Musco Multiple Choice Questions PDF

Memrizz Musco Multiple Choice Questions Why is the musculoskeletal system important? a) It sustains the body and enables movement. b) It supports only the immune system. c) It regulates body temperature. d) It aids in digestive processes. Correct answer: It susta...

Memrizz Musco Multiple Choice Questions Why is the musculoskeletal system important? a) It sustains the body and enables movement. b) It supports only the immune system. c) It regulates body temperature. d) It aids in digestive processes. Correct answer: It sustains the body and enables movement. What is a key focus when studying the musculoskeletal system? a) Knowing types of food for energy. b) Understanding digestive enzymes' functions. c) Learning about cardiovascular diseases. d) Understanding structure and muscle contraction mechanisms. Correct answer: Understanding structure and muscle contraction mechanisms. Which muscle type is responsible for voluntary movement? a) Cardiac muscle. b) Smooth muscle. c) Elastic muscle. d) Skeletal muscle. Correct answer: Skeletal muscle. How is skeletal muscle primarily controlled? a) By the autonomic nervous system. b) By the endocrine system. c) By the somatic nervous system. d) By the central nervous system. Correct answer: By the somatic nervous system. What characteristic distinguishes skeletal muscle cells? a) They are non-striated. b) They have single nuclei. c) They have a striated appearance. d) They are involuntary. Correct answer: They have a striated appearance. How many nuclei do skeletal muscle cells typically have? a) Only one nucleus per cell. b) Two nuclei per cell. c) More than one nucleus per cell. d) No nuclei. Correct answer: More than one nucleus per cell. Which type of muscle fiber contracts slowly and resists fatigue? a) Fast-twitch fibers (Type II). b) Smooth fibers. c) Cardiac fibers. d) Slow-twitch fibers (Type I). Correct answer: Slow-twitch fibers (Type I). What are slow-twitch fibers rich in? a) Oxygen and glucose. b) Fat and protein. c) Calcium and sodium. d) Myoglobin and mitochondria. Correct answer: Myoglobin and mitochondria. What characterizes fast-twitch fibers? a) Higher endurance capability. b) Richer in mitochondria. c) More nuclei per cell. d) Lower levels of myoglobin. Correct answer: Lower levels of myoglobin. What is the main function of fast-twitch fibers? a) To contract slowly and resist fatigue. b) To aid in blood circulation. c) To provide structural support. d) To contract rapidly but fatigue quickly. Correct answer: To contract rapidly but fatigue quickly. What causes fatigue in skeletal muscles? a) Dehydration. b) Oxygen debt. c) Vitamin deficiency. d) Rapid increase of muscle size. Correct answer: Oxygen debt. How do skeletal muscles aid in blood circulation? a) By relaxing to allow flow. b) By pumping blood directly. c) By stretching the vessels. d) By 'squeezing' surrounding vessels. Correct answer: By 'squeezing' surrounding vessels. What characterizes fast-twitch muscle fibers? a) They contract slowly and store more oxygen. b) They contract rapidly and fatigue quickly. c) They are primarily used for endurance activities. d) They have high myoglobin levels. Correct answer: They contract rapidly and fatigue quickly. What causes oxygen debt in skeletal muscles? a) A mismatch between oxygen required and available oxygen. b) Excess oxygen intake during exercise. c) An increase in blood circulation rate. d) Insufficient carbon dioxide production. Correct answer: A mismatch between oxygen required and available oxygen. How do skeletal muscle contractions affect circulation? a) They constrict arteries to reduce blood flow. b) They enhance oxygen absorption in lungs. c) They help in blood and lymph circulation. d) They slow down heart rate. Correct answer: They help in blood and lymph circulation. What is the fundamental unit of skeletal muscle called? a) The myofibril. b) The muscle fiber. c) The fascicle. d) The sarcomere. Correct answer: The sarcomere. Which proteins assist in actin and myosin interaction? a) Myosin and actin. b) Troponin and tropomyosin. c) Calcium and potassium. d) Troponin and myoglobulin. Correct answer: Troponin and tropomyosin. What types of filaments are found in the sarcomere? a) Thick filaments (actin) and thin filaments (myosin). b) Thin filaments (myoglobin) and thick filaments (tropomyosin). c) Thick filaments (collagen) and thin filaments (elastin). d) Thick filaments (myosin) and thin filaments (actin). Correct answer: Thick filaments (myosin) and thin filaments (actin). What is a key feature of fast-twitch fibers regarding endurance? a) They are the most aerobic muscle fibers. b) They excel in prolonged activities. c) They fatigue quickly, limiting endurance. d) They have high capillary density. Correct answer: They fatigue quickly, limiting endurance. What role do skeletal muscles play in fluid movement? a) They compress air in the lungs. b) They help in digestive fluid absorption. c) They facilitate movement by squeezing surrounding vessels. d) They prevent fluid leakage from tissues. Correct answer: They facilitate movement by squeezing surrounding vessels. What is the primary role of the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum? a) It produces energy for muscle movement. b) It regulates blood flow to the muscles. c) It stores Ca² z ions essential for muscle contraction. d) It generates nerve impulses for contraction. Correct answer: It stores Ca² z ions essential for muscle contraction. Which nervous system controls smooth muscle contraction? a) The central nervous system. b) The somatic nervous system. c) The proprioceptive system. d) The autonomic nervous system. Correct answer: The autonomic nervous system. Where is smooth muscle primarily located? a) In organs like the digestive tract and blood vessels. b) In skeletal muscles of the limbs. c) In connective tissue surrounding organs. d) In cardiac tissue of the heart. Correct answer: In organs like the digestive tract and blood vessels. What process does smooth muscle use to transport materials? a) Peristalsis. b) Osmosis. c) Contraction and relaxation. d) Filtration process. Correct answer: Peristalsis. What structural characteristic distinguishes smooth muscle? a) It lacks organized sarcomeres. b) It contains multiple nuclei. c) It exhibits a striated appearance. d) It has dense connective tissue. Correct answer: It lacks organized sarcomeres. What is meant by myogenic activity in smooth muscle? a) Contraction occurs without nervous system input. b) Contraction is triggered by external stimuli. c) Contraction relies solely on nerve impulses. d) Contraction can only happen during rest. Correct answer: Contraction occurs without nervous system input. What is a key feature of cardiac muscle cells? a) They are non-striated and smooth. b) They are composed of multiple nuclei. c) They do not form action potentials. d) They are interconnected by intercalated discs. Correct answer: They are interconnected by intercalated discs. What structure governs the heart's rhythm? a) The