LE-UE-of-ANA-2-PRAC-QUESTIONS-compl PDF - Upper Extremity Practice Questions
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Uploaded by PreEminentRhodolite1963
Velez College
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These practice questions cover the upper extremity, including bones, joints, muscles, and ligaments. The questions focus on identifying structures and understanding their relationships.
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c) Serratus anterior UPPER EXTREMITY d) Pectoralis major 10. Scapular rotation during arm abduction follows 1. Which bone acts as a strut to hold the arm away what ratio?...
c) Serratus anterior UPPER EXTREMITY d) Pectoralis major 10. Scapular rotation during arm abduction follows 1. Which bone acts as a strut to hold the arm away what ratio? from the trunk? a) 1:1 a) Scapula b) 2:1 b) Clavicle c) 3:2 c) Humerus d) 1:2 d) Radius 11. A triangular depression in front of the elbow is 2. The scapula spans from which vertebrae? termed: a) T1–T5 a) Cubital tunnel b) T2–T7 b) Quadrangular space c) T3–T8 c) Cubital fossa d) T4–T9 d) Anatomic snuffbox 3. What is the only attachment of the upper 12. Which nerve passes through the cubital tunnel? extremity to the trunk? a) Median nerve a) Acromioclavicular joint b) Radial nerve b) Glenohumeral joint c) Ulnar nerve c) Sternoclavicular joint d) Axillary nerve d) Scapulothoracic joint 13. Nursemaid's elbow results from the 4. Which condition results in a "step deformity"? displacement of which ligament? a) Sulcus sign a) Annular ligament b) Shoulder separation b) Lateral collateral ligament c) Rotator cuff tear c) Ulnar collateral ligament d) Tennis elbow d) Medial ligament 5. Which ligament is responsible for suspending 14. Which bone is most commonly fractured in the the weight of the scapula and upper limb from wrist? the clavicle? a) Lunate a) Costoclavicular ligament b) Scaphoid b) Acromioclavicular ligament c) Pisiform c) Coracoclavicular ligament d) Hamate d) Glenohumeral ligament 15. A patient with "tennis elbow" likely has an injury 6. Which rotator cuff muscle is primarily involved in involving: initiating abduction? a) Extensor carpi radialis brevis a) Subscapularis b) Flexor carpi ulnaris b) Supraspinatus c) Extensor pollicis brevis c) Infraspinatus d) Pronator teres d) Teres minor 16. Which deformity is associated with central band 7. A stroke patient presents with a sulcus sign. rupture? Which joint is most likely affected? a) Swan neck deformity a) Glenohumeral joint b) Boutonniere deformity b) Sternoclavicular joint c) Mallet finger c) Acromioclavicular joint d) Trigger finger d) Scapulothoracic joint 17. The long thoracic nerve supplies which muscle? 8. Which muscle is NOT part of the rotator cuff? a) Levator scapulae a) Subscapularis b) Serratus anterior b) Infraspinatus c) Rhomboid major c) Teres major d) Subscapularis d) Supraspinatus 18. Which structure forms the medial boundary of 9. The axillary nerve supplies which of the the anatomical snuffbox? following muscles? a) Extensor pollicis longus a) Trapezius b) Abductor pollicis longus b) Deltoid c) Extensor digitorum d) Extensor carpi radialis longus 19. A patient presents with difficulty abducting the c) Swan neck deformity thumb. Which muscle is most likely affected? d) Trigger finger a) Abductor pollicis longus 28. The deep branch of the radial nerve becomes: b) Extensor pollicis brevis a) Axillary nerve c) Flexor pollicis brevis b) Posterior interosseous nerve d) Opponens pollicis c) Ulnar nerve 20. Which nerve is the primary cause of carpal d) Median nerve tunnel syndrome? 