Limited Rad Tech Quizzes PDF

Chapter 1: 1. X-rays were discovered in 1895 by: a. Roentgen 2. What is the proper term for the “pictures” produced by x-rays? a. Radiographs 3. The world’s oldest and largest radiologic science professional organization is the: a. American Society of Radiologic Technologist...

Chapter 1: 1. X-rays were discovered in 1895 by: a. Roentgen 2. What is the proper term for the “pictures” produced by x-rays? a. Radiographs 3. The world’s oldest and largest radiologic science professional organization is the: a. American Society of Radiologic Technologists (ASRT) 4. What organization establishes standards and provides certification examinations for radiologic technologists? a. American Registry of Radiologic Technologists (ARRT) 5. What do the initials RT (R) stand for? a. Registered technologist (radiography) 6. Which national organization formally conducts accreditation of education programs in radiologic technology? a. JRCERT 7. What is the imaging modality that provides real-time viewing of x-ray images in motion? a. Fluoroscopy 8. To determine the credentials needed for you to practice limited radiography, you should contact the: a. State Department of Health 9. Limited radiography is called limited because the _______ limited. a. Scope of practice is 10. Which of the following are within the scope of practice for a limited operator? 1. Use of contrast media 2. Basic radiographic examination 3. Explanation of procedures a. 2 and 3 11. The imaging modality that uses contrast media to image blood vessels is called? a. Angiography 12. Which of the following are possible consequences for practicing beyond the scope of practice of a limited operator? 1. Monetary fines 2. Revocation of license/permit 3. Imprisonment a. All of the above 13. The term reciprocity means that: a. credentials issued in one state are recognized in another state 14. Which of the following qualifies as practicing beyond the scope of a limited operator? a. performing mammograms in a private physician’s office 15. X-ray examinations are performed on orders issued by: a. Physicians 16. Which of the following is considered a duty of a limited x-ray machine operator? a. explain the procedure and the preparation to the patient 17. A medical doctor who diagnoses and treats disorders and diseases of the feet is called a: a. Podiatrist 18. Which organization began to accredit limited scope x-ray machine operator educational programs? a. JRCERT 19. The nationally accepted, and most often used, term for the limited x-ray operator is: a. Limited x-ray machine operator 20. The specialized area of radiology that uses x-rays to measure the bone mineral content and density of bones is: a. bone densitometry  Chapter 2: 1. X-rays that leave the x-ray tube exit via the: a. Tube port 2. The portion of the x-ray room that is protected from scatter radiation and is safe during exposures is called the: a. Control booth 3. A line in the center of the x-ray beam and perpendicular to the long axis of the x- ray tube is called the: a. Central ray 4. An IR that has been exposed to a body part but has not yet been processed has an unseen image called the: a. Latent image 5. Tissues with greater mass, such as bone, will absorb ____ radiation, as compared with less dense tissues, such as fat. a. More 6. The absorption of x-rays by matter is called: a. Attenuation 7. Which of the following statements regarding scatter radiation is true? a. scatter radiation has less energy than the primary beam 8. The varying intensity of radiation that exits the patient and reaches the IR is called _______ radiation. a. Remnant 9. The image receptor (IR) usually consists of the: a. cassette and phosphor imaging plate 10. The radiation that exits the x-ray tube and travels in air to the patient is called: a. Primary 11. Where is the image originally obtained and stored in computed radiography (CR)? a. in a phosphor material 12. The boxlike device attached under the tube housing that allows the limited operator to vary the size of the radiation field is called a: a. Collimator 13. A device to protect the IR from being fogged by scatter radiation is called a: a. Grid or bucky 14. The principle source of scatter radiation is the: a. Patient 15. A tilting table will allow the head end to be lowered at least 15 degrees into the _____ position. a. Trendelenburg 16. The primary radiation that enters the patient and then leaves it, traveling in all directions is called: a. Scattered 17. Unwanted image exposure that is caused by scatter radiation is called: a. Scatter radiation fog 18. After an x-ray is taken and the image is stored in the computed radiography plate, it has to be processed in the: a. Image reader device 19. The most frequent adverse incident that can happen to a patient in the radiology department is: a. Falling 20. A mechanism that tends to stop a moving part in a specific location is called a: a. Detent  Chapter 3: 1. What is the formula that is used to change mAs to maintain a constant intensity when distance (SID) changes? a. mAs 1 / mAs 2 = (SID1)2 / (SID2)2 2. What is the mAs when 400 mA is used with a.5 second exposure time? a. 200 3. If a satisfactory AP shoulder radiograph is made on a patient measuring 12 cm using 70 kVp. Which of the following techniques will provide the most similar radiograph of a patient whose shoulder measures 16 cm? a. 78 kVp 4. A satisfactory lateral lumbar spine radiograph is taken using 120 mAs and 40 inches SID. If an increase in SID to 60 inches is desired, which of the following technique changes will produce a radiographic density most similar to the original? a. 270 mAs 5. How do you adjust your mAs to compensate for a 2-cm increase in patient part size? a. Multiply mAs by 1.3 (30%) 6. A satisfactory AP lumbar spine radiograph is made using 50 mAs and 78 kVp. Which of the following technique changes using the 15% rule will produce a radiograph of similar density while providing less contrast and less exposure to the patient? a. 25 mAs, 90 kVp 7. An x-ray exposure is made using 300 mA and 0.02 seconds. In this case the value of the mAs is: a. 6 8. When the SID is doubled, the intensity of the radiation in the radiation field is: a. Reduced by a factor of 4 9. A satisfactory radiograph is made using 100 mA and 0.2 seconds. How much exposure time is required to produce a similar radiograph when using 400 mA? a. 0.05 sec 10. A satisfactory radiograph is made using 60 mAs and 72 inch SID. Which of the following techniques will produce a similar result at 40 inches SID? a. 18 mAs 11. A satisfactory image is made using 200 mA and 0.05 sec. Which of the following exposures will produce a similar mAs? a. 400 mA and.025 sec 12. ___ kVp/cm compensates for patient size changes when kVp is greater than 85. a. 3  Chapter 4: 1. The building blocks of all matter are called: a. Atoms 2. Which of the following shells in an atom would contain the least number of electrons? a. K 3. Which of the following particles are located in an orbit around the nucleus of an atom? a. Electrons 4. Which of the following particles has a positive charge? a. Proton 5. Which shell in the atom is most important in the production of x-rays? a. K 6. When an electron is removed from an atom the atom is said to be: a. Ionized 7. Which electron shell in the atom has the greatest binding energy? a. K 8. The atomic number of an atom is represented by the number of: a. Protons 9. What term is applied to the distance from one crest to the next in a sine wave? a. Wavelength 10. The frequency of a sine wave is measured by the: a. number of times per second that a crest passes a given point 11. Of the following types of electromagnetic energy, which has the shortest wavelength? a. X-rays 12. Which of the following is an accurate statement regarding the characteristics of x-rays? They can: a. Penetrate matter 13. All electromagnetic energy moves through space at the same: a. Velocity 14. The smallest possible unit of electromagnetic energy is the: a. Photon 15. The term that applies to the quantity of electrons flowing through a circuit is: a. Current 16. What term refers to the force or strength of the electron flow in the current? a. Potential difference 17. The unit used to measure the rate or volume of current flow is the: a. Ampere 18. The unit of potential difference is the: a. Volt 19. The standard voltage provided by utility companies for household use is _____ volts. a. 120 20. In radiology, 80,000 volts is converted to: a. 80 kVp 21. The milliamperage used in radiology is: a. 25 to 500 22. In radiology, high-frequency generators can use up to what electrical frequency? a. 6,000 Hz 23. What is direct current? a. Current that flows in only one direction 24. The frequency of alternating current delivered by electrical utilities in the United States and Canada is: a. 60 Hz 25. The purpose of a transformer is to: a. increase or decrease voltage 26. Which of the following transformers would have more windings on the primary side? a. Step-down transformer 27. If the voltage across the primary side of a step-up transformer is 100 V and the transformer has a 500:1 ratio, what is the voltage on the secondary side? a. 50,000 28. One of the most important elements in radiology is: a. Tungsten 29. Which of the following would describe electromagnetic x-rays? a. Have short wavelengths and high frequency 30. The process of converting alternating current into direct current for x-ray production is called: a. Rectification 31. Electricity is produced when a magnet is moved around a conductor or the conductor is moved around the magnet. This process is called: a. Electromagnetic induction Chapter 5: 1. The x-ray tube inside the protective house is made of? a. Pyrex Glass 2. What are the four essential elements required for x-ray production? a. a target, a vacuum, an electron source, and a high potential difference 3. The filament of an x-ray tube is made of: a. A coil of tungsten wire 4. The target of the x-ray tube is made of: a. Tungsten 5. A device for removing long wavelength (low energy) radiation from the primary beam is a: a. Filter 6. The electron cloud that surrounds the hot cathode is referred to as a: a. Space charge 7. Free electrons at the cathode that are used for