Module 6 Microbiology PDF

MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control MODULE 6 MICROBIOLOGY FUNGI MYCOLOGY Mykes-__________________ mushrooms - study of Logos- ________...

MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control MODULE 6 MICROBIOLOGY FUNGI MYCOLOGY Mykes-__________________ mushrooms - study of Logos- __________________ General Characteristics of Fungi 1. They are NOT photosynthetic 2. They are heterotrophs (obtain nutrients from OTHER organisms) 3. They are saprotrophs (feed on organic material of dead organisms) 4. They form spores > reproduction - 5. They are rich sources of proteins The Fungal Hyphae slender thread-like structures that comprise the vegetative stage of fungi fungi reproduce sexually or asexually through their hyphae can be septate or aseptate septate aseptate Kingdom Fungi Yeasts Molds uni _______________ cellular multi _______________ cellular Budding Reproduce by _______________ Reproduce by Sporulation Examples: Example: Penicillium notatum Saccharomyces cerevisiae Candida albicans Saccharomyces cerevisiae Candida albicans aka __________________ Brewers yeast Opportunistic pathogen Zymase Enzyme: _______________ Attacks when the immune system is WEAK Causes Candidiasis (NOT STD) _________________ Penicillium notatum Malassezia furfur Penicillin Dimorphic Fungus > mold 3 yeast - A. Fleming Discovered by ______________ Causes whitish patches on skin (Tinea Isolated and purified by _______________ Florey and versicolor) chain _____________ Exhibits “Spaghetti and Meatballs” Technique: __________________ Freeze drying > - Lyophilization appearance under a microscope MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control Important Fungal Infections Infection Body Part Infected Tinea _______________ Capitis Hair shaft corporis Tinea _______________ Body pedis Tinea _______________ Foot; Athlete’s Foot Tinea _______________ cruris Groin; Jock itch Candidiasis (____________ infection) Mouth and genitals Tinea unguium Nails Tinea barbae Beard Tinea manuum Hands CAUSATIVE AGENTS OF TINEA DERMATOPHYTES- feed on keratin microscoporum 1. ______________________ Epidermophyton 2. ______________________ Trichophyton 3. ______________________ TOPIC QUIZ Question Choices 1. Which of the following is NOT a fungus? A. Yeast B. Penicillium C. Molds D. Paramecium > protozoan - 2. Which of the following is caused by an A. Trichomoniasis opportunistic pathogen for compromised B. Candidiasis systems? C. Gonorrhea D. Genital herpes 3. Which causes athlete’s foot? A. Tinea capitis B. Tinea corporis dermatophytes C. Tinea pedis D. Tinea cruces 4. It causes ringworm infection with whitish A. Tinea capitis patches on human skin B. Tinea corporis C. Trichophyton rubrum D. Malasezzia furfur 5. Fungi differ from plants and fungi, except A. Fungi form spores that B. Fungi are saprotrophs, they feed on organic materials from a dead organism C. Fungi are not good sources of nutrients D. Fungi do not have chlorophyll and other photosynthetic structures 6. Tinea cruris A. Ringworm of the scalp and hair shaft B. Ringworm of the groin area C. Ringworm of the foot D. Ringworm of the body MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control VIROLOGY Viruses Obligate Intracellular Parasites outside cells Cannot generate energy __________ outside cells Cannot synthesize proteins __________ Need host cell membrane to obtain envelopes Important Viral Infections Infection Description Avian Flu or Bird Flu Causative Agent: Influenza Virus (_______________ H5NA , H7N9) Virulence Factors of Influenza virus Hemaglutinin o H-____________________ Neuraminidase o N-____________________ ANTIGENIC DRIFT- minor mutations to H, N (leads to an epidemic ____________) ANTIGENIC SHIFT- major mutations to H, N (leads to a pandemic _________________) Direct Mode of Transmission: _______________ indirect or _______________ with infected animals Birds Reservoir: _______________ (Aquatic and domestic) Chicken Pox varicella Causative Agent: _______________ virus Direct Mode of Transmission: _______________ with body fluids Humans Reservoir: _______________ COVID 19 corona virus Causative Agent: Novel _______________ Direct contact ; inhalation of droplets, Mode of Transmission: _______________ consumption of infected animal; infected fomites wild animals , humans Reservoir: _______________ OTHER CORONAVIRUSE INFECTIONS: 1. SARS- Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (2002) 2. MERSCOV- Middle East Respiratory Syndrome, Corona Virus Dengue Fever Causative Agent: Dengue Virus (Flavivirus) Mode of Transmission: Vector-transmitted (Mosquito, Aeded aegypti bites) Reservoir: Humans Complications: causes hemorrhage due to thrombocytopenia; do not give ASA (Aspirin) Ebola Virus Disease (EVD) Causative Agent: Ebola Virus Direct contact with body fluids Mode of Transmission: _______________ Fruit Bat Reservoir: Humans and Animals (_______________) Feuer headache diarrhed Symptoms: _______________, _______________, _______________ , vomiting - _______________ , _______________ pain , and weakness _______________ Complications: Hemorrhage Smallpox Causative agent: _______________ variola virus Mode of transmission: inhalation of respiratory droplets Reservoir: Humans COWDOX Vaccine: _______________ (Vaccinia virus) 1988 Eradicated worldwide: Year_______________ (as declared by World Health Assembly) Human HIV/AIDS Immunodeficiency virus Causative agent: _______________ T cells Attacks Helper Mode of transmission: 1. Sex 2. contaminated needles/syringes 3. Blood Transfusion 4. Vertical (mother > Fetus) RNA-DNA (Reverse Transcription) - Genome: ______________ Reverse Transcriptase Enzyme: ______________ MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control Treatment: Cocktail of Anti-retrovirals 1. NRTI- Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors 2. nNRTI- non-Nucleoside Reverse Transcriptase Inhibitors 3. PI- Protease Inhibitors Human Papilloma Virus Enters the body sexually or through small cuts or abrasions in the - warts , genital warts skin Causes mucous membrane growth (warts) Cause cervical cancer (fatal) TOPIC QUIZ Question Choices 1. How is avian flu or bird flu transmitted?A. Direct or indirect contact with infected birds B. Inhalation of contaminated aerosols C. Animal bites viz; clogs, cats D. Mosquito bites 2. Which is the reservoir of avian flu? A. Cattle B. Butterfly C. Chicken D. Birds 3. Choose the reservoir for chicken pox A. Pigs infection. B. Humans C. Chicken D. Cattles 4. Which of the following is common route A. Needlestick injury of transmission for COVID-19, SARS and B. Handshake common cold? C. Animal bites D. Contact with contaminated urine 5. Which of the following drugs should be A. Insulin avoided for patients with dengue B. Chloramphenicol hemorrhagic fever? C. Aspirin D. paracetamol 6. Symptoms of the severe disease known A. Frequent urination as ebola include the following, EXCEPT____. B. Muscle pain and weakness C. Fever and severe headache D. Diarrhea and vomiting 7. Which of the following is the pathogen A. Plasmodium for smallpox? B. Aedes aegypti dengue - Fever C. Variola virus D. Rubella virus -German measles 8. Viruses are obligate intracellular A. Viruses cannot generate energy outside the cell parasites. The following statements B. Viruses cannot synthesize proteins outside concerning this fact are correct, except: C. the cell D. Viruses must degrade host cell DNA in order to obtain nucleotides E. Enveloped viruses require host cell membranes to obtain their envelopes. 9. Group of viruses that causes severe A. Coronaviruses respiratory syndromes B. Poxviruses C. Herpesviruses D. Flaviviruses 10. What virus enters the skin via abrasions? A. Rotavirus B. Papilloma virus C. Adenovirus D. Coronavirus MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control PARASITOLOGY Parasites- organisms that harm the host HELMINTHOLOGY Helminths study of ________________ platyhelminths - FLAT worms NEMATODES CESTODES TREMATODES __________________ Roundworms _________________ Tapeworms Flukes _________________ DOC: Mebendazole DOC: Praziquantel, DOC: Praziquantel, Niclosamide Niclosamide NEMATODES Round Aka _____________ worms Treatment: § Ascaris lumbricoides > most common - intestinal roundworm Aka Giant __________ § Ancylostoma duodenale Aka___________ Old World hookworm Ancylostoma caninum Aka ___________ DOG hookworm § Necator americanus Aka ___________ New World Hookworm § Enterobius vermicularis > Pruvitus ani" (anal itchiness) - Din Aka ___________ worm § Trichiuris trichiura whip worm Aka ___________ § Wuchereria bancrofti and Brugia malayi Filarial Aka ___________ nematode (thread-like) Elephantasis Cause ______________ Diethylcarbamazine (DEC) Treatment: __________________ CESTODES Aka _________ Tape worms Platyhelminthes (Flatworms) Treatment: Praziquantel, Niclosamide § Taenia solium Aka POrK __________ tapeworm § Taenia saginata Beef Aka __________ tapeworm TREMATODES Aka _________ Fluke worms Platyhelminthes (Flatworms) Treatment: Praziquantel, Niclosamide § Schistosoma spp snails ~ Blood Aka ___________ fluke § Fasciola hepatica liver Aka ___________ fluke § Fasciola gigantica Aka ___________ Giant liver fluke § Fasciolopsis buski intestinal fluke Aka Giant __________ rudimentary § Paragonimus westermani lateral Terminal lateral spine Oriental Aka ___________ fluke lung spine Spine MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control PROTOZOOLOGY Protozoans Study of _______________(first animals) Single-celled organisms