sinoatrial node (SA node). b) The atrioventricular node. c) The bundle of His. d) The Purkinje fibers. Correct answer: The sinoatrial node (SA node). Which type of muscle tissue is characterized by striations? a) Smooth muscle. b) Skeletal muscle. c) Cardiac muscle. d) Myogenic muscle. Correct answer: Cardiac muscle. What allows for rapid ion flow in cardiac muscle? a) Nerve terminals close to the muscle cells. b) Chemical signals released by hormones. c) The absence of connective tissue. d) Gap junctions within intercalated discs. Correct answer: Gap junctions within intercalated discs. What is the function of the Atrioventricular (AV) Node? a) Generates electrical impulses independently. b) Transmits signals from ventricles to heart. c) Acts as a relay point for electrical signals. d) Regulates blood flow to the lungs. Correct answer: Acts as a relay point for electrical signals. What is the role of the Bundle of His? a) Conducts signals throughout the atria. b) Transmits impulses from AV node to ventricles. c) Receives signals from the Purkinje fibers. d) Paces the heart rhythm independently. Correct answer: Transmits impulses from AV node to ventricles. What do Purkinje fibers do? a) Disseminate electrical signals for muscle contraction. b) Generate hormones for heart function. c) Absorb excess calcium during contraction. d) Connect atria to ventricles directly. Correct answer: Disseminate electrical signals for muscle contraction. Which type of muscle tissue is striated? a) Smooth muscle only. b) Skeletal and cardiac muscle. c) Only skeletal muscle. d) Cardiac muscle only. Correct answer: Skeletal and cardiac muscle. What type of control does skeletal muscle have? a) Automatic control. b) Involuntary reflex control. c) Voluntary control. d) No control. Correct answer: Voluntary control. How many nuclei do skeletal muscle cells have? a) 1 nucleus per cell. b) Multinucleated. c) 2-3 nuclei per cell. d) No nuclei present. Correct answer: Multinucleated. What characterizes smooth muscle? a) Multinucleated structure. b) Non-striated appearance. c) Voluntary control over contractions. d) Striated and segmented appearance. Correct answer: Non-striated appearance. What is the contraction type associated with smooth muscle? a) Continuous contractions. b) Rapid, forceful contractions. c) Intermittent jerky contractions. d) Single strong burst contraction. Correct answer: Continuous contractions. What is the unique feature of cardiac muscle nuclei? a) Only 1 nucleus per cell. b) Multiple nuclei like skeletal muscle. c) 1-2 nuclei per cell. d) No nuclei present. Correct answer: 1-2 nuclei per cell. What type of control does cardiac muscle have? a) Voluntary control. b) Only controlled by brain signals. c) No muscle control at all. d) Involuntary control. Correct answer: Involuntary control. Which type of muscle tissue requires calcium to contract? a) Only skeletal muscle. b) Only smooth muscle. c) None of the muscle types. d) All types: skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. Correct answer: All types: skeletal, smooth, and cardiac. What type of muscle has a forceful contraction characteristic? a) Only smooth muscle. b) Only skeletal muscle. c) Only cardiac muscle. d) Skeletal and cardiac muscle. Correct answer: Skeletal and cardiac muscle. What type of muscle is attached to bones throughout the body? a) Smooth Muscle b) Cardiac Muscle c) Striated Muscle d) Skeletal Muscle Correct answer: Skeletal Muscle Where is smooth muscle primarily found? a) Only in the heart b) In blood vessels and intestines c) Attached to bones d) In the diaphragm Correct answer: In blood vessels and intestines What drives skeletal muscle contractions? a) Calcium Ion Cycle b) Muscle Fiber Initiation c) Actin-Myosin Crossbridge Cycle d) Tropomyosin Activation Correct answer: Actin-Myosin Crossbridge Cycle What transmits signals through motor neurons to muscles? a) Central nervous system b) Somatic nervous system c) Autonomic nervous system d) Peripheral nervous system Correct answer: Somatic nervous system What occurs at the neuromuscular junction? a) Direct electrical signal transmission b) Signal interaction through a chemical synapse c) Hormonal interaction d) Reflex response Correct answer: Signal interaction through a chemical synapse What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction? a) Dopamine b) Serotonin c) Norepinephrine d) Acetylcholine Correct answer: Acetylcholine What happens when acetylcholine binds to the sarcolemma? a) Muscle contraction immediately b) Calcium release c) Ion channel opening and depolarization d) Inhibition of action potential Correct answer: Ion channel opening and depolarization Where are Ca² z ions released from during muscle contraction? a) Mitochondria b) Sarcoplasmic Reticulum c) Nucleus d) Endoplasmic Reticulum Correct answer: Sarcoplasmic Reticulum What inhibits myosin binding sites in a relaxed muscle? a) Troponin b) Calcium ions c) Actin filaments d) Tropomyosin Correct answer: Tropomyosin What triggers troponin to bind with calcium during contraction? a) Release of Ca² z from the sarcoplasmic reticulum b) Tropomyosin detachment c) Membrane depolarization d) Myosin head activation Correct answer: Release of Ca² z from the sarcoplasmic reticulum What initiates the formation of the actin-myosin crossbridge? a) Exposing myosin-binding site on actin b) Calcium influx c) Adjustment of tropomyosin d) Binding of ATP Correct answer: Exposing myosin-binding site on actin How does a signal travel to the muscle at the motor endplate? a) Directly from the spinal cord b) Through motor neurons c) By blood circulation d) Via sensory neurons Correct answer: Through motor neurons What structural change does calcium cause in muscle fibers? a) Changes actin structure b) Inhibits myosin function c) Shifts tropomyosin to expose binding sites d) Increases calcium storage Correct answer: Shifts tropomyosin to expose binding sites What role do calcium ions play in muscle contraction? a) They initiate the actin-myosin crossbridge cycle. b) They cause muscle fibers to elongate. c) They inhibit the action potential propagation. d) They prevent myosin from binding to actin. Correct answer: They initiate the actin-myosin crossbridge cycle. Where does the action potential travel during muscle contraction? a) Across the myofibrils of muscle fibers. b) Along the actin filaments. c) Down the axon of the neuron. d) Through the sarcoplasmic reticulum. Correct answer: Down the axon of the neuron. What is released into the synaptic cleft at the neuromuscular junction? a) Calcium ions (Ca² z). b) Sodium ions (Na z). c) Acetylcholine (ACh). d) Myosin heads. Correct answer: Acetylcholine (ACh). What happens when ACh binds to the sarcolemma? a) Myosin heads contract. b) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c) Ion channels open. d) Tropomyosin detaches from actin. Correct answer: Ion channels open. What initiates the myosin power stroke? a) Release of ADP and inorganic phosphate. b) Binding of ATP to the myosin head. c) Calcium binding