x-ray production come from the: a. Filament 8. When tungsten atoms are heated, their outermost electrons are moved out of the atom in space. This principle is called: a. Thermionic emission 9. The anode is ______ charged. a. Positively 10. The cathode is _____ charged a. Negatively 11. Most x-ray tubes in use today have a standard rotation speed of _____ rpm. a. 3,600 12. What is the principal advantage of a high-speed rotating anode? a. More efficient heat dissipation 13. The greatest portion of the x-ray beam is made up of: a. bremsstrahlung radiation 14. What is required to move the electron stream rapidly across the x-ray tube? a. high potential difference 15. More than 99% of the energy applied to an x-ray tube is converted into: a. Heat 16. What type of radiation is produced in the anode by the sudden slowing and directional change of an incoming electron? a. bremsstrahlung radiation 17. What type of radiation is produced when an incoming electron interacts with the K-shell electron in the tungsten atom? a. Characteristic radiation 18. The degree of angulation of the x-ray tube target will determine the:  a. Effective focal spot 19. A smaller effective focal spot produces: a. Greater image sharpness 20. A larger actual focal spot produces: a. Greater tube heat capacity 21. The anode heel effect is a phenomenon of x-ray production that results in: a. uneven distribution of radiation within the field 22. The penetrating power of the x-ray beam is controlled by varying the: a. Kilovoltage 23. The current across the x-ray tube is measured in units of: a. Milliampreres 24. The mAs used for an exposure determines the: a. Quantity of radiation in the exposure 25. If 400 mA and 0.02 sec are used for an exposure, what is the mAs? a. 8 26. When exposure time is very short, the time is usually measured in: a. Milliseconds 27. If an exposure time is measured in 35 milliseconds, what is the exposure time in seconds? a. 0.035 seconds 28. The x-ray beam is made up of many different energy x-rays. This beam is referred to as: a. Heterogenous 29. Which of the following statements is true regarding the characteristics of tungsten? a. Tungsten has a high melting point 30. X-ray equipment capable of producing 70 kVp or more must have how much equivalent aluminum filtration? a. 2.5 mm Al eq 31. What is the primary advantage of x-ray beam filtration? a. Lowers patient dose 32. A steeper target angle provides: a. Smaller effective focal spot 33. Filtration _____ the average wavelength of the x-ray beam. a. Decreases 34. The precise area on the target where electrons strike is called the: a. Focal spot 35. Where is the electromagnetic induction motor used in the x-ray machine? a. Rotate the anode 36. The difference in the x-ray intensity (or volume of x-rays) between the anode and the cathode side of the x-ray beam is: a. 75% 37. The density of the radiographic image is primarily controlled by the: a. mAs 38. The contrast of the radiographic image is controlled by the: a. kVp 39. Which of the following is used as added filtration in the x-ray tube? a. Aluminum  Chapter 6: 1. Into what three sections (sub-circuits) is the x-ray circuit divided? a. the low-voltage, filament, and high-voltage circuits 2. The autotransformer is primarily used for? a. variable kVp selection 3. The power to the x-ray room is usually which of the following? a. 220 V 4. Which control on the x-ray generator is adjusted to heat the filament in the x-ray tube? a. mA 5. What is the purpose of the filament circuit? a. supplies the filament with heat for thermionic emission to occur 6. Which of the following transformers reduces the voltage on the secondary side to provide an appropriate current to heat the filament? a. Step-down transformer 7. Exposure times that are as low as 0.001 sec are typical of a(n): a. Electronic timer 8. The process of changing alternating current to direct current is called: a. Rectification 9. The purpose of a diode in an x-ray circuit is to: a. Electronically convert AC to DC 10. Which of the following is located on the high-voltage side of the x-ray circuit? a. X-ray tube 11. When comparing high-frequency generators to 1-phase and 3-phase generators, which of the following is true about high-frequency generators. a. Produce x-rays more efficiently 12. A series of warm-up exposures is made on a cold x-ray tube to: a. prevent damage to the anode from sudden heating 13. To prolong x-ray tube life, the tubes should be operated at about _____ of capacity. a. 80% 14. The maximum heat capacity of the anode of the tube is rated in terms of: a. Heat units 15. Which of the following is the formula used to calculate the heat produced by an exposure made on a 3-phase generator? a. mA x time x 1.35 16. Nearly all new x-ray machines manufactured today use _____ generators  a. High frequency 17. In a high-frequency generator, the incoming 60 Hz electrical frequency is raised to what level? a. 6,000 Hz 18. What electrical system and device terminates the exposure time after an exact amount of radiation for a given body part has been detected? a. Automatic exposure control 19. Some x-ray generators are programmable and the exposure factors from the technique chart can be programmed into the generator. This system is called: a. Anatomically programmed radiography (APR) 20. When using automatic exposure control (AEC) for setting exposure techniques, what technical factor does not have to be set? a. Exposure time 21. Public law 90-602 states that generators must terminate the exposure at what mAs? a. 600 22. Which of the following must be absolutely accurate when using AEC for exposure technique? a. Patient positioning 23. If the automatic exposure system fails during an exposure, which built-in control will terminate the exposure? a. Back up timer 24. Which of the following devices on the x-ray generator will enable the operator to override the AEC system when an exposure is overexposed or underexposed? a. Density control 25. For which exposure technique system would a technique chart not be necessary? a. APR 26. Which of the following x-ray generators will produce the greatest amount of heat for the same exposure technique? a. High frequency 27. The x-ray tube capacity for a single exposure can be determined by consulting the: a. Tube rating chart  Chapter 7: 1. Which of the following are the prime factors of exposure in radiography? a. milliamperage, exposure time, kilovoltage and distance (SID) 2. The unit used to indicate the total quantity of x-rays in an exposure is: a. mAs 3. Two exposures are made using the following technical factors: Image A: 500 mA, 0.05 seconds, 72 kVp or Image B: 200 mA, 0.125 seconds, 72 kVp. Which image would have the greater density? a. Image A and B would exhibit equal density 4. If the radiographic image is overexposed, which of the following changes in exposure factors should be used to correct the problem? a. Decrease mAs 5. The relationship between SID and x-ray beam intensity is expressed in the _____ law. a. Inverse square 6. The inverse square law governs the relationship between x-ray beam: a. Intensity and distance 7. The inverse square law states that the intensity of the x-ray beam is ______ to the square of the distance. a. Inversely proportional 8. What are the four primary aspects of radiographic quality? a. density, contrast, distortion and spatial resolution (detail) 9. The overall darkness, or blackness, within a radiographic image is referred to as: a. Density 10. The mass density of the radiographic subject is referred to as: a. Tissue density 11. The primary controlling factor of radiographic density is: a. mAs 12. The difference in density between any two adjacent portions of the image is called: a. Radiographic contrast 13. The primary controlling factor of contrast is: a. Kilovoltage 14. When an image demonstrates only a few densities, and there is a great difference between the densities, the image is described as having: a. Short scale contrast 15. A low kVp setting produces an image with: a. A short scale of contrast 16. Higher kVp settings produce images with: a. Long scale contrast 17. When it is necessary to differentiate tissues with similar tissue densities, which of the following image quality factors is most desirable? a. High contrast 18. Generalized unwanted exposure on the image is called: a. Fog 19. Fog affects radiographic quality by causing: a. Decreased contrast 20. A variation in the size or shape of the image as compared with the subject it represents is called: a. Distortion 21. Another name for size distortion is: a. Magnification 22. The distance between the subject or part and the IR is referred to as: a. object-image receptor distance (OID) 23. The unsharp, “fuzzy” appearance of margins of anatomic structures within the radiographic image is called: a. Penumbra 24. A change from the small focal spot to the large focal spot results in: a. Decreased resolution 25. With a large OID, the reduction of excessive magnification is accomplished by: a. Increasing the SID 26. An increase in OID will result in: a. Increased magnification 27. Motion of the patient, the tube, or the IR during the exposure results in decreased: a. Resolution 28. If the radiographic image appears blurred, what aspect of image quality is affected? a. Spatial resolution 29. The principle means of controlling involuntary motion is to: a. Decrease exposure time 30. Quantum mottle or graininess in the radiographic image because of too few photons interacting with the body part will affect image quality by decreasing the: a. Spatial resolution 31. Quantum mottle occurs when the: a. mAs or kVp is set too low 32. What is the first step to reduce patient motion? a. communicate with the patient about the procedure and what the patient needs to do to help 33. What is the effect of magnification on spatial resolution? a. magnification decreases resolution 34. If the mA doubles, the quantity of the exposure will: a. Double 35. What quality factor is key to the visibility of detail? a. Contrast 36. If the mA doubles, dose to the patient will: a. Double 37. The primary controlling factor of penetration of x-rays is: a. kVp 38. The term used in the digital imaging environment to replace density is: a. Brightness 39. Fog