NCC MCQ-OMR PAPER 2024 PDF

1  2 TABLE OF CONTENTS NO SUBJECT QUESTIONS PAGE 1 Foreword ---- 2 Preface...

1  2 TABLE OF CONTENTS NO SUBJECT QUESTIONS PAGE 1 Foreword ---- 2 Preface ---- 3 Part 1 : Common Subjects all Wings NCC General 37 08 National Integration & Awareness 30 11 Drill 50 14 Weapon Training 25 18 Personality Development 100 20 Leadership 90 28 Disaster Management 20 36 Social Service & Community Development 45 38 Health & Hygiene 34 43 Adventure 33 46 Environmental Awareness & Conservation 29 49 Obstacles Training 20 52 Border and Coastal Areas 30 54 Total questions – Common Subjects 543 4 Part 2 : Specialized Subject – Army Wing Armed Forces 70 58 Map Reading 63 64 Field Craft & Battle Craft 74 70 Introduction to Infantry Weapons & Equipment 20 77 Military History 25 79 Communication 25 81 Total questions – Special Subjects – Army 277 5 Part 3 : Specialized Subject – Nava Wing Naval Orientation 20 84 Naval Communication 28 86 Navigation 65 88 Seamanship 19 94 Fire Fighting Flooding & Damage Control 20 96 Ship & Boat Modelling 20 98 Swimming 25 100 Total questions – Special Subject – Navy 197 6 Part 4 : Specialized Subject – Air Wing General Service Knowledge 55 104 Air Compaigns 48 109 Principles of Flight 122 113 Airmanship 36 124 Navigation 53 128 Aero Engines 90 133  3 Basic Flight Instruments 24 141 Aero Modelling 54 144 Total questions – Special Subjects – Air 482 7 Part 4 Specialized Subject – Remounts & Veterinary Organization & Functioning of RVC 22 150 Animal Management & Equitation 80 152 Shoeing 25 159 Saddle Fitting 25 162 Total questions – Special – RVC 152 Total Number of Questions (NCC Syllabus) 1651 Questions on General Awareness 1011 Grand Total of all questions in this book 2662 Allotment of marks for Certificate Examinations  5 ‘B’ CERTIFICATE (SD/SW) SUBJECT WRITTEN PRACTICALS TOTAL 1. COMMON SUBJECTS (for all wings) Paper I : Drill ----- 80 80 Paper II : Weapon Training 30 30 60 Paper III : Miscellaneous NCC General 06 0 06 National Integration and Awareness 20 0 20 Personality Development 60 0 60 Leadership 18 0 18 Disaster Management 18 0 18 Social Service and Community Development 32 0 32 Health and Hygiene 26 0 26 Adventure 16 0 16 Environmental Awareness and Conservation 0 0 0 Obstacle Training 06 0 06 Border and Coastal Areas 08 0 08 Total for Miscellaneous Subjects 210 0 210 TOTAL FOR MISCELLANEOUS SUBJECTS 210 0 210 2A. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – ARMY Armed Forces 20 0 20 Map Reading 24 16 40 Field Craft & Battle Craft 24 16 40 Introduction to Infantry Weapons & Equipment 16 0 16 Military History 20 0 20 Communication 06 08 14 Total for Specialized Subjects – Army 110 40 150 2B. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – NAVY Naval Orientation 20 0 20 Naval Communication 10 04 14 Navigation 14 0 14 Seamanship 36 06 42 Fire Fighting, Flooding & Damage Control 0 0 0 Ship and Boat Modelling 16 14 30 Swimming 14 16 30 Total for Specialized Subjects – Navy 110 40 150 2C. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – AIR General Service Knowledge 20 0 20 Air Campaigns 10 0 10 Principles of Flight 10 0 10 Airmanship 10 0 10 Navigation and Metrology 14 0 14 Aero Engines and Air Frames 16 0 16 Basic Flight Instruments & Radar Theory 10 0 10 Aero Modelling 08 12 20 Flying and SOP 12 24 36 Simulator 0 04 04  6 Total for Specialized Subjects – Air 110 40 150 2D. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – R&V Organisation and Functioning of RVC 10 0 10 Animal Management and Equitation 60 20 80 Shoeing 20 10 30 Saddle Fitting 20 10 30 Total for Specialized Subjects – R&V 110 40 150 Grand Total for 350 150 500 ‘B’ Certificate Exam – 1+2(A/B/C/D) ‘C’ CERTIFICATE (SD/SW) SUBJECT WRITTEN PRACTICALS TOTAL 1. COMMON SUBJECTS (for all wings) Paper I : Drill ------ 50 50 Paper II : Weapon Training 10 60 70 Paper III : Miscellaneous NCC General 0 0 0 National Integration and Awareness 10 0 10 Personality Development 70 0 70 Leadership 20 0 20 Disaster Management 22 0 22 Social Service and Community Development 36 0 36 Health and Hygience 28 0 28 Adventure 0 0 0 Environmental Awareness and Conservation 20 0 20 Obstacle Training 14 0 14 Border and Coastal Areas 10 0 10 Total for Miscellaneous Subjects 230 0 230 Total for Common Subjects 240 110 350 2A. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – ARMY Armed Forces 10 0 10 Map Reading 30 16 46 Field Craft & Battle Craft 30 14 44 Introduction to Infantry Weapons & Equipment 14 0 14 Military History 20 0 20 Communication 06 10 16 Total for Specialized Subjects – Army 110 40 150 2B. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – NAVY Naval Orientation 16 0 16 Naval Communication 10 0 10 Navigation 0 0 0 Seamanship 24 08 32 Fire Fighting, Flooding & Damage Control 10 0 10 Ship and Boat Modelling 38 14 52  7 Swimming 12 18 30 Total for Specialized Subjects – Navy 110 40 150 2C. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – AIR General Service Knowledge 16 0 16 Air Campaigns 0 0 0 Principles of Flight 14 0 14 Airmanship 10 0 10 Navigation and Metrology 06 0 06 Aero Engines and Air Frames 10 0 10 Basic Flight Instruments & Radar Theory 0 0 0 Aero Modelling 16 14 30 Flying and SOP 38 16 54 Simulator 0 10 10 Total for Specialized Subjects – Air 110 40 150 2D. PAPER IV : SPECIALIZED SUBJECTS – R&V Organisation and Functioning of RVC 0 0 0 Animal Management and Equitation 70 20 90 Shoeing 20 10 30 Saddle Fitting 20 10 30 Total for Specialized Subjects & R&V 110 40 150 Grand Total for 350 150 500 ‘C’ Certificate Exam – 1+2(A/B/C/D)  8 NCC GENERAL 1. NCC is being offered by some Universities/Colleges in India as part of ___________. (a) Discipline Elective Subjects (c) Compulsory Corps Subjects (b) Elective Core Subjects (d) General Elective Subjects (  ) 2. Each year______ cadets from each NCC Group are awarded the Best Cadet awards from CWS. (a) Six (c) Eight (b) Four (  ) (d) Ten 3. The number of seats reserved for cadets holding C Certificate, in Indian Air Force through SSB is _________ in all courses. (a) 10% (  ) (c) 12% (b) 15% (d) 8% 4. Of all the Junior Division ANOs of NCC, ___________ is the senior most rank. (a) First Officer (c) Chief Officer (  ) (b) Second Officer (d) Third Officer 5. The number of seats reserved for cadets holding C Certificate, in Indian Navy through SSB is _________ per each course. (a) Ten (c) Twelve (b) Eight (d) Six (  ) 6. The number of seats reserved for NCC Special Entry Scheme, for cadets holding C Certificate, at OTA Chennai is __________ per year. (a) 100 (  ) (c) 64 (b) 50 (d) 75 7. Of all the senior Division ANOs of NCC, ___________ is the Junior most rank. (a) Lieutenant (Lt) (  ) (c) Colonel (b) Major (d) Captain 8. The Girl Cadet Instructors (GCI) in NCC are staffed by the ____________. (a) State Government (c) University Grants Commission (b) Ministry of Woman Empowerment (d) Central Government (  ) 9. At HQ DG NCC, the DG NCC is assisted by ____________ Deputy DGs. (a) Five (  ) (c) Four (b) Six (d) Seven 10. At HQ DG NCC, the DG NCC is assisted by _________ Additional DGs. (a) Five (c) Six (b) Two (  ) (d) Three 11. Of all the Junior Division ANOs of NCC, ___________ is the junior most rank. (a) First Officer (c) Second Officer (b) Third Officer (  ) (d) Chief Officer 12. Of all the Senior Division ANOs of NCC, ___________ is the senior most rank. (a) Captain (c) Major (  ) (b) Lieutenant (Lt) (d) Colonel 13. In India, the ___________ is overall in charge, who is responsible to the Govt of India for efficient functioning of the NCC and other matters. (a) DG NCC (c) Defence Minister  9 (b) Defence Secretary (  ) (d) Cabinet Secretary for Defence 14. One of the objectives of NCC is to ‘Provide and ideal platform for the youth to showcase their potential in ___________. (a) Nation Building (  ) (c) Defence Forces (b) Academic Excellence (d) Security Forces 15. One of the Objectives of NCC is to ‘Become a main source of __________ by making NCC as one of the greatest cohesive force of our nation irrespective of any caste, creed, religion or region’. (a) Defence Forces (c) National Integration (  ) (b) Good citizens (d) Discipline 16. In case of any injury suffered by an NCC cadet during training activities financial assistance at prescribed rates is provided from __________ funds. (a) DG NCC Regimental (c) PM CARES (b) NCC Welfare Commission (d) Cadets Welfare Society (  ) 17. The appointment of DDG Rajasthan Directorate is held by an officer of the rank of ___________. (a) Brigadier (c) Commodore (b) Air Commodore (  ) (d) Major General 18. NCC Song was sung by ____________. (a) Asha Bhonsle (c) Lata Mangeshkar (  ) (b) Shreya Ghosal (d) Anuradha Podwal 19. NCC Offier’s Training Academy for male ANOs is located at ____________. (a) Gwalior (c) Kamptee (  ) (b) Dehradun (d) Agra 20. Lady ANOs Training Academy is located at ___________. (a) Gwalior (  ) (c) Kamptee (b) Dehradun (d) Agra 21. The NCC Girls Division was raised in __________. (a) May 1965 (c) July 1950 (  ) (b) January 1948 (d) July 1971 22. The objective of the NCC is to enhance awareness of the cadet to become responsible citizen of the country. (a) TRUE (  ) (b) FALSE 23. Rock Climbing Training Camp is conducted at _________ level. (a) Unit (c) Group (b) Directorate (d) DG NCC (  ) 24. Motto of NCC is ___________. (a) Good Turn Out (c) Unity and Discipline (  ) (b) Ever Loyal (d) Join the Army 25. EBSB camp is classified as ___________. (a) Special Camp (c) Adventure Camp (b) Personality Development Camp (d) Centrally Organized Camp (  ) 26. The Lotuses on the NCC Crest represent ____________. (a) The NCC Directorates (  ) (c) The NCC Groups  10 (b) The types of NCC Units (d) National flower of India 27. The full form of CTO is _______________. (a) Cadets Training Officer (c) Care Taking Officer (  ) (b) Camp Training Officer (d) Coordination and Training Officer 28. The full form of WTLO is _____________. (a) Whole Time Lady Officer (  ) (c) Whole Time Logistics Officer (b) Weapon Training Lady Officer (d) Weapon Trg & Logistics Officer 29. The motto of NCC was adopted on ____________. (a) 15 December 1948 (c) 23 July 1948 (b) 23 December 1957 (  ) (d) 15 July 1948 30. Naval Wing of NCC was first raised in __________. (a) June 1952 (c) July 1952 (  ) (b) June 1954 (d) July 1954 31. Annual Training Camp is conducted at ____________. (a) NCC Directorate level (c) NCC Unit level (  ) (b) NCC Group HQ level (d) All India level 32. The full form of ANO is ____________. (a) Allied NCC Officer (c) Associated NCC Officer (  ) (b) Associate NCC Officer (d) Administrative NCC Officer 33. The office of HQ DG NCC is located at ____________. (a) Mumbai (c) Kolkata (b) New Delhi (  ) (d) Bangalore 34. The appointment of DG NCC is held by an officer of the rank of ____________. (a) Major General (c) Admiral (b) Air Marshall (d) Lieutenant General (  ) 35. There are ___________ NCC Directorates in India. (a) Thirteen (c) Seventeen (  ) (b) Fifteen (d) Eighteen 36. NCC Day is observed on ___________. (a) Last Sunday of November (  ) (c) Last Day of November (b) Second Sunday of November (d) Last Saturday of November 37. NCC was established on ___________. (a) 15 July 1947 (c) 15 July 1948 (  ) (b) 15 Aug 1947 (d) 16 Aug 1947  11 NATIONAL INTEGRATION AND AWARENESS 1. The most sacred scripture of Sikhism is ____________. (a) Japji Sahib (c) Nishan Sahib (b) Guru Granth Sahib (  ) (d) Ek Onkar Satnam 2. Raghunath Mandir is located in the city of ___________. (a) Jammu (  ) (c) Puri (b) Ayodhya (d) Bengaluru 3. __________ is the folk dance of Gujarat. (a) Bhangra (c) Bharat Natyam (b) Bihu (d) Garba (  ) 4. Lavani is a folk-dance form of _____________. (a) West Bengal (c) Maharashtra (  ) (b) Haryana (d) Ladakh 5. The traditional dance from of Andhra Pradesh is ____________. (a) Bharatanatyam (c) Kuchipudi (  ) (b) Raas Leela (d) Kathkali 6. Quit India movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi is the year ___________. (a) 1939 (c) 1921 (b) 1942 (  ) (d) 1947 7. The largest democratic country in the world is ____________. (a) India (  ) (c) USA (b) Russia (d) China 8. The staple food of northern states of India is _____________. (a) Rice (c) Barley (b) Wheat (  ) (d) Maize 9. India was the cradle of which one of the earliest civilizations. (a) Indus Valley Civilization (  ) (c) Dravidian Civilization (b) Ganga-Jamuna Tehzeeb (d) Aryan Civilization 10. The mythological book Mahabharat is written by ___________. (a) Sage Valmiki (c) Sage Veda Vyas (  ) (b) Sage Vishwaamitra (d) Sage Angeerasa 11. The First war of Independence (sepoy mutiny) took place in the year ___________. (a) 1857 (  ) (c) 1839 (b) 1885 (d) 1891 12. ___________ is the religion founded by Shri Guru Nanak Dev ji. (a) Jainism (c) Sikhism (  ) (b) Buddhism (d) Zoroastrianism 13. The National game of India is ____________. (a) Hockey (  ) (c) Cricket (b) Football (d) Wrestling  12 14. The National Animal of India is ___________. (a) Elephant (c) Lion (b) Cheetah (d) Tiger (  ) 15. River Brahmaputra flows through the State of ___________. (a) Assam (  ) (c) West Bengal (b) Nagaland (d) Sikkim 16. The National bird of India is ___________. (a) Swan (c) Eagle (b) Peacock (  ) (d) Parrot 17. First president of India was ___________. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad (  ) (b) Dr. Zakir Hussain (d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel 18. The Victoria memorial is located in ___________ city. (a) Kolkata (  ) (c) Chennai (b) Mumbai (d) Bengaluru 19. ‘Kalarippayattu’ is a martial art of ___________ state. (a) Andhra Pradesh (c) Tamil Nadu (b) Kerala (  ) (d) Telangana 20. ____________ is known as the ‘Iron Man’ of India. (a) Bhagat Singh (c) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Lala Lajpat Rai (d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel (  ) 21. Our National Anthem was composed by __________. (a) Ustad Allah Rakha (c) Rabindranath Tagore (  ) (b) Vinobha Bhave (d) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 22. Cellular Jail is located at ___________. (a) Ahmedabad (c) Chennai (b) Old Delhi (d) Port Blair (  ) 23. Lohri is a festival celebrated by the people of __________ State. (a) Haryana (c) Punjab (  ) (b) Himachal Pradesh (d) Ladakh 24. Bihu is the harvest festival of ____________ State. (a) West Bengal (c) Manipur (b) Assam (  ) (d) Nagaland 25. The Indian National Congress was established on __________. (a) 28 December 1885 (  ) (c) 26 January 1899 (b) 22 October 1857 (d) 15 August 1899 26. Bhagat Sing was born on ____________. (a) 23 March 1907 (c) 27 September 1907 (  ) (b) 27 October 1857 (d) 23 March 1908 27. ‘Dandi March’ Yatra was held form 12 Mar 1930 to _____________. (a) 11 June 1930 (c) 07 August 1930 (b) 06 April 1930 (  ) (d) 12 January 1931  13 28. The capital of Bhutan is ___________. (a) Kathmandu (c) Gangtok (b) Nay-pi-taw (d) Thimphu (  ) 29. Shri Lal Bahadur Shastri was the ___________ Prime Minister of Independent India. (a) First (c) Second (  ) (b) Third (d) Fourth 30. The National Emblem of India is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of Ashoka at ___________. (a) Sarnath (  ) (c) Delhi (b) Gaya (d) Bodh Gaya  14 DRILL 1. In ‘Saavdhan’ position, the shoulders are to be ___________ to the ground. (a) Parallel (  ) (c) Perpendicular (b) At 45 degrees (d) at 30 degrees 2. In Vishram position of Rifle Drill, the angle formed