate of addition reaction for percentage of bromine in the compound will be close to: halogen acids with ethylene is: 1. 34% Hydrogen chloride > Hydrogen bromide > Hydrogen 2. 21.28% 1. iodide 3. 19.23% 4. 4.6% Hydrogen iodide > Hydrogen bromide > Hydrogen 2. chloride 93 Which of the following reactions give a meso- 3. Hydrogen bromide > Hydrogen chloride > Hydrogen iodide compound as the main product? Hydrogen iodide > Hydrogen chloride > Hydrogen 4. a. bromide b. c. d. 1. a, b 2. b, c 3. c, d 4. None of the above Page: 16  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 96 Consider the following reaction: 99 In the above reaction, the reaction intermediate is: 1. This is an example of : 1. Nucleophilic addition 2. 2. Nucleophilic substitution 3. Electrophilic addition 4. Electrophilic substitution 100 Which, among the following reagents, give syn 3. addition with alkenes? 1. Br2 2. Cl2 3. BH3 4. All of the above Biology I - Section A 4. 101 The difference between mitosis and meiosis I is Sister chromatids separate in mitosis, whereas 1. homologous chromosomes separate in meiosis I The nuclear membrane is absent during mitotic 2. metaphase, but not in meiotic metaphase 97 The molecular weight of the unknown hydrocarbon The DNA is double helical in meiosis I but not in is 70. The hydrocarbon will be: 3. mitosis 1. Alkane Unlike in mitotic metaphase, chromosomes do not 2. Alkene 4. align at the equatorial plate in meiosis I 3. Alkyne 4. Alkene and cycloalkane 102 Mitosis accomplishes: 98 What type(s) of chemical reaction is/are used to I: the segregation of duplicated chromosomes into synthesize alkenes? daughter nuclei (karyokinesis) 1. Substitution division of the cell into two daughter cells by the II: 2. Only elimination separation of cytoplasm (cytokinesis) 3. Only addition 4. Addition as well as elimination reaction 1. Only I is correct 2. Only II is correct 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect Page: 17  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 103 The diagram shows the various phases of cell cycle 107 The difference between mitosis anaphase and in a typical eukaryotic cell. Identify the correct match: anaphase I of meiosis is: Chromosomes line up at the equatorial plate in 1. anaphase I of meiosis Sister chromatids separate in mitosis anaphase, 2. whereas homologous chromosomes separate in anaphase I of meiosis Only mitosis anaphase leads to genetically identical 3. daughter cells 4. Anaphase I of meiosis does not involve spindle fibers 108 Match the following and select the correct option: Column I Column II i. Simple lipids a. Cholesterol I: A-Interphase; B-G1 phase; C-S phase; D-G2 phase ii. Compound lipids b. Vanaspati ghee P-Prophase; Q- Anaphase; R-Metaphase; S- iii. Sterols c. Glycerol II: d. Lecithin Diakinesis III: X-Karyokinesis; Y- Cytokinesis 1. i-a, ii-c, iii-d 2. i-a, ii-b, iii-c 3. i-b, ii-c, iii-d 1. Only III 2. Only I and III 4. i-c, ii-d, iii-a 3. Only II 4. I, II and III 109 Vacuole in a plant cell 104 Which of the following is correct? is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and 1. Cells of all living organisms have a nucleus. 1. lipids Both animal and plant cells have a well defined cell is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory 2. 2. wall. substances In prokaryotes, there are no membrane bound 3. lacks membrane and contains air 3. organelles. lacks membrane and contains water and excretory 4. Cells are formed, de novo, from abiotic materials. 4. substances 105 Tonoplast is the membrane of: 110 Which type of vacuoles provide buoyancy to 1. Ribosome 2. Lysosome bacteria? 3. Vacuole 4. Peroxisome 1. Sap vacuoles 2. Contractile vacuoles 106 Which of the following observations cannot be 3. Gas vacuoles 4. Food vacuoles credited to Schleiden and Schwann? All plants are composed of different kinds of cells 1. 111 The middle lamella of plant cell wall is a layer which form the tissues of the plant. mainly composed of: Animal cells have a thin outer layer which is today 2. 1. Calcium pectate known as ‘plasma membrane’. 2. Calcium carbonate Cells divide and new cells are formed from pre- 3. Calcium silicate 3. existing cells. 4. Calcium phosphate The presence of cell wall is a unique character of the 4. plant cells. Page: 18  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 112 Which of the following secondary metabolites are 119 Identify the incorrect statement: placed under the category of an alkaloid? 1. Plastids are found in all plant cells and in euglenoids. 1. Carotenoids Plastids are easily observed under the microscope as 2. Gums 2. they are large. 