to tropomyosin. d) Depolarization of the sarcolemma. Correct answer: Release of ADP and inorganic phosphate. What occurs after the power stroke during muscle contraction? a) Calcium continues to bind to actin. b) Myosin remains bound to actin permanently. c) ATP binds to the myosin head. d) Tropomyosin opens the binding site on actin. Correct answer: ATP binds to the myosin head. What is the effect of ATP hydrolysis on the myosin head? a) Causes the myosin head to bind to actin. b) Inhibits calcium release from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. c) Prevents the muscle from contracting. d) Returns it to a high-energy position. Correct answer: Returns it to a high-energy position. What does tropomyosin do after the myosin head detaches? a) Covers the binding site on actin. b) Releases calcium ions into the cytoplasm. c) Allows sodium to enter the muscle cell. d) Initiates the opening of new ion channels. Correct answer: Covers the binding site on actin. What is the primary function of the autonomic nervous system? a) Controls voluntary muscle movements. b) Regulates involuntary muscle behaviors. c) Directs sensory information processing. d) Manages conscious thoughts and decisions. Correct answer: Regulates involuntary muscle behaviors. Which type of response is associated with the sympathetic nervous system? a) Increased digestive tract activity. b) Contraction of pupil size. c) Heightened relaxation of muscles. d) Dilation of blood vessel smooth muscle. Correct answer: Dilation of blood vessel smooth muscle. How do parasympathetic responses compare to sympathetic actions? a) They are identical in action. b) They amplify sympathetic responses. c) They only affect emotional responses. d) They have opposing effects. Correct answer: They have opposing effects. What distinguishes an endoskeleton from an exoskeleton? a) An endoskeleton is located internally. b) An endoskeleton is always larger. c) An endoskeleton protects the heart. d) An endoskeleton is made of cartilage. Correct answer: An endoskeleton is located internally. Which function does bone NOT perform? a) Protect soft tissues. b) Store fat and minerals. c) Conduct electrical impulses. d) Produce red blood cells. Correct answer: Conduct electrical impulses. Characteristics of short bones include: a) Primarily flat and thin. b) Embedded within tendons. c) Irregular shape for unique roles. d) As wide as they are long. Correct answer: As wide as they are long. The main function of flat bones is to: a) Aid in muscle function. b) Protect vital organs. c) Provide structural support. d) Produce blood cells. Correct answer: Protect vital organs. Which bone type enhances muscle function? a) Short bones. b) Flat bones. c) Irregular bones. d) Sesamoid bones. Correct answer: Sesamoid bones. Which of the following describes irregular bones? a) Are composed of a dual structure. b) Are as wide as they are long. c) Display an irregular shape and structure. d) Protect vital organs and tissues. Correct answer: Display an irregular shape and structure. What are long bones characterized by? a) Cortical and cancellous bone structures. b) Being the same width and length. c) Being always flat in shape. d) Having no internal structure. Correct answer: Cortical and cancellous bone structures. What unique role does the pelvis exhibit? a) It only supports the spine. b) It has a single uniform structure. c) It solely protects internal organs. d) It has diverse forms for unique roles. Correct answer: It has diverse forms for unique roles. Where are long bones primarily found? a) In the skull and spine. b) In the arms and legs. c) Only in the ribs. d) In the pelvis and ankles. Correct answer: In the arms and legs. What characterizes the cortical bone? a) It is spongy and porous. b) It contains red bone marrow. c) It is located only in the epiphysis. d) It is a dense, compact outer layer. Correct answer: It is a dense, compact outer layer. What does cancellous bone contain? a) A solid mass of bone. b) High concentrations of yellow marrow. c) Inner pockets of spongy bone. d) Only compact tissues. Correct answer: Inner pockets of spongy bone. What is located at the ends of long bones? a) The epiphysis. b) The diaphysis. c) The metaphysis. d) The medullary cavity. Correct answer: The epiphysis. What is the function of the epiphysis? a) Stores fat. b) Produces yellow marrow. c) Forms joints with neighboring bones. d) Encases the medullary cavity. Correct answer: Forms joints with neighboring bones. What crucial process occurs in red bone marrow? a) Hematopoiesis. b) Mineral storage. c) Fat storage. d) Endocrine secretion. Correct answer: Hematopoiesis. What is the diaphysis of a bone? a) The end part of the bone. b) The spongy inner section. c) The region for growth plates. d) The elongated hollow shaft of the bone. Correct answer: The elongated hollow shaft of the bone. What does the medullary cavity contain? a) Only red bone marrow. b) Only yellow bone marrow. c) Compact and spongy bone. d) Red and yellow bone marrow. Correct answer: Red and yellow bone marrow. What is the role of yellow bone marrow? a) Production of red blood cells. b) Growth of new bone cells. c) Storage site for fats. d) Formation of joints with other bones. Correct answer: Storage site for fats. What is the metaphysis important for? a) Joint stability. b) Bone growth during development. c) Medullary cavity preservation. d) Attachment of muscles. Correct answer: Bone growth during development. What is the epiphyseal plate's key function? a) Fat storage. b) Bone growth in length during development. c) Joint formation. d) Protection from injury. Correct answer: Bone growth in length during development. What is a primary effect of sympathetic responses? a) Increased digestive tract activity b) Dilation of blood vessel smooth muscle c) Constriction of blood vessel smooth muscle d) Restoration of blood pressure Correct answer: Dilation of blood vessel smooth muscle What is the opposing effect of the sympathetic response? a) Voluntary muscle control b) Parasympathetic responses c) Endocrine system responses d) Central nervous system activation Correct answer: Parasympathetic responses What does the autonomic nervous system regulate? a) Voluntary muscle control b) Sensory neuron responses c) Cognitive functions d) Innervated muscle behaviors Correct answer: Innervated muscle behaviors Where is the metaphysis located? a) At the ends of long bones b) Within the periosteum c) Between the medullary cavity and epiphyseal plates d) Surrounding the diaphysis Correct answer: Between the medullary cavity and epiphyseal plates What is commonly referred to as the growth plate? a) Metaphysis b) Cortical bone c) Epiphyseal plate d) Lacunae Correct answer: Epiphyseal plate What type of cartilage composes the epiphyseal plate? a) Elastic cartilage b) Fibrocartilage c) Hyaline cartilage d) Dense irregular cartilage Correct answer: Hyaline cartilage How does the epiphyseal plate contribute to bone growth? a) Thickens the periosteum b) Strengthens joint connections