L7,9 QS, BMS201 PDF Malaria MCQs

MCQs on Malaria (Signs, Symptoms, Diagnosis, Treatment, Prevention) Medium Difficulty 1. The classic malarial paroxysm consists of three stages. Which of the following is the correct order of these stages? ○ a) Hot stage, sweating stage, cold stage ○ b) Cold stage, hot stage, sweating stage...

MCQs on Malaria (Signs, Symptoms, Diagnosis, Treatment, Prevention) Medium Difficulty 1. The classic malarial paroxysm consists of three stages. Which of the following is the correct order of these stages? ○ a) Hot stage, sweating stage, cold stage ○ b) Cold stage, hot stage, sweating stage ○ c) Sweating stage, cold stage, hot stage ○ d) Hot stage, cold stage, sweating stage 2. The periodicity of fever in tertian malaria is approximately: ○ a) 24 hours ○ b) 48 hours ○ c) 72 hours ○ d) 96 hours 3. Which Plasmodium species is responsible for quartan malaria, with a fever periodicity of 72 hours? ○ a) Plasmodium vivax ○ b) Plasmodium ovale ○ c) Plasmodium malariae ○ d) Plasmodium falciparum 4. Which of the following is NOT a typical symptom of benign malaria? ○ a) Fever ○ b) Chills ○ c) Coma ○ d) Splenomegaly 5. Cerebral malaria, a severe complication of malaria, is most commonly associated with which Plasmodium species? ○ a) Plasmodium vivax ○ b) Plasmodium ovale ○ c) Plasmodium malariae ○ d) Plasmodium falciparum 6. Blackwater fever, characterized by the passage of dark red or black urine, is a complication of: ○ a) Plasmodium vivax malaria ○ b) Plasmodium ovale malaria ○ c) Plasmodium malariae malaria ○ d) Plasmodium falciparum malaria 7. Algid malaria is primarily characterized by: ○ a) High fever and coma ○ b) Peripheral circulatory failure and shock ○ c) Passage of black urine ○ d) Splenomegaly and hepatomegaly 8. Which of the following statements about tropical splenomegaly syndrome (TSS) is FALSE? ○ a) It is a chronic condition associated with malaria. ○ b) It is characterized by splenomegaly and hepatomegaly  ○ c) It is caused by an abnormal immune response to malaria ○ d) It is always associated with the presence of parasites in the peripheral blood 9. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for complicated malaria? ○ a) Decreased consciousness ○ b) Two or more convulsions ○ c) Low blood pressure ○ d) Mild fever 10. Relapse in malaria is caused by: ○ a) Reinfection with sporozoites from a mosquito bite ○ b) Reactivation of hypnozoites in the liver ○ c) Persistence of parasites in the blood at low levels ○ d) Drug resistance 11. Recrudescence in malaria is caused by: ○ a) Reinfection with sporozoites from a mosquito bite ○ b) Reactivation of hypnozoites in the liver ○ c) Persistence of parasites in the blood at low levels ○ d) Drug resistance 12. Which Plasmodium species is associated with the development of nephrotic syndrome? ○ a) Plasmodium vivax ○ b) Plasmodium ovale ○ c) Plasmodium malariae ○ d) Plasmodium falciparum 13. The "gold standard" for diagnosing malaria is: ○ a) Clinical diagnosis based on symptoms ○ b) Serological tests ○ c) Molecular diagnosis (PCR) ○ d) Microscopic examination of blood smears 14. Thick blood smears are more sensitive for: ○ a) Detecting low levels of parasitemia ○ b) Identifying the Plasmodium species ○ c) Quantifying the parasite density ○ d) Both a and c 15. Which of the following is NOT a component of the RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine? ○ a) Circumsporozoite protein of Plasmodium falciparum ○ b) Merozoite surface protein of Plasmodium falciparum ○ c) Portion of hepatitis B virus ○ d) Chemical adjuvant 16. In a malaria survey, the splenic index is used to assess: ○ a) The prevalence of splenomegaly in the population ○ b) The level of parasitemia in the blood ○ c) The prevalence of oocysts in mosquitoes ○ d) The prevalence of sporozoites in mosquitoes 17. The oocyst index in a malaria survey measures: ○ a) The prevalence of oocysts in the mosquito's stomach wall ○ b) The prevalence of sporozoites in the mosquito's salivary glands ○ c) The level of parasitemia in the human population ○ d) The prevalence of splenomegaly in the human population 18. Which of the following is NOT a reason why it is difficult to eradicate malaria? ○ a) Complex life cycle of the parasite ○ b) Drug resistance ○ c) Vector resistance to insecticides ○ d) Availability of a highly effective vaccine 19. Which stage of Plasmodium is NOT typically found in the peripheral blood of a person infected with P. falciparum? ○ a) Ring stage ○ b) Trophozoite ○ c) Schizont ○ d) Gametocyte 20. The drug primaquine is used in the treatment of malaria to: ○ a) Kill blood schizonts ○ b) Kill liver hypnozoites ○ c) Prevent transmission of the parasite to mosquitoes ○ d) Treat uncomplicated P. falciparum infections 21. Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) is the recommended treatment for: ○ a) Uncomplicated malaria in areas with chloroquine-sensitive infections ○ b) Uncomplicated P. falciparum infections ○ c) Complicated malaria ○ d) All of the above 22. In the treatment of complicated malaria, which drug is preferred for initial parenteral therapy? ○ a) Chloroquine ○ b) Artesunate ○ c) Primaquine ○ d) Mefloquine 23. Which of the following drugs is NOT recommended for the treatment of malaria in the first trimester of pregnancy? ○ a) Mefloquine ○ b) Quinine ○ c) Clindamycin ○ d) Primaquine 24. Which of the following is NOT a vector control strategy for malaria? ○ a) Insecticide residual spraying (IRS) ○ b) Insecticide-treated bed nets (ITN) ○ c) Mass drug administration ○ d) Use of repellents 25. The RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine targets which stage of the Plasmodium life cycle? ○ a) Sporozoite ○ b) Merozoite ○ c) Hypnozoite ○ d) Gametocyte High Difficulty 26. Which of the following statements about the clinical picture of malaria is TRUE? ○ a) The incubation period is the same for all Plasmodium species  ○ b) The fever pattern is always regular and predictable ○ c) The severity of symptoms can vary depending on the Plasmodium species and the host's immune status ○ d) Jaundice is a rare complication of malaria 27. The primary mechanism of fever in malaria is: ○ a) Direct action of the parasite on the hypothalamus ○ b) Release of pyrogens by macrophages in response to parasite products ○ c) Increased metabolic rate due to the parasite's activity ○ d) Dehydration caused by sweating 28. Which of the following is NOT a cause of anemia in malaria? ○ a) Destruction of parasitized red blood cells ○ b) Suppression of erythropoiesis by cytokines ○ c) Increased production of red blood cells ○ d) Shortened red blood cell survival 29. The adherence of Plasmodium falciparum-infected red blood cells to the endothelium of capillaries is mediated by: ○ a) Knob-like projections on the surface of infected red blood cells ○ b) Merozoite surface proteins ○ c) Circumsporozoite protein ○ d) Hemozoin pigment 30. The sequestration of infected red blood cells in P. falciparum malaria can lead to: ○ a) Cerebral malaria ○ b) Acute renal failure ○ c) Pulmonary edema ○ d) All of the above 31. Blackwater fever is caused by: ○ a) Massive intravascular hemolysis ○ b) Renal tubular necrosis ○ c) Adrenal hemorrhage ○ d) Pulmonary edema 31. The presence of Schuffner's dots in infected red blood cells is characteristic of which Plasmodium species? ○ a) Plasmodium falciparum ○ b) Plasmodium malariae ○ c) Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale ○ d) All Plasmodium species 32. Which of the following is NOT a typical finding in a patient with malaria? ○ a) Anemia  ○ b) Leukocytosis ○ c) Thrombocytopenia ○ d) Elevated liver enzymes 33. Which diagnostic test is considered the "gold standard" for malaria? ○ a) Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) ○ b) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) ○ c) Microscopic examination of blood smears ○ d) Serological tests 34. Which of the following statements about the RTS,S/AS01 malaria vaccine is TRUE? ○ a) It provides complete, lifelong protection against malaria ○ b) It is administered as a single dose ○ c) It targets the sporozoite