3. Rubber Majority of the chloroplasts of all green plants are 4. Codeine 3. found in the bundle sheath cells of the leaves. 113 _________ marks the site where crossing over had 4. Plastids are double membrane bound. occurred. 1. Diakinesis 120 Match List I with List II: 2. Synapsis List I List II 3. Chiasmata A. GLUT-4 I. Hormone 4. Leptotene B. Insulin II. Enzyme Intercellular ground 114 Organelle involved in the synthesis of oils, C. Trypsin III. substance phospholipids, and steroids in a eukaryotic cell will be: Enables glucose transport 1. Lysosome D. Collagen IV. into cells 2. Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER) 3. Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) Choose the correct answer from the options given 4. Golgi apparatus below: 1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 115 Which of the following statements is wrong? 2. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an internal 3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 1. compartment or the thylakoid space bounded by the 4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III thylakoid membrane. 2. Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain DNA. 121 Gas vacuoles allow cyanobacteria to: The chloroplasts are generally much larger than 1. Store carbon dioxide for assimilation 3. mitochondria. 2. Control their buoyancy Both chloroplasts and mitochondria are covered by 3. Provide anaerobic conditions to nitrogenase 4. 4. Eliminate toxic ammonia double membrane. 116 New cells generate from 122 The lipid component of the plasma membrane 1. bacterial fermentation mainly consists of: 2. regeneration of old cells 1. Triglycerides 3. pre-existing cells 2. Cholesterol 4. abiotic materials 3. Phosphoglycerides 4. Proteins 117 Type of plastids that have fat soluble carotenoid In a polysaccharide, the individual pigments, like carotene xanthophylls, are present in: 123 1. Chromoplasts 2. Amyloplasts monosaccharides are linked by a _________'A'________ bond, whereas in a polypeptide, 3. Aleuroplasts 4. Elaioplasts amino acids are linked by a ____'B'_____ bond. Select the option that correctly identifies 'A' and 'B': 118 Which of the following group of enzymes helps in 1. A-Glycosidic, B-Peptide catalysing a transfer of a group (other than hydrogen) 2. A-Peptide, B-Ester between a pair of substances? 3. A-Amide, B-Hydrogen 1. Oxidoreductases 4. A-Peptide, B-Glycosidic 2. Transferases 3. Lyases 4. Isomerases Page: 19  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 124 Which of the following graphs explains the effect 128 What should be added to a nucleoside to yield a of pH on the enzyme activity? nucleotide? 1. Sugar 2. Phosphoric acid 3. Nitrogenous base 1. 2. 4. Sugar and nitrogenous base 129 The famous Watson-Crick model is an example of: 1. one of the primary structures exhibited by DNA. 2. one of the secondary structures exhibited by DNA. 3. one of the tertiary structures exhibited by DNA. 4. one of the quaternary structures exhibited by DNA. 3. 4. 130 Which of the following statement is incorrect about enzymes? 1. They are highly substrate specific In thermophilic organisms, enzymes can catalyze 2. reaction at high temperatures, i.e. 90°C 125 Match List-I with List-II: 3. All enzymes are proteinaceous in nature List-I List-II 4. Some enzymes have metal ions Primary structure of A. I. Human haemoglobin protein 131 A stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram. Which Secondary structure of stage is it and what are its characteristics? B. II. Disulphide bonds protein Tertiary structure of C. III. Polypeptide chain protein Quaternary structure of Alpha helix and β D. IV. protein sheet Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I 2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV 3. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV 4. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I 126 Proteins are Metaphase-spindle fibers attached to kinetochores, 1. Macromolecules 1. centromeres split and chromatids separate 2. Homopolymers Metaphase- chromosomes moved to spindle equator, 3. Micromolecules 2. chromosomes made up of two sister chromatids 4. Polymers of starch Anaphase - centromeres split and chromatids separate 3. and start moving away 127 A contractile vacuole will especially be highly Late prophase - chromosomes move to spindle useful for osmoregulation in: 4. equator 1. a unicellular marine water organism. 2. a multicellular marine water organism. 3. a unicellular fresh water organism. 