is primarily caused by: a. Scattered radiation 40. Shape distortion is the result of: a. unequal magnification of the actual shape of the structure 41. When a body part appears on a radiograph as shorter than it actually is, the term used is: a. Foreshortening 42. When a body part appears on a radiograph as longer than it actually is, the term used is: a. Elongation 43. When an image demonstrates great differences between the densities, the image is described as: a. High contrast Chapter 8: 1. A cassette-based digital imaging system is termed: a. Computed radiography (CR) 2. The purpose of the photostimulable phosphor plate is to: a. store the image of the body part until processed 3. When using DR systems, indirect conversion of x-ray energy requires how many steps? a. 2 4. The system used to view and store digital x-ray images is called a ______ system. a. PACS 5. The front of the imaging plate is made of: a. a radiolucent material that does not absorb x-rays 6. Barium fluorohalide with europium is used: a. as the phosphor that absorbs the x-ray energy in the imaging plate 7. When a CR plate is inserted into the reader for processing, the phosphor is scanned with a: a. Laser beam 8. When using indirect conversion DR systems, the light in the flat panel detector is converted to an x-ray signal by the: a. Photodiode 9. One of the main advantages of using CR and DR digital systems is: a. Ability to process images very fast 10. Which of the following must be used with digital-based x-ray processors to ensure the ALARA concept is practiced? a. An exposure technique chart 11. Quantum mottle occurs in digital images if: a. There are not enough photons reaching the IR 12. Which of the following should be used when imaging body parts that have extreme differences in tissue thickness? a. Compensating filter 13. When splitting a CR cassette in half for two exposures, the half not being exposed should be covered with: a. Lead 14. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the centering of the body part when using digital systems? a. the part must be placed in the center of the plate or detector 15. The storage phosphors in the CR plate are hypersensitive to: a. Small levels of scatter radiation exposure 16. A minimum of how many sides of the collimated x-ray beam should be shown on the IR and image? a. 2 17. Which of the following is important to use when using digital systems for mobile radiography? a. Grid 18. After the imaging plate is scanned in the CR reader and the image is sent to storage, the phosphor is exposed to a ______ to erase the anatomical image. a. White light 19. A charge-coupled device (CCD) is used in an indirect conversion DR system to: a. convert light into an electric signal 20. The viewing monitor's active viewing area is called a: a. Matrix 21. Each square picture element in a digital viewing monitor is called a: a. Pixel 22. The amount of detail or sharpness in the digital image is termed: a. Spatial resolution 23. Which of the following matrix sizes will produce the best spatial resolution? a. 3,000 x 3,000 matrix 24. The greatest spatial resolution will be produced when the matrix is ______ and the pixels are ____. a. Large,small 25. A matrix of 1,200 x 1,800 will show how many pixels on the viewing monitor? a. 2,160,000 26. The ability to distinguish anatomical structures of similar subject contrast is termed: a. Contrast resolution 27. The number of gray shades that a digital system can reproduce is termed: a. Dynamic range 28. The ability of the digital system to convert the x-ray input electric signal into a radiographic image is termed the: a. signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) 29. Noise refers to the amount of information that is not useful in the radiographic image. This noise is referred to as: a. Quantum mottle 30. The best quality radiographic image will be produced on the viewing monitor when there is _____SNR, ______ noise. a. High,low 31. Which control on the viewing station controls the density, or brightness, in the radiographic image? a. Window level 32. Window width controls which aspect of the radiographic image?  a. Contrast 33. Which control on the viewing station can blacken the clear or white areas around the collimation edges of a radiograph? a. Shuttering 34. What is the name of the computer software function that allows separate radiographic images to be tied into one image for viewing? a. Image stitching 35. Which of the following should never be placed on the radiographic image using electronic means (computer software)? a. R and L markers 36. The computer software function that allows any type of text to be written on a radiographic image is: a. Image annotation 37. What is the name of the processing technique that can be used to increase contrast and sharpen the image? a. Edge enhancement 38. One of the most important aspects of setting the exposure factors when using digital systems is to ensure that the: a. kVp is set correctly 39. Which of the following tells the operator that the correct exposure has been received by the phosphors in the imaging plate? a. Exposure indicator number 40. What is the name of the computer software function that allows adjustment of the radiographic image after it has been processed? a. Post processing 41. The universally accepted standard for exchanging radiographic images inside and outside the institution, and among all manufacturers, is which of the following? a. DICOM 42. What is the term for the calibration of an image display system that ensures that all radiographic images' gray scales are presented consistently? a. DICOM gray-scale function 43. Which standard ensures that all the different information systems within a given hospital or clinic can communicate effectively? a. Health level-7 44. What artifact will be down in the radiographic image if there is inadequate exposure technique? a. Quantum mottle 45. The artifact that will occur when the grid lines are not aligned with the CR reader's laser light is: a. Moire pattern 46. When there is foreign matter inside the CR imaging plate, an artifact may be shown called: a. Light spots 47. Which of the following artifacts can appear in the radiographic image if the CR imaging plate is not erased properly? a. Phantom or ghost images 48. Which of the following artifacts can occure if the CR imaging plate receives too much background or scatter radiation? a. Fogging 49. Digital radiographic images are stored, retrieved, sent, and viewed using an extensive image management system called: a. PACS 50. A CR plate inside the cassette can be exposed to light for how long before it will start to erase? a. 15 seconds  Chapter 9: 1. The interactions that produce scatter radiation occur primarily in the: a. Patient 2. Compton scatter occurs when an x-ray photon interacts with which part of the atom in the patient’s body? a. outer orbital electron 3. A scattered photon has _____ energy that the incoming primary beam photon. a. Less 4. At what kVp levels do the Compton interactions occur? a. 40 to 125, the entire diagnostic range 5. The photoelectric effect occurs when an incoming photon from the primary beam interacts with which part of the atom in a patient’s body? a. Inner shell electron 6. Scatter radiation affects radiographic appearance by causing: a. Decreased contrast 7. If the size of the x-ray field increases, what happens to scatter radiation fog? a. It increases 8. If the body part is thicker or larger, the amount of scatter radiation fog will: a. Increase 9. Which of the following statements is true? If the kVp increases, the: a. scatter radiation fog increases 10. How does scatter radiation fog reduce the visibility of detail in a radiographic image? a. By decreasing contrast 11. The most effective and practical way to reduce scatter radiation fog on a radiograph is to: a. Use a grid 12. The device that is placed between the patient and the IR to absorb scatter radiation is called a: a. Grid 13. Compton scatter that is directed from the patient back toward the x-ray tube is called: a. Backscatter 14. As compared to an 8:1 grid, a grid with a 12:1 ratio will: a. require more exposure to make a satisfactory radiograph 15. The number of lead strips per inch is called:  a. Grid frequency 16. The radiographic appearance of decreased density on the lateral margins of the image is most likely caused by grid: a. Cutoff 17. As a general rule, a grid should be employed when the part thickness is greater than: a. 10cm 18. Grids with lead strips that are aligned to coincide with the primary beam angle are called: a. Focused 19. If a grid is misaligned with the central ray, it can cause a light area on the side of the image called: a. Grid cut off 20. What prevents the lead strips in the grid from being seen on a radiograph? a. The grid oscillates 21. During the photoelectric effect, an incoming photon interacts with the atom in the patient’s body. What happens to the photon with this effect? a. It is totally absorbed by the atom 22. As kVp is increased, Compton interactions will: a. Increase 23. As kVp is increased, photoelectric effect interaction will: a. Decrease 24. Which of the following is used to check the collimator and beam alignment of the overhead tube crane? a. collimator template and beam alignment cylinder 25. When performing the beam alignment test, the x-ray tube must be within ____ degree(s) of perpendicular to be in control. a. 1  Chapter 10: 1. Which of the following are types of technique charts? a. variable kVp and fixed kVp 2. A listing of the various radiographic examinations performed in a radiographic room along with the exposure factors is called a(n): a. Technique chart 3. Which of the following statements regarding technique charts is true? Technique charts are: a. unique to each x-ray machine and each facility 4. Technique charts are based on patient-body part measurements obtained using an x-ray caliper. These measurements are expressed as: a. Part thickness in centimeters 5. What is a radiographic phantom? a. a human skeleton or part of a skeleton encased in plastic to simulate human tissue 6. What is the name of the organization that requires technique charts to be posted for every radiographic room? a. The Joint Commission 