stage of the parasite ○ d) It is currently recommended for all travelers to malaria-endemic areas 35. Which of the following is NOT a goal of malaria vector control strategies? ○ a) Reduce mosquito populations ○ b) Prevent mosquito bites ○ c) Increase mosquito breeding sites ○ d) Interrupt malaria transmission 36. Which of the following statements about malaria treatment is TRUE? ○ a) Chloroquine is effective against all Plasmodium species ○ b) Artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT) is the recommended treatment for uncomplicated P. falciparum malaria ○ c) Primaquine is used to treat blood schizonts ○ d) Mefloquine is the drug of choice for pregnant women in the first  trimester 37. Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated P. falciparum malaria? ○ a) Cerebral malaria ○ b) Acute renal failure ○ c) Blackwater fever ○ d) All of the above 38. Which of the following is NOT a factor contributing to the difficulty of eradicating malaria? ○ a) Complex life cycle of the parasite ○ b) Drug resistance ○ c) Vector resistance to insecticides ○ d) Widespread availability of effective vaccines 39. Which of the following statements about the human immune response to malaria is TRUE? ○ a) A single infection provides lifelong immunity ○ b) Repeated exposure can lead to partial immunity ○ c) There is no immune response to malaria ○ d) The immune response is always effective in preventing severe disease 40. Which of the following statements about the diagnosis of malaria is FALSE? ○ a) Thick blood smears are more sensitive for detecting parasites than thin blood smears ○ b) Rapid diagnostic tests (RDTs) detect malaria antigens in the blood ○ c) PCR is a highly specific but less sensitive diagnostic method  ○ d) Serological tests are useful for detecting current infections 41. Which of the following is NOT a typical clinical manifestation of malaria? ○ a) Fever ○ b) Chills ○ c) Diarrhea ○ d) Skin rash 42. Which of the following Plasmodium species can cause relapse? ○ a) P. vivax and P. ovale ○ b) P. malariae and P. falciparum ○ c) Only P. falciparum ○ d) All Plasmodium species 43. Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Plasmodium life cycle in the mosquito? ○ a) Ookinete ○ b) Schizont ○ c) Oocyst ○ d) Sporozoite 44. Which of the following is NOT a potential mode of transmission for malaria? ○ a) Bite of an infected female Anopheles mosquito ○ b) Blood transfusion ○ c) Organ transplantation ○ d) Fecal-oral route 45. Which of the following statements about the pathogenesis of malaria is FALSE?  ○ a) The destruction of red blood cells leads to anemia ○ b) The release of hemozoin pigment can trigger an inflammatory response ○ c) Cytoadherence is a key feature of P. vivax infections ○ d) Sequestration of infected red blood cells can lead to organ damage 46. Which of the following is NOT a typical laboratory finding in severe malaria? ○ a) Hypoglycemia ○ b) Hyperkalemia ○ c) Leukocytosis ○ d) Metabolic acidosis 47. Which of the following statements about malaria prevention and control is FALSE? ○ a) Chemoprophylaxis is recommended for travelers to malaria-endemic areas ○ b) Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial for reducing transmission ○ c) Vector control strategies aim to reduce mosquito populations and prevent bites ○ d) The RTS,S/AS01 vaccine provides complete protection against all forms of malaria 48. Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Plasmodium life cycle in humans? ○ a) Sporozoite ○ b) Ookinete ○ c) Merozoite ○ d) Gametocyte  49. Which of the following statements about the erythrocytic cycle of Plasmodium is TRUE? ○ a) It takes place in the liver ○ b) It involves the asexual multiplication of the parasite within red blood cells ○ c) It is responsible for the transmission of the parasite to the mosquito ○ d) It is asymptomatic 50. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of P. falciparum malaria? ○ a) It can cause severe complications and death ○ b) It is associated with cytoadherence and sequestration ○ c) It has a 