132 Cotton fibres mainly contain: 4. a multicellular large fresh water organism. 1. cellulose 2. glycogen 3. protein 4. lipid Page: 20  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 133 Regarding meiosis and mitosis, one difference Biology I - Section B between the two forms of cellular reproduction is that in meiosis: 136 Select the correct sequence of events occurring there is one round of cell division, whereas in mitosis during prophase-I of meiosis-I 1. there are two rounds of cell division. (a) Nuclear envelope breakdown separation of sister chromatids occurs during the (b) Synaptonemal complex formation 2. second division, whereas in mitosis separation of sister chromatids occurs during the first division. (c) Compaction of chromosomes Chromosomes are replicated during interphase, (d) Terminalisation of chiasmata 3. whereas in mitosis, chromosomes are replicated (e) Crossing over during the first phase of mitosis. Spindle fibers form during interphase, whereas in Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 4. given below: mitosis, the spindle fibers form during prophase. 1. (c) → (b) → (e) → (d) → (a) 134 Which of the following statements is not correct? 2. (c) → (a) → (b) → (d) → (e) Lysosomes are formed by the process of packaging in 3. (b) → (c) → (a) → (d) → (e) 1. the endoplasmic reticulum. 4. (c) → (a) → (b) → (e) → (d) 2. Lysosomes have numerous hydrolytic enzymes. Consider the given two statements: The hydrolytic enzymes of lysosomes are active 137 3. under acidic pH. Prokaryotic ribosomes are 70S, while Statement I: 4. Lysosomes are membrane bound structure. eukaryotic ribosomes are 80S. The "S" in ribosome sizing stands for 135 Select the total number of correct statement(s): Svedberg unit, which is a measure of the Statement II: cell-plate formation occurs in plant cell during rate of sedimentation in centrifugation I: rather than size. cytokinesis. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. During cytokinesis, mitochondria and plastid get ll: 2. Only Statement I is correct. distributed between two daughter cells in mitosis. 3. Only Statement II is correct. lll: Liquid endosperm in coconut is syncytium. 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. Furrow formation occurs in animal cells during lV: cytokinesis. 138 In most eubacterial cells, the cell envelope consists 1. only 1 statement is correct of a tightly bound three layered structure where the 2. only 2 statements are correct outermost is the: 3. only 3 statements are correct 1. Middle lamella 4. All 4 statements are correct 2. Glycocalyx 3. Cell wall 4. Cell membrane Page: 21  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 139 Match Column I with Column II and mark the 143 Regarding catalytic cycle of an enzyme action, correct option: select the correct sequential steps: Column I Column II A. Substrate enzyme complex formation. a. Starch 1. Cotton fibre B. Free enzyme ready to bind with another substrate. b. Cellulose 2. Exoskeleton of cockroach C. Release of products. c. Glycogen 3. Liver D. Chemical bonds of the substrate broken. d. Chitin 4. Peeled potato E. Substrate binding to active site. Choose the correct answer from the options given 1. a(3), b(4), c(1), d(2) below: 2. a(4), b(1), c(3), d(2) 1. A, E, B, D, C 3. a(4), b(2), c(1), d(2) 2. B, A, C, D, E 4. a(2), b(1), c(3), d(4) 3. E, D, C, B, A 4. E, A, D, C, B 140 Consider the structures given below and select a basic amino acid. 144 Co-enzymes are inorganic compounds that Assertion bind tightly with the apoenzyme to form a (A): 1. 2. holoenzyme. Reason Co-enzymes and prosthetic groups are (R): cofactors. 1. (A) is False but (R) is True. 2. (A) is True but (R) is False. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 3. 4. 3. explanation of (A). Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 4. explanation of (A). 145 Match List I with List II: 141 During cell growth, DNA synthesis takes place in: List I List II 1. S phase Metacentric Chromosome has a terminal A. I. 2. G1 phase chromosome centromere 3. G2 phase Sub-metacentric Middle centromere forming two B. II. 4. M phase chromosome equal arms of chromosome Centromere is slightly away Acrocentric 142 Prosthetic groups are distinguished from other C. chromosome III. from the middle chromosome cofactors in that they: resulting into two unequal arms I: are organic compounds. Centromere is situated close to II: are tightly bound to the apoenzyme. Telocentric its end forming one D. IV. 1. Only I is true chromosome extremely short and one very 2. Only II is correct long arm 3. Both I and II are correct 4. Both I and II are incorrect Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III 2. A-IV, B-I, C- II, D- III 3. A-I, B-II, C- III, D- IV 4. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I Page: 22  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 146 Match List I with List II: 149 Which of the following organic molecule is not List I List II correctly matched with the diagrammatic representation Pairing of homologous of its structure? A. I. Chiasmata chromosomes Actual interchange of segments Synaptonemal B. between two homologous II. complex chromosomes 1. Alanine Protein body formed between C. III. Synapsis paired homologs The cross shaped configuration 2. Palmitic acid CH3 − (CH2 )14 − COOH D. IV. Crossing over visible between homologs Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A - (IV); B - (III); C- (I); D - (II) 2. A - (III); B - (IV); C- (I); D - (II) 3. Glycerol 3. A - (III); B - (IV); C- (II); D - (I) 4. A - (IV); B - (III); C- (II); D - (I) 147 Which number represents the site of ribosome biogenesis in the given figure? 4. Adenylic acid 150 Match the following with respect to meiosis: (a) Zygotene (i) Terminalization (b) Pachytene (ii) Chiasmata (c) Diplotene (iii) Crossing over (d) Diakinesis (iv) Synapsis 1. 1 2. 2 Select the correct option from the following: 3. 3 (a) (b) (c) (d) 4. 4 1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 2. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii) 148 Match the following & mark the correct option 3. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) given below: 4. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) Column I Column II 1. Cristae (i) Flat membranous sacs in the stroma Biology II - Section A 2. Cisternae (ii) Infoldings in mitochondria 3. Thylakoids (iii) Disc-shaped sacs in Golgi apparatus 151 An important site of formation of glycoproteins and glycolipids in a eukaryotic cell is: 1. 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i 1. RER 2. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii 2. SER 3. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii 3. Golgi apparatus 4. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii 4. Ribosomes Page: 23  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 152 A typical eukaryotic cell cycle is illustrated by 156 Identify the incorrectly matched pair: human cells in culture. These cells divide once in approximately every 1. 24 hours 2. 90 minutes 3. 20 minutes 4. 9 hours 153 Match Column I with Column II and mark the correct option: Column I Column II (A) Peptide linkage (i) Inversion (B) Nucleic acid (ii) Polysaccharide I: A Sister chromatids (C) Hydrolysis of cane sugar (iii) Proteins II: B Q arm of the chromosome (D) starch (iv) Nucleotides III: C Centromere 1. (A) → (ii), (B) → (i), (C) → (iii), (D) → (iv) IV: D P arm of the chromosome 2. (A) → (iv), (B) → (i), (C) → (ii), (D) → (iii) 3. (A) → (iii), (B) → (iv), (C) → (i), (D) → (ii) 1. Only I and II 2. Only II and IV 4. (A) → (i), (B) → (iii), (C) → (iv), (D) → (ii) 3. Only I and III 4. Only I 154 The content of nucleolus is continuous with 157 Synapsis occurs between: nucleoplasm 1. Through microtubules 1. a male and a female gamete 2. Through nuclear pores 2. mRNA and ribosomes 3. Due to lack of membrane 3. spindle fibres and centromere 4. Due to presence of channels in membrane 4. two homologous chromosomes 155 What is the ultrastructure of a centriole? 158 Consider the given two statements: A cylinder composed of nine triplets of microtubules Statement I: All life comes from pre-existing life. 1. Statement II: All cells arise from pre-existing cells with no central microtubules. 2. A hollow tube formed by nine pairs of microtubules. 1. Statement I is True; Statement II is True 2. Statement I is True; Statement II is False A structure consisting of nine doublets of 3. 3. Statement I is False; Statement II is True microtubules. 4. Statement I is False; Statement II is False A ring composed of thirteen protofilaments without 4. tubulin. 159 Which stage of prophase I of meiosis I can last for months or years in oocytes of some vertebrates? 1. Zygotene 2. Pachytene 3. Diplotene 4. Diakinesis 160 Which biomolecules is neither a macromolecule nor a polymer? 1. Lipids 2. Proteins 3. Carbohydrates 4. Nucleic acids Page: 24  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 161 The cell membrane in bacterial cells: 165 If a cell had 2N chromosomes and 2C DNA is selectively permeable in nature and interacts with content in G1 phase, what would be the corresponding I: the outside world. values at the end of the S phase? II: is similar structurally to that of the eukaryotes. 