7. Technique charts are based on: a. thickness of body part to be radiographed 8. Which type of technique chart has a specific mAs value for each projection and uses small changes in kVp to compensate for variances in patient or part size? a. Variable kVp 9. Which of the following approaches to technique charts will provide the highest kVp setting, the lowest patient dose, and the greatest exposure latitude? a. Optimum kVp 10. Using the principle of optimum kilovoltage to formulate exposure techniques will result _______ patient exposure and _______ exposure latitude. a. The least, wide 11. What is an advantage of the variable kVp technique chart? a. the overall image contrast is lower, which can provide greater visibility of detail 12. How does one determine if the mA station is obtainable at the desired kVp without exceeding the capacity of the x-ray tube? a. consult the tube rating chart 13. A good reason for sometimes selecting the highest available mA station to obtain a given amount of mAs is to: a. keep the exposure time as short as possible 14. A good reason for selecting a low mA station to obtain a given amount of mAs is to: a. Use the small focal spot 15. What is the correct exposure time required to produce 50 mAs when using the 200 mA station? a. 0.25 seconds 16. Which of the following may be a cause of technique chart failure? a. kVp level not optimum to penetrate the part 17. How much of a change in mAs is needed if there is a 2-cm increase in part size? a. 30% 18. A satisfactory radiograph is made using 20 mAs at 40 inches SID. How much mAs is needed to produce a similar radiograph at 60 inches SID? a. 45 mAs 19. Which of the following would cause a radiograph to have too much contrast? a. kVp level set too low 20. An increase in exposure technique would be required if a patient had: a. Cardiomegaly 21. A decrease in exposure technique would be required if a patient had: a. Bowel obstruction 22. When an image is too light, what is usually the best technique adjustment for the repeat radiograph? a. Increase mAs 100% 23. Which technical factor should be used to correct problems with radiographic density? a. mAs 24. Which technical factor is used to alter radiographic contrast? a. kVp 25. Which radiographic quality characteristic is primarily affected by kVp? a. Contrast 26. If the kVp is increased using the 15% rule, an 80 kVp exposure would change to which of the following? a. 92 kVp 27. Which of the following body parts can benefit from the use of a compensating filter? a. AP Thoracic Spine 28. Which category of patient seldom requires a compensating filter for general radiographic examinations?  a. Pediatric 29. The minimum amount of mAs change that will prompt a visible change in image density is: a. 30% 30. A decrease in exposure technique would be required if a patient had: a. Degenerative arthritis 31. What is the major limitation in obtaining images of obese patients? a. inadequate penetration of the body part 32. What is the single most important technical exposure adjustment that should be made when imaging an obese patient? a. Increasing kVp  Chapter 11: 1. The SI unit for measuring absorbed dose is the: a. Gray 2. What is the SI unit of exposure that measures radiation in air? a. Air kerma 3. The unit of the SI system used to measure equivalent dose is the: a. Sievert 4. The unit commonly used to report the effective dose to occupational workers in the United States is: a. mSv (old mrem) 5. To ensure the lifetime risk of occupationally exposed persons remains within acceptable limits, each person cannot exceed a lifetime dose. The lifetime dose is termed the ________ dose. a. cumulative effective 6. Which of the following is measured based on the type and energy of the radiation one is exposed to? a. Equivalent dose 7. The radiation weighting factor for x-ray photons is which of the following? a. 1 8. In radiography, patient dose is usually calculated: a. At the skin level 9. Which of the following radiographic examinations typically delivers the greatest gonadal exposure? a. Pelvis 10. According to the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which of the following types of cells are very radiosensitive? a. Blood and blood producing 11. Patient doses in radiography are usually calculated as the: a. Entrance skin exposure (ESE) 12. At what whole body equivalent dose will blood changes be seen? a. 0.25 Sv 13. Which of the following cells would not be as vulnerable to x-rays? a. Nerve cells 14. At what whole-body equivalent dose will death occur? a. 6.0 Sv 15. Short-term effects of radiation would occur within how long?  a. 3 months 16. According to the Law of Bergonie and Tribondeau, which of the following groups would not be as sensitive to radiation? a. Adults 17. What is erythema? a. Reddening of the skin 18. What is the guiding philosophy of radiation protection? a. ALARA – as low as reasonably achievable 19. The EDE limit for whole body dose of occupational radiation exposure for non- pregnant workers older than age 18 who are involved in radiation use is _____ per year. a. 5.0 rem 20. Which of the following would be used to reduce the likelihood of genetic radiation effects? a. Gonad shields 21. A common observable short-term effect of radiation is: a. Erythema 22. The lethal dose of radiation is expressed as the: a. LD 50/30 23. Which of the radiographic examinations listed would give the fetus the highest fetal dose? a. Lumbar spine 24. The greatest percentage of long-term effects from radiation exposure will occur at: a. 10 to 15 years 25. Which of the following is a short-term effect of radiation exposure? a. Erythema 26. Which of the following effects of radiation exposure are predictable? a. Short term 27. Radiation exposure to the gonads can cause changes in the genes of the irradiated person called: a. Mutations 28. Which of the following would not be a mutation as a result of radiation to the gonads? a. Leukemia 29. Today, the average American is exposed to how much of an annual radiation dose? a. 6.3 mSv 30. The greatest cause of unnecessary radiation to patients is from:  a. Repeat exposures 31. The lead-equivalent thickness of a gonad shield should be _____ mm. a. 0.5 32. A gonad shield should be used whenever the edge of the radiation field is within _____ cm of the gonads. a. 5 33. The federal regulation for the lead-equivalency of aprons that are worn in the radiographic room is _____ mm. a. 0.5 34. The federal regulation for the lead-equivalency of gloves worn during radiographic procedures is _____ mm. a. 0.25 35. Personnel monitors should be worn whenever radiation workers are likely to risk receiving _____ % or more of the annual effective dose limit. a. 10 36. The most widely used and most accurate personnel monitor is the: a. optically stimulated luminescence (OSL) 37. A personnel monitor cannot measure exposure less than _____ mSv. a. 0.05 38. Where should personnel monitors be worn? a. On the collar outside the apron 39. Which national organization prepares the standards for radiation dose limits of occupational radiation workers? a. National Council on Radiation Protection (NCRP) 40. The annual effective dose limit for an occupational radiation worker is: a. 50 mSv 41. A 28 year-old radiation worker can have an annual cumulative effective dose of: a. 280 mSv 42. The greatest risk for a pregnant woman who receives a high exposure is during the: a. First trimester 43. The NCRP recommended monthly equivalent dose limit for a pregnant worker is _____ mSv. a. 0.5 44. The NCRP recommended 9-month equivalent dose limit for a pregnant worker is _____ mSv. a. 5 45. A declared pregnant radiation worker should wear a second personnel monitor and it should be worn at the:  a. Waist level Chapter 12: 1. Which tissue type is the most widely distributed and has the greatest variety of form and function? a. Connective 2. Which of the following terms may be used in place of the gastrointestinal tract? a. Alimentary canal 3. What are the two basic divisions of the skeletal system? a. Axial and appendicular 4. Which type of bone is made up of two layers of compact bone with a thin cancellous layer between them? a. Flat bones 5. A rounded process that forms a part of a joint is called a: a. Condyle 6. A long, sharp bony process is called a: a. Styloid 7. A hole in bone that provides a passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a: a. Foramen 8. What term is applied to joints that are not moveable? a. Synarthrosis 9. A joint that is classified as diarthrodial is: a. Freely moveable 10. Movement of a part away from the central axis of the body is called: a. Abduction 11. What term is used to describe a straightened joint? a. Extension 12. What does supination mean? a. to turn the arm so that the palm of the hand is up 13. Which of the following describes anatomic position? a. standing facing the observer with palms of hands turned forward and toes facing anteriorly 14. What does the term cephalad mean? a. Toward the head 15. The term applied to the back portion of the body or part is: a. Posterior 16. Which plane divides the body into equal right and left halves? a. Midsagittal 17. The midcoronal plane divides the body into equal ____ halves. a. Anterior and posterior 18. Which body position term indicates that the patient is lying on his or her back? a. Supine 19. When a patient is imaged in the prone position, the patient must be: a. Placed in recumbent position on his or her stomach 20. Which radiographic position requires a recumbent body position and a horizontal CR? a. Decubitus 21. What term is used to describe the path of the CR from the radiographic tube through the patient, and to the IR? a. Projection 22. An axial projection is achieved when the: a. CR is angled longitudinally more than 10 degrees 23. In radiography, what three items must be precisely aligned? a. the x-ray tube, the IR, and the body part 24. What is indicated by a side marker? a. The side of the patient 25. What is the result of imaging patient motion on a radiograph? a. Blurring of the radiograph 26. A localized area of destructive change in body tissue is called a: a. Lesion 27. What term is used to describe the patient’s report of his or her perception of the condition? a. Symptoms 