c) Increases blood supply d) Facilitates lengthening of the diaphysis Correct answer: Facilitates lengthening of the diaphysis What transforms the epiphyseal plate in mature bones? a) Osteon formation b) Epiphyseal line c) Haversian canals d) Lacunae development Correct answer: Epiphyseal line What is the function of cortical bone? a) Inner spongy bone structure b) Growth plate functionality c) Sturdy outer layer of long bones d) Nutrient absorption Correct answer: Sturdy outer layer of long bones What are osteons arranged around? a) Lacunae b) Haversian canals c) Volkmann's canals d) Trabeculae Correct answer: Haversian canals What do lacunae contain? a) Chondrocytes b) Adipocytes c) Stem cells d) Osteocytes Correct answer: Osteocytes What connects Haversian canals to the periosteum? a) Lacunae b) Volkmann's canals c) Canaliculi d) Lamellae Correct answer: Volkmann's canals What characterizes cancellous bone? a) Dense and sturdy b) Spongy network of trabeculae c) Smooth outer layer d) Site of blood formation Correct answer: Spongy network of trabeculae How does cancellous bone differ from cortical bone? a) Cortical bone is spongy and outer b) Cancellous bone is denser c) Cancellous bone is spongy and inner d) Cortical bone contains marrow Correct answer: Cancellous bone is spongy and inner What is the primary function of Volkmann's canals? a) Nutrient distribution within the bone. b) Hormone regulation in the bloodstream. c) Connecting muscles to the bone. d) Producing red blood cells. Correct answer: Nutrient distribution within the bone. What characterizes cancellous bone? a) A spongy network of trabeculae. b) A solid and dense composition. c) The outer layer of bone. d) Lacks any blood supply. Correct answer: A spongy network of trabeculae. What role does cancellous bone play in the body? a) Efficiently absorbs red bone marrow. b) Supports the body's muscles. c) Increases bone density. d) Acts as a shield against injury. Correct answer: Efficiently absorbs red bone marrow. How is cortical bone distinct from cancellous bone? a) It has a spongy texture. b) It absorbs red bone marrow. c) It is the outer layer of bone. d) It is found only in the skull. Correct answer: It is the outer layer of bone. What contributes to the resilience of bone? a) The intricate design of varied structures. b) The presence of a single strength type. c) The thickness of the outer layer only. d) The absence of blood vessels. Correct answer: The intricate design of varied structures. Why is the structure of bone important for physiological balance? a) It primarily supports muscle growth. b) It plays a crucial role in overall balance. c) It enhances sensory perception. d) It ensures a higher absorption of calcium. Correct answer: It plays a crucial role in overall balance. What is the resting state of the myosin head? a) Extended forward in a low-energy position. b) Cocked back in a high-energy position. c) Attached to actin in a relaxed position. d) Detaching from actin after contraction. Correct answer: Cocked back in a high-energy position. What role do calcium ions play in the crossbridge cycle? a) They inhibit myosin binding to actin. b) They are released from the muscle to initiate relaxation. c) They bind to troponin and expose actin's binding site. d) They convert ATP to ADP during contraction. Correct answer: They bind to troponin and expose actin's binding site. What occurs during the power stroke phase of contraction? a) The myosin head pulls actin, leading to muscle contraction. b) Myosin detaches from actin completely. c) Calcium is released back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum. d) ATP is produced to energize the myosin head. Correct answer: The myosin head pulls actin, leading to muscle contraction. What initiates the detachment of myosin from actin? a) The release of calcium ions from troponin. b) The binding of a new ATP molecule to myosin. c) The hydrolysis of ADP and Pi during contraction. d) The reset of the myosin head position. Correct answer: The binding of a new ATP molecule to myosin. How is the myosin head reset for the next cycle? a) Re-binding of ADP and Pi promotes resetting. b) Calcium ions cause the myosin to relax. c) Hydrolysis of ATP resets the myosin head. d) Detachment from actin triggers an energy release. Correct answer: Hydrolysis of ATP resets the myosin head. Which nervous system governs voluntary muscle movements? a) Central nervous system. b) Autonomic nervous system. c) Peripheral nervous system. d) Somatic nervous system. Correct answer: Somatic nervous system. What is the primary function of the autonomic nervous system? a) Regulates voluntary muscle contractions. b) Controls involuntary movements like shivering. c) Acts solely to respond to light stimuli. d) Facilitates conscious muscle control. Correct answer: Controls involuntary movements like shivering. What is a sympathetic response in the autonomic nervous system? a) Stimulating digestive tract activity. b) Increased secretion of digestive enzymes. c) Constriction of blood flow to skeletal muscles. d) Dilation of blood vessel smooth muscle. Correct answer: Dilation of blood vessel smooth muscle. What is the role of parasympathetic responses? a) Facilitate quick energy release during stress. b) Enhance muscle tone during physical activities. c) Effectively eliminate muscle cramps. d) They have opposing effects to sympathetic responses. Correct answer: They have opposing effects to sympathetic responses. What is the primary process bones undergo to maintain mineral balance? a) Static preservation of bone density b) Infrequent remodeling of the matrix c) Only formation without breakdown d) Constant breakdown and reconstruction Correct answer: Constant breakdown and reconstruction In what form is the majority of calcium stored in bones? a) Hydroxyapatite b) Calcium phosphate c) Calcium carbonate d) Free calcium ions Correct answer: Hydroxyapatite What is the main function of osteoclasts? a) Resorb the bone matrix b) Facilitate bone growth c) Store calcium in bones d) Create new bone tissue Correct answer: Resorb the bone matrix Which hormone is released when blood calcium levels are too low? a) Calcitonin b) Thyroid hormone c) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) d) Insulin Correct answer: Parathyroid hormone (PTH) What action does calcitonin promote in bone maintenance? a) Stimulates osteoclasts to release calcium b) Strengthens bones by promoting osteoblast activity c) Inhibits calcium storage in bones d) Decreases blood calcium concentration directly Correct answer: Strengthens bones by promoting osteoblast activity Which cells are primarily responsible for bone formation? a) Osteoclasts b) Osteoblasts c) Chondrocytes d) Fibroblasts Correct answer: Osteoblasts What mnemonic helps remember the functions of osteoblasts and osteoclasts? a) Osteoblasts consume, osteoclasts build b) Osteoblasts repair, osteoclasts destroy c) Osteoblasts grow, osteoclasts shrink d) Osteoblasts build, osteoclasts consume Correct answer: Osteoblasts build, osteoclasts