at the right elbow should be _________ degrees. (a) 30 (c) 45 (b) 90 (d) None of the above (  ) 3. In ‘Salami Shastra’, the rifle butt should be _________ inches in front of the body. (a) Six (c) Nine (b) Twelve (  ) (d) Any of these 4. In ‘Bhumi Shashtra’, the rifle will be kept in such a manner that the magazine will be facing ___________. (a) Up (c) Left (  ) (b) Right (d) Any of these 5. In ‘Salami Shastra’, the barrel should be ________ inches in front of the nose. (a) Three (c) Six (  ) (b) Nine (d) Twelve 6. In ‘Samne Salute’, the tip of the right middle finger should be touching the ___________. (a) Right tip of right eye (c) Centre of Eye (b) Top of nose bridge (d) Centre of Right eyebrow (  ) 7. In ‘Tez Chal’, the length of each step is _________ inches. (a) 30 (  ) (c) 45 (b) 60 (d) 75 8. In ‘Samne Salute’ the angle formed at the Right elbow is _________ degrees. (a) 30 (c) 45 (  ) (b) 60 (d) 75 9. In ‘Nikat Line Chal’, a cadet in the middle line will take a position which is __________ in relation from his/her original position. (a) 45 inches ahead (c) 45 inches behind (b) 30 inches ahead (d) None of these (  ) 10. In ‘Khuli Line Chal’, the cadet’s final position is __________ inches in front of the original position. (a) 30 (c) 90 (b) 60 (d) 45 (  ) 11. When the number of cadets in a squad is 10, 13, 16, 19 etc….., the second file from the left will have No cadet in ____________ line (s). (a) Last (c) Middle and Last (  ) (b) Middle (d) First and Last  15 12. When the number of cadets in a squad in 11, 14, 17, 20 etc……, the second file from the left will have NO cadet in ____________ line (s). (a) Middle and Last (c) Last (b) Middle (  ) (d) First and Middle 13. When the number of cadets is more than ________, a three-line squad is made. (a) 12 (c) 8 (b) 15 (d) 9 (  ) 14. After completion of ‘Kadwar Sizing’ of a squad of 33 cadets, the left most rank of the squad will have the cadets who shouted the following numbers standing in sequence from the first line. (a) 6, 4 & 2 (  ) (c) 29, 31 & 33 (b) 2, 4 & 6 (d) 33, 31 & 29 15. After completion of ‘Kadwar Sizing’ of a squad, the right most rank of the squad will have the cadets who shouted the following numbers standing in sequence from the first line. (a) 1, 3 & 5 (  ) (c) 1, 5 & 7 (b) 2, 4 & 6 (d) Any of the above 16. During the process of Kadwar Sizing of a drill squad, after all are made to stand in one line according of height and call out number, __________ is/are asked to take a step forward. (a) Even Numbers (c) Every Third Number (b) Odd Numbers (  ) (d) Whole Numbers 17. During the process of Kadwar Sizing of a drill squad, all are made to stand in one line with the tallest standing at the ____________. (a) Left (c) Right (  ) (b) Centre (d) Back 18. In Vishraam position, the weight of the body should be _________. (a) On Right Leg (c) On both the legs (  ) (b) Slightly in front (d) Slightly behind 19. After four consecutive ‘Dahine Mud’s, you will be facing the _________ direction from you original direction. (a) Left (c) Back (b) Right (d) Same (  ) 20. ‘Piche Mud’ is actually equal to __________. (a) Two consecutive ‘Dahine Muds’ (c) Two consecutive ‘Bae Muds’ (b) Both of these (  ) (d) None of these 21. In Vishraam position, the Right thumb should be above the left thumb. (a) Below (c) In Front of (  ) (b) Behind (d) To the Left of 22. On the word of command, ‘Ginti se Dahine Mud Ek’, you must turn, 90 degrees to the Right, with the weight of the body on the __________ Leg. (a) Right (  ) (c) Both (b) Left (d) All the above  16 23. On the word of command, ‘Ginti se Baen Mud Ek’, you must turn, 90 degrees to the Left, with the weight of the body on the ___________ Leg (s). (a) Right (c) Both (b) Left (  ) (d) All the above 24. In Vishram position, the Right palm should be ___________ the left palm. (a) Behind (c) Below (b) In front of (  ) (d) To the right of 25. In Saavdhan position, the hands should be in line with and touching ___________. (a) Ground (c) Waist (b) Shoulders (d) Stitching of the pants (  ) 26. Following are the parts of a Word of Command. (a) Loud and Clear (c) Cautionary and Executive (  ) (b) Pitch and Clarity (d) Loudness and Pitch 27. Clarity of Word of Command can be achieved by good coordination of the following. (a) Tongue, teeth and Lips (  ) (c) Teeth and Lips (b) Tongue and Lips (d) Loudness and Pitch 28. Word of Command is always given in ____________ position. (a) Saavdhan (  ) (c) Vishram (b) Front (d) Jaanch 29. Which of the following is not required while giving a good word of command in Drill? (a) Pitch (c) Clarity (b) Timing (d) None of these (  ) 30. During Drill, you should NOT do the following. (a) Click your heels (c) Drag you feet (b) Both of these (  ) (d) None of these 31. During Drill, you should NOT do the following. (a) Roll your eyes (  ) (c) Lift your knees (b) Dig your heels (d) Swing your arms 32. By looking at the Drill of a unit, you can judge the Discipline and Morale of the unit. (a) FALSE (b) TRUE (  ) 33. There are two types of Drill, Open Drill and Close Drill. (a) TRUE (  ) (b) FALSE 34. The Drill which is done during peace time and in parade ground is called _________. (a) Close (  ) (c) Ceremonial (b) Foot Drill (d) Open 35. Major General Dral of __________ is credited for introducing Drill in the Armies in 1666. (a) Britain (c) Germany (  ) (b) Spain (d) America 36. During ‘Slow March’, how many paces per minute are taken? (a) 60 (c) 120 (b) 90 (d) 70 (  )  17 37. While giving ‘Guard of Honour’ to the President, authorized rank and file is _________. (a) 150 (  ) (c) 120 (b) 100 (d) 104 38. To inspect the squad, it is necessary for the squad to be in ___________ position. (a) Nikat Line Chal (c) Jaanch Line (b) Khuli Line Chal (  ) (d) Aaram Se 39. A line of men standing one behind the other is called a _______________. (a) Lane (c) File (b) Drill (d) Rank (  ) 40. How many types of salutes are there is Foot Drill? (a) Two (c) Five (b) Three (  ) (d) Four 41. ___________ is the extra quality in Word of Command that demands instantaneous response. (a) Loudness (c) Snap (  ) (b) Timing (d) Distinctness 42. Rashtriya Salute is given to ___________. (a) Prime Minister (c) Defence Minister (b) President (  ) (d) All of these 43. The word of command ___________ is given for final dispersal at the end of the parade. (a) Visarjan (  ) (c) Aaram Se (b) Kadam Tal (d) Line Tod 44. A properly delivered ‘Command’ is ____________ and Distinct enough to be clearly understood by every person. (a) Slow (c) Heavy (b) Long (d) Loud (  ) 45. In ‘Bagal Shastr’, the Right palm is kept on which part of the Rifle? (a) Trigger (c) Pistol Grip (  ) (b) Butt (d) Small of the Butt 46. In ‘Vishram’, the distance between both feet, at the heels, in inches is _________. (a) 10 (c) 16 (b) 12 (  ) (d) 18 47. Which salute is authorized to dignitaries of the rank of Major General and above? (a) Salami Salute (c) Rashtriya Salute (b) Dahine Salute (d) General Salute (  ) 48. _____________ position is used while inspecting the weapon. (a) Tol Shashtr (c) Khuli Line Chal (b) Bagal Shashtr (d) Jaanch Shashtr (  ) 49. In Savdhaan, the angle formed by both the feet at the ankle is _____ Degrees. (a) 15 (c) 30 (  ) (b) 45 (d) 60 50. In Arms Drill, while marching, the Rifle should be in which position? (a) Bagal Shashtr (  ) (c) Jaanch Shashtr (b) Bazu Shashtr (d) Tol Shashtr  18 WEAPON TRAINING 1. One of the cleaning materials used while cleaning the rifle is ___________. (a) Pull Through (  ) (c) Washing Powder (b) Sand Paper (d) Rice Paper 2. Length of 0.22 mm rifle is __________ inches. (a) 45 (  ) (c) 50 (b) 35 (d) 30 3. The basic principle of Firing is ________________. (a) “Ek