28. Diseases that are characterized by a sudden onset of symptoms and/or signs are called _____ conditions. a. Acute 29. Diseases that occur as a result of treatment by health professionals are termed: a. Iatrogenic 30. Which of the following is the proper medical term for swelling? a. edema  Chapter 13: 1. What is the name of the bones that comprise the digits of the hands? a. Phalanges 2. The bones that are located in the palm of the hand are called: a. Metacarpals 3. Which carpal bone is located in the proximal row on the lateral side? a. Scaphoid 4. Which carpal bone articulates with the first metacarpal? a. Trapezium 5. Which bone of the forearm is located on the medial side? a. Ulna 6. Where is the radial tuberosity located? a. at the proximal end, distal to the head of the radius 7. Where is the olecranon process located? a. Proximal end of ulna 8. Which of the following is located at the distal end of the radius? a. Styloid process 9. Which portion of the humerus articulates with the radial head? a. The capitulum 10. What is the name of the large, rounded projection that can be felt on the superior, lateral surface of the shoulder? a. Acromion 11. Which surface of the hand should be in contact with the IR for the PA projection? a. Anterior (palmar) 12. Where is the CR directed for the PA projection of the hand? a. Third MCP joint 13. Which of the following positioning strategies helps demonstrate the interphalangeal joints on the PA oblique projection of the hand? a. use of a stair-step sponge to support the fingers 14. When radiographing the fingers, what anatomy should be included? a. the distal portion of the metacarpals and all of the phalanges 15. Which surface of the hand should be in contact with the IR for a lateral projection of the fifth digit? a. Medial surface 16. Where is the CR directed for a PA projection of the second digit? a. proximal interphalangeal joint 17. Where is the CR directed for the AP projection of the thumb? a. MCP joint 18. What is the position of the thumb on a PA projection of the hand? a. Oblique 19. Which projection of the thumb results in a more magnified image because of the increase in OID? a. PA 20. Which positioning strategy places the wrist in closer contact with the IR for the PA projection of the wrist? a. flexing the fingers into a loose fist 21. What is the position of the wrist for the PA oblique projection with lateral rotation? a. coronal plane of wrist at 45-degree angle to IR with anteromedial surface on IR 22. Which carpal bones are best demonstrated on the AP oblique projection of the wrist in medial rotation? a. Lunate and pisiform 23. In radiography of the forearm, it is important to: a. include both bones in their entirety and their articulations 24. What is the proper patient position for the AP projection of the forearm? a. elbow extended, wrist and elbow parallel to IR, hand supinated 25. Which surface of the forearm is in contact with the IR when radiographing the forearm in a lateral position? a. Medial surface 26. Which of the following may be substituted for a routine AP projection of the elbow joint when the patient is unable to extend the elbow? a. AP projection of the proximal forearm b. AP projection of the distal humerus c. AP oblique projection in lateral rotation i. A and B only 27. Which projection and position of the elbow demonstrates the radial head and capitulum without superimposition? a. AP oblique projection; 45-degree lateral rotation position 28. What elbow anatomy is best demonstrated on the AP oblique projection in 45- degree medial rotation? a. coronoid process of the ulna and the trochlea 29. Which of the following describes the proper method to position the humerus for an AP projection?  a. upper limb abducted, elbow extended, humeral epicondyles parallel to IR 30. What is the proper relationship of the humeral epicondyles with the IR for the lateral projection of the humerus? a. Perpendicular 31. Where is the CR directed for the AP projection of the shoulder? a. 1 inch medial and inferior to coracoid process 32. Which projection and position of the shoulder demonstrates the greater tubercle of the humerus in profile? a. AP projection; external rotation 33. What anatomy is best demonstrated in the AP projection of the shoulder in internal rotation? a. lesser tubercle of the humerus in profile 34. What are the proper patient instructions for the AP projection of the shoulder? a. stop breathing and do not move 35. Which projection of the shoulder demonstrates the glenohumeral joint with an open joint space and the glenoid process in profile? a. AP oblique projection (Grashey method) 36. Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP oblique projection (Grashey method) of the shoulder? a. 2 inches medial and 2 inches inferior to the superolateral border of the shoulder 37. What is the proper CR angle and direction on the AP axial projection of the clavicle? a. 15 to 30 degrees cephalic 38. What is the proper angle and direction on the PA axial projection of the clavicle? a. 15 to 30 degrees caudal 39. What is the advantage of imaging the clavicle using PA projections? a. Decreases OID 40. What is the proper patient position for the AP projection of the scapula? a. arm abducted so that the humerus is perpendicular to MSP; elbow flexed 90 degrees 41. What is the proper patient position for the lateral projection of the scapula in the upright position? a. anterior oblique body position with affected side closer to IR 42. On the lateral projection of the scapula, what anatomy is best demonstrated when the patient's arm is positioned with the forearm behind the back with 90 degrees' flexion of the elbow? a. Acromion and coracoid process of scapula 43. What is the required patient position for an AP projection of the AC joints? a. Upright 44. What is the purpose of radiographic examination of the AC joints? a. to visualize the position of the bones as an indicator of ligament integrity 45. What term is applied to a common fracture of the fifth metacarpal? a. Boxer’s fracture 46. Which carpal bone, if fractured, can have serious complications?  a. Scaphoid 47. Where does a Colles fracture occur? a. In the distal radius 48. Which portion of the humerus is most susceptible to fracture? a. The surgical neck 49. What is the name of the most common type of arthritis? a. Osteoarthritis 50. What term is used to denote inflammation of the bone, especially in the marrow, caused by a pathogenic organism? a. Osteomyelitis  Chapter 14: 1. The vertebral arch is formed by the: a. pedicles and laminae 2. The opening in each vertebra that serves as the passage for the spinal canal is called the: a. vertebral foramen 3. The articular surfaces of the articular processes of the vertebrae are called: a. Facets 4. The block-like, anterior portion of a typical vertebra is called the: a. Body 5. What structures serve as cushions in the anterior portion of the vertebral column? a. Intervertebral discs 6. What is the name of the soft, inner layer of the intervertebral discs? a. Nucleus pulposus 7. How many vertebrae are located in the cervical region of the spine? a. 7 8. What is one of the unique anatomical characteristics of the cervical vertebrae? a. cervical vertebrae have a transverse foramen on each transverse process 9. What is another name for C1? a. Atlas 10. The tooth-like projection from the superior surface of the body of the axis is called the: a. dens or odontoid process 11. How many vertebrae comprise the thoracic spine? a. 12 12. What is the normal curve of the thoracic spine? a. Kyphotic 13. Which portion of the spine is made up of five vertebrae and has a lordotic curve? a. Lumbar 14. Which vertebrae have special facets for articulations with the ribs? a. Thoracic 15. On which projection of the spine is the "Scottie dog" configuration demonstrated? a. Oblique projection of the lumbar spine 16. Which portion of the "Scottie dog" represents the superior articular process? a. Ear 17. When taking an AP axial projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is directed: a. 15 degrees caudad 18. When the patient is upright, the sagittal plane of the neck and head are parallel to the IR, and the central ray is directed perpendicular to C4, the resulting radiograph is a(n): a. Lateral projection of the cervical spine 19. When viewing an AP projection of the upper cervical spine (open-mouth technique), you notice that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error caused this? a. Patient’s neck was extended too much 20. What is the rationale for using a 72 inch SID for the lateral projection of the cervical spine? a. this SID helps to overcome the magnification caused by the increased OID of this position 21. What anatomical structures of the cervical spine are best demonstrated by the lateral projection? a. zygapophyseal joints 22. A breathing technique is used to advantage when taking a lateral projection of the: a. Thoracic spine 23. What is the purpose of lateral projections of the cervical spine in flexion and extension positions? a. To evaluate intersegmental stability 24. Why should a cross-table lateral projection of the cervical spine be performed and evaluated by a physician before flexion and extension lateral projections are attempted? a. To evaluate trauma to the cervical spine 25. What is the proper CR angle and direction for the AP oblique projections of the cervical spine? a. 15 degrees cephalic 26. What anatomical structures are best demonstrated by the AP oblique projections of the cervical spine? a. Intervertebral foramina farther from the IR 27. Where should the CR enter the patient for a lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region? a. perpendicular through the C7-T1 interspace 28. For which of the following projections is is most important to consider the anode heel effect? a. AP thoracic spine 29. Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? a. Perpendicular to T7 30. Which projection of the thoracic spine demonstrates open intervertebral foramina? a. Lateral projection 31. What device may be used to improve visualization of the spinous processes of the thoracic spine on the lateral projection? a. a piece of lead placed behind the shadow of the patient's back 32. Which structures are seen on the lateral projection of the thoracic spine? a. T3 through T12 33. Which of the following helps position the entire thoracic spine parallel to the IR when the patient is in a lateral recumbent position? a. radiolucent support under the waist and/or hips 34. When using a 30 x 35 cm IR, where should the CR enter the patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine? a. at a level 1 1/2 inches superior to the iliac crest in the midline of the patient 35. What positioning maneuver is used to improve patient comfort and reduce the lordotic curve of the lumbar spine when positioning a recumbent patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine? a. flexing the knees and using a support under them 36. Which projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates open intervertebral foramina? a. Lateral 37. Which projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints closer to the IR? a. AP Oblique 38. A supine position with the CR directed 15 degrees cephalic through the mid- pelvis is used to demonstrate an AP _________. a. axial projection of the sacrum 39. Which of the following is the proper patient position to demonstrate the right sacroiliac joint? a. 25 to 30 degrees LPO 40. Where does the CR enter the patient on the AP oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints? a. 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS 41. What are the CR angle and direction for the AP axial projection of the coccyx? a. 10 degrees caudad 42. When the posterior neural arch of a single vertebra fails to close during early development and there is no other abnormality, the condition is known as: a. spina bifida occulta 43. Which region of the spine is the most common site of pathologic compression fracture of vertebral bodies caused by osteoporosis? a. Thoracic 44. What is spondylosis? a. Fixation or fusion of vertebrae 45. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called: a. Scoliosis  Chapter 15: 1. The vertebral arch is formed by the: a. Pedicles and laminae 2. The opening in each vertebra that serves as the passage for the spinal canal is called the: a. Vertebral foramen 3. The articular surfaces of the articular processes of the vertebrae are called: a. Facets 4. The block-like, anterior portion of a typical vertebra is called the: a. Body 5. What structures serve as cushions in the anterior portion of the vertebral column? a. Intervertebral discs 6. What is the name of the soft, inner layer of the intervertebral discs? a. Nucleus pulposus 7. How many vertebrae are located in the cervical region of the spine? a. 7 8. What is one of the unique anatomical characteristics of the cervical vertebrae? a. cervical vertebrae have a transverse foramen on each transverse process 9. What is another name for C1? a. Atlas 10. The tooth-like projection from the superior surface of the body of the axis is called the: a. dens or odontoid process 11. How many vertebrae comprise the thoracic spine? a. 12 12. What is the normal curve of the thoracic spine? a. Kyphotic 13. Which portion of the spine is made up of five vertebrae and has a lordotic curve? a. Lumbar 14. Which vertebrae have special facets for articulations with the ribs? a. Thoracic 15. On which projection of the spine is the "Scottie dog" configuration demonstrated? a. oblique projection of the lumbar spine 16. Which portion of the "Scottie dog" represents the superior articular process?  a. Ear 17. When taking an AP axial projection of the cervical spine, the central ray is directed: a. 15 degree cephalad 18. When the patient is upright, the sagittal plane of the neck and head are parallel to the IR, and the central ray is directed perpendicular to C4, the resulting radiograph is a(n): a. lateral projection of the cervical spine 19. When viewing an AP projection of the upper cervical spine (open-mouth technique), you notice that the base of the skull is superimposed over the dens. What positioning error caused this? a. The patient’s neck was extended too much 20. What is the rationale for using a 72 inch SID for the lateral projection of the cervical spine? a. this SID helps to overcome the magnification caused by the increased OID of this position 21. What anatomical structures of the cervical spine are best demonstrated by the lateral projection? a. zygapophyseal joints 22. A breathing technique is used to advantage when taking a lateral projection of the: a. Thoracic spine 23. What is the purpose of lateral projections of the cervical spine in flexion and extension positions? a. to evaluate intersegmental stability 24. Why should a cross-table lateral projection of the cervical spine be performed and evaluated by a physician before flexion and extension lateral projections are attempted? a. to evaluate trauma to the cervical spine 25. What is the proper CR angle and direction for the AP oblique projections of the cervical spine? a. 15 degrees cephalic 26. What anatomical structures are best demonstrated by the AP oblique projections of the cervical spine? a. intervertebral foramina farther from the IR 27. Where should the CR enter the patient for a lateral projection of the cervicothoracic region? a. perpendicular through the C7-T1 interspace 28. For which of the following projections is is most important to consider the anode heel effect? a. AP thoracic spine 29. Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the thoracic spine? a. perpendicular to T7 30. Which projection of the thoracic spine demonstrates open intervertebral foramina? a. Lateral projection 31. What device may be used to improve visualization of the spinous processes of the thoracic spine on the lateral projection? a. a piece of lead placed behind the shadow of the patient's back 32. Which structures are seen on the lateral projection of the thoracic spine? a. T3 through T12 33. Which of the following helps position the entire thoracic spine parallel to the IR when the patient is in a lateral recumbent position? a. radiolucent support under the waist and/or hips 34. When using a 30 x 35 cm IR, where should the CR enter the patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine? a. at a level 1 1/2 inches superior to the iliac crest in the midline of the patient 35. What positioning maneuver is used to improve patient comfort and reduce the lordotic curve of the lumbar spine when positioning a recumbent patient for an AP projection of the lumbar spine? a. flexing the knees and using a support under them 36. Which projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates open intervertebral foramina? a. Lateral 37. Which projection of the lumbar spine demonstrates the zygapophyseal joints closer to the IR? a. AP oblique 38. A supine position with the CR directed 15 degrees cephalic through the mid- pelvis is used to demonstrate an AP __. a. axial projection of the sacrum 39. Which of the following is the proper patient position to demonstrate the right sacroiliac joint? a. 25 to 30 degrees LPO 40. Where does the CR enter the patient on the AP oblique projections of the sacroiliac joints? a. 1 inch medial to the elevated ASIS 41. What are the CR angle and direction for the AP axial projection of the coccyx? a. 10 degrees caudad 42. When the posterior neural arch of a single vertebra fails to close during early development and there is no other abnormality, the condition is known as: a. spina bifida occulta 43. Which region of the spine is the most common site of pathologic compression fracture of vertebral bodies caused by osteoporosis? a. Thoracic 44. What is spondylosis? a. fixation or fusion of a vertebra 45. An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called: a. scoliosis  Chapter 16: 1. Which of the following make up the bony thorax? a. 12 pairs of ribs, 12 thoracic vertebrae and the sternum 2. The uppermost portion of the sternum is called the: a. Manubrium 3. The indentation in the top of the manubrium is called the: a. Jugular notch 4. The xiphoid process is the _____ of the sternum. a. Distal tip 5. What name is given to the first seven pair of ribs? a. True ribs 6. How many pairs of ribs are classified as false ribs? a. Lower five pairs 7. The number of floating ribs is ____ pairs. a. Two 8. What structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity? a. Diaphragm 9. Which of the following organs are found within the mediastinum? 1. Lungs, 2. Heart, 3. Trachea a. 2 and 3 only 10. The term great vessels refers to the: a. Vessels that carry blood to and from the heart 11. How many lobes are in the right lung? a. 3 12. How many lobes are in the left lung? a. 2 13. What is the name of the upper portion of the lung? a. Apex 14. The inferior lateral "corners" of the lungs, visible on a PA chest radiograph, are called the: a. Costophrenic angles 15. In which quadrant of the abdomen is the largest portion of the liver located? a. Right upper quadrant 16. When the abdomen is divided into nine parts, the upper middle portion is called the _____ region. a. Epigastric 17. The rounded, upper portion of the stomach is the:  a. Fundus 18. The second portion of the small bowel is called the: a. Jejunum 19. What is the primary function of the small intestine? a. Digestion and absorption 20. The membrane that lines the abdominal cavity and surrounds the abdominal organs is called the: a. Peritoneum 21. Which of the following are portions of the large intestine? 1. Ileum, 2. Cecum, 3. Sigmoid a. 2 and 3 only 22. Where is the gallbladder located? a. On the undersurface of the liver 23. What is the function of the gallbladder? a. Store bile 24. Which of the following is located in the curve of the duodenum? a. The head of the pancreas 25. What body habitus term is applied to a person of normal size? a. Sthenic 26. Which body habitus is characterized as tall and slender? a. Asthenic 27. Which body habitus is characterized as massive and stocky in build? a. Hypersthenic 28. Which of the following is true regarding people with a hypersthenic body habitus? a. Organs are located higher and more horizontal 29. Which portion of the ribs is best demonstrated on the AP projection? a. Posterior portion 30. Routine positions for the right fifth anterior rib are: a. Prone and LAO 31. Routine positions for the left tenth posterior rib are: a. Supine and LPO 32. Which ribs are best demonstrated when the exposure is made after the patient has suspended respirations after inspiration? a. Ribs 1 to 9 33. How many ribs should be visible above the diaphragm on a PA projection of the chest, as a demonstration of proper inspiration? a. 10 34. When taking a PA projection of the chest, the recommended SID is _____ inches.  