consume What role do the thyroid and parathyroid glands play in calcium homeostasis? a) Produce calcium directly b) Enhance calcium absorption from diet c) Maintain overall calcium balance d) Store excess calcium in kidneys Correct answer: Maintain overall calcium balance What is the role of osteoclasts in calcium homeostasis? a) Store calcium in the bone b) Regulate calcium absorption in intestines c) Release calcium into the bloodstream d) Transport calcium to other tissues Correct answer: Release calcium into the bloodstream When is calcitonin activated? a) When calcium levels are normal b) When blood calcium levels are excessively high c) When calcium levels are too low d) When there's increased dietary calcium Correct answer: When blood calcium levels are excessively high What is the primary way cortical bone is formed? a) Via direct ossification from cartilage. b) Through accumulation and organization of mineralized matrix. c) By the degradation of existing bone tissue. d) Through a process involving ligaments. Correct answer: Through accumulation and organization of mineralized matrix. Which type of bone development is cortical bone primarily associated with? a) Growth of long bones. b) Development and structure of flat bones. c) Formation of irregular bones. d) Repair of fractured bones. Correct answer: Development and structure of flat bones. Which is an example of a flat bone? a) Humerus. b) Fibula. c) Frontal bone. d) Tibia. Correct answer: Frontal bone. What is endochondral ossification? a) Direct conversion of bone to cartilage. b) Bone formation through a pre-existing cartilage model. c) Formation from vascular tissues. d) A method involving ligaments. Correct answer: Bone formation through a pre-existing cartilage model. What primarily influences the growth of long bones? a) Intramembranous ossification. b) Cartilage deformation. c) Cortical bone development. d) Endochondral ossification. Correct answer: Endochondral ossification. When does the process of endochondral ossification begin? a) After birth. b) During childhood. c) In early adulthood. d) During fetal development. Correct answer: During fetal development. What characterizes calcification in cartilage during ossification? a) Breakdown of mineral content. b) Calcium salts deposit in the cartilage. c) Formation of bone marrow. d) Increase in cartilage flexibility. Correct answer: Calcium salts deposit in the cartilage. What are ossification centers? a) Areas of cartilage growth. b) Spaces for blood vessel formation. c) Regions where bone tissue replaces calcified cartilage. d) Locations for tendon attachment. Correct answer: Regions where bone tissue replaces calcified cartilage. What is the role of osteoblasts in bone formation? a) To create new bone tissue. b) To dissolve old bone. c) To provide nerve signals. d) To stimulate muscle growth. Correct answer: To create new bone tissue. Which bone is NOT formed through endochondral ossification? a) Parietal bone. b) Femur. c) Humerus. d) Tibia. Correct answer: Parietal bone. What do tendons connect? a) Bones to bones. b) Muscles to bones. c) Cartilage to cartilage. d) Muscles to cartilage. Correct answer: Muscles to bones. What is the primary function of ligaments? a) Connect muscles to bones. b) Provide blood supply. c) Facilitate movement in joints. d) Connect bone to bone. Correct answer: Connect bone to bone. What are the key components of cartilage? a) Calcium and phosphate. b) Actin and myosin. c) Collagen and elastin. d) Fibrin and keratin. Correct answer: Collagen and elastin. What notable characteristic does cartilage have? a) It is highly vascular. b) It has dense nerve endings. c) It is avascular. d) It is made of only collagen. Correct answer: It is avascular. Why is cartilage not innervated? a) It does not contain nerves. b) It has too few blood vessels. c) It is too flexible. d) It is primarily made of bone. Correct answer: It does not contain nerves. What are tendons primarily composed of? a) Elastin-based fibrous connective tissue. b) Collagen-based fibrous connective tissue. c) Muscular tissues and cells. d) Adipose tissue and cartilage. Correct answer: Collagen-based fibrous connective tissue. What is the main function of ligaments? a) Connect muscles to bones. b) Connect bones to other bones. c) Support soft tissues. d) Facilitate joint movement. Correct answer: Connect bones to other bones. Which tissue is characterized as resilient and flexible? a) Ligaments. b) Adipose tissue. c) Cartilage. d) Epithelial tissue. Correct answer: Cartilage. What do chondroblasts secrete in cartilage? a) A mineral-rich framework. b) A matrix rich in collagen and elastin. c) Muscle fibers and tendons. d) Connective tissue growth factors. Correct answer: A matrix rich in collagen and elastin. Which characteristic describes cartilage? a) Highly vascularized and innervated. b) Avascular and not innervated. c) Only found in joints. d) Rich in blood vessels and nerves. Correct answer: Avascular and not innervated. What is the most prevalent type of cartilage? a) Elastic cartilage. b) Fibrocartilage. c) Adipose cartilage. d) Hyaline cartilage. Correct answer: Hyaline cartilage. What role does hyaline cartilage play in joint function? a) Increases joint stiffness. b) Acts as a tendinous anchor. c) Reduces friction and absorbs shock. d) Supports muscle attachment. Correct answer: Reduces friction and absorbs shock. What defines a joint? a) A type of muscle attachment. b) A fibrous connective tissue structure. c) A site where bones meet and articulate. d) A form of cartilage. Correct answer: A site where bones meet and articulate. What is unique about the vascularization of joints? a) Joints lack blood supply. b) Joints are fully avascular. c) Joints depend on nearby organs. d) Joints have their own blood supply. Correct answer: Joints have their own blood supply. Which type of joint is characterized by fixed movement? a) Synarthroses. b) Diarthroses. c) Amphiarthrosis. d) Elastoses. Correct answer: Synarthroses. What do amphiarthrosis joints allow? a) Limited movement. b) No movement at all. c) Full freedom of movement. d) Extreme flexibility. Correct answer: Limited movement. What is a characteristic of diarthroses joints? a) Offer full mobility and flexibility. b) Require dense fibrous connections. c) Are typically very rigid. d) Do not allow any movement. Correct answer: Offer full mobility and flexibility. What is the periosteum? a) Part of the cartilage structure. b) A type of skeletal muscle. c) A vascularized outer layer of bone. d) An inner layer of blood vessels. Correct answer: A vascularized outer layer of bone. What role does the endosteum play in bone? a) Aids in muscle connection. b) Crucial for bone maintenance and support. c) Serves as an external protective layer. d) Absorbs nutrients for cartilage. Correct answer: Crucial for bone maintenance and support. What is intramembranous ossification? a) Bone formation via cartilage models. b) Direct development from muscle tissues. c) Bone growth from pre-existing bones. d) Bone