with organs for locomotion uni-cellular- ~ 1. Flagella- Giardia lamblia old man eyeglass appearance - : 2. Pseudopods- Entamoeba hystolytica 3. Cilia- Balantidium coli APICOMPLEXANS- no organs for locomotion LIFE CYCLE STAGES CYST TROPHOZOITE Stage with protective membrane or thickened wall Stage that is actively feeding and multiplying Protozoan Description Entamoeba Causes: severe diarrhed , hystolytica 1. Amoebiasis or Amoebic Dysentery - *moend 2. Extra-intestinal amoebiasis bloody stool mucus , Identification: * cigar _______________ -shaped or sausage-shaped chromatoid bodies Metronidazole A Treatment: _______________ , Paromomycin Emetine, Dehydroemetine - Carbarsone FlagylQ Balantidium Causes: TX Metronidazole Balantidiasis - Food borne. coli _______________ Largest ciliate that affects humans Pid Reservoir Host: _______________ (Present in pig’s feces) Toxoplasma Causes: gondii Toxoplasmosis _______________ cat's fects Reservoir Host: _______________ Treatment: Pyrimethamine + Sulfadiazine Plasmodium Apicomplexan spp Cause Malaria CO D Female Anopheles mosquito Vector-transmitted: _____________________ Species: Wh P. falciparum- Malignant Tertian Malaria P. malariae- Quartan Malaria P. vivax- Benign Tertian Malaria P. ovale- Benign Tertian Malaria MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control LIFE CYCLE OF PLASMODIUM MALARIA Causative agents: Falciparum 1. Plasmodium _______________ Tertian Causes the most severe form of malaria (Malignant _______________ Malaria) Chloroquine DOC: _______________ Treatment for Chloroquine-resistant malaria 1. Artemether- Lumefantrine (Co-artem) 2. Atovaquone-Proguanil (Malarone) 3. Quinine + Doxycycline or Tetracycline or Clindamycin 4. Mefloquine Malariae 3. Plasmodium _______________ Quartan Causes _______________ Malaria VivaX 2. Plasmodium _______________ ovale , Plasmodium _______________ Benign Causes _______________ Tertian Malaria Can form HYPNOZOITES (dormant forms in the liver) DOC: Primaquine Forms: Sporozoites Spindle-shaped Plasmodium Trophozoites Ring-like; Growing stage Merozoites Mature Plasmodium Hypnozoites Liver forms TOPIC QUIZ Question Choices 1. Which of the following is referred to as “Old A. Ancylostoma caninum World” hookworm? B. Necator americanus C. Toxocara canis D. Ancylostoma 2. Man may acquire Toxoplasma from A. Mice B. Cats C. Dogs D. Pigs 3. The reservoir host of Balantidium coli infection: A. Dog B. Cat C. Pig D. Cattle 4. The chromatoid bodies of this organism appear A. Entamoeba coli as cigar-shaped or sausage-shaped: B. Endolimax nana C. Entamoeba histolytica D. Iodamoeba butschlii MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control 5. The intimate living together of members of two A. Mutualism different species, except: B. Commensalism C. Symbiosis Symbiosis- relationship between 2 or more D. Abiosis dissimilar organisms 1. Parasitism- one benefits, the other is harmed helminths - hookworm + humans 2. Commensalism- one benefits, the other in neither harmed nor benefitting from the relationship cowt birds 3. Mutualism- both benefits from the relationship humans + microbial flora 6. This organism causes tropical elephantiasis: A. Loa loa B. Onchocerca volvulus C. Wuchereria bancrofti D. Dracunculus medinensis 7. The growing stages of protozoan parasite. A. Sporozoites B. Trophozoites C. Merozoites D. Cyst Thickened cells > - 8. The dormant liver stage of Plasmodium species A. Sporozoites B. Merozoites C. Hypnozoites D. Gametocytes TYPES OF INFECTIONS A. NOSOCOMIAL INFECTIONS hospital Infections developed while the patient is in the _______________ Commonly caused by ESKAPE PATHOGENS ESKAPE E Enterococcus faecium S Staphylococcus aureus K Klebsiella pneumoniae A Acinetobacter baumannii P Pseudomonas aeruginosa E Enterobacter spp. B. VENEREAL DISEASES sexually Transmitted Diseases or STD’s Aka _______________ Important STD’s BACTERIAL STD Causative Agents Treatment Gonorrhea Neisseria gonorrheae ceftriaxone DOC: _______________ (IM) and Ophthalmia Azithromycin (Oral) _______________ neonatorum Syphilis Treponema pallidum DOC: _______________ pen G. Diagnosis: lesion scrapings subjected to Dark-field microscopy Lymphogranuloma Chlamydia trachomatis Doxycycline DOC: _______________ - and venereum craves _______________ erythromycin MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control VIRAL STD Causative Agents Treatment Genital Herpes acyclovir DOC: _____________ Herpes Simplex Virus II FOR HERPES GIV ACYCLOVIR Foscarnet Ganciclovir Oral Idoxuridine & Valacyclovir Hepatitis B and D Hepatitis A B C D E Entecavir DOC: ____________ u B and D Virus sexual AIDS Human Immuno retrovirals DOC’s: Anti-_______________ (PCP- most common deficiency Virus NRTI- Zidovudine cause of mortality) nNRTI- Delavirdine, Nevirapine