a. 72 35. What is the purpose of the 72 inch SID used for chest radiography? a. minimizes magnification of the heart shadow 36. Which of the following describe the importance of using an upright position for chest radiography? 1. the upright position demonstrates air-fluid levels, 2. the upright position allows maximum lung expansion, 3.the upright position minimizes magnification of the heart a. 1, 2, and 3 37. Lateral projections of the chest are taken with the left side against the IR because: a. magnification of the cardiac silhouette is reduced with the left side nearer the IR 38. Which of the following techniques is desirable for chest radiography? a. high kVp, high mA, and short exposure time 39. Which of the following positioning steps is used to rotate the scapula out of the lungs on a chest radiograph? a. rotating the shoulders anteriorly 40. Where does the CR enter the patient for the upright, PA projection of the chest? a. midsagittal plane at the level of T7 41. What is the proper placement of the arms for the upright, lateral projection of the chest? a. raised over the head, hands grasping opposite elbows 42. What are the proper patient instructions for the PA projection of the chest? a. stop breathing after second deep inspiration 43. Which of the following projections is best for demonstration of the apices of the lungs without bony superimposition? a. AP axial, lordotic position 44. Where does the CR enter the patient for the AP projection of the abdomen with the patient in the supine position? a. midsagittal plane at the level of the iliac crests 45. What are the proper patient instructions for the AP projection of the abdomen with the patient in the supine position? a. stop breathing after expiration 46. An AP upright projection of the abdomen is useful for visualization of: a. Air-fluid level in the intestines 47. Where should the CR enter the patient on the upright, AP projection of the abdomen? a. midsagittal plane at 2 to 3 inches above the iliac crest 48. What part of the anatomy must be demonstrated on the upright, AP projection of the abdomen?  a. Diaphragm at the top of the image 49. When a patient is unable to stand for an upright projection of the abdomen, which of the following positions may be substituted? a. left lateral decubitus position of the abdomen 50. The essential factor for demonstration of air-fluid levels in radiography is: a. a horizontal x-ray beam 51. Which of the following conditions is an inflammatory, occupational lung disease caused by inhaling irritating dust? a. pneumoconiosis 52. Which of the following features are seen on plain films (non-contrast media studies) of the abdomen? 1. Outer contours of the kidneys, 2. Psoas muscles, 3. Pancreas a. 1 and 2 only 53. What term is applied to the accumulation of free air in the abdominal cavity? a. pneumoperitoneum 54. What term is applied to the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity? a. Ascites  Chapter 17: 1. How many bones comprise the skull? a. 22 2. Which of the following bones are categorized as cranial bones? 1. Maxilla, 2. Ethmoid, 3. Parietal a. 2 and 3 only 3. The bony prominence on the frontal bone between the eyebrows is called the: a. glabella 4. What is the medical term for the bony sockets that house the eyes? a. Orbits 5. Which cranial bone is most posterior? a. Occipital bone 6. What cranial bone has a dense, pyramid of bone that houses the middle and inner ear structures? a. Temporal bone 7. What does the acronym EAM represent? a. external auditory meatus 8. The mastoid process is part of the _____ bone (s). a. Temporal 9. What is the term for the articulations between the cranial bones? a. Sutures 10. What is the name of the articulation between the frontal bone and the parietal bones? a. Coronal suture 11. What is the name of the articulation between the parietal bones? a. Sagittal suture 12. Which of the following is the positioning landmark located at the junction of the nose and the upper lip? a. Acanthion 13. In which bone can the foramen magnum be found? a. Occipital 14. What structure serves as the passageway for the spinal cord to exit the skull and pass into the spinal canal of the vertebral column?  a. Foramen magnum 15. Which structure houses the pituitary gland? a. Sella turcica 16. The EAM is located in the _____ bone. a. Temporal 17. What is contained within the petrous pyramids? a. middle and inner ear structurea 18. Which is the only moveable facial bone? a. Mandible 19. What term is used to identify the angle of the mandible? a. Gonion 20. Which of the following are facial bones? 1. Vomer, 2. Mandible, 3. Ethmoid a. 1 and 2 only 21. Which facial bones contain the structures that hold the roots of the teeth? a. mandible and maxillae 22. What is the name of the structure that holds the roots of the teeth? a. Alveolar process 23. Which facial bones help to form the hard palate of the mouth? a. Palatine 24. Air-filled cavities located in some bones of the face and cranium are called? a. Paranasal sinuses 25. What positioning landmark is located at the inner corner of the eye? a. Inner canthus 26. The depression on the anterior surface of the skull between the orbits is called: a. Nasion 27. Which imaginary line connects the outer canthus of the eye to the EAM? a. Orbitomeatal line 28. When taking a PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the skull, the central ray is directed: a. 15 degrees caudad 29. Which radiographic baseline is used to position the PA axial projection (Caldwell method) of the cranium? a. OML 30. Which projection of the cranium demonstrates the petrous ridges within the orbits? a. PA 31. Which cranial projection best demonstrates the occipital bone? a. AP axial (Towne method) 32. Which projection of the cranium best demonstrates the frontal bone?  a. PA 33. If a patient has received a blow to the right side of the skull about 2 inches above the ear, which of the following demonstrates the possible injury? a. PA projection and lateral projection, right side of skull resting on the table 34. If the patient is in a prone, oblique position with the midsagittal plane of the head parallel to the IR and the interpupillary line perpendicular to the IR. The CR is directed perpendicular to enter 2 inches superior to the EAM. What projection of the cranium is demonstrated on the radiograph? a. Lateral 35. The patient is positioned supine with the midsagittal plane and OML perpendicular to the IR. The CR angled 30 degrees caudal and enters the MSP at approximately 2.5 inches superior to the glabella. What projection is imaged on the radiograph? a. AP axial (Towne method) 36. Which of the following are disadvantages of an AP projection of the cranium as compared with a PA projection? 1. Cannot be used on injured patients 2.increased magnification of anterior anatomy, 3. Increased radiation dose to eyes a. 2 and 3 only 37. Which of the following demonstrates structures of the cranial base? a. SMV 38. A lateral projection of the face using detail screens tabletop (non-grid) is used to demonstrate the: a. Nasal bones 39. Which projection of the facial bones requires the CR to exit the acanthion? a. parietoacanthial (Waters method) 40. What is the purpose of performing sinus radiography with the patient in the upright position? a. to demonstrate air/fluid levels 41. Which of the following projections demonstrates the sphenoid sinus? a. Lateral 42. Which projection best demonstrates the maxillary sinuses? a. parietoacanthial (Waters method) 43. Which projection demonstrates all of the paranasal sinuses? a. Lateral 44. What is the proper CR angle and direction for the axiolateral projection of the mandible when the MSP of the head is angled 15 degrees toward the IR? a. 10 degrees cephalic 45. When the right and left halves of the skull do not appear symmetrical on a PA or AP projection, this is a sign that the: a. sagittal plane is not perpendicular to the IR 46. A blow-out fracture involves the: a. Floor of the orbit 47. Which facial bone (s) is (are) most frequently fractured? a. Nasal bones 48. Which facial bone often sustains fractures in pairs? a. Mandible Chapter 18: 1. The term pediatrics refers to specialized care of: a. Children 2. The term geriatrics refers to the specialized care of: a. Elderly 3. A valid choice is one in which both alternatives are: a. Acceptable to you 4. When an 8-year-old child cries and behaves more like a toddler, what is an appropriate response on your part? a. Offer valid choices 5. An exaggerated sense of modesty is most typical of which population group? a. Young teens 6. Which of the following is a commercial immobilization device specially designed for upright chest radiography of infants and small children? a. Pigg-O-Stat 7. Which commercial immobilization device for pediatric patients allows PA, AP, right and left laterals, and all four oblique positions to be performed without readjusting the restraints? a. Octostop 8. Which of the following are acceptable choices for a person to hold a child who must be physically restrained for a radiograph? 1.Childs father, 2.childs grandmother, 3.another limited operator a. 1 and 2 only 9. Which of the following is true regarding pediatric anatomy? a. the pediatric skeleton is easier to penetrate than the adult skeleton 10. The baby fat that develops in the first 4 months of life begins to disappear at the age of: a. 3 to 4 years 11. Of the following possibilities, the most important consideration in formulating exposure factors for pediatric techniques should be: a. Short exposure time 12. Which of the following is a quick method to formulate a pediatric technique? a. compare the pediatric body part size to a part of similar size on an adult 13. Why is gonadal shielding particularly important in pediatric radiography? a. immature reproductive cells are more vulnerable to radiation injury 14. Which of the following are signs that could raise concern about child abuse? 