formation within fibrous membranes. Correct answer: Bone formation within fibrous membranes. Which type of bones is primarily formed by intramembranous ossification? a) Long bones. b) Irregular bones. c) Short bones. d) Flat bones. Correct answer: Flat bones. What initiates the process of intramembranous ossification? a) Osteoblasts, specialized bone-forming cells. b) Chondrocytes, cartilage-forming cells. c) Osteocytes, mature bone cells. d) Adipocytes, fat-storing cells. Correct answer: Osteoblasts, specialized bone-forming cells. What is the function of osteoblasts during ossification? a) They absorb calcium. b) They secrete osteoid. c) They provide structural support. d) They break down bone. Correct answer: They secrete osteoid. What happens to the osteoid during intramembranous ossification? a) It becomes fibrous tissue. b) It is removed by osteoclasts. c) It forms cartilage. d) It gradually mineralizes. Correct answer: It gradually mineralizes. What results from the mineralization of osteoid? a) Embedding of osteocytes within bone. b) Formation of blood vessels. c) Development of cartilage. d) Absorption of minerals. Correct answer: Embedding of osteocytes within bone. What is formed from the organization of mineralized matrix? a) Trabecular bone. b) Articular cartilage. c) Fibrous joint tissue. d) Cortical bone. Correct answer: Cortical bone. Which bones are examples of flat bones formed by intramembranous ossification? a) Parietal and frontal bones. b) Humerus and femur. c) Vertebrae and ribs. d) Tibia and fibula. Correct answer: Parietal and frontal bones. What role do facial bones have in relation to intramembranous ossification? a) Contribute to structure and development. b) Are long bones. c) Are primarily cartilaginous. d) Do not form part of the skull. Correct answer: Contribute to structure and development. What is the primary function of melanocytes? a) To produce keratin color. b) To generate melanin pigment. c) To assist in UV absorption. d) To remove dead skin cells. Correct answer: To generate melanin pigment. What type of cell is a Langerhans cell? a) A skin stem cell. b) A type of macrophage. c) A keratin-producing cell. d) An oil gland cell. Correct answer: A type of macrophage. Which layer of the epidermis contains dead keratinocytes? a) Stratum Corneum. b) Stratum Granulosum. c) Stratum Basale. d) Stratum Lucidum. Correct answer: Stratum Granulosum. What is a key feature of the stratum corneum? a) Contains hair follicles. b) Contains flattened keratin-producing cells. c) Contains Langerhans cells. d) Contains stem cells. Correct answer: Contains flattened keratin-producing cells. Where is the stratum lucidum found? a) In hairy skin. b) In the stratum basale. c) In the reticular region. d) In hairless skin such as palms. Correct answer: In hairless skin such as palms. What is the dominant type of tissue in the dermis? a) Loose connective tissue. b) Epithelial tissue. c) Dense connective tissue. d) Nervous tissue. Correct answer: Dense connective tissue. Which region of the dermis contains Meissner's corpuscles? a) Reticular Region. b) Stratum Basale. c) Stratum Corneum. d) Papillary Region. Correct answer: Papillary Region. What does the reticular region of the dermis primarily provide? a) Nourishment to the epidermis. b) Strength and elasticity to the skin. c) Temperature regulation. d) Protection against UV radiation. Correct answer: Strength and elasticity to the skin. What is the function of tactile corpuscles? a) Responsive to light touch. b) Sensitive to skin stretching. c) Detects pain in the skin. d) Regulates skin temperature. Correct answer: Responsive to light touch. What type of information do bulbous corpuscles provide? a) Information about temperature changes. b) Information about pain intensity. c) Information about light touch. d) Information about skin elongation. Correct answer: Information about skin elongation. What do dermal tears lead to in the skin? a) Increased sensitivity to touch. b) The formation of stretch marks. c) Skin discoloration and aging. d) Formation of blisters and burns. Correct answer: The formation of stretch marks. What type of touch do Tactile Corpuscles respond to? a) Heavy pressure. b) Vibration and motion. c) Light touch. d) Skin stretching. Correct answer: Light touch. What do Bulbous Corpuscles detect? a) Light touch. b) Skin stretching. c) Vibration and pressure. d) Temperature changes. Correct answer: Skin stretching. Pacinian Corpuscles are sensitive to which sensation? a) Vibration and pressure. b) Light touch. c) Skin elongation. d) Heat and cold. Correct answer: Vibration and pressure. What role do macrophages play during tattoo healing? a) They release pigment into the skin. b) They heal dermal tears. c) They produce new skin cells. d) They consume the ink particles. Correct answer: They consume the ink particles. Where is ink injected during the tattooing process? a) Into the epidermis only. b) Into the hypodermis layer. c) Into the dermal layers. d) Into blood vessels in the skin. Correct answer: Into the dermal layers. What is the main function of the hypodermis? a) Regulates body temperature. b) Produces new skin cells. c) Connects the skin to muscles and bones. d) Absorbs nutrients from food. Correct answer: Connects the skin to muscles and bones. Which tissue is primarily found in the hypodermis? a) Epithelial tissue. b) Adipose tissue. c) Muscle tissue. d) Nervous tissue. Correct answer: Adipose tissue. What does adipose tissue in the hypodermis provide? a) Nutrient storage only. b) Increased sensitivity to touch. c) Thermal insulation and shock absorption. d) Fluid transport within the skin. Correct answer: Thermal insulation and shock absorption. What is the primary function of melanocytes? a) Producing sweat for temperature regulation. b) Helping in immune response activation. c) Forming keratin in the skin layers. d) Generating melanin pigment. Correct answer: Generating melanin pigment. Langerhans cells are a type of what? a) Macrophage. b) Keratinocyte. c) Melanocyte. d) Sebaceous gland. Correct answer: Macrophage. What does the stratum corneum protect against? a) UV radiation. b) Pathogens. c) Temperature changes. d) Chemical toxins. Correct answer: Pathogens. Where is the stratum lucidum primarily found? a) In all skin layers. b) Hairless skin, like palms. c) On the face. d) In the stratum spinosum. Correct answer: Hairless skin, like palms. What is contained in the stratum granulosum? a) Live keratinocytes. b) Dead keratinocytes. c) Langerhans cells. d) Eccrine sweat glands. Correct answer: Dead keratinocytes. Eccrine glands are crucial for regulating what? a) Sebum production. b) Immune defense. c) Body temperature. d) Melanin synthesis. Correct answer: Body temperature. Where do apocrine glands release their secretions? a) Directly onto skin surface. b) Into sweat glands. c) Inside blood vessels. d) Into hair follicles. Correct answer: Into hair follicles. What does sebum do? a) Promotes hair growth. b) Increases sweat production. c) Protects against UV