and Efavirenz last stage itonavir - PI- R______________, Of HIV infection mprenavir A______________, ndinavir I______________, elfinavir N_______________, aquinavir S________________ PROTOZOAL STD Causative Agents Treatment Trichomoniasis Trichomonas vaginalis Metronidazole DOC: _______________ s/sx Trichonomiasis Frothy 1. __________vaginal feeds on Vaginal epithelial Amoebiasis , discharge cells Giardiasis - 2. yellow, fishy odor naerobes C. ZOONOTIC DISEASES Animals Diseases acquired from _______________ Zoonotic Disease Causative Agent Animal Reservoir Anthrax or Bacillus anthracis Sheep Woolsorter's Disease _____________ Brucellosis or Brucella spp canis dogs B. - Undulant Fever melitensis sheep B - unstable abortus about cattle- 13. suis Dig - Leptospirosis Leptospira interrogans Mouse (urine) flood Acquired by wading in ________ water Bubonic Plague or pestis Yersinia ________ Rodents and other small animals Black Death White footed mouse/deer Tularemia or Francisella _______ tularensis ____________ Rabbits Raybit ____________ I TX Streptomycin I h. Fever Cat-scratch Disease Bartonella ____________ henselae ____________ cats Rabies Rabies virus Dogs, cats, bats (encephalitis) MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control D. VECTOR AND FOMITE TRANSMITTED Fomite object An _______________ that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms Examples: doorknobs, toilets Vectors Are biological _______________ agent that can transmit infectious pathogens between humans, or from animals to humans. TRYPANOSOMIASIS (sleeping sickness) African Trypanosomiasis Tletse Vector: _______________ fly West brucei Causative agent: Trypanosoma _______________ (gambiense, rhodesiense) Treatment: Melasoprol, Suramin ↳ east American Trypanosomiasis Aka _______________ Disease chaca sing Vector: _______________ bug or Reduviid Bug cruzi Causative agent: Trypanosoma _______________ Treatment: Benznidazole and Nifurtimox DENGUE FEVER Aedis aegypti Vector: _______________ Causative agent: Flavivirus Complications Thrombocytopenia Severe bleeding or hemorrhage DOH Program: 4 o’clock habit Denguaxia Vaccine: _______________ a 45 Target age group: _______________. years old Sanofi Pasteur Manufacturer: _______________ OTHERS: Vector Disease Dengue AEDES AEGYPTI Chikungunya Zika > microcephaly - culex mosquito Japanese encephalitis snails Schistosomiasis BLACK FlY Onchocerciasis Fleas Bubonic plague Human body louse (lice) Relapsing Fever, Typhus Sand Flies Leishmaniasis (Lutzomiya Phlebotomus , Lyme Disease TICKS Tularemia Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever Kissing bug Chaga’s Disease Tsetse fly African Trypanosomiasis E. WATER-BORNE DISEASES Water-borne Disease Causative Agent Typhoid Fever, Salmonellosis s/s: 1. Severe diarrhea Salmonella 2. CNS Effects: delirium, confusion, hallucinations - Treatment: Chloramphenicol Quinolones typul Cephalosporins _________________, Alt: _________________, Carbapenems ___________________ Cholera Aka Rice Water Diarrhea vibrio cholerae Balantidiasis = pig feces Balantidium coli Giardiasis Aka Beaver Fever - > bearer feces Giardia lambia MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control Traveller’s Diarrhea ETEC Aka Montezuma’s Revenge Amoebiasis Entamoeba hystolica TOPIC QUIZ Question Choices 1. The following are zoonotic diseases, EXCEPT___. A. Anthrax rabbit B. Mumps C. Brucellosis dre D. Leptospirosis mouse 2. Leptospirosis can commonly be obtained in infected A. Flood waters B. Toxins in drugs C. Air droplets D. Blood transfusion 3. These diseases are Sexually Transmitted Infections, EXCEPT_______. A. Gonorrhea B. AIDS C. Syphilis D. Hepatitis A - or al 4. Which of the following is NOT a primarily sexually transmitted A. Lymphogranuloma disease (STD)? venereum B. Genital herpes C. Gonorrhea D. Trichosomiasis X 5. Which of the following are identified worldwide as ‘ESKAPE’ A. I, II, III, & IV pathogens? B. I, II & III I. Enterococcus faecium C. II, III & IV II. Acinetobacter baumannii D. I, II & IV III. Candida albicans IV. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 6. An object that is able to harbor and transmit microorganisms. A. Mite B. Fomite C. Arthropod D. Vector 7. Promoting the “four o’clock habit” is all about the DOH program for A. Malaria prevention and control of which of the following diseases? B. Malnutrition C. Tuberculosis D. Dengue 8. Patients with malaria should be asked which of the following? A.. Air droplet transmission B. Sexual contact C. Eating exotic foods D. Travelling to endemic areas 9. Which of the following has been identified by DOH as the most A. II, III common diseases acquired through ingestion of contaminated B. I, II drinking water in the Philippines for the past two years? C. I, II, III I. Typhoid fever D. I, III II. Dengue III. Cholera 10. Which of the following harmful microorganism have been A. I, II, & III identified to be possibly found in drinking water? B. I, II, & IV I. Balantidium C. II, III, & IV II. Salmonella D. I, II, III, & IV III. Mycobacterium > respiratory droplets - IV. Giardia MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control MICROBIOLOGICAL QUALITY CONTROL Microbial Assay of Antibiotics Activity (potency) of antibiotics may be demonstrated under suitable conditions by their inhibitory effect on microorganisms 2 General Methods ↑ potent o Cylinder Plate Method 4 diameter - _____________________ Depends upon the diffusion of the antibiotic from a vertical cylinder through a solidified agar layer in a petri dish or plate to an extent such that growth of the added microorganism is prevented entirely in a circular area or zone around the cylinder containing a solution of the antibiotic VARIATION: PAPER DISC DIFFUSION METHOD Test tube inoculation o ______________________ ↑ turbid- ↓ potent Depends upon the inhibition of growth of a microbial culture in a uniform solution of the antibiotic in a fluid medium that is favorable to its rapid growth in the absence of the antibiotic SPECTROPHOTOMETER ~ more turbid A ↑ I v less potent & &-light White - light & & Prism jabsorbance - ↓ Transmittance detector source ⑭ ↓ Absorbance ↑ Transmittance & & ANTIBIOTIC staph aureus TEST ORGANISM: __________________. TEST ORGANISM: __________________ P. aeruginosa Amikacin Nafcillin Carbenicillin Amphotericin B Oxytetracycline ↳ anti-pseudomonas Cephalothin Penicillin G Cephapirin Rolitetracycline Chlortetracycline Tetracycline Cloxacillin Tobramycin Cycloserine Tylosin Demeclocycline Doxycycline Kanamycin Methacycline E Coli TEST ORGANISM: __________________. TEST ORGANISM: __________________ saccharomyces Chloramphenicol Nystatin cerevisiae Spectinomycin. Subtilis B TEST ORGANISM: __________________ Dihydrostreptomycin Vancomycin MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control TOPIC QUIZ Question Choices 1. In microbial assay of antibiotics, what organism A. Escherichia coli is used for penicillin G? B. Staphylococcus aureus C. Bacillus subtilis D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 2. The following may be useful when performing A. Test tube inoculation microbiological essay of antibiotics, EXCEPT? B. Paper disc C. Staining method D. Cylinder plate 3. What is the test organism used for the A. Staphylococcus aureus microbial assay of Nystatin? B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae C. Escherichia coli D. Bacillus subtilis MICROBIAL CONTAMINANTS PRODUCT CONTAMINANT Fluorescein Eye Drops Pseudomonas aeruginosa Antibiotic Eye Ointment Peppermint Water Surgical Dressings clostridium spp. Saline Solution Serratia marcescens Talcum Powder clostridium retani Thyroid Tablets Salmonella muenchen Hand Cream Klebsiella pneumoniae Intravenous fluids , Pseudomonas Geruginosa Contact Lens Solution Serratia and Enterobacter Antiseptic Mouthwash Coliform (E Coli). TPN Solution Enterobacter cloacae Miscellaneous Herbal Products Enterobacter spp., Enterococcus faecalis, Clostridium perfringens, Klebsiella pneumonia, Escherichia, Pseudomonas Influenza Vaccine Gram - negative bacteria, including Serratia TOPIC QUIZ Question Choices 1. Which of the following has been identified to be microbial A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa contaminant in hand cream? B. Coliforms C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. Clostridium tetani 2. Which of the following has been identified to be microbial A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa contaminant in talcum powder? B. Coliforms C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. Clostridium tetani 3. Which of the following has been identified to be microbial A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa contaminant in mouthwash? B. Coliforms C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. Clostridium tetani 4. Which of the following has been identified to be microbial A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa contaminant in intravenous fluid? B. Coliforms C. Klebsiella pneumonia D. Clostridium tetani 5. Which of the following has been identified to be microbial A. Clostridium species contaminant in surgical dressings? B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa C. Enterobacter species MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control D. Klebsiella pneumoniae 6. Which of the following are examples of adventitious agents A. & I, II and III found to be possible contaminants of biological products? B. Y I, II, III and IV I. Ants C. Y I, II and IV II. Fungi D. II, III, IV III. Bacteria