1. 2N, 2C 1. Only I is correct 2. 4N, 2C 2. Only II is correct 3. 2N, 4C 3. Both I and II are correct 4. 4N, 4C 4. Both I and II are incorrect 166 The discovery of the triple helical structure of 162 Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from cytokinesis collagen is credited to: in animal cells primarily because: 1. Anand Chakravarty 1. Plant cells do not undergo cytokinesis. 2. G. S. Khush 3. Venkatraman Ramakrishnan Animal cells use a cell plate mechanism, while plant 2. 4. G. N. Ramachandran cells use a cleavage furrow. Plant cells form a cell plate that develops into a new 167 Tertiary structure of protein contains which type of 3. cell wall, whereas animal cells constrict the cytoplasm through a cleavage furrow. forces? Electrostatic, hydrogen bonds, van der Waals forc­es, Animal cells form a cell plate, while plant cells 1. 4. dipole-dipole attractions and disulphide cross linkage divide the cytoplasm by multiple fission. Electrostatic, hydrogen bonds and van der Waals 2. forces only 163 Which of the following statement is correct for the 3. Electrostatic forces only given diagram? 4. Electrostatic as well as hydrogen bonds only 168 Synaptonemal complex dissolves during: 1. Leptotene 2. Diakinesis 3. Zygotene 4. Diplotene 'C' possesses DNA molecule, RNA molecule and 80 S 169 Which phase of mitosis is essentially the reverse of 1. ribosomes prophase in terms of nuclear changes? 2. 'A' and 'B' have their own specific enzymes 1. S-phase 'E' made by inner membrane towards the 2. Anaphase 3. intermembrane space 3. Telophase 'B' forms the continuous limiting boundary of the 4. Interphase 4. organelle 170 In triglycerides, glycerol is linked to fatty acid 164 In prokaryotes, just before the cell divides, the two with a/an daughter genomes are attached side by side to the 1.Ether bond 1. kinetochore 2.Ester bond 2. centromere 3.Amide bond 3. cell membrane 4.Glycosidic bond 4. ori Page: 25  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 171 Amino acids are substituted methanes. There are 177 Consider the given two statements: 20 types of amino acids and all of them contain a single Assertion (A): Glycogen has one reducing end. asymmetric carbon, except in: The reducing end is where non-reducing 1. Glycine Reason (R): sugars can be added to the glycogen 2. Proline molecule. 3. Lysine 4. Cysteine Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. explanation of (A). 172 Nuclear pores: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct are formed by the fusion of the two nuclear 2. I: explanation of (A). membranes at some places. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. are the passages through which movement of RNA 4. Both (A) and (R) are False. II: and protein molecules takes place in both directions between the nucleus and the cytoplasm. 1. Only I is correct 178 Centromere is required for 2. Only II is correct 1. transcription 3. Both I and II are correct 2. crossing over 4. Both I and II are incorrect 3. cytoplasmic cleavage 4. movement of chromosomes towards poles 173 Bacterial plasmids are: 1. Circular dsRNA 179 Read the following statements and choose the 2. Circular dsDNA correct option: 3. Linear dsDNA Statement Polar molecules cannot pass through lipid 4. Linear dsRNA I: bilayer of plasma membrane by self. Polar molecules require carrier proteins to The cell recognition and adhesion are facilitated by Statement 174 II: facilitate their transport across the components of plasma membrane which are: membrane. 1. Glycolipids and glycoproteins 2. Lipids and proteins 1. Both Statements I and II are correct 3. Steroids 2. Both Statements I and II are incorrect 4. Both (2) and (3) 3. Only Statement I is correct 4. Only Statement II is correct 175 What is a polysome? Histone proteins 1. A complex of DNA and proteins found in the nucleus. 180 A complex of RNA and ribosomes actively engaged 1. are required for gene expressions 2. 2. are of 7 types in protein synthesis. 3. are organised to form nucleoid 3. A storage form of polysaccharides in cells. 4. contain basic amino acids 4. A membrane structure involved in lipid synthesis. 181 Which of the following is true about compounds 176 Primary proteins are also known as polypeptides, present in acid insoluble pool? because: They have molecular weight ranging from 10,000 1. they are linear chains. 1. Daltons and above (except in lipids) 2. they are polymers of peptide monomers. 2. They are called as Macromolecules 3. successive amino acids are joined by peptide bonds. 