radiation. d) Lubricates and moisturizes skin and hair. Correct answer: Lubricates and moisturizes skin and hair. How does the skin contribute to homeostasis? a) Maintaining internal balance. b) Increasing blood flow to muscles. c) Regulating lymphatic fluid. d) Producing more keratin. Correct answer: Maintaining internal balance. What is water impermeability in the skin important for? a) Increasing sweat production. b) Enhancing sensory reception. c) Regulating body temperature. d) Preserving osmolarity. Correct answer: Preserving osmolarity. What mechanism involves muscle contractions to generate heat? a) Piloerection. b) Shivering. c) Vasodilation. d) Sweating. Correct answer: Shivering. What is piloerection commonly known as? a) Shivering. b) Chills. c) Sensation. d) Goosebumps. Correct answer: Goosebumps. What is vasoconstriction? a) Widening of blood vessels. b) Narrowing of blood vessels. c) Elevation of body temperature. d) Increase in heart rate. Correct answer: Narrowing of blood vessels. In warmer climates, what is the body's primary cooling mechanism? a) Sweating. b) Shivering. c) Vasoconstriction. d) Piloerection. Correct answer: Sweating. What is piloerection commonly known as? a) Insulation b) Vasoconstriction c) Goosebumps d) Sweating Correct answer: Goosebumps What is the main function of piloerection? a) To expand blood vessels b) To release sweat onto the skin c) To trap heat within the air layer d) To cool the body through evaporation Correct answer: To trap heat within the air layer What does vasoconstriction refer to? a) Widening of blood vessels b) Retention of sweat c) Narrowing of blood vessels d) Evaporation of heat Correct answer: Narrowing of blood vessels Why is vasoconstriction important in cold environments? a) It cools the body rapidly b) It aids in sweating c) It creates goosebumps d) It helps retain heat in the body Correct answer: It helps retain heat in the body What role does sweating play in thermoregulation? a) It retains heat within the body b) It warms the skin c) It helps with vasodilation d) It cools the body through evaporative cooling Correct answer: It cools the body through evaporative cooling What substances do sweat glands release? a) Blood and heat b) Air and moisture c) Water and ions d) Heat and proteins Correct answer: Water and ions How does evaporative cooling function? a) It increases body temperature b) It traps heat in the air c) It retains water in the body d) It lowers body temperature by dispersing heat Correct answer: It lowers body temperature by dispersing heat What is the definition of vasodilation? a) Widening of blood vessels b) Narrowing of blood vessels c) Production of sweat d) Contraction of muscles Correct answer: Widening of blood vessels What is the effect of vasodilation on body heat? a) Retains heat in the core b) Increases piloerection c) Facilitates heat loss from the body d) Promotes sweating immediately Correct answer: Facilitates heat loss from the body What mechanisms help the body regulate temperature? a) Only sweating and goosebumps b) Piloerection, vasoconstriction, sweating, and others c) Vasodilation and vasoconstriction only d) Feeding and sleeping patterns Correct answer: Piloerection, vasoconstriction, sweating, and others What roles do membranes and connective tissues play in bone structure? a) They maintain and support bone integrity. b) They primarily provide color to the bone. c) They store fat for the skeletal system. d) They act as a barrier against pathogens. Correct answer: They maintain and support bone integrity. What is the largest organ of the body? a) The liver. b) The heart. c) The skin. d) The brain. Correct answer: The skin. From which embryonic layer does the skin originate? a) Mesoderm. b) Endoderm. c) Ectoderm. d) Neuroectoderm. Correct answer: Ectoderm. What are the three distinct layers of the skin? a) Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis. b) Epidermis, endoderm, hypodermis. c) Epidermis, dermis, epidermoid. d) Dermis, hypodermis, connective. Correct answer: Epidermis, dermis, hypodermis. Which cell type in the epidermis produces keratin? a) Melanocytes. b) Langerhans cells. c) Fibroblasts. d) Keratinocytes. Correct answer: Keratinocytes. What do melanocytes generate to protect against UV radiation? a) Collagen. b) Melanin pigment. c) Elastin. d) Keratin. Correct answer: Melanin pigment. Which cells in the epidermis assist in immune system activation? a) Adipocytes. b) Neurons. c) Langerhans cells. d) Melanocytes. Correct answer: Langerhans cells. What is the function of the stratum corneum? a) Sensory reception. b) Production of new skin cells. c) Regulation of body temperature. d) Protection against pathogens. Correct answer: Protection against pathogens. In which skin area can the stratum lucidum be found? a) On the scalp. b) Hairless skin, like palms. c) In the armpits. d) On the back. Correct answer: Hairless skin, like palms. What type of cells are present in the stratum granulosum? a) Live melanocytes. b) Active Langerhans cells. c) Nerve endings. d) Dead keratinocytes. Correct answer: Dead keratinocytes. Which stratum contains live keratinocytes and Langerhans cells? a) Stratum spinosum. b) Stratum corneum. c) Stratum granulosum. d) Stratum lucidum. Correct answer: Stratum spinosum. What distinguishes slow-twitch from fast-twitch muscle fibers? a) Variations in contractile velocity b) Presence of multiple nuclei c) Different myoglobin levels d) Diverse mitochondrial content Correct answer: Variations in contractile velocity Which muscle type is responsible for synchronized contractions? a) Cardiac muscle b) Skeletal muscle c) Smooth muscle d) Visceral muscle Correct answer: Cardiac muscle Which component undergoes conformational change during muscle contraction? a) Troponin b) Tropomyosin c) Sarcolemma d) Actomyosin Correct answer: Troponin Where is the largest portion of body's calcium stored? a) Haversian canals b) Red bone marrow c) Hydroxyapatite d) Compact bone Correct answer: Compact bone What is the primary function of calcitonin? a) Lowers blood calcium levels. b) Stimulates muscle contraction. c) Promotes growth and development. d) Increases blood calcium levels. Correct answer: Lowers blood calcium levels. What role does thyroxine play in the body? a) Inhibits calcium absorption. b) Enhances muscle fatigue. c) Plays a role in metabolism and growth. d) Promotes skin regeneration. Correct answer: Plays a role in metabolism and growth. What does parathyroid hormone stimulate? a) Increases muscle elasticity. b) Stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone matrix. c) Enhances cardiac contraction. d) OÃ 2 ATP v„ub. Correct answer: Stimulates osteoclasts to resorb bone matrix. What is the primary function of tendons? a) Store energy for muscle use. b) Facilitate blood circulation. c) Support skin regeneration. d) Connect muscle to bone. Correct answer: Connect muscle to bone. Which skin layer contains sensory receptors? a) Dermis. b) Epidermis. c) Hypodermis. d) Adipose tissue. Correct answer: Dermis. What initiates