RBCs & Erythropoiesis PDF
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New Valley University
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This document covers the component of blood, blood smear preparation, and erythrocyte characteristics. It includes questions on the structure of red blood cells, and blood cell type arising from Colony Forming Unit Erythrocytes (CFU-E).
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RBCs & Erythropoiesis Component of the blood and Preparing a blood smear 1. What is the fluid extracellular material in which blood cells are suspended? A) Serum B) Plasma C) Lymph D) Interstitial fluid Answer: B) Plasma 2. Which of the follo...
RBCs & Erythropoiesis Component of the blood and Preparing a blood smear 1. What is the fluid extracellular material in which blood cells are suspended? A) Serum B) Plasma C) Lymph D) Interstitial fluid Answer: B) Plasma 2. Which of the following is not considered a “formed element” in blood? A) Red blood cells B) White blood cells C) Platelets D) Plasma proteins Answer: D) Plasma proteins 3. What is the purpose of using stains like Leishman’s stain in blood smear preparation? A) To identify blood glucose levels B) To make blood cells visible under the microscope C) To increase the volume of blood in the sample D) To detect blood pressure changes Answer: B) To make blood cells visible under the microscope 4. What type of dyes are present in Leishman’s stain? A) Acidic and neutral B) Acidic and basic C) Basic and neutral D) Only polychromatic dyes Answer: B) Acidic and basic ① 5. Which of the following stains is considered a “neutral stain” used in blood smears? A) Giemsa stain B) Leishman’s stain C) Wright stain D) Hematoxylin Answer: B) Leishman’s stain 6. Which of the following is an example of a Romanowsky stain? A) Leishman’s stain B) Giemsa stain C) Eosin stain D) Crystal violet Answer: B) Giemsa stain 7. What is the function of eosin in Leishman’s stain? A) It stains acidic components of the cell B) It stains basic components of the cell C) It stains lipids in the cell membrane D) It enhances the color of plasma proteins Answer: A) It stains acidic components of the cell 8. Which staining technique uses polychromatic dyes for blood smear preparation? A) Neutral staining B) Simple staining C) Romanowsky staining D) Negative staining Answer: C) Romanowsky staining shape of RBCs 9. What is the primary advantage of the biconcave shape of RBCs? A) It increases oxygen-carrying capacity B) It facilitates gas exchange by increasing surface area C) It makes the RBCs more flexible D) It allows RBCs to store more hemoglobin Answer: B) It facilitates gas exchange by increasing surface area ② 10. How are RBCs viewed using Transmission Electron Microscopy (TEM) inside capillaries? A) Biconcave B) Spherical C) Dumbbell-shaped D) Disc-shaped Answer: C) Dumbbell-shaped 11. What happens to RBCs in sickle cell disease? A) They are more flexible and have a longer lifespan B) They become less flexible and more fragile, causing anemia C) They are more resistant to hemolysis D) They increase in size and flexibility Answer: B) They become less flexible and more fragile, causing anemia 12. What is the normal diameter range of RBCs? A) 5-7 µm B) 7-10 µm C) 6-9 µm D) 10-12 µm Answer: C) 6-9 µm 13. In macrocytic anemia, what is the typical size of RBCs? A) Greater than 6 µm B) Less than 6 µm C) Greater than 9 µm D) Between 7-8 µm Answer: C) Greater than 9 µm 14. What is the average thickness of RBCs at the center? A) 2.6 µm B) 1.5 µm C) 0.75 µm D) 3.0 µm Answer: C) 0.75 µm ③ 15. What is the normal RBC concentration in males? A) 3.9-5.5 million/µL B) 4.1-6.0 million/µL C) 5.5-7.0 million/µL D) 3.5-5.0 million/µL Answer: B) 4.1-6.0 million/µL Structure of RBCs 16. Which component forms the largest percentage of the RBC membrane? A) Proteins B) Carbohydrates C) Phospholipids D) Cholesterol Answer: A) Proteins 17. Which protein network supports the RBC membrane and provides its flexibility? A) Myosin and tropomyosin B) Spectrin, ankyrin, and actin C) Keratin and collagen D) Tubulin and actin Answer: B) Spectrin, ankyrin, and actin 18. What is the primary function of the flexibility provided by the RBC cytoskeleton? A) To enable oxygen transport B) To increase hemoglobin binding C) To allow easy passage through small capillaries D) To facilitate nutrient absorption Answer: C) To allow easy passage through small capillaries 19. Where are the ABO blood group antigens located on the RBC membrane? A) Embedded within the lipid bilayer B) On the cytoskeleton C) Formed of outer carbohydrates and protein molecules D) Attached to hemoglobin molecules Answer: C) Formed of outer carbohydrates and protein molecules ④ 20. What cellular organelles are absent in mature RBCs? A) Nucleus and mitochondria B) Ribosomes and rough ER C) Golgi apparatus and lysosomes D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above 21. Which molecule densely fills RBCs and is essential for oxygen transport? A) Hemoglobin B) Spectrin C) Albumin D) Myoglobin Answer: A) Hemoglobin 22. What is the primary source of energy for RBCs? A) Oxidative phosphorylation B) Anaerobic glycolysis C) Beta-oxidation D) Gluconeogenesis Answer: B) Anaerobic glycolysis 23. What is the lifespan of a typical RBC? A) 60 days B) 90 days C) 120 days D) 150 days Answer: C) 120 days 24. Where are dead or worn-out RBCs removed from circulation? A) Lungs and heart B) Spleen, liver, and bone marrow C) Kidneys and liver D) Lymph nodes and thymus Answer: B) Spleen, liver, and bone marrow ⑤ 25. What is the major function of RBCs in the body? A) Nutrient absorption B) Defense against pathogens C) Oxygen