4. they can assume many conformations. 3. They are called as Biomacromolecules 4. All of the above Page: 26  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 182 185 Identify the zwitterion configuration of alanine: Statement It is a non-membrane bound organelle I: which helps in cell division Statement It forms the basal body of cilia and II: flagella. 1. Above statements are true for: 1. Nucleus 2. Centromere 3. Centriole 4. Golgi apparatus 183 Match the following and select the correct option. 2. Column I Column II i. Lipid p. Glutamic acid ii. Amino acid q. Glycerol iii. Protein r. Starch iv. Carbohydrate s. Collagen 1. i-q, ii-s, iii-r, iv-p 3. 2. i-q, ii-p, iii-s, iv-r 3. i-p, ii-q, iii-r, iv-s 4. i-r, ii-s, iii-p, iv-q 184 In the 24 hour average duration of cell cycle of a human cell, cell division properly lasts for: 4. 1. only about 1 hour 2. approximately 90 minutes 3. between 4 and 5 hours 4. 95% time of the cell cycle Biology II - Section B 186 Match the following organelles with their functions: Column I Column II 1. Chloroplast A. Protein synthesis 2. Peroxisome B. Photosynthesis 3. Nucleolus C. Detoxification 4. Centrosome D. Cell division 1. 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C 2. 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A 3. 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C 4. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D Page: 27  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 187 In meiosis: 190 Match the following lists: paired chromosomes are called homologous List I List II I: chromosomes. Enzymes catalyzing hydrolysis of Chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the i. Lyases a. ester ether, peptide, glycosidic, II: formation of complex structure called C − C , C−halide or P − N bonds synaptonemal complex. Enzymes catalyzing a transfer of a The complex formed by a pair of synapsed i. Ligases b. group G between a pair of substrate III: homologous chromosomes is called a bivalent or a S and S ′ tetrad. They catalyse removal of groups IV: Tetrads are most clearly visible during zygotene. from substrate by mechanisms other ii. Hydrolases c. than hydrolysis leaving double 1. Only I, II and III are correct bonds. 2. Only I, III and IV are correct They catalyse the linking together of iv. Transferases d. 3. Only II, III and IV are correct 2 compounds 4. I, II, III and IV are correct 1. i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d 2. i-d, ii-a, iii-c, iv-b 188 Which of the following statements about the 3. i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b significance of mitosis is correct? 4. i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a 1. It is involved in the repair and regeneration of tissues. 2. It leads to genetic variation in the offspring. 191 Consider the given two statements: 3. It is the process by which gametes are formed. When enzyme catalyzed reactions are Assertion It results in the formation of diploid offspring from observed, the rate would be vastly higher 4. (A): haploid parents. than the same for uncatalyzed reaction Enzymes bring down activation energy Reason 189 The cell shown in the diagram is most likely at: barrier making the transition of ‘Substrate’ (R): to ‘Product’ easier. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct 1. explanation of (A) Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. explanation of (A). 3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 1. Metaphase I 2. Metaphase II 192 Which of the following statements are true 3. Anaphase I 4. Anaphase II regarding the functions of the Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (RER) and Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (SER)? I: RER is involved in protein synthesis. II: SER synthesizes lipids. III: RER detoxifies drugs and poisons. IV: SER assists in the storage of proteins. 1. I and II are correct 2. II and III are correct 3. I, II and III are correct 4. All are correct Page: 28  NEET Level Test - 01-Sep Contact Number: 9667591930 (Only ONLINE) / 8527521718 193 The number of correct statements from the given 196 The substrate has to go through a higher energy statements are: state or transition state during its conversion to a product I: Almost all enzymes are proteins. in: II: Some nucleic acids can behave like enzymes. I: Exothermic spontaneous reactions No enzyme in living organisms can function above II: Endothermic reactions III: 40 °C. III: Enzyme catalyzed reactions Enzymes are the reason that chemicals react with IV: each other. 1. Only I and II Enzymes are n