Nursing Practice Questions

1\. Which of the following best describes evidence-based health assessment data collection? (Low difficulty) A. Only objective data collection B. Only subjective data collection C. Collection of both subjective and objective data D. Collection of laboratory data only 2\. A patient reports feeli...

1\. Which of the following best describes evidence-based health assessment data collection? (Low difficulty) A. Only objective data collection B. Only subjective data collection C. Collection of both subjective and objective data D. Collection of laboratory data only 2\. A patient reports feeling nauseated and dizzy. These are examples of: (Low difficulty) A. Signs B. Symptoms C. Objective data D. Physical findings 3\. When validating assessment data, which of the following approaches is most appropriate? (Medium difficulty) A. Accept all patient statements without verification B. Compare objective findings with subjective data to identify discrepancies C. Rely solely on laboratory results D. Only trust data collected by physicians 4\. In the diagnostic reasoning process, what is the correct sequence of steps? (High difficulty) A. Validate data, develop list of signs/symptoms, cluster information, critical thinking B. Critical thinking, validate data, cluster information, develop list of signs/symptoms C. Develop list of signs/symptoms, cluster information, critical thinking, validate data D. Cluster information, validate data, critical thinking, develop list of signs/symptoms 5\. Which database type would be most appropriate for a patient presenting with acute chest pain? (Medium difficulty) A. Complete database B. Emergency database C. Follow-up database D. Focused database 6\. The mnemonic \"PQRSTU\" is used for: (Low difficulty) A. Physical examination sequence B. Laboratory test ordering C. Symptom assessment D. Medication administration 7\. Cultural competency in healthcare encompasses: (Medium difficulty) A. Only knowledge of different cultures B. Attitude, knowledge, and skills for diverse populations C. Language skills exclusively D. Religious practices only 8\. During auscultation with a stethoscope, when using the bell piece, you should: (Medium difficulty) A. Press firmly against the skin B. Rest it lightly on the skin C. Listen through the patient\'s gown D. Use it for high-pitched sounds 9\. Which assessment technique should be performed first? (Low difficulty) A. Palpation B. Percussion C. Inspection D. Auscultation 10\. Evidence-based practice in nursing emphasizes: (Medium difficulty) A. Only research literature B. Only clinical experience C. Patient preferences alone D. Integration of research, patient preferences, and clinical expertise 11\. The Heritage Assessment Tool primarily evaluates: (High difficulty) A. Medical history B. Cultural identification and traditional practices C. Genetic predispositions D. Socioeconomic status 12\. During percussion, which sound would you expect to hear over the liver? (Medium difficulty) A. Resonance B. Tympany C. Dullness D. Hyperresonance 13\. When conducting a complete health history, which component comes first? (Low difficulty) A. Review of systems B. Family history C. Biographical data D. Past illness 14\. In the \"Crescent of Care\" nursing model, what is at the center? (Medium difficulty) A. Healthcare provider B. Patient and family C. Hospital system D. Cultural practices 15\. Which of the following represents objective data? (High difficulty) A. Patient\'s description of pain B. Family history of illness C. Blood pressure reading D. Patient\'s health beliefs 16\. Which of the following is NOT a component of the general survey assessment? (Low difficulty) A. Physical appearance B. Laboratory values C. Body structure D. Mobility 17\. What is the primary purpose of the initial assessment? (Low difficulty) A. To document patient history only B. To collect billing information C. To understand care needs and form nursing diagnoses D. To establish patient\'s insurance coverage 18\. The normal core body temperature maintained through hypothalamic regulation is: (Medium difficulty) A. 