goli do dushman” (c) “Ek goli ek dushman” (  ) (b) “Unity and Discipline (d) “Correct HAT” 4. A rifle is said to be loaded when there is a round in the ___________. (a) Chamber (  ) (c) Magazine (b) Barrel (d) Cartridge 5. The maximum range of 0.22 mm Rifle is ___________ yards. (a) 1500 (c) 2000 (b) 1700 (  ) (d) 2200 6. While firing a weapon, the correct way of aiming is to align the ________ with the line joining centre of backsight aperture and foresight tip. (a) Centre of Target (c) Mean Point of Impact (b) Trigger Guard (d) Point of Aim (  ) 7. _________ is NOT a part of the 0.22 mm Rifle. (a) Foresight Aimer (  ) (c) Foresight (b) Trigger Guard (d) Backsight 8. ___________ is a parabolic path traced by the bullet during its flight. (a) Telemetry (c) Flight Path (b) Trajectory (  ) (d) Track 9. Caliber of a weapon indicates the ____________. (a) Weight of the barrel (c) Inner diameter of the barrel (  ) (b) Length of the barrel (d) Circumference of the barrel 10. While firing, one must always keep it in mind that _________ is more important than ‘Speed’. (a) Aiming (c) Discipline (b) Score (d) Accuracy (  ) 11. The imaginary line formed between the eye of the firer and the point of aim through the sight is called___________. (a) Aiming Line (c) Line of Target (b) Line of Sight (  ) (d) Firing Line 12. The number of ‘Waiting Details’ in the ‘Firing Group’ are ___________. (a) Four (c) NIL (b) Three (d) Two (  ) 13. During firing, while pressing the trigger, one must ensure that the __________ does not move. (a) Barrel (  ) (c) Trigger Guard (b) Safety Catch (d) Target  19 14. Rectification of all defects in rifle is called ___________ of rifle. (a) Repairing (c) Zeroing (  ) (b) Grouping (d) Armouring 15. While holding the weapon during firing, the correct way (Durust Pakar) is to hold it with left hand so that the Hand Guard rests between the Thumb and ___________. (a) Palm (c) Index Finger (  ) (b) Ring Finger (d) Middle Finger 16. The function of the extractor in a rifle is to extract the ___________. (a) Magazine (c) Empty Case (  ) (b) Bullet (d) Round 17. The inner most circle of the target is called the _____________. (a) Magpie (c) Inner (b) Bull (  ) (d) Black Circle 18. Muzzle velocity of.22 Rifle is ___________ feet per second. (a) 2500 (c) 2700 (  ) (b) 3000 (d) 3200 19. While firing a weapon, ____________ is given to counter the force of gravity while the bullet is in flight. (a) Thrust (c) Spin (b) Range (d) Elevation (  ) 20. In 22 rifle, there are ________ No of positions on the Safety Catch. (a) Two (  ) (c) Three (b) One (d) Four 21. Normal rate of fire of.22 Rif is _________ Rds per min. (a) Ten (c) Six (b) Five (  ) (d) Twelve 22. In grouping fire, the centre point of the 5 shots on the target is called the ________. (a) Minimum Point of Injection (c) Mean Point of Impact (  ) (b) Maximum Point of Impact (d) Main Point of Impact 23. Which of the following targets is used for grouping and zeroing. (a) Fig 11 Tgt (c) 4’x4’ Tgt (b) 1’x1’ Tgt (  ) (d) Fig 12 Tgt 24. ______________ colour flags are used to warn that the firing range is in use. (a) Green (c) Yellow (b) Red (  ) (d) White 25. Caliber of a round indicates the ____________. (a) Cross-sectional Area (c) Circumference (b) Radius (d) Diameter (  )  20 PERSONALITY DEVELOPMENT 1. In public speaking, your facial expressions must match the _________ you are delivering. (a) Posture (c) Message (  ) (b) Speech (d) Future prospects 2. Throughout the entire interview, respond with _________, tact and a high degree of interest. (a) Confidence (c) Sense of humour (b) Sincerity (  ) (d) Knowledge 3. _________ is the final test most people have to clear in getting a job. (a) HR Round (c) Interview (  ) (b) Written examination (d) Making a good resume 4. Being chosen for and interview means that someone is interested in you ________, knowledge and experience. (a) Personality (c) Looks (b) Skills (  ) (d) Marks scored 5. Verbal and Non-verbal tests form part of OIR test conducted during Stage-1 of SSB. OIR stands for Officer _________ Rating. (a) Intelligence (  ) (c) Initiative (b) Intuitive (d) Innovative 6. In Individual Lecturette of Stage-2 testing at SSB, each candidate will get ________ topics, out of which he/she has to select one topic and speak for 3 minutes on the same. (a) Four (  ) (c) Three (b) Two (d) Five 7. During GTO tests at SSB, you may get more chance to show you potential in _______ as compared to PGT, as the group will be smaller. (a) GD (c) HGT (  ) (b) FGT (d) Snake Race 8. In PGT of GTO tests at the SSB, you are required to cross some obstacles with the help of supporting materials. What does P in PGT stand for? (a) Public (c) Preventive (b) Periodic (d) Progressive (  ) 9. In WAT (Word Association Test) at SSB, you will be shown _______ words for 15 seconds each. (a) 30 (c) 60 (  ) (b) 50 (d) 100 10. You can function on much less sleep than 8 hours, but your creativity is _______ percent down. (a) 25 (c) 50 (b) 15 (  ) (d) 40 11. In the Individual Obstacle Task of Stage-2 testing at SSB, maximum points you can score is ________. (a) 55 (c) Not Specified (  ) (b) 65 (d) 74 12. The following does not form part of the psychological tests conducted at SSB, in Stage-2 testing. (a) TAT (c) WAT (b) SRT (d) PGT (  )  21 13. In PPDT of the Stage-1 testing of SSB, you will be shown a picture for ________ seconds, and you have to write a story based on that picture. (a) 45 (c) 10 (b) 30 (  ) (d) 15 14. A __________ gives information about education and work opportunities to children and youth. (a) College Principal (c) Class Teacher (b) Psychiatrist (d) Career Counsellor (  ) 15. It is important to look at growth over time and accept the putting something _________ is better than staying safe and never attempting anything new. (a) New (c) Imperfect (  ) (b) Great (d) Perfect 16. For good public speaking, the quality of your voice can be improved through _________ breathing. (a) Diaphragmatic (  ) (c) Deep (b) Rhythmic (d) Controlled 17. One of the critical personal skills today is not to find, but to select the best _________ and avoid the rest. (a) Friend (c) Habit (b) Information (  ) (d) Teacher 18. Having good manners is not just about blending with the best; rather it is more about considering the feelings of others and taking ___________. (a) Risks (c) Responsibility (  ) (b) Advice (d) Feedback 19. Time management is a set of skills, tools, and systems that work together to help you get more value out of your _________ and use it to accomplish what you want. (a) Life (c) Money (b) Time (  ) (d) Efforts 20. When you re-define “fail” to mean “ ___________” you can start to see how every step you take brings you closer to your dreams. (a) Try harder (c) Better Luck next time (b) One bad experience (d) Lessons Learned (  ) 21. ___________ Communicators are active listeners and check on others feelings. (a) Great (c) Assertive (  ) (b) Smart (d) Aggressive 22. Asking the question to yourself “What gives you life meaning and purpose’ is one of the means to find your ___________. (a) Voice (  ) (c) Interests (b) Goal (d) Mettle 23. Critical thinking requires skills in thinking about different perspectives and ___________. (a) Opinions (c) Personalities (b) Beliefs (d) Possibilities (  ) 24. The aggressive communicators have a closed mind and are ___________ listeners. (a) Poor (  ) (c) Great (b) Active (d) Passive  22 25. Your ___________ determines how you receive and react to information. (a) Knowledge (c) Mindset (  ) (b) Compatibility (d) Ability 26. Every person perceives oneself in three aspects; the perceived self, the real self and the __________ self. (a) Unreal (c) Inner (b) Outer (d) Ideal (  ) 27. Passive communicators often lack ___________ expression and stand with down cast eyes. (a) Body (c) Facial (  ) (b) Enthusiastic (d) Confident 28. Talking with someone else can help clear your mind of __________ so that you can focus on problem solving. (a) Confusion (  ) (c) Stress (b) Thinking (d) Sympathy 29. Sometimes, having a sense of __________ reduce the communication gap. (a) Purpose (c) Humour (  ) (b) Discipline (d) Enthusiasm 30. Our body’s reaction to people and events and to our own thoughts can be termed as _______. (a) Action (c) Impact (b) Stress (  ) (d) Expression 31. Personality of and individual is greatly influenced by the _________ a person strongly believes in. (a) Values (  ) (c) Mindset (b) Opinions (d) Judgement 32. A critical thinking person has the ability to change his views based on _________. (a) Advice (c) Impulse (b) Evidence (  ) (d) Other’s views 33. Once we resolve our problems, the process enhances our capacity to solve _________ problems. (a) Similar (c) Greater (  ) (b) Family (d) Others 34. The best way to cope with unhealthy stress is to recognize when your stress levels are ________. (a) Building (  ) (c) Stable (b) Disturbing (d) Reducing 35. There are three ways of communication; Aggressive, Passive and __________. (a) Verbal (c) Active (b) Non-Verbal (d) Assertive (  ) 36. Not being judgemental is one of the steps to reduce the _____________. (a) Tensions (c) Awkwardness (b) Communication Gap (  ) (d) Indecency 37. Silence is a type of non-verbal communication. (a) TRUE (  ) (b) FALSE  23 38. _________, which is an ability to follow a line of thinking, is a critical thinking attitude. (a) Flexibility (c) Open-mindedness (b) Rigidity (d) Persistence (  ) 39. Problems are often _________ in disguise. (a) Disgusting (c) Difficulties (b) Opportunities (  ) (d) Blessings 40. Events themselves are not necessarily stressful. It is the way we _________ an event that causes stress. (a) React to (  ) (c) Suppress (b) Cope with (d) Emotionally attach to 41. Self-Awareness is necessary for developing a ________ attitude towards life. (a) Great (c) Appropriate (b) Healthy (d) Positive (  ) 42. Critical thinking involves logical thinking and __________. (a) Reasoning (  ) (c) Decision making (b) Empathy (d) Sympathy 43. Overtime, __________ stress can lower self-esteem decrease academic performance and create a cycle of self-blame and self-doubt. (a) Simple (c) Complicated (b) Repeated (  ) (d) Bad 44. Unhappiness and poor adjustments in persons are mainly because of discrepancies between the __________ and the real self. (a) Perceived (  ) (c) Energy (b) Results (d) Idealistic 45. Street smarts are the learning that came from even the most _________ sources. (a) Likely (c) Unlikely (  ) (b) Difficult (d) Familiar 46. Aggressive communicators tend to dominate and __________ others. (a) Encourage (c) Put down (  ) (b) Outsmart (d) Hate 47. A person who adheres to high __________ standards is a well-respected member of the society. (a) Physical (c) Social (b) Moral (  ) (d) Education 48. There are ten core __________ which help in enhancing the personality of an individual. (a) Personality Skills (c) Life Skills (  ) (b) Community Skills (d) Special Skills 49. Stress is a very common phenomenon and is __________ in nature. (a) Secret (c) Disruptive (b) Confusing (d) Universal (  ) 50. Our part experience determine many of the __________ we make. (a) Views (c) Judgements (b) Intelligence (  ) (d) Mistakes  24 51. People who feel highly with their selves display a certain aura of _________ and make it always seem that they are a cut above the rest. (a) Dignity (c) Superiority (b) Intelligence (d) Confidence (  ) 52. Passive communicators do not express their ___________ feelings. (a) Emotional (c) Happy (b) True (  ) (d) Sad 53. Without ________, out relationships with others are likely to be dominated by suspicion, guess work, misunderstandings and false assumptions. (a) Understanding (c) Education (b) Companionship (d) Communication (  ) 54. _________ works wonders when we apply to our relationships (a) Empathy (  ) (c) Decision Making (b) Humour (d) Discipline 55. In general, every problem has many solutions. So, we should always find all alternatives and take the __________ one. (a) Best (  ) (c) Easiest (b) Fastest (d) Cheapest 56. Enhancing _________ Skills enables us to adapt to situations and people and helps us to lead a healthy and positive life. (a) Personality (c) Discipline (b) Life (  ) (d) Relationship 57. Without ___________ out communication with others will be one sided and is bound to face problems in relationship. (a) Values (c) Empathy (  ) (b) Awareness (d) Education 58. Education falls into two categories; school smarts and ________ smarts. (a) Street (  ) (c) Home (b) Environment (d) Family 59. Your personality can be influenced by the _________ you may have inherited from your mother’s or father’s side or a combination of both. (a) Temper (c) Values (b) Genes (  ) (d) Environment 60. Skills are acquired through practice and ___________. (a) Enhancement (c) Struggle (b) Calmness (d) Patience (  ) 61. We can improve our social skills by ___________. (a) Being studious (c) Respecting our elders (b) Being Cautious (  ) (d) Hiding our shortcomings 62. Which of the following is NOT a type of etiquette? (a) Family Etiquette (  ) (c) Corporate Etiquette (b) Social Etiquette (d) Bathroom Etiquette  25 63. The following is part of the five types of groups. (a) NCC Group (c) Mental Group (b) WhatsApp Group (d) Effective Group (  ) 64. Groups can be classified into five types. The following is NOT one of them. (a) Business Group (  ) (c) Friends Group (b) Task Group (d) Formal Group 65. We can improve our social skills by _____________. (a) Dressing properly (c) Being Disciplined (b) Being responsible (  ) (d) Hiding our shortcomings 66. Which of the following is a type of Etiquette? (a) Sleeping Etiquette (c) Family Etiquette (b) College Etiquette (d) Telephone Etiquette (  ) 67. A code of behavior that delineates expectations for social behavior according to contemporary conventional norms within a society, social class or group is called __________. (a) Manners (c) Etiquette (  ) (b) Motto (d) Discipline 68. ___________ percent of your time actually produces 80% of your high-quality output. (a) 30 (c) 40 (b) 20 (  ) (d) 50 69. A set of skills, tools and systems that work together to help you get more value out of your time is called ____________. (a) Stress Management (c) Skill Management (b) Time Management (  ) (d) Self-Management 70. Your ___________ is the sum of your knowledge, including beliefs and thoughts about the world and yourself in it. (a) Leadership (c) Personality (b) Behaviour (d) Mindset (  ) 71. A good communication process is adversely affected by some communication barriers on part of the speaker. Which of the following DOES NOT form part of such barriers? (a) Incomplete sentences (c) Forgetting what is being discussed (  ) (b) Mumbling of words (d) Poor eye contact 72. Which of the following is NOT a stress management technique? (a) Have a good cry (c) Take care of your body (b) Good turnout (  ) (d) Take a break 73. To reduce stress, one could consider cooperation or compromise rather than ____________. (a) Competition (c) Confrontation (  ) (b) Communication (d) Conduciveness 74. Which of the following DOES NOT form part of “Communication barriers while listening”? (a) Interrupting the speaker (c) Not understanding the receiver (  ) (b) Rushing the speaker (d) Being distracted 75. “Creating a quiet place in your mind” is a stress management technique. (a) TRUE (  ) (b) FALSE  26 