29. Which muscle is involved in wrist ulnar a) Radial nerve deviation? b) Ulnar nerve a) Flexor carpi radialis c) Median nerve b) Flexor carpi ulnaris d) Axillary nerve c) Extensor carpi radialis longus 21. Which artery can be palpated in the anatomical d) Extensor carpi radialis brevis snuffbox? 30. Which bone articulates with the first metacarpal a) Ulnar artery in the carpometacarpal joint of the thumb? b) Radial artery a) Scaphoid c) Brachial artery b) Trapezium d) Axillary artery c) Capitate 22. The brachial artery bifurcates into which two d) Hamate arteries at the elbow? 31. A Colles' fracture involves displacement of which a) Radial and ulnar arteries bone? b) Ulnar and axillary arteries a) Ulna c) Radial and subclavian arteries b) Radius d) Axillary and profunda brachii arteries c) Scaphoid 23. Which muscle is responsible for forearm d) Lunate pronation? 32. What is the main blood supply to the posterior a) Supinator arm? b) Pronator teres a) Profunda brachii artery c) Brachialis b) Axillary artery d) Brachioradialis c) Subclavian artery 24. The "flexor retinaculum" forms the roof of which d) Radial artery structure? 33. Damage to the axillary nerve can result in a) Anatomic snuffbox weakness in: b) Cubital tunnel a) Elbow extension c) Carpal tunnel b) Shoulder abduction d) Quadrangular space c) Thumb opposition 25. Which ligament prevents upward displacement d) Forearm pronation of the humeral head? 34. Which nerve innervates the hypothenar a) Coracoacromial ligament muscles? b) Glenohumeral ligament a) Median nerve c) Coracoclavicular ligament b) Ulnar nerve d) Transverse humeral ligament c) Radial nerve 26. The primary function of the lumbrical muscles in d) Axillary nerve the hand is: 35. Rheumatoid arthritis typically causes swelling of a) Finger abduction which structures in the hand? b) Finger flexion at MCP and extension at IP a) Flexor tendons joints b) Central and lateral bands c) Thumb adduction c) Carpal bones d) Wrist flexion d) Palmar aponeurosis 27. Which deformity involves lateral band rupture in 36. The pectoralis major muscle is innervated by: the fingers? a) Axillary nerve a) Boutonniere deformity b) Medial and lateral pectoral nerves b) Mallet finger c) Long thoracic nerve d) Dorsal scapular nerve 37. Which carpal bone is commonly dislocated? 46. Which vein is most commonly used for a) Scaphoid intravenous access in the cubital fossa? b) Lunate a) Basilic vein c) Pisiform b) Median cubital vein d) Trapezium c) Cephalic vein 38. What is the origin of the long head of the triceps d) Brachial vein brachii? 47. Which muscle allows for thumb opposition? a) Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula a) Abductor pollicis longus b) Lateral epicondyle of the humerus b) Opponens pollicis c) Coracoid process c) Flexor pollicis brevis d) Olecranon process d) Extensor pollicis longus 39. Which ligament is affected in De Quervain's 48. What is the main action of the serratus anterior? tenosynovitis? a) Shoulder elevation a) Annular ligament b) Downward scapular rotation b) Flexor retinaculum c) Scapular protraction and upward rotation c) First extensor compartment (APL and EPB d) Arm abduction tendons) 49. Which joint is most commonly affected in d) Ulnar collateral ligament rheumatoid arthritis of the hand? 40. A patient presents with a fractured surgical neck a) Carpometacarpal joint of the humerus. Which structure is most at risk? b) Metacarpophalangeal joint a) Radial nerve c) Interphalangeal joint b) Ulnar nerve d) Radiocarpal joint c) Axillary nerve 50. Boutonniere deformity is caused by rupture of: d) Median nerve a) Flexor tendons 41. The main action of the deltoid muscle’s middle b) Lateral bands fibers is: c) Central slip a) Arm abduction d) Collateral ligaments b) Arm flexion c) Arm extension Answers d) Arm rotation 42. Which condition is also referred to as "golfer's 1. b) Clavicle elbow"? 