36.5∘C B. 37.2∘C C. 38.0∘C D. 36.0∘C 19\. When measuring blood pressure, Korotkoff Phase 5 represents: (Medium difficulty) A. The initial tapping sound B. The disappearance of sounds marking diastolic pressure C. The maximum systolic pressure D. The murmuring sounds 20\. Which factor does NOT affect normal body temperature? (Medium difficulty) A. Diurnal cycle B. Exercise C. Blood type D. Menstruation cycle 21\. In pulse oximetry, what is considered a healthy SpO2 reading? (Low difficulty) A. 85-90% B. 90-95% C. 97-100% D. Above 100% 22\. What is the correct definition of pulse pressure? (High difficulty) A. The force of blood against vessel walls B. The difference between systolic and diastolic pressures C. The maximum pressure during systole D. The minimum pressure during diastole 23\. Which of the following represents Stage 1 hypertension values? (Medium difficulty) A. 160/100 mmHg B. 140-159/90-99 mmHg C. 120-139/80-89 mmHg D. 90-119/60-79 mmHg 24\. For accurate respiratory assessment, the nurse should: (Low difficulty) A. Tell the patient to breathe normally B. Count respirations without the patient\'s awareness C. Ask the patient to take deep breaths D. Measure for exactly 15 seconds 25\. What is the normal adult respiratory rate range? (Medium difficulty) A. 20-30 breaths/minute B. 10-20 breaths/minute C. 30-40 breaths/minute D. 15-25 breaths/minute 26\. Which statement about pain assessment is correct? (Medium difficulty) A. Pain is only valid if physical signs are present B. Pain exists whenever the experiencing person says it does C. Pain must be verified by diagnostic tests D. Pain can only be assessed using numerical scales 27\. In documentation, which of the following is NOT a required guideline? (Low difficulty) A. Must be factual B. Must use colored ink C. Must be current D. Must be legible 28\. What is orthostatic hypotension defined as? (High difficulty) A. A rise in systolic pressure of 20 mmHg upon standing B. A drop in systolic pressure of more than 20 mmHg upon standing C. A drop in diastolic pressure of 10 mmHg upon standing D. A rise in both systolic and diastolic pressure upon standing 29\. Which BMI calculation method is correct? (Medium difficulty) A. Weight in kg divided by height in meters B. Height in meters divided by weight in kg C. Weight in kg divided by height in meters squared D. Weight in pounds divided by height in inches 30\. The PQRST assessment tool is used for: (Medium difficulty) A. Vital signs assessment B. Pain assessment C. Respiratory assessment D. Cardiac assessment 31\. What is the primary function of the skin in relation to temperature regulation? (Medium Difficulty) A. Prevention of fluid loss B. Thermoregulation through vasodilation and vasoconstriction C. Production of vitamin D D. Protection against mechanical injury 32\. A patient presents with generalized yellowing of the skin and sclera. What condition does this most likely indicate? (Low Difficulty) A. Cyanosis B. Pallor C. Jaundice D. Erythema 33\. Which of the following is the correct order of bruise color changes during the healing process? (High Difficulty) A. Red → Green → Blue → Yellow → Brown B. Red → Blue/Purple → Green → Yellow → Brown C. Blue → Red → Yellow → Green → Brown D. Purple → Red → Brown → Yellow → Green 34\. What is the defining characteristic of a macule? (Low Difficulty) A. Raised, solid lesion less than 1cm B. Fluid-filled cavity in dermis C. Color change only, flat and less than 1cm D. Deep depression extending into dermis 35\. According to the Braden Scale, what total score indicates a high risk for pressure ulcer development? (Medium Difficulty) A. 15 or higher B. 13-14 C. 12 or less D. 9 or higher 36\. Which assessment finding would indicate clubbing of the nails? (Medium Difficulty) A. Nail base angle of 160 degrees B. Nail base angle less than 160 degrees C. Nail base angle of 180 degrees or greater D. Nail base angle of 90 degrees 37\. What is the correct method for assessing capillary refill? (Low Difficulty) A. Apply pressure for 1 minute and release B. Depress nail edge until blanched and release C. Tap the nail