and carbon dioxide transport D) Hormone regulation Answer: C) Oxygen and carbon dioxide transport Hemopoiesis 26. What is the process of blood cell production called? A) Hemolysis B) Hemostasis C) Hemoglobin synthesis D) Hemopoiesis Answer: D) Hemopoiesis 27. In adults, where does the majority of blood cell production take place? A) Liver B) Spleen C) Bone marrow D) Lymph nodes Answer: C) Bone marrow 28. During fetal development, where does blood cell production initially occur? A) Yolk sac B) Liver C) Spleen D) Bone marrow Answer: A) Yolk sac 29. All blood cells are derived from which type of stem cell? A) Multipotent hematopoietic stem cells B) Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells C) Oligopotent hematopoietic stem cells D) Unipotent hematopoietic stem cells Answer: B) Pluripotent hematopoietic stem cells ⑥ 30. What are progenitor cells committed to producing? A) All types of tissue cells B) Specific types of blood cells C) Only red blood cells D) Only platelets Answer: B) Specific types of blood cells 31. Which progenitor cells give rise to neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, and monocytes? A) Colony forming unit Lymphocytes (CFU-L) B) Colony forming unit Erythrocytes (CFU-E) C) Colony forming unit Granulocytes-monocytes (CFU-GM) D) Colony forming unit Megakaryocytes (CFU-Meg) Answer: C) Colony forming unit Granulocytes-monocytes (CFU-GM) 32. Which blood cell type arises from Colony Forming Unit Erythrocytes (CFU-E)? A) Platelets B) Red blood cells (erythrocytes) C) B-lymphocytes D) Monocytes Answer: B) Red blood cells (erythrocytes) 33. Which progenitor cell is responsible for the production of platelets? A) CFU-GM B) CFU-Meg C) CFU-L D) CFU-E Answer: B) CFU-Meg 34. Which of the following is a characteristic of hemopoietic stem cells (HSC)? A) They only differentiate and do not self-renew B) They produce all types of tissue cells C) They are capable of self-renewal and differentiation into progenitors D) They only produce lymphoid cells Answer: C) They are capable of self-renewal and differentiation into progenitors ⑦ 35. Natural killer cells originate from which progenitor cell type? A) Myeloid stem cells B) CFU-Lymphocytes (CFU-L) C) CFU-Erythrocytes D) CFU-Megakaryocytes Answer: B) CFU-Lymphocytes (CFU-L) 36. Which stage of erythropoiesis is characterized by the extrusion of the nucleus? A) Proerythroblast B) Basophilic erythroblast C) Polychromatophilic erythroblast D) Reticulocyte Answer: D) Reticulocyte 37. In which stage of erythropoiesis does the cell become basophilic and acidophilic? A) Proerythroblast B) Basophilic erythroblast C) Polychromatophilic erythroblast D) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast Answer: C) Polychromatophilic erythroblast 38. Which stage of erythropoiesis has a nucleus that is condensed and eccentric? A) Proerythroblast B) Basophilic erythroblast C) Polychromatophilic erythroblast D) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast Answer: D) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast 39. The cytoplasm of a reticulocyte is characterized by: A) Basophilia B) Acidophilia C) A reticulum of ribosomal RNA D) Both B and C Answer: D) Both B and C ⑧ 40. Which stage of erythropoiesis immediately precedes the mature erythrocyte? A) Proerythroblast B) Basophilic erythroblast C) Polychromatophilic erythroblast D) Reticulocyte Answer: D) Reticulocyte 41. In which stage of erythropoiesis does the nucleus become less active? A) Proerythroblast B) Basophilic erythroblast C) Polychromatophilic erythroblast D) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast Answer: B) Basophilic erythroblast 42. The cytoplasm of a proerythroblast is: A) Basophilic B) Acidophilic C) Neutral D) Polychromatophilic Answer: A) Basophilic 43. What is the first precursor (blast) cell of red blood cells (RBCs)? A) Proerythroblast B) Erythrocyte C) Reticulocyte D) Megakaryoblast Answer: A) Proerythroblast 44. Which of the following is true about reticulocytes? A) They make up 10% of total RBCs B) They are fully mature RBCs C) They contain mitochondria and ribosomal RNA D) They are the final stage of RBC maturation Answer: C) They contain mitochondria and ribosomal RNA ⑨ 45. What does a rise in reticulocytes in the peripheral blood indicate? A) A decrease in RBC production B) An increase in erythrocyte production following hemorrhage or hemolysis C) A failure of the bone marrow D) A decrease in hemoglobin concentration Answer: B) An increase in erythrocyte production following hemorrhage or hemolysis 46. Which of the following is the immediate precursor to reticulocytes in erythropoiesis? A) Megakaryocyte B) Proerythroblast C) Erythroblast D) Normoblast Answer: D) Normoblast 47. In normal peripheral blood, what percentage of RBCs are reticulocytes? A) 1% B) 5% C) 10% D) 15% Answer: A) 1% 48. Which condition would most likely lead to reticulocytosis? A) Anemia due to chronic blood loss B) Vitamin deficiency anemia C) Severe erythrocyte loss after hemorrhage D) Iron overload Answer: C) Severe erythrocyte loss after hemorrhage 49. What cellular structure helps identify reticulocytes under a microscope? A) Nucleus B) Ribosomal RNA C) Hemoglobin content D) Golgi apparatus Answer: B) Ribosomal RNA ⑩ 50. Which of the following best describes reticulocytosis? A) Increased reticulocyte count in response to erythrocyte destruction or blood loss B) Decreased RBC production leading to fewer reticulocytes in the blood C) Increased mature RBCs with decreased reticulocytes D) Decreased RBC count without an increase in reticulocytes Answer: A) Increased reticulocyte count in response to erythrocyte destruction or blood loss ⑪