1. Multiple injuries, 2.injuries inconsistent with report of the trauma, 3. Evidence of repeated injuries a. 1,2, and 3 15. A foreign body that has been aspirated is most likely to be detected radiographically in which of the following? a. Bronchus 16. Which of the following strategies is usually helpful in dealing with patients who have impaired hearing? 1. Put mouth close to persons ear and shout, 2. Avoid noise background situations, 3. Have their attention before you speak a. 2 and 3 only 17. Achieving quality radiographs on elderly patients with demineralized bones is best achieved by decreasing: a. kVp 18. Mental impairment from Alzheimer disease, stroke, or other organic brain syndrome can result in loss of which of the following: 1. Orientation, 2. Memory, 3. Intellect a. 1, 2, and 3 19. As the skeleton ages, the bones tend to lose their calcium content, becoming porous and more radiolucent. What is this condition called? a. osteoporosis 20. What patient population is usually affected by osteoporosis? a. Elderly 21. Which of the following may aid in obtaining quality radiographs of an elderly patient with Parkinson disease? 1. Avoid noisy background situations, 2. Use high mA with short exposure time, 3. Radiograph the patient in recumbent position when possible a. 2 and 3 only 22. Ulcerated areas caused by pressure over bony prominences are called: a. decubitus ulcers 23. What can the limited operator do to reduce the risk of decubitus ulcers during imaging procedures?  a. use radiolucent sponges to cushion bony prominences 24. A large group of disorders associated with brain damage or impaired cerebral function is called: a. organic brain syndrome 25. Which of the following diseases associated with the geriatric population has the early characteristic symptom of fine tremors in the hand or feet that eventually spread to the entire body? a. Parkinson Disease Chapter 19: 1. Which of the following describes optimum radiographic viewing conditions? a. radiographs should be viewed in a room with low light 2. What is the first step in a systematic image review? a. check for accurate and complete image identification markers 3. What is the proper method to hang an AP projection of the foot? a. with the toes pointing toward the ceiling 4. Radiographs made with the patient in the ______ position are usually hung horizontally. a. Decubitis 5. What projection is demonstrated below? a. Lateral 6. What error has occurred in the previous image? a. the radiation field is not centered over the anatomy 7. What projection and anatomy of interest are demonstrated below? a. PA projection of the hand 8. Which of the following errors is evident in the image below? a. CR and IR were not aligned 9. What projection and anatomy of interest are demonstrated in the image below? a. lateral projection of the elbow 10. What error is evident in the previous image? a. anatomy of interest is not properly positioned 11. What causes an unexposed area at the top or bottom of a radiographic image? a. CR not aligned to the IR 12. If there is too much density on a radiograph, how can it be corrected? a. reduce mAs by at least 50% 13. Which of the following statements about right and left side markers is not recommended? a. electronic markers should be added during image review and postprocessing 14. Which of the following would be a factor used to evaluate radiation safety? a. Collimation 15. Which of the following will decrease patient motion in the radiograph? a. Using clear instructions 16. What is the most common cause of magnification distortion and poor definition? a. Long IOD 17. Most experienced limited operators have a repeat rate of about: a. 4% Chapter 20: 1. The term ethics is defined as: a. rules that apply values and morals to our actions 2. A document that sets forth standards of correct behavior within a profession is called: a. A code of ethics 3. Which of the following would be a violation of patient confidentiality? a. a limited operator talks to his friends during lunch about a patient's imaging procedure 4. An elderly patient is scheduled for an x-ray examination. After she arrives, she states that she does not want any x-rays and that she is going to go home. You should: a. first, talk with the patient to clarify any misunderstandings 5. Which of the following is unlawful touching? a. Battery 6. Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a limited operator? a. provide patients with complete, accurate information regarding diagnosis 7. What signed document is required for experimental procedures or those that carry substantial risk? a. Informed consent 8. Which of the following practices might be characterized as slander? a. telling a co-worker that one of your patient's pathology was caused by unsafe sex 9. Written information that reflects negatively on a person's character is called? a. Libel 10. The omission of reasonable care of caution defines: a. Negligence 11. A limited operator innocently commits an error as a result of following the orders of his or her employer, a physician. The employer may be held responsible according to which of the following: a. Doctrine of respondeat superior 12. When communication has been validated, this means that the speaker has done what? a. received a response from the listener that demonstrates comprehension 13. When family members make angry and persistent demands to the staff, this is most likely the result of: a. Fear over the condition of their relative 14. Which of the following is an example of appropriate assertiveness by a radiographer? a. "Please come now. I need help with this case." 15. A graphic form in the patient's chart is used to provide longitudinal comparisons of which of the following? a. temperature, pulse, and blood pressure 16. Which of the following is the proper method to make a correction in a paper chart? a. draw a line through the entry and initial the correction 17. What is the usual legal retention time for radiographs? a. 5 to 7 years  Chapter 21: 1. If there is a fire in your immediate area, the first thing you should do is: a. Evacuate the area 2. What should be done for a patient in the supine position who complains of being short of breath while lying down? a. Place patient in fowler position 3. Which of the following is an appropriate method to assist a patient with back pain from a supine position into a seated position? a. roll the patient into a recumbent lateral position, then assist the patient into a seated position 4. When a patient with an injured leg must go to the other end of the building and is unable to walk normally with comfort, you should provide a: a. Wheelchair 5. You accidentally fall off a step stool while stocking the top shelves with linen. You are able to get up and do not seem to be hurt. What should you do? a. File an incident report 6. When infection is spread by means of contaminated dust that contains endospores or droplet nuclei, the means of transmission is called: a. Airborne contamination 7. Which term refers to any medium that transports microorganisms? a. Vehicle 8. What type of disease transmission is possible when the limited operator does not clean the Bucky device after performing an examination on a patient with influenza? a. Fomite transmission 9. How is tuberculosis (TB) transmitted? a. Spread by airborne transmission 10. The greatest risk of serious infection transmission to health care workers from patients is: a. Hepatitis B 11. Chest radiographs and skin tests involving intradermal injections are tools used to screen for: a. Tuberculosis 12. The process of reducing the probability of infectious organisms being transmitted to a susceptible individual is called: a. Asepsis 13. Which of the following is a health care worker's single best protection against disease? a. Frequent hand hygiene 14. What cleaning agent is recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for decontaminating environmental surfaces? a. Diluted bleach 15. A limited operator who does not change linens between patients is: a. providing an opportunity for fomite transmission 16. The duty to ensure that a surgical pack is sterile before it is used is the responsibility of the: a. Person who opens the pack Chapter 22: 1. Statements regarding onset, duration, location, and pain quality are essential parts of which of the following?  a. requisition for imaging studies 2. The bluish skin coloration known as cyanosis is an indication of: a. Lack of oxygen 3. Hot, dry skin is often an indication of: a. Fever 4. Temperature readings are highest when taken with which of the following methods? a. Rectal method 5. What is the normal range of temperature when measured orally? a. 96.8 to 99.6 F 6. The term tachycardia refers to ______ heart rate. a. Abnormally rapid 7. The normal pulse rate for an adult is _____ beats per minute. a. 60 to 100 8. What is the most common site to palpate the pulse? a. on the lateral aspect of the anterior wrist at the radial artery 9. The normal rate of respiration for an adult is _____ breaths per minute. a. 12 to 20 10. Difficult breathing is called: a. Dyspnea 11. The term for the top number of blood pressure measurement is: a. Systolic 12. The term for the bottom number of a blood pressure measurement is: a. Diastolic 13. What is meant by the term hypertension? a. Abnormally high blood pressure 14. When oxygen is administered in response to an emergency situation, an appropriate flow rate is _____ liters per minute. a. 3 to 5 15. Sudden intense chest pain, often described as a crushing pain, is a cardinal symptom of which of the following? a. Heart attack 16. A continuous, abnormal blood flow is called: a. Hemorrhage 17. What is anaphylaxis? a. Severe allergic reaction 18. A patient who is terribly thirsty, urinates copious amounts frequently, and has fruity-smelling breath (ketones excreted via the respiratory tract) is showing indications of which of the following?  a. Diabetic coma 19. What is the layman's term for a cerebrovascular accident? a. Stroke 20. Which term is used to indicate a major motor seizure? a. Grand mal 21. What is the medical term for dizziness? a. Vertigo 22. What is the medical term for fainting? a. syncope