repeatedly D. Warm the nail bed first 38\. Which type of edema leaves no dent after applying thumb pressure? (Medium Difficulty) A. Pitting edema B. Non-pitting edema C. Grade 1+ edema D. Grade 2+ edema 39\. In the ABCDE assessment of skin lesions, what does \'D\' represent? (Low Difficulty) A. Depression B. Darkness C. Diameter greater than 6mm D. Depth 40\. What is the correct nursing diagnosis for a patient with cyanosis? (Medium Difficulty) A. Risk for infection B. Impaired gas exchange C. Disturbed body image D. Impaired skin integrity 41\. Which of the following is a secondary skin lesion? (High Difficulty) A. Papule B. Nodule C. Crust D. Wheal 42\. What is the most appropriate way to assess skin turgor? (Medium Difficulty) A. Pinch skin on the forearm B. Pinch skin on the anterior chest under the clavicle C. Pinch skin on the abdomen D. Pinch skin on the back of the hand 43\. A patient presents with a solid, elevated lesion larger than 1cm that extends into the dermis. This would be classified as a: (Low Difficulty) A. Papule B. Macule C. Nodule D. Patch 44\. In assessing mobility and turgor, poor turgor is most commonly associated with: (Medium Difficulty) A. Scleroderma B. Edema C. Dehydration D. Inflammation 45\. What is the correct nursing intervention for a patient with grade 3+ pitting edema? (High Difficulty) A. Apply compression stockings without assessment B. Elevate affected limb and monitor skin integrity C. Massage the affected area vigorously D. Ignore if bilateral 46\. Which of the following is NOT a component of the neck structures? (Low difficulty) A. Trachea B. Lymph nodes C. Pancreas D. Esophagus 47\. What is the correct description of a tension headache? (Medium difficulty) A. Intense throbbing pain on one side B. A tight or pressing sensation around the head C. Sharp pain around the eye and forehead D. Pulsating pain affecting both temples 48\. During the assessment of facial structures, what is considered a normal finding? (Low difficulty) A. Asymmetrical facial muscles B. Flattened affect C. Appropriate facial expression to behavior D. Rigid facial muscles 49\. When assessing the temporomandibular joint (TMJ), what is an abnormal finding? (Medium difficulty) A. Smooth movement B. Crepitation C. Centered alignment D. Normal range of motion 50\. What is the correct approach to assess the thyroid gland during swallowing? (High difficulty) A. Place fingers medial to thyroid cartilage B. Apply firm pressure during palpation C. Place fingers lateral to thyroid cartilage D. Assess only from anterior approach 51\. Which finding indicates an abnormal lymph node assessment? (Medium difficulty) A. Soft consistency B. Mobile nodes C. Fixed nodes D. Discrete nodes 52\. What is the proper technique for testing muscle strength in the neck? (Low difficulty) A. Passive range of motion B. Resisting movement C. Quick stretching D. Rotation only 53\. During nasal assessment, what is considered a normal finding of the nasal septum? (Medium difficulty) A. Slight perforation B. Mild bleeding C. No perforation or bleeding D. Minimal discharge 54\. What is an indication of sinusitis during palpation? (Low difficulty) A. Normal pressure sensation B. Tenderness over sinuses C. Slight tickling D. Cool sensation 55\. Which of the following is a characteristic of normal gums during oral examination? (Medium difficulty) A. Slight bleeding B. Pale white color C. Pink color with tight margins D. Bluish tinge 56\. What is leukoplakia? (High difficulty) A. Red patches on tongue B. Thick white patches in heavy smokers C. Normal variation of oral mucosa D. Bluish spots on gums 57\. How is Grade 3+ tonsil enlargement characterized? (Medium difficulty) A. Barely visible tonsils B. Tonsils touching each other C. Tonsils touching the uvula D. Tonsils halfway to uvula 58\. What is the correct position for Snellen eye chart testing? (Low difficulty) A. 10 feet from chart B. 15 feet from chart C. 20 feet from chart D. 25 feet from chart 59\. During pupillary assessment, what does PERRLA indicate? (Medium difficulty) A. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light only B. Pupils Equal, Round, Reactive to Light and Accommodation C. Pupils Enlarged, Round, Reactive to Linear Assessment D. Pupils Equal, Responsive, Reactive to Linear Alignment 60\. What is the correct distance for the whisper test during hearing assessment? (Medium difficulty) A. 1 foot B. 2 feet C. 3 feet D. 4 feet 61\. Which finding during ear examination requires immediate attention? (High difficulty) A. Darwin\'s tubercle B. Slight wax buildup C. Perforated tympanic membrane D. Small skin tag 62\. What is the normal adult resting pupil size? (Medium difficulty) A. 1-2 mm B. 3-5 mm C. 6-8 mm D. 9-10 mm 63\. During the Romberg test, how long should the patient stand with eyes closed? (Low difficulty) A. 10 seconds B. 20 seconds C. 30 seconds D. 40 seconds 64\. What is the correct procedure for testing visual fields using the confrontation test? (Medium difficulty) A. Stand 1 foot from patient B. Stand 2 feet from patient C. Stand 3 feet from patient D. Stand 4 feet from patient 65\. Which of these is an abnormal finding during thyroid palpation? (Low difficulty) A. Unable to palpate the gland B. Slight movement during swallowing C. Tender enlarged lobes D. Smooth surface 66\. Which of the following describes the thoracic cage structure? (Low difficulty) A. A cylindrical structure composed of 10 pairs of ribs B. A bony conical structure with sternum, 12 pairs of ribs, and 12 thoracic vertebrae C. A rectangular structure with flexible cartilage D. A pyramidal structure with 11 pairs of ribs 67\. What is the mediastinum? (Medium difficulty) A. The outer covering of the lungs B. The space between the lungs C. The middle section of thoracic cavity containing esophagus, trachea, heart, and great vessels D. The membrane covering the heart 68\. Where are the lung areas typically located? (Low difficulty) A. From T1 to T12 posteriorly only B. From the apices at C7 to the bases around T10 C. Only in the anterior chest wall D. From C1 to L1 continuously 69\. What is the normal stimulus to breathe? (High difficulty) A. Decrease in nitrogen levels B. Increase in CO2 (hypercapnia) and decrease in O2 (hypoxemia) C. Increase in blood pressure D. Decrease in body temperature 70\. Which sputum characteristic indicates bacterial infection? (Medium difficulty) A. White/clear mucoid B. Pink/frothy C. Yellow/green D. Rust colored 71\. What is orthopnea? (Medium difficulty) A. Normal breathing pattern B. Difficulty breathing during exercise C. Difficult breathing when supine D. Rapid breathing at rest 72\. What is the normal ratio of anteroposterior (AP) diameter to transverse diameter in the thorax? (Medium difficulty) A. 2:1 B. 1:1 C. 1:2 D. 3:1 73\. During tactile fremitus assessment, what should the patient be asked to say? (Low difficulty) A. \"Hello\" B. \"Ninety-nine\" C. \"Good morning\" D. \"One-two-three\" 74\. Which percussion note indicates healthy lung tissue? (Medium difficulty) A. Dull note B. Flat note C. Resonance D. Tympanic note 75\. What is the normal respiratory rate for adults? (Low difficulty) A. 5-10 breaths/minute B. 10-20 breaths/minute C. 25-30 breaths/minute D. 30-40 breaths/minute 76\. Which adventitious sound is described as a high-pitched, musical sound heard over expiration? (High difficulty) A. Crackles B. Wheeze C. Stridor D. Pleural friction rub 77\. Where should the hands be placed to assess symmetric expansion of the posterior chest? (Medium difficulty) A. At the level of T5-T6 B. At the level of T9 or T10 C. Over the scapulae D. At the cervical region 78\. What is the significance of clubbing of fingers? (Medium difficulty) A. Normal variant B. Temporary condition C. Sign of chronic hypoxemia D. Sign of acute infection 79\. What is the upper border of liver dullness typically located at? (Low difficulty) A. 3rd intercostal space B. 4th intercostal space C. 5th intercostal space D. 6th intercostal space 80\. Which breath sounds should be heard over the anterior chest wall? (High difficulty) A. Only bronchial sounds B. Only vesicular sounds C. A mixture of bronchial and bronchovesicular sounds D. Normal breath sounds varying by location