2. b) T2–T7 a) Medial epicondylitis 3. c) Sternoclavicular joint b) Lateral epicondylitis c) Nursemaid's elbow 4. b) Shoulder separation d) Rotator cuff tear 5. c) Coracoclavicular ligament 43. Which structure drains lymph from the upper 6. b) Supraspinatus limb? 7. a) Glenohumeral joint a) Subclavian vein 8. c) Teres major b) Axillary lymph nodes 9. b) Deltoid c) Brachial artery 10.b) 2:1 d) Basilic vein 11.c) Cubital fossa 44. The transverse humeral ligament spans 12.c) Ulnar nerve between: 13.a) Annular ligament a) The coracoid and acromion processes b) The greater and lesser tubercles of the 14.b) Scaphoid humerus 15.a) Extensor carpi radialis brevis c) The clavicle and scapula 16.b) Boutonniere deformity d) The radial and ulnar styloid processes 17.b) Serratus anterior 45. Inflammation in the Tunnel of Guyon affects: 18.a) Extensor pollicis longus a) Median nerve 19.a) Abductor pollicis longus b) Ulnar nerve 20.c) Median nerve c) Radial nerve 21.b) Radial artery d) Musculocutaneous nerve 22.a) Radial and ulnar arteries 23.b) Pronator teres 24.c) Carpal tunnel 25.a) Coracoacromial ligament 26.b) Finger flexion at MCP and extension at IP joints 27.c) Swan neck deformity 28.b) Posterior interosseous nerve 29.b) Flexor carpi ulnaris 30.b) Trapezium 31.b) Radius 32.a) Profunda brachii artery 33.b) Shoulder abduction 34.b) Ulnar nerve 35.b) Central and lateral bands 36.b) Medial and lateral pectoral nerves 37.b) Lunate 38.a) Infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula 39.c) First extensor compartment (APL and EPB tendons) 40.c) Axillary nerve 41.a) Arm abduction 42.a) Medial epicondylitis 43.b) Axillary lymph nodes 44.b) The greater and lesser tubercles of the humerus 45.b) Ulnar nerve 46.b) Median cubital vein 47.b) Opponens pollicis 48.c) Scapular protraction and upward rotation 49.b) Metacarpophalangeal joint 50.c) Central slip LOWER EXTREMITY 10. Which movement does the iliofemoral ligament primarily limit? 1. Which structure contributes to the prominence of a) Abduction the buttocks? b) Adduction a) Superficial fascia c) Extension b) Deep fascia d) Flexion c) Iliotibial band 11. The medial meniscus is shaped like: d) Tensor fascia lata a) O-shaped 2. The iliotibial tract is attached superiorly to the b) C-shaped iliac crest and inferiorly to which structure? c) Circular a) Medial malleolus d) Triangular b) Lateral condyle of the tibia 12. Which ligament prevents anterior displacement c) Greater trochanter of the femur of the femur on the tibia? d) Patella a) ACL 3. Which vein passes through the saphenous b) PCL opening? c) MCL a) Small saphenous vein d) LCL b) Great saphenous vein 13. Injury to the PCL is commonly caused by: c) Femoral vein a) Downhill skiing accidents d) Popliteal vein b) Hyperextension injuries 4. The patella prevents lateral displacement due to c) Falls on bent knees which muscle? d) Rotational stress a) Vastus medialis 14. Which structure lines the knee capsule and b) Rectus femoris forms the suprapatellar bursa? c) Sartorius a) Ligamentum patellae d) Tensor fascia lata b) Synovial membrane 5. What is the largest sesamoid bone in the body? c) Oblique popliteal ligament a) Patella d) Deep fascia b) Calcaneus 15. The popliteus muscle is responsible for: c) Navicular a) Knee extension d) Talus