Physiology and Pathophysiology (MD203) Revision on Practical Labs PDF
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This document contains exam questions and answers from a practical lab session on physiology and pathophysiology. It covers various topics such as body temperature, hormones, blood tests, and more. The document is highly likely to be part of a revision guide for a medical school course.
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Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology Physiology and Pathophysiology (MD203) Revision on Practical Labs I. Choose the correct answer 1. All of the following is a cause of false low reading body temperature EXCEPT? a. Ingestion of cold...
Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology Physiology and Pathophysiology (MD203) Revision on Practical Labs I. Choose the correct answer 1. All of the following is a cause of false low reading body temperature EXCEPT? a. Ingestion of cold substances c. Breathing through the mouth before recording temperature. d. Ingestion of warm just before b. Incomplete closure of the mouth recording the temperature 2. If the axillary body temperature is 38OC, the oral temperature is almost… a. 38.5OC c. 37.5OC b. 37OC d. 38OC 3. People with high sympathetic activity have higher body temperature due to a. Increased Epinephrine and c. Progesterone Norepinephrine d. Short-term sleep deprivation b. Decreased metabolic rate 4. Female body temperature increases around 0.5 OC, due to a. Estrogen hormone c. Insulin b. Progesterone hormone d. Glucagon 5. What are possible indications for axillary or rectal temperature? a. Coma c. Infants b. Convulsions d. All of the above 6. If the rectal body temperature is 39 OC, the oral temperature is almost ….. a. 39.5 OC c. 38.5 OC b. 38 OC d. 40 OC 7. People with long-term sleep deprivation results in …… body temperature at night. a. higher c. normal b. lower d. no effect on body temperature 8. The presence of WBCs in the cerebrospinal fluid indicates? a. meningitis c. depression b. myasthenia gravis d. stroke 1 Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology Physiology and Pathophysiology (MD203) 9. Which of the following is used in diagnosis of myasthenia gravis? a. HAM-D c. Protein C test b. Edrophonium test d. MMSE questionnaire 10. MMSE questionnaire is used for diagnosis of….? a. Myasthenia gravis c. Depression. b. Alzheimer’s disease d. Tremor 11. A diagnostic tool that measures the electrical activity of the brain is the….. a. MRI c. MMSE b. EEG d. CT 12. Disorganized speech, hallucinations and delusions are associated with….. a. Alzheimer’s c. Parkinsonism b. Schizophrenia d. Meningitis 13. If the T-score = -1.25 this indicates a. Normal bone density c. High bone density b. Low bone density d. osteoporosis 14. If the T-score = -3, this indicates …. a. Normal bone density c. Low bone density b. Osteoporosis d. Anemia 15. Elevation of Creatinine kinase and lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) indicated for the presence of a. Gout c. Osteoporosis b. Polymyositis d. Fibromyalgia 16. The ESR test is.......... for diagnosis of osteoarthritis. a. Specific b. Non-specific 17.ESR indicates inflammation. a. High c. Normal b. Low d. None of the above 18. Which of the following test is used to identify the type of bacteria in skin? a. Skin culture c. Skin patch test b. ESR d. HAM-D 2 Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology Physiology and Pathophysiology (MD203) 19. Onychomycosis is a disease that affects the… a. Hair c. Skin b. Nail d. liver 20. A test is used to determine skin allergens is the….. a. Skin culture c. MMSE b. Skin patch test d. Complete blood count 21. The physical examination of the girl shown in this picture indicates ….. a. Psoriasis c. Dermatitis b. Burns d. Vitiligo 22. A test used to measure the response of the body to drinking water containing around 75 gm glucose. a. HBA1C c. RAIU b. FBG d. OGTT 23. Test measures your average blood glucose for the past two to three months. a. HBA1C c. I131 b. FBG d. OGTT 24. If the FBG level is 200 mg/dL, this indicates that the person is …. a. Normal c. Prediabetic