IV. Viruses STERILIZATION VERSUS DISINFECTION Disinfection Sterilization Refers to killing of many, Refers to any process that removes, kills, or but ____________ NOT all deactivates ____________ all forms of life microorganisms (Particularly microorganisms such as fungi, bacteria, spores and unicellular eukaryotic organisms) and other biological agents such as prions present in or on a specific surface, object, or fluid STERILIZATION TECHNIQUES Moist Heat Sterilization Gas Sterilization Aka Steam Sterilization Gas sterilants: autoclave Makes use of an __________________ Ethylene Oxide MOA: coagulation of proteins Formaldehyde ________________ Biological indicator: Bacillus MOA: alkylation of proteins thermophilus stearo______________ 121 15 15 For heat-sensitive and moisture sensitive materials , , TOPIC QUIZ Question 1. Which of the following substances can sterilize? A. Alcohols B. Chlorine C. Soap D. Ethylene oxide 2. Which of the following substances is the LEAST effective antimicrobial agent? A. Iodine > most effective - B. Cationic detergents and - C. Soap D. Phenolics and - Reference: https://www.medschool.lsuhsc.edu/Microbiology/DHMIP/pdf/ch7.pdf 3. Place the following surfactants in order from the most effective to the least effective antimicrobial activity: 1-soap; 2-Anionic detergent; 3-cationic detergent A. 1,2,3 B. 3,2,1 C. 2,3,1 D. 3,1,2 Reference: https://www.medschool.lsuhsc.edu/Microbiology/DHMIP/pdf/ch7.pdf 4. Evaluate which sterilization method is the most dependable and widely used sterilization method that uses moist heat, which coagulates cellular proteins of microorganisms; parenterals or injectable drug products (in their containers) are sterilized by this method. A. Ionizing radiation B. Steam sterilization C. Membrane filtration D. Gas sterilization MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control 5. Analyze which method allows the sterilization of packaged finished products that are ready for shipment because the sterilizing material permeates sealed plastic films and cartons. A. Dry heat B. Ionizing radiation C. Gas sterilization D. Membrane filtration 6. Which of the following when put together will best explain the term antisepsis? & I. A synonym for disinfection II. Inhibits micro-organism on living tissue III. Limits or prevent harmful results of infection IV. Chemical used are applied to skin and mucous membrane A. II, III, IV B. I, II, III C. I, II, IV D. I, III, IV 7. Which of the following are used in gaseous sterilization of reusable surgical instruments and disposable devices? I. Ethylene oxide II. Formaldehyde III. Ethanol IV. Propylene glycol A. I and IV B. II and IV C. II and III D. I and II PUBLIC HEALTH I. OCCUPATIONAL HAZARDS Physical Noise Heat, _______________ , Vibration Hazards higher affinity to Hemoglobin Chemical Toxins, _______________ reagents , cleaning products, acids, pesticide, carbon monoxide and Hazards flammable liquids causes asphyxia Biological bacteria Blood, fungi, molds, _______________ , animal droppings, insect bites Hazards Ergonomic Uncomfortable chairs Hazards * bodily wears tear TOPIC QUIZ Questions 1. Which type of industrial hazard includes ambient heat, burn, noise and vibration? A. Physical B. Chemical C. Ergonomic D. Biological 2. The addition of untreated sewage to a fresh water lake would cause the biochemical oxygen demand to ____________. A. Can’t tell B. Increase C. Decrease D. Stay the same 3. Which is measured by the biochemical oxygen demand? A. The number of oxygen present in water sample B. The number of bacteria present in a water sample C. The amount of organic matter present in a water sample D. The amount of undissolved solid matter present in water sample MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control 4. MRSA (Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is a group of Staphylococcus strains identified as a major cause of health care infections (HCAI’s). It causes I. Wound and soft tissue infections II. Catheter associated UTI III. Colitis > enterobacteria - IV. Ventilator associated pneumonia A. I, II and IV B. I, II, III and IV C. I, II and III D. II, III, IV 5. Which of the following are major contributors of health care associated infections? I. Failure of health care personnel to follow hand washing protocol II. Smoking and alcoholism III. Increased number of Immune-compromised patients A. I, III B. I, II C. II, III D. I, II, III 6. Air contaminant causing death by asphyxiation in high concentration is ____. A. Carbon monoxide B. Lead C. Mecury D. Cadmium II. NUTRITION MACRONUTRIENTS MICRONUTRIENTS Nutrients that our body needs in large Trace Elements amounts, which include fat, carbohydrates, Copper- A trace mineral necessary for heme and protein lipids sugar/ dextrose