b) Unlocking the knee joint 6. Knock knee deformity involves which structure? c) Hip abduction a) Femoral head d) Knee adduction b) Tibial condyles 16. What muscle group is collectively referred to as c) Fibular shaft the hamstrings? d) Lateral malleolus a) Rectus femoris, vastus lateralis, and vastus 7. Which ligament connects the sacrum to the medialis ischial tuberosity? b) Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and a) Sacrotuberous ligament semimembranosus b) Sacrospinous ligament c) Sartorius, gracilis, and adductor longus c) Pubofemoral ligament d) Gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris d) Iliofemoral ligament 17. Which muscle acts as the primary dorsiflexor of 8. The sciatic nerve passes through which the foot? foramen? a) Gastrocnemius a) Lesser sciatic foramen b) Tibialis anterior b) Greater sciatic foramen c) Peroneus longus c) Obturator foramen d) Soleus d) Femoral triangle 18. Which tendon is the largest and strongest in the 9. The ligamentum teres attaches to which body? structure on the femoral head? a) Patellar tendon a) Acetabulum b) Calcaneal tendon (Achilles) b) Fovea capitis c) Hamstring tendon c) Intertrochanteric crest d) Quadriceps tendon d) Greater trochanter 19. The sustentaculum tali is located on which 28. The femoral triangle's medial boundary is bone? formed by: a) Talus a) Sartorius b) Calcaneus b) Adductor longus c) Navicular c) Pectineus d) Cuboid d) Iliopsoas 20. The transverse arch of the foot is supported 29. A positive anterior drawer test of the knee primarily by which bone? indicates injury to: a) Talus a) ACL b) Navicular b) PCL c) Intermediate cuneiform c) MCL d) Cuboid d) LCL 21. Which artery supplies blood to the head of the 30. The Tarsal Tunnel contains all of the following femur? EXCEPT: a) Obturator artery a) Tibialis posterior tendon b) Popliteal artery b) Flexor digitorum longus tendon c) Femoral artery c) Extensor digitorum longus tendon d) Deep circumflex iliac artery d) Posterior tibial artery 22. A fractured femoral neck commonly damages 31. Plantar fasciitis is caused by inflammation of which artery? which structure? a) Obturator artery a) Flexor retinaculum b) Lateral circumflex femoral artery b) Plantar aponeurosis c) Medial circumflex femoral artery c) Achilles tendon d) Profunda femoris artery d) Peroneal tendons 23. Which muscle assists the gluteus maximus in 32. Which muscle supports the medial longitudinal knee extension via the iliotibial band? arch? a) Tensor fascia lata a) Peroneus longus b) Sartorius b) Tibialis anterior c) Pectineus c) Tibialis posterior d) Adductor magnus d) Flexor digitorum brevis 24. Trendelenburg gait is caused by weakness of 33. The pes anserinus provides medial knee stability which muscle? and includes all the following EXCEPT: a) Gluteus maximus a) Sartorius b) Gluteus medius b) Gracilis c) Piriformis c) Semitendinosus d) Tensor fascia lata d) Biceps femoris 25. The ligament preventing over-inversion of the 34. Which nerve is compressed in tarsal tunnel foot is the: syndrome? a) Deltoid ligament a) Femoral nerve b) Anterior talofibular ligament b) Tibial nerve c) Calcaneofibular ligament c) Common peroneal nerve d) Posterior talofibular ligament d) Sural nerve 26. Which tendon passes beneath the 35. The longest vein in the body is: sustentaculum tali? a) Small saphenous vein a) Flexor hallucis longus b) Great saphenous vein b) Flexor digitorum longus c) Femoral vein c) Tibialis posterior d) Popliteal vein d) Peroneus brevis 36. Inability to dorsiflex the foot ("foot drop") is 27. Which nerve innervates the quadriceps