the detachment of myosin from actin? a) Calcium influx. b) ATP Hydrolysis. c) Protein synthesis. d) Neurotransmitter release. Correct answer: ATP Hydrolysis. How does calcium affect muscle contraction? a) Causes troponin to expose binding sites. b) Enhances ATP production. c) Slows down contraction speed. d) Blocks muscle pathways. Correct answer: Causes troponin to expose binding sites. What is the process of evaporative cooling? a) Increased blood flow to surface. b) Activation of muscle histamine. c) Sweat glands releasing mixture for heat dispersion. d) Reduction of skin elasticity. Correct answer: Sweat glands releasing mixture for heat dispersion. Characteristic of slow-twitch muscle fibers? a) Rich in myoglobin and resist fatigue. b) Contract rapidly and tire quickly. c) Have low oxygen supply. d) Are exclusively found in limbs. Correct answer: Rich in myoglobin and resist fatigue. What is a characteristic of cardiac muscle? a) Voluntary and layered. b) Involuntary and non-striated. c) Striated and independently contracting. d) Involuntary and striated with synchronized contractions. Correct answer: Involuntary and striated with synchronized contractions. What do keratinocytes produce? a) Collagen for skin elasticity. b) Keratin, a protective protein. c) Melanin for skin pigmentation. d) Enzymes for pathogen digestion. Correct answer: Keratin, a protective protein. Where is the largest portion of calcium stored? a) Muscle tissues. b) Liver and kidneys. c) Bone matrix within hydroxyapatite. d) Blood plasma. Correct answer: Bone matrix within hydroxyapatite. What triggers the release of Parathyroid Hormone? a) Decrease in blood calcium levels. b) Increase in blood calcium levels. c) Muscle contractions. d) High phosphorus levels. Correct answer: Decrease in blood calcium levels. Which cells are stimulated by Parathyroid Hormone to resorb bone? a) Osteoblasts. b) Chondrocytes. c) Fibroblasts. d) Osteoclasts. Correct answer: Osteoclasts. What role does Parathyroid Hormone play in the body? a) Regulates calcium levels in the bloodstream. b) Stimulates muscle contraction. c) Promotes red blood cell production. d) Increases insulin secretion. Correct answer: Regulates calcium levels in the bloodstream. What do tendons connect in the musculoskeletal system? a) Bones to bones. b) Muscles to ligaments. c) Nerves to muscles. d) Muscles to bones. Correct answer: Muscles to bones. Which connective tissues connect bone to bone? a) Tendons. b) Cartilage. c) Adipose tissue. d) Ligaments. Correct answer: Ligaments. Which glands are responsible for releasing Parathyroid Hormone? a) Thyroid glands. b) Adrenal glands. c) Pituitary glands. d) Parathyroid glands. Correct answer: Parathyroid glands. What effect does PTH have on the bone matrix? a) Stimulates formation of new bone. b) Increases collagen production. c) Causes resorption of bone matrix. d) Promotes calcium absorption in intestines. Correct answer: Causes resorption of bone matrix. What is released into the bloodstream when the bone matrix is resorbed? a) Phosphorus. b) Magnesium. c) Sodium. d) Calcium. Correct answer: Calcium. How do ligaments differ from tendons? a) Tendons connect bone to bone. b) Ligaments are made of muscle. c) Tendons connect nerves to muscles. d) Ligaments connect bone to bone. Correct answer: Ligaments connect bone to bone. What is the main function of the epidermis? a) Houses sensory receptors for touch. b) Produces keratin through its strata. c) Connects muscle to bone. d) Stores calcium for muscles. Correct answer: Produces keratin through its strata. What is housed within the dermis? a) Strata producing keratin. b) Sensory receptors for light touch. c) Cells producing sweat. d) Fat storage cells. Correct answer: Sensory receptors for light touch. Which skin layer is NOT involved in keratin production? a) Epidermis. b) Hypodermis. c) Reticular layer. d) Dermis. Correct answer: Hypodermis. What does the reticular layer of the dermis NOT do? a) Produce keratin or house sensory receptors. b) Aid in tactile perception. c) Support skin flexibility. d) Store fat. Correct answer: Produce keratin or house sensory receptors. What is the role of parathyroid hormone (PTH)? a) Resorbs bone matrix when calcium levels decrease. b) Lowers blood calcium levels. c) Stimulates muscle contraction. d) Directly produces keratin. Correct answer: Resorbs bone matrix when calcium levels decrease. How does calcitonin affect blood calcium levels? a) Increases bone resorption. b) Stimulates osteoclast activity. c) Lowers blood calcium levels. d) Acts as a growth hormone. Correct answer: Lowers blood calcium levels. Which hormone is involved in metabolism but not calcium regulation? a) Calcitonin. b) Thyroxine. c) Growth hormone. d) Parathyroid hormone. Correct answer: Thyroxine. What is the primary function of tendons? a) Facilitate joint movement. b) Store calcium. c) Protect the skin. d) Connect muscle to bone. Correct answer: Connect muscle to bone. What do tendons aid in beyond connecting muscles? a) Storing blood cells. b) Calcium storage. c) Facilitating joint movement. d) Producing hormones. Correct answer: Facilitating joint movement. What facilitates muscle contraction through myosin interaction? a) ATP hydrolysis. b) Calcium release. c) Oxygen diffusion. d) Protein synthesis. Correct answer: ATP hydrolysis. What happens during myosin and actin interaction? a) Actin releases ATP. b) Calcium binds to actin. c) Myosin binds to calcium. d) Myosin detaches from actin for another power stroke. Correct answer: Myosin detaches from actin for another power stroke. Where are sensory receptors for light touch located? a) In the dermis of the skin. b) On the surface of the epidermis. c) In the hypodermis layer. d) Within muscle tissues. Correct answer: In the dermis of the skin. What is the primary function of tactile perception? a) To perceive light touch and skin stretching. b) To sense temperature changes. c) To detect pain stimuli. d) To identify chemical substances. Correct answer: To perceive light touch and skin stretching. What role does ATP hydrolysis play in muscle contraction? a) It initiates muscle contraction. b) It energizes the actin filament. c) It detaches myosin from actin. d) It prevents muscle fatigue. Correct answer: It detaches myosin from actin. Why is ATP important for muscle fiber function? a) It increases muscle energy storage. b) It resets the myosin head for another cycle. c) It blocks nerve impulses. d) It stimulates muscle growth. Correct answer: It resets the myosin head for another cycle. How does evaporative cooling help regulate body temperature? a) It increases blood circulation. b) It disperses heat through sweat evaporation. c) It generates internal heat. d) It constricts skin blood vessels. Correct answer: It disperses heat through sweat evaporation. What is released by sweat glands during evaporative cooling? a) A mixture onto the skin surface. b) A cold saline solution. c) A thick oily substance. d) Warm air from the body. Correct answer: A mixture onto the skin surface.