MCB4203 Exam 1 Example 2022 PDF

Summary

This document contains an example exam paper for MCB4203, a microbiology course, from 2022. It includes multiple-choice questions covering topics such as the Sanger method, hypersensitivity reactions, mechanical defenses, and vaccination. The exam likely tests fundamental knowledge of microbiology and immunology principles.

Full Transcript

1. (1.0 point) The Sanger method requires a. Porins b. Chemical starters c. ddN TPs d. Isolators 2. (1.0 point) Penicillin related antibodies in the serum suggest this form of hypersensitivity a. Type IV b. Type III c. Type I...

1. (1.0 point) The Sanger method requires a. Porins b. Chemical starters c. ddN TPs d. Isolators 2. (1.0 point) Penicillin related antibodies in the serum suggest this form of hypersensitivity a. Type IV b. Type III c. Type I d. Type II 3. (1.0 point) Mechanical defense includes a. Membranes b. Epidermis c. Dermis d. All the above 4. (1.0 point) This antibody crosses the placenta a. IgE b. IgG c. IgM d. IgA 5. (1.0 point) The idea of vaccination was introduced by a. Jenner b. Pasteur c. Lister d. Koch 6. (1.0 point) A example of an advanced method is a. Maxam b. Gilbert c. Shotgun d. Pyro 7. (1.0 point) N A M-and N A G- are components of a. Glycoprotein b. Peptidoglycan c. Cellulose d. All the above 8. (1.0 point) First scientist to vaccinate against Rabies a. Reed b. Koch c. Jenner d. Pasteur 9. (1.0 point) Antibody 'light' chains have this characteristic a. Both identical b. Both different c. Classified according to amino acids in the variable regions d. MW of 50,000 10. (1.0 point) Microbiota are rarely pathogenic a. In AIDS b. In the gallbladder c. In the bladder d. In the integument 11. (1.0 point) This test counts cells tagged with a fluorescing monoclonal antibody. (IMF=Immunofluorescence) a. ELISA b. Indirect IMF c. Western Blot d. Direct IMF 12. (1.0 point) Who proposed Germ Theory of Disease? a. Spallanzani b. Redi c. Needham d. Pasteur 13. (1.0 point) Which of the following are present in gram positive but not gram negative bacteria? a. Peptidoglycan b. Diaminopimelic acid c. Teichoic acid d. Capsule 14. (1.0 point) N K cells have this molecule? a. CD40 b. Cell adhesive c. MHC class II d. MHC class I 15. (1.0 point) Nosocomial infection is likely to be found in a. Laboratories b. Hospitals c. Hotels d. All the above 16. (1.0 point) Aseptic surgery was first performed by a. Jenner b. Pasteur c. Koch d. Lister 17. (1.0 point) What is function of Class I and II MHC's? (BL=beta and TL =T lymphocyte) a. Mediate BLs b. Show ags to TLs c. Show ags to BLs d. Expose PMN 's 18. (1.0 point) First scientist to disprove Spontaneous Generation a. Semmelweis b. Koch c. Pasteur d. Ehrlich 19. (1.0 point) Antigen-antibody complexes are phagocytosed in the presence of this complement component? a. C3a and C5a b. C3b c. Properdin d. C56789complex 20. (1.0 point) SoLiD is a method using tagged beads to identify nucleotide sequences a. False b. True c. No answer text provided. d. No answer text provided. 21. (1.0 point) Immune Cells of the epidermis may include a. Keratinocytes b. Langerhans cells c. Macrophages d. All the above 22. (1.0 point) Special first defenses include a. Hyperacidity b. Slow transit c. Mucus d. All the above 23. (1.0 point) An example of a Next Generation sequencing method using fluorescent identifiers is a. Shotgun b. Gilbert c. Maxam d. Pyro 24. (1.0 point) The PCR reaction does not require at least which of the following a. DNA polymerase b. Primer c. Amino acid d. Nucleotides 25. (1.0 point) Illumina is a commonly used method using plate bridges to identify nucleotide sequences in a. Blood grouping b. Genetic insurance screening c. Noninvasive prenatal testing d. None of the above 26. (1.0 point) What is a characteristic of the adaptive immune response but not of the innate response a. Physical barriers b. Chemical barriers c. Clonal expansion of Beta lymphocytes d. Inflammatory mediators e. Phagocytosis 27. (1.0 point) Which best describes the antibodies that are produced in an immunized host with a single complex antigen containing multiple epitopes? a. All chemically homogenous b. Monoclonal c. Chemically heterogenous d. A pure single protein 28. (1.0 point) How is generation of diversity achieved in the immune response? a. Recombination among sets of gene segments to generate many antigen recognition molecules b. A large DNA component is added for antigen recognition molecules c. Only somatic diversification of genes encoding antigen recognition moleculesOnly germline diversification of genes encoding antigen recognition molecules d. Antigen instruction of a smal set of lymohocytes to produce an infinite array of antigen recognition molecules 29. (1.0 point) Which genetic mechanism increases the number of different antibody molecules during an immune response without increasing the diversity of the pool of antigen receptor specificities? a. Class switching b. Somatic hypermutation c. V segment recombination d. Gene duplication 30. (1.0 point) Which class of antibody increases the stickiness of mucus ? a. IgM b. IgG c. IgA d. IgD 31. (1.0 point) What initiates the classical pathway of complement activation most efficiently? a. IgG b. A pentose antibody c. A dimer antibody d. Endotoxin 32. (1.0 point) Which immunologic test is widely used to collect and count cells expressing an antigen bound by a fluorescence-tagged monoclonal antibody? a. ELISA b. Direct immunofluorescence c. Indirect immunofluorescence d. Fluorescence-activated cell sorting 33. (1.0 point) A 2-year-old child with recurrent bacterial infections like pneumonia is most likely deficient in? a. B cells b. T-cells c. Phagocytes d. C1 esterase inhibitors 34. (1.0 point) Immune hemolytic anemia associated with penicillin induced antibodies that attack red blood cells is most likely to have suffered this type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type I b. Type II c. Type III d. Type IV 35. (1.0 point) With regard to the identification of microbes by sequencing 16s rRNA genes for database matches , which is not a true statement? 75 a. Seldom gives conclusive information about the physiological features of the organisms b. Some species may be missed if they are not amplified efficiently c. The process is not quantitative and does not give an accurate assessment of microbial abundances d. Cannot serve as a guide to further analysis or cultivation attempts 36. (1.0 point) If PCR-based profiling methods are used to compare DNA banding patterns of microbial communities for similarities and differences, then which of the following is a true statement? 75 a. The method is cheap than large scale sequencing of DNA libraries b. They allow a large number of samples to be analyzed simultaneously to distinguish microbial communities that are the same of different c. They do not provide taxonomic identification of microbial-community members d. All the above are true 37. (1.0 point) Scientists working in the microbiota shift disease problem area have tried to construct postulates similar to Koch’s postulates in which ‘‘pure culture’’ is replaced by ‘‘a shift from one specified population to another. Which of Koch's postulates presents real problems? a. I b. II c. III d. IV 38. (1.0 point) This _______ numbered postulate (advanced Kochs postulates for the 21st Century) about a microbe should enable scientists to design an effective therapeutic measure for eliminating the disease? a. Third b. Fourth c. Fifth d. None of the above

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