femoris caused by injury to which nerve? muscle group? a) Femoral nerve a) Obturator nerve b) Sciatic nerve b) Sciatic nerve c) Deep peroneal nerve c) Femoral nerve d) Tibial nerve d) Tibial nerve 37. The primary evertors of the foot are: a) Tibialis posterior a) Tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus b) Peroneus longus b) Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis c) Peroneus brevis c) Soleus and gastrocnemius d) Tibialis anterior d) Tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus 47. Which artery is palpated at the dorsum of the 38. Which structure is palpated posterior to the foot? medial malleolus? a) Dorsalis pedis artery a) Posterior tibial artery b) Posterior tibial artery b) Tibial nerve c) Peroneal artery c) Flexor hallucis longus tendon d) Lateral plantar artery d) All of the above 48. The adductor canal contains all of the following 39. A posterior dislocation of the hip typically EXCEPT: damages which nerve? a) Femoral artery a) Femoral nerve b) Femoral vein b) Sciatic nerve c) Saphenous nerve c) Obturator nerve d) Sciatic nerve d) Pudendal nerve 49. Inversion sprains commonly occur during: 40. Which muscle group extends the knee? a) Plantarflexion a) Hamstrings b) Dorsiflexion b) Quadriceps femoris c) Neutral foot position c) Adductor group d) Hip abduction d) Gluteal group 50. Which bone is the keystone of the medial 41. The plantar calcaneonavicular ligament supports longitudinal arch? which structure? a) Talus a) Medial longitudinal arch b) Calcaneus b) Lateral longitudinal arch c) Navicular c) Transverse arch d) Cuboid d) Subtalar joint 42. A sprain of the lateral ligament of the ankle typically involves which ligament first? a) Calcaneofibular ligament Answers b) Posterior talofibular ligament c) Deltoid ligament 1. a) Superficial fascia d) Anterior talofibular ligament 2. b) Lateral condyle of the tibia 43. The Achilles tendon is formed by all of the 3. b) Great saphenous vein following EXCEPT: 4. a) Vastus medialis a) Gastrocnemius 5. a) Patella b) Soleus 6. b) Tibial condyles c) Plantaris 7. a) Sacrotuberous ligament d) Popliteus 8. b) Greater sciatic foramen 44. Which joint allows inversion and eversion of the 9. b) Fovea capitis foot? 10. c) Extension a) Subtalar joint 11. b) C-shaped b) Talonavicular joint 12. b) PCL c) Calcaneocuboid joint 13. c) Falls on bent knees d) Midtarsal joint 14. b) Synovial membrane 45. Genu valgum is associated with increased 15. b) Unlocking the knee joint stress on which structure? 16. b) Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, and a) Lateral meniscus semimembranosus b) Medial meniscus 17. b) Tibialis anterior c) ACL 18. b) Calcaneal tendon (Achilles) d) PCL 19. b) Calcaneus 46. The cuboid bone forms a groove for the tendon 20. c) Intermediate cuneiform of which muscle? 21. a) Obturator artery 22. c) Medial circumflex femoral artery 23. a) Tensor fascia lata 24. b) Gluteus medius 25. c) Calcaneofibular ligament 26. a) Flexor hallucis longus 27. c) Femoral nerve 28. b) Adductor longus 29. a) ACL 30. c) Extensor digitorum longus tendon 31. b) Plantar aponeurosis 32. c) Tibialis posterior 33. d) Biceps femoris 34. b) Tibial nerve 35. b) Great saphenous vein 36. c) Deep peroneal nerve 37. b) Peroneus longus and peroneus brevis 38. d) All of the above 39. b) Sciatic nerve 40. b) Quadriceps femoris 41. a) Medial longitudinal arch 42. d) Anterior talofibular ligament 43. d) Popliteus 44. a) Subtalar joint 45. b) Medial meniscus 46. b) Peroneus longus 47. a) Dorsalis pedis artery 48. d) Sciatic nerve 49. a) Plantarflexion 50. a) Talus