synthesis, electron transport and wound healing amino acids Zinc- to improve immune functions Fat soluble : ADEK Vitamins water soluble : BC B3 Pellagra- deficiency of Vitamin ________ / Niacin _________ Stomatitis- deficiency of Vitamin B2 /_______ ________ Ribolavin Beri-Beri and Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome- B1 deficiency of Vitamin _______ Thiamine /_________ PRIMARY MALNUTRITION SECONDARY MALNUTRITION Inadequate energy intake either because of _____________ Dietary intake is _______________ adequate food insecurity or when adequate food is not Caused by inadequate mastication, digestion, available absorption, transport and excretion of nutrients. TOPIC QUIZ Question Choices 1. Which is due to thiamine deficiency? A. Cystitis inflammation of unary bladder - B. Pellagra B3 - C. Stomatitis B2 - D. Beri-Beri 2. Which of the following elements is A. Sodium associated to improve immune system B. Chlorine function? C. Iodine D. Zinc 3. A trace mineral necessary for heme A. Copper synthesis, electron transport and wound B. Manganese healing: C. Chromium D. Zinc MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control 4. Vit. B deficiency caused by alcoholism A. Stevens Johnson Syndrome produces a neurological disorder called: B. Down Syndrome C. Wernicke-Korsakoff Syndrome D. A and B 5. A type of malnutrition associated with A. Primary malnutrition inadequate mastication, digestion, B. Under nutrition absorption, transport and excretion of C. Secondary malnutrition nutrients. D. Over-nutrition 6. It describes the amount of energy, protein, A. RDA recommended daily allowance minerals and vitamins needed by normal B. REA healthy individual: C. RAD D. RAE 7. Which of the following statements best A. Nitrites can react with amines to form explains the reason for banning the use of carcinogenic nitrosoamines nitrite as preservative for food and nutritional B. It can change the color of the preparation products? (& nitrates C. It can discolor food or nutritional preparation D. Nitrite decomposes to nitric acid. Nitric acid is harmful to heme pigments III. EPIDEMIOLOGY Definition: the study of the distribution and determinants of health-related states or events in specified populations, and the application of this study to the control and eradication of health problems Terminologies: Mortality Rate Morbidity Rate number of individuals who have number of individuals who have ____________ become ill died _____because of a because of a specific disease within a susceptible to specific disease within a susceptible to population population during a specific period during a specific period Term Description a particular disease occurs only occasionally sporadic ~ only a few scattered cases occur within an area or population flu seasons Endemic A disease constantly present in a population A disease occurring at a greater frequency that is usual for an area or Epidemic population Worldwide spread of the disease, wherein the disease occurs Pandemic simultaneously on more than one continent The sudden, unexpected occurrence of a disease in a given population outbreak The occurrence of disease cases in excess of normal expectancy TOPIC QUIZ Questions 1. Epidemiology has the following factors, EXCEPT___. A. Structure-activity-relationships or SAR B. Eradication of diseases C. Distribution of diseases D. Control of diseases 2. An index that measures the number of individuals who have become ill because of a specific disease within a susceptible to population during a specific period: A. Morbidity rate B. Prevalence rate C. Mortality rate D. AOTA MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control 3. Which of the following factors have been linked with essential hypertension? I. Obesity II. Smoking III. Sex IV. Stress A. I, II & III B. I, II, III, & IV C. I, III, IV D. II, III & IV 4. Which of the following means hardening of the arteries due to build-up of plaque? A. Buerger disease B. Varicose enlarged > - 3 twisted C. Atherosclerosis ↑ LDL or Bad Cholesterol A. Aneurysm 5. Which describe short term expression of alcohol toxicity? A. Pellagra B. Chronic alcoholism C. Cirrhosis D. Hang-over 6. Which of the following statements will BEST describes Epidemiology as a core of public health service? A. Study of occurrence of disease and calamities B. Study of development of policies and plans at the community level C. Study of distribution of policies and plans at the community level D. Study of distribution and determinants of disease and disability at the population level V. PREGNANCY AND LACTATION Question Choices 1. Which component of milk has antibodies? A. Lactose B. Cream of milk C. Colostrum > 1st breast milk - D. Fructose 2. Which is referred to as the period between the