76. There are __________ components of Effective Communication. (a) Two (c) Four (b) Three (  ) (d) Five 77. A Creative person can be recognized by the following quality. (a) Empathy (c) Discipline (b) Educated (d) Optimistic (  ) 78. Physical activity can help reduce and prevent stress. (a) TRUE (  ) (b) FALSE 79. Which of the following is a stress management technique? (a) Be disciplined (c) Dress up properly (b) Study hard (d) Take a deep breath (  ) 80. It is the way we __________ an event that causes stress. (a) Prepare for (c) React to (  ) (b) Avoid (d) Anticipate 81. Which of the following forms part of “Communication barriers while listening”? (a) Being Distracted (  ) (c) Poor eye contact (b) Mumbling of words (d) Incomplete sentences 82. There are _________ types of Communication. (a) Six (c) Three (  ) (b) Four (d) Five 83. Creativity DOES NOT encompass the following. (a) A self-image (  ) (c) an ability (b) An attitude (d) a process 84. Problems are not to be ___________ or feared. Problems are part of life. (a) Kept away (c) Avoided (  ) (b) Discussed (d) Kept Secred 85. Which of the following Factors DOES NOT Influence / Shape an Individual’s Personality? (a) Values (c) Life Situations (b) Discipline (  ) (d) Environment 86. The ability to imagine or invent something new is called ___________. (a) Alternativity (c) Creativity (  ) (b) Discovery (d) Invention 87. Which of the following DOES NOT form part of the “Life Skills”? (a) Education (  ) (c) Interpersonal Relationships (b) Decision Making (d) Self Awareness 88. Following is NOT a characteristic of a Creative person. (a) Optimistic (c) Sees problems as opportunities (b) Education (  ) (d) Able to suspend judgement 89. Sharing ideas, opinions, thoughts, feelings and understanding through speech, writing, gestures or symbols between two or more persons is called ___________. (a) Discussion (c) Public Speaking (b) Transmission (d) Communication (  )  27 90. Which of the following Factors Influence / Shape an Individual’s Personality? (a) Discipline (c) Bearing and Turnout (b) Communication Skills (d) Dreams and Ambitions (  ) 91. ____________ are often opportunities is disguise. (a) Accidents (c) Good Results (b) Problems (  ) (d) Extra Tasks 92. Critical Thinking involves Logical Thinking and _____________. (a) Moral Courage (c) Reasoning (  ) (b) Mental Ability (d) Good Vocabulary 93. Following is NOT a characteristic of a Creative person. (a) Optimistic (c) Enjoys Challenge (b) Works Hard (d) Empathy (  ) 94. Abilities for adopting positive behaviour that enable individuals to deal effectively with the demands and challenges of everyday life are called ________. (a) Emotional Skills (c) Stress Coping Skills (b) Life Skills (  ) (d) Problem Solving Skills 95. The ability to imagine what life is like for another person is called _________. (a) Empathy (  ) (c) Sympathy (b) Synergy (d) Logical Thinking 96. The following forms part of the “Life Skills”. (a) Discipline (c) Physical Fitness (b) Education (d) Empathy (  ) 97. The process of determining the authenticity, accuracy or value of something is called ________. (a) Intelligence (c) Evaluation (b) Creativity (d) Critical Thinking (  ) 98. To have complete self-awareness, one needs to concentrate on two aspects; How we perceive ourselves is the first one. Which is the second factor? (a) How we take advantage of self-awareness. (b) How we perceive the world. (c) How others perceive us. (  ) (d) How we improve our perception about us. 99. Which of the following Factors DOES NOT influence / Shape an Individual’s Personality? (a) Bearing and Turnout (  ) (c) Self-Image (b) Education (d) Past experiences 100. Which of the following DOES NOT form part of the “Life Skills”? (a) Creative Thinking (c) Discipline (  ) (b) Empathy (d) Critical Thinking  28 LEADERSHIP 1. Rabindranath Tagore won the Nobel Prize in 1913 for his collection ‘ __________’ published in London in 1912. (a) Jana Gana Mana (c) Gitanjali (  ) (b) Shesher Kobita (d) Amar Shona Bangla 2. Can you identify the person in this photograph (a) Shivaji (b) Tipu Sultan (c) Hyder Ali (d) Maharana Pratap (  ) 3. Can you identify the person in this photograph? (a) Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj (  ) (b) Hyder Ali (c) Tipu Sultan (d) Rana Pratap 4. Can you identify the person in this photograph? (a) Mr Krishna Ella (b) Mr KR Narayana Murthy (c) Mr Ratan Naval Tata (  ) (d) Mr Azim Premji 5. In 1913, Rabindranath Tagore became the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in _______________. (a) Poetry (c) Peace (b) Psychology (d) Literature (  ) 6. Can you identify the person in this photograph? (a) Mr NR Narayana Murthy (  ) (b) Mr Chandrasekharam (c) Mr KR Narasimha Murthy (d) Mr Nandan Nilekani 7. Rabindranath Tagore successfully campaigned for the ___________ to be opened for Dalits. (a) Menakshi Temple (c) Kalighat Kali Temple (b) Guruvayoor Temple (  ) (d) Puri Jagannath Temple 8. Can you identify the person in this photograph? (a) Aditi Gupta (b) Vandana Luthra (c) Indra Nooyi (d) Deepa Malik (  ) 9. Can you identify the person in this photograph? (a) Aditi Gupta (b) Kiran Mazumdar Shaw (  ) (c) Vandana Luthra (d) Indra Nooyi  29 10. Rabindranath Tagore renounced his Knighthood, awarded by King George-V, after the ________. (a) Jallianwala Bhag Massacre (  ) (c) Quit India Movement (b) Swadeshi Movement (d) Independence 11. In 1853, Damodar Rao’s claim to the throne was rejected by the British as he was __________. (a) Terminally III (c) An adopted son (  ) (b) Not Capable (d) Mentally retarded 12. Before starting his own company, Mr NR Narayana Murthy worked as systems programmer with ____________ Computer Systems in Pune. (a) Pashan (c) Shirdi (b) Peshwa (d) Patni (  ) 13. Prakash Padukone was born in __________ village in Karnataka. (a) Padukone (  ) (c) Udupi (b) Kundapura (d) Prakashpur 14. In 1799, Tipu Sultan was killed by the British Forces near _____________. (a) Mysore Palace (c) Woodeyar Fort (b) Srirangapatna Fort (  ) (d) Ballari Fort 15. Mr Prakash Padukone is one of the co-founders of __________, a foundation dedicated to the promotion of Olympic sports in India. (a) Olympic Quest (c) Olympic Gold Quest (  ) (b) Mission Olympics (d) Indian Olympic Council 16. Tipu Sultan was born on 20 November 1750 at ___________, in present day Bangalore Rural district. (a) Krishnarajapuram (c) Nelamangala (b) Devanhalli (  ) (d) Doddaballapur 17. Prakash Podukone’s father was the secretary of ‘ ____________ Badminton Association’ for many years. (a) Belgaum (c) Mysore (  ) (b) Pune (d) Bangalore 18. In 1851, Rani Lakshmibai gave birth to a boy named Damodar Rao, who later died after _________. (a) Two Years (c) Six Months (b) Four Months (  ) (d) Four Years 19. Tipu Sultan was killed by the British in the _____________ Mysore was in 1799. (a) Fourth (  ) (c) Third (b) Fifth (d) Second 20. Mr NR Narayana Murthy studied MTech at IIT ___________. (a) Bombay (c) Chennai (b) Kharagpur (d) Kanpur (  ) 21. When Prakash Padukone won the All-England Championship in 1980, his opponent was _________, named Liem Swie King. (a) A Chinese (c) a Japanese (b) A South Korean (d) an Indonesian (  )  30 22. After his coronation, Tipu checked advances of the British by making alliances with the ____________ and the Mughals. (a) Kakatiyas (c) Pandyas (b) Marathas (  ) (d) Portuguese 23. Deepika Padukone, the bollywood actress is the ____________ of Prakash Padukone, the Badminton player. (a) Daughter (  ) (c) Neice (b) Cousin (d) Grand-daughter 24. Before starting his own company, Mr NR Narayana Muthy worked as chief system programmer with IIM __________. (a) Lucknow (c) Ahmedabad (  ) (b) Kolkata (d) Bangalore 25. What was the name of the father of Mr Prakash Padukone? (a) Raghav Padukone (c) Subramanyam Padukone (b) Ramesh Radukone (  ) (d) Aditya Padukone 26. In 1780, on hearing the defeat of Colonel Baillie at the hands of Tipu Sultan, Sir H Munro retreated to Madras, Leaving behind his artillery in a water tank at ___________. (a) Arcot (c) Krishnagiri (b) Kanchipuram (  ) (d) Ratnagiri 27. After the death of Maharaja of Jhansi in 1853, the British rejected Damodar Rao’s claim to the throne, by applying the Doctrine of ___________. (a) Lapse (  ) (c) Succession (b) Annexation (d) East India Company 28. Who was the father of Tipu Sultan? (a) Ranadullah Khan (c) Hyder Ali (  ) (b) Mir Muin-ud-Din (d) Tipu Mastan Aulia 29. Who was the first Indian to wint the All-England Open Badminton Championships? (a) Sania Mirza (c) Pullela Gopichand (b) Saina Nehwal (d) Prakash Padukone (  ) 30. Time Magazine described Mr NR Narayana Murthy as the ‘Father of Indian IT Sector’ for his contribution to _____________ in India. (a) Outsourcing (  ) (c) Innovation (b) Information Technology. (d) Coding 31. Who was the Chairman of Tata Group when it acquired Jaguar Land Rover? (a) Mr JRD Tata (c) Mr Ratan Naval Tata (  ) (b) Mr Cyrus Mistry (d) Mr N Chandrasekharam 32. Initially, Biocon started as a ____________ manufacturing company. (a) Chemical Paints (c) Fermentation Agents (b) Pharmaceuticals (d) Industrial Enzymes (  ) 33. Deepa Malik holds the Limca World Record for swimming against the current in River ________ for one kilometer. (a) Yamuna (  ) (c) Godavari (b) Narmada (d) Ganga  31 34. Dr Abdul Kala was the Chief _________ Advisor to the Prime Minister from 1992 to 1999. (a) Research (c) Defence (b) Scientific (  ) (d) Missile 35. The tomb of Rani Lakshmibai is located in Phool Bagh area of ___________. (a) Lucknow (c) Gwalior (b) Jhansi (  ) (d) Bhopal 36. After serving as the CEO of his company for 21 years, Mr NR Narayana Murthy was succeeded by Mr ____________ as it’s chairman. (a) Praveen Rao (c) Salil Parekh (b) Nandan Nilekani (  ) (d) S Gopala Krishnan 37. Ms Kiran Mazumdar went to Federation University, Australia to study _________. (a) Zoology (c) Malting & Brewing (  ) (b) Chemistry (d) Fermentation Sciences 38. Deepa Malik holds the Limca World record for driving across nine high altitude passes in __________ day on Leh-Ladakh highest motorable roads. (a) Seven (c) Ten (b) Twenty (d) Nine (  ) 39. Mr NR Narayana Murthy studied Electrical engineering under university of __________. (a) Bangalore (c) Mysore (  ) (b) Sivamogga (d) Mangalore 40. Dr Abudul Kalam was the first scientist and the first __________ to occupy Rashtrapati Bhawan. (a) Bharat Ratna (c) Muslim (b) South Indian (d) Bachelor (  ) 41. In 1858, Rani Lakshmibai escaped from her fort on her horse called __________. (a) Badal (  ) (c) Chetak (b) Pavan (d) Sarangi 42. Ms Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw was awarded Parma Bhushan (2005) for her pioneering efforts in _______________. (a) Medical Research (c) Life Sciences and Healthcare (b) Industrial Biotechnology (  ) (d) Philonthropy 43. Dr Abdul Kalam was the project director of India’s first Satellite Launch Vehical, which successfully deployed the ___________ satellite in 1980. (a) Trishul (c) Rohini (  ) (b) Aryabhatta (d) Chandrayan-1 44. Ms Kiran Mazumdar had a bachelor’s degree in ___________ from Bangalore University. (a) Chemistry (c) Fermentation Sciences (b) Malting & Brewing (d) Zoology (  ) 45. Mr NR Narayana Murthy was the co-founder of _________, multinational corporation in IT sector. (a) Wipro (c) Infosys (  ) (b) Mindtree (d) Oracle  32 46. The maiden name of Rani Lakshmibai was Manikarnika __________, and was nicknamed Manu. (a) Sapre (c) Rathore (b) Singh (d) Tambe (  ) 47. In 1998, along with a cardiologist Dr __________, Dr Abdul Kalam developed a low-cost coronary stent. (a) Soma Raju (  ) (c) Muttu Vel (b) Palaniappan (d) Senthil Kumar 48. Deepa Malik holds the Limca World Record for longest Pan-India drive done by a paraplegic woman from ___________ to Delhi in 2013 (3278 km). (a) Madurai (c) Bangalore (b) Chennai (  ) (d) Coimbatore 49. Rani Lakshmibai was born into a ___________ family. (a) Tribal (c) Marathi (  ) (b) Holkar (d) Gujrati 50. Ms Kiran Mazumdar’s father was the ____________ at United Breweries. (a) Head Maltster (c) Technical Consultant (b) Vice President (d) Head Brew Master (  ) 51. Dr APJ Abdul Kalam Played a pivotal role in India’s nuclear tests in 1998, which were conducted at _____________ in Rajasthan. (a) Jaipur (c) Pokhran (  ) (b) Udaipur (d) Jaisalmer 52. In June 1576, a fierce battle was fought between Maharana Pratap’s forces and __________ forces at Haldighati. (a) Humayun’s (c) Shivaji’s (b) Akbar’s (  ) (d) Aurangzeb’s 53. Athlete Deepa Malik’s husband is an officer of the rank of __________ in the Indian army. (a) Major (c) Brigadier (b) Captain (d) Colonel (  ) 54. Dr Abdul Kalam’s dream was to become a __________, which he narrowly missed to become in his young days. (a) Fighter Pilot (  ) (c) Astronaut (b) Teacher (d) IAS Officer 55. At the time of Shivaji’s birth, power in Deccan was shared by three Islamic sultanates: Bijapur, Ahmednagar and _________. (a) Nashik (c) Golkonda (  ) (b) Mysuru (d) Satara 56. Dr Abdul Kalam spent four decades of his life in DRDO and _______________. (a) IISc, Bangalore (c) IIT, Chennai (b) ISRO (  ) (d) Missile Development 57. Rani Lakshmibai was born in November 1828 in the town of ____________. (a) Jhansi (c) Mumbai (b) Nagpur (d) Varanasi (  )  33 58. Ms Kiran Mazumdar was born to Gujrati parents in ____________. (a) Bangalore (  ) (c) Surat (b) Bombay (d) Ahmedabad 59. The following is NOT and indicator of good leadership. (a) Morale (c) Integrity (  ) (b) Discipline (d) Competence 60. Dr APJ Abdul Kalam died of a sudden cardiac arrest in 2015 while delivering a lecture at _________. (a) Kolkata (c) Guwahati (b) Shillong (  ) (d) Kohima 61. Which is India’s highest civilian honour? (a) Parma Vibhushan (c) Bharat Rant (  ) (b) Parma Shri (d) Param Vir Chakra 62. Ms Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw is the Chairperson and Managing Director of ___________, a company based in Bangalore. (a) Biotech Ltd. (c) Bitcoin Ltd. (b) Biocon Ltd. (  ) (d) Bharat Biotech Ltd. 63. Mr Ratan Tata studied at Bishop Cotton School in _____________. (a) Shimla (  ) (c) Bengaluru (b) Nainital (d) Mussoorie 64. _____________ is the birth place of Dr APJ Abdul Kalam. (a) Ramanathapuram, Tamil Nadu (c) Raghunathapuram, Tamil Nadu (b) Madurai, Tamil Nadu (d) Rameswaram, Tamil Nadu (  ) 65. Maharana Pratap was the Rajput King of _________, a región in present day Rajasthan. (a) Mewar (  ) (c) Vegad (b) Ajmer (d) Shekhavati 66. According to the Greek Philosopher __________, there are found cardinal virtues or human values; Prudence, Courage, Self-Control and Justice. (a) Socrates (c) Aristotle (b) Philo (d) Plato (  ) 67. In 1674, Shivaji was formally crowned as the Chhatrapati of his realm at __________. (a) Shivneri (c) Raigad (  ) (b) Pune (d) Bijapur 68. The following is NOT and indicator of good leadership. (a) Team Spirit (c) Competence (b) Courage (  ) (d) Discipline 69. India conducted it’s first nuclear test in the year ____________. (a) 1976 (c) 1992 (b) 1974 (  ) (d) 1998 70. ________ is the first Indian women to win a medal in Paralympic Games. (a) PT Usha (c) Deepa Malik (  ) (b) Anju Bobby Geoge (d) Kiran Mazumdar-Shaw  34 71. Dr. APJ Abdul Kalam was ___________ scientist who served as the 11th President of India. (a) An Aerospace (  ) (c) a computer (b) An Artificial Intelligence (d) an Astronomy 72. The __________ is /are the foundation for each cadet’s ethical behaviour for the rest of his life. (a) Preamble (c) Cadet’s Commandments (b) Honour Code (  ) (d) Constitution 73. There are three factors which help motivate a person. First one is ‘Material Factors’ and second one is ‘Intellectual Factors’. Which is the third category? (a) Personal Factors (c) Professional Factors (b) Leadership Factors (d) Spiritual Factors (  ) 74. Personal appearance and physical fitness of members is a factor for evaluation of _________ is a group. (a) Bearing (c) Competence (  ) (b) Loyalty (d) Integrity 75. Good senior-junior relationship is a factor for evaluation of _______ in a group. (a) Team Spirit (c) Integrity (b) Discipline (  ) (d) Courage 76. The loyalty to, pride in and enthusiasm for the group shown by it’s members if called _______. (a) Team Spirit (  ) (c) Discipline (b) Integrity (d) Motivation 77. The following is an indicator of good leadership. (a) Integrity (c) Courage (b) Both of these (d) None of these (  ) 78. The following is NOT a leadership Trait. (a) Justice (c) Loyalty (b) Speak the Truth (  ) (d) Integrity 79. The quality of being faithful to the country, the organization, subordinates, colleagues and superiors is called ___________. (a) Dedication (c) Selflessness (b) Integrity (d) Loyalty (  ) 80. The quality of being impartial and consistent in exercising command is called __________. (a) Judgement (  ) (c) Loyalty (b) Integrity (d) Dependability 81. Honesty and _________ are absolute qualities that one cannot compromise or alter. (a) Initiative (c) Integrity (  ) (b) Courage (d) Dependability 82. Willingness to act or offer well considered recommendations is the absence of orders is called __________. (a) Knowledge (c) Judgement (b) Enthusiasm (d) Initiative (  ) 83. The following is NOT a Leadership Trait. (a) Alertness (c) Self Sacrifice (  ) (b) Courage (d) Bearing  35 84. Display of genuine interest and zeal in the performance of duties is called _________. (a) Keenness (c) Alertness (b) Enthusiasm (  ) (d) Endurance 85. We must always be ready to help out in __________, even if it interferes considerably with your personal conveniences. (a) A business (c) An event (b) Finances (d) An Emergency (  ) 86. The leader’s power of decision results from his ability to remain unperturbed in a ________. (a) Family (c) Situation (b) Crisis (  ) (d) Society 87. The following does NOT form part of Character Qualities. (a) Endurance (  ) (c) Honesty (b) Discipline (d) Impartiality 88. There are two types of courage. First in the Physical courage. Which is the second type of courage? (a) Mental Courage (c) Moral Courage (  ) (b) Psychological Courage (d) Judgement Courage 89. ____________ denotes desirable physical appearance, dress and deportment. (a) Bearing (  ) (c) Alertness (b) Turnout (d) Enthusiasm 90. The following is NOT is Leadership Trait. (a) Bearing (c) Dependability (b) Enthusiasm (d) Discipline (  )  36 DISASTER MANAGEMENT 1. _________ is NOT a water related natural disaster. (a) Floods (c) Tidal Waves (  ) (b) Cloud Bursts (d) Draught 2. Which of the following is NOT part of firefighting equipment? (a) Buckets (c) Fire Extinguishers (b) Fire Ropes (  ) (d) Fire Hooks 3. At the state level the SDMA is headed by ______________. (a) Chief Secretary (c) State Home Minister (b) Chief Justice of High Court (d) Chief Minister (  ) 4. Which of the following is NOT a method for extinguishing fires? (a) Starvation (c) Burning Off (  ) (b) Cooling (d) Smothering 5. The Disaster Management Act of India was enacted in the year ________. (a) 2015 (c) 1995 (b) 2009 (d) 2005 (  ) 6. The National Disaster Management Authority is headed by the ________. (a) Prime Minister (  ) (c) Defence Minister (b) Chief of Defence Staff (d) Home Minister 7. Which of the following is NOT an essential service? (a) Telephone Service (c) Government Hospital (b) Water Supply (d) Cinema Hall (  ) 8. The full form on NEC is __________. (a) National Elective Committee (c) National Education Committee (  ) (b) National Education Commission (d) National Executive Committee 9. Fire extinguishers which contain dry chemicals or solution, meant for extinguishing oil fires are classified as ___________ fire extinguishers. (a) Soda Acid type (c) CTC Carbon Dioxide (b) Foam Type (  ) (d) Stirrup Pump 10. Out of the options given below ________ does NOT form part of the elements essential for a fire hazard. (a) Open Space (  ) (c) Oxygen (b) Sufficient Heat (d) Material for Burning 11. In which year was the Civil Defence Act enacted in the Parliament? (a) 1964 (c) 1968 (  ) (b) 1972 (d) 1985 12. The following groups are created during Disaster Management. 1. Self Defence Group 4. Shelter Management Group, 2. Communication Group 5. Traffic Control Group and 3. Sanitation Group. Out of these five, which groups are created by NCC? (a) 1 , 5 & 3 (c) 2, 5 & 3 (b) 4 , 2 & 3 (  ) (d) 1 , 4 & 2  37 13. Out of the options given below __________ is does not form part of the ‘modes for spread of fires’. (a) Association (  ) (c) Conduction (b) Radiation (d) Convection 14. The full form of NDRF is ______________. (a) National Disaster Reaction Force (b) Natural Disaster Response Force (c) Natural Disaster Reaction Force (d) National Disaster Response Force (  ) 15. In a district the _________ is the final authority on Civil Defence. (a) District SP (c) District Magistrate (  ) (b) DDMA (d) Chief Minister 16. Which of the following is NOT a natural disaster? (a) Landslides (c) Floods (b) Draught (d) Forest Fires (  ) 17. The full form of DDMA is ________________. (a) District Disaster Management Authority (  ) (b) District Department for Managing Accidents (c) Department of Disaster Management Authority (d) Direct Disaster Management Authority. 18. Out of the options given below, which role does NOT form part of roles that NCC cadets can play in management of the after effects of natural calamities and disasters? (a) Help in setting up and administration of Relief camps. (b) Conduct of cultural and recreational activities for victims to boost their morale at later/rehabilitation stages. (c) Financial assistance to the victims (  ) (d) Search and Rescue 19. Which of the following is NOT a man-made disaster. (a) Ecological Disasters (c) Earthquakes (  ) (b) Terrorist (d) Acid-rains 20. The full form of NDMA is _________________. (a) National Disaster Mitigation Association (b) National Disaster Management Act (c) National Disaster Management Authority (  ) (d) Natural Disaster Management Authority.  38 SOCIAL SERVICE AND COMMUNITY DEVELOPMENT (SSCD) 1. The maximum amount under Shishu loan of MUDRA Bank has been fixed at Rs. _________. (a) 50,000 (  ) (c) 1,00,000 (b) 2,50,000 (d) 25,000 2. Some malware such as the _______________ can record the victims’ keystrokes including their passwords, PIN numbers, and credit and details. (a) Spyware (c) Password Attacks (b) Keyloggers (  ) (d) Ransomware 3. Cyber security is classified into three types; Network security, Information security and ____________ security. (a) Programme (c) Application (  ) (b) Device security (d) Wi-Fi security 4. Strong passwords coupled with _________ features, make unauthorized access to your mobile phone nearly impossible. (a) Digital (c) Latest (b) Physical protection (d) Biometric (  ) 5. ________ are a type of malware program (s) that disguise themselves as harmless or useful software. (a) Adware (c) Keyloggers (b) Trojans (  ) (d) Spywares 6. The aim of _____________ is the create an integrated healthcare system in India, linking practitioners with patients digitally by giving them access to real-time health records. (a) Ayushman Bharat (c) NDHM ( 