b. Diabetic d. Hypotensive 25. If the OGTT value is 150 mg/dL, this indicates that the person is… a. Normal c. Prediabetic b. Diabetic d. Hypertensive 26. In which phase of the menstrual cycle does the LH level increase? a. Follicular phase c. Luteal phase b. Menstruation phase d. Ovulation phase 27. If the level of pregnanediol is a above 50 mg/24 hours, this indicates that the woman is…. a. Not pregnant c. In second or third trimester b. In the first trimester d. In luteal phase 3 Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology Physiology and Pathophysiology (MD203) 28. If the sperm count is less than 1.5 million/ml, this indicates …… a. Oligospermia c. Aspermia b. Azoospermia d. Hyperspermia 29. Azoospermia indicates a. Low sperms c. High sperms b. No sperms d. Irregular sperms 30. Early Diagnosis of Pregnancy depend on the presence of …… in the urine or in the plasma. a. Progesterone c. Estrogen b. hCG d. FSH 31. In patient complaining azoospermia although seminiferous tubules filled with sperms, this is due to….. a. Duct obstruction c. Testicular damage b. Abnormal motility d. Infertility 32. The normal blood pH should be a. 8 d. 5.5-6 33. The blood analysis that measures the average size of RBCs is… a. MCHC c. MCV b. CBC d. ESR 34. The normal coagulation time is around ….. a. 10 min c. 5 min b. 20 min d. 15 min 35. The Sahli method is a simple method used for measuring……… a. Bleeding time c. RBCs counting b. Coagulation time d. Hgb level 36. If the hematocrit value is 30%, and the RBCs count is 5 /mm3. Calculate the MCV. a. 45 μm3 c. 60 μm3 b. 90 μm3 d. 200 μm3 4 Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology Physiology and Pathophysiology (MD203) 37. In the previous question, what is the type of RBCs? a. Microcytic c. Macrocytic b. Normocytic d. Leukemia 38. If the hemoglobin of an adult man is 10 gm%, this man is diagnosed with a. Severe anemia c. Mild anemia b. Moderate anemia d. Not anemic 39. If the hematocrit value is high, this indicates…. a. Leukemia c. Polycythemia b. Glycemia d. Anemia 40. If the recipient is type O- blood group. Which of the following donors is accepted? a. A- c. AB- b. B- d. O- 41. What antibodies are present in the plasma of type B blood group? a. Anti-A c. Anti-O b. Anti-B d. No antigen 42. What is the blood group if the RBCs carry A-antigen and the plasma has anti-B antibody? a. A c. AB b. B d. O 43. Identify the blood group shown in this picture a. A c. AB b. B d. O 44. According ABO system, the blood group with no antigens on RBCs is blood group …. a. A c. B b. AB d. O 45. The Rh factor refered as…. a. Anti-A c. Antigen B b. Anti-D d. Antigen A 5 Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology II. Match the term in column (1) with the correct statement in column (2) as shown in the example: Column (1) Column (2) C HAM-D A. Used for measuring the thyroid function E Edrophonium test B. used for determination of coagulation time D MMSE C. Used for diagnosis of depression F CSF D. Used for diagnosis of Alzheimer’s Disease A RAIU E. Used for diagnosis myasthenia gravis B Capillary tube method F. Used for diagnosis of meningitis H Athlete foot G. Viral infection G Shingles H. Fungal infection III. Look at the following pictures and answer the questions that follow: a. In the opposite figure: What disease results in this sign? Rheumatoid Arthritis What specific test can be used for the diagnosis of this disease? Rheumatoid factor b. Identify the types of blood group for each of the following people: Name ABO type Rh type Blood group Salma A - A- Mariam A + A+ Ahmad AB + AB+ Khaled O - O- 6 Department of Pharmacology & Toxicology c. Observe the diagram and answer the questions a. Which hormone increases in the luteal phase? What is its function? Progesterone: Prepare the uterine lining for pregnancy b. Which hormone increases in the ovulation phase? How can it be detected? LH hormone LH surge urine test c. Mention 2 methods to indicate ovulation. Pregnanediol in urine LH surge d. What is the name of the progesterone metabolite? If the value of this metabolite is 6mg/24hr, what does this indicate? Pregnanediol, 6mg/24hr indicates luteal phase. 7