A. Transmutation conception through complete delivery? B. Fertilization C. Pregnancy D. implantation VI. PHARMACISTS ROLE IN PUBLIC HEALTH Question Choices 1. Theories and models used in health promotion programs A. I, III and interventions include which of the following? B. II, III I. Ecological model C. I, II II. Health belief model D. I, II, III III. Stages of change model 2. Public health activities for pharmacists at a micro level A. I, II, III include the following. B. I, III I. Educating patients and clients on wellness C. II, III II. Research and development of health policies for the D. I, II community III. Counseling patients about chronic conditions 3. During disaster and emergency response activities the A. I, III pharmacists are expected to perform which of the B. I, III, IV following? C. I, II, III I. Preparation and storage of medicines D. I, II II. Administer medication to critical patient III. Provide public health message for simple steps in preventing adverse effects of drugs IV. Distribute food and water MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control 4. Which of the following are major contributors of health A. I, III care associated infections? B. I, II IV. I Failure of health care personnel to follow hand C. II, III washing protocol D. I, II, III il V. Smoking and alcoholism VI. Increased number of Immune-compromised patients VII. GOVERNMENT HEALTH PROGRAMS AND AGENCIES Questions Choices 1. A priority program of DOH, which aims at promoting A. Health Sector Reform Agenda availability of quality services in health centers and B. National Health Objectives hospitals: C. Sentrong Sigla D. Health Passport Initiative 2. Another priority program of DOH, which emphasizes A. Health Sector Reform Agenda partnership and shared responsibility for health among B. National Health Objectives various sectors: C. Sentrong sigla D. Health Passport Initiative 3. Its function is mainly to serve as an advisory body to the A. DOH local - local executive or local B. WHO legislative on health-related matters: C. QUERT D. Sentrong Sigla 4. Its main objective is attained by all people of the highest A. PhilHealth possible level of health: B. DOH Hospitals C. UNICEF D. WHO 5. National Center for Disease Prevention and Control A. Internal Management belongs to what function cluster: B. Health regulation C. External Affairs D. Health Regulation Development IMMUNOLOGY Questions Choices 1. The ability of a microorganism to enter a host, grow, A. Invasiveness reproduce and spread throughout its body is known as: B. Pathogenicity C. Virulence D. Toxigenicity 2. It is indication of the ability of a bacterium to produce A. Virulence pathologic changes or disease in the host: B. Pathogenicity C. Attenuation D. In-vitro growth rates 3. A hapten is a substance that: A. Induces cellular immune response but not antibody production B. Does not induce an immune response when given alone but does elicit an immune response when coupled to a larger molecule C. Induces tolerance when given alone D. When coupled to a larger molecule can be recognized by B lymphocytes but not T lymphocytes MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control Additional Questions 1. Gram negative obligate anaerobe A. Staphylococcus B. Clostridium (t) C. E. coli D. Bacteroides 2. In the laboratory, Neisseria meningitidis may be distinguished from Neisseria gonorrheae by: A. Its characteristic morphology and Gram stain B. Its unique requirement for CO2 and ability to grow in Thayer-Martin Agar C. The presence of pili D. Its ability to ferment carbohydrates 3. What is the causative agent of SARS? A. SARS-CoV B. SARS-CoV 2 C. MERSCoV 7 D. Novel Coronavirus 5. Natural reservoir of Ebola A. Mice B. Chickens C. Bats D. Birds 6. When a human is colonized by a pathogen without manifesting disease, he or she is referred to as ______________. A. Reservoir B. Carrier C. Intermediate host D. Definitive host 7. Toxoplasma is probably transmitted to man by: A. Bite of the vector insect B. In the body of the parasitic nematode C. Ingestion of a resistant oocyst D. Ingestion of infected food 8. Treatment of flea infection A. Ivermectin > River blindness - B. Permethrin C. Crotamiton > scabies - D. Mebendazole > Roundworms - 9. The first and only sterilization method that eliminates bacteria by separating the microorganisms from the sterilized medium, but unlike other sterilization methods, it doesn't kill or stop the bacteria's ability to reproduce. A. Ionizing radiation B. Dry heat sterilization C. Moist heat sterilization D. Membrane filtration Airborne diseases I. Tuberculosis II. COVID 19 III. Measles IV. Common colds A. I, II and III only B. I, II and IV only C. I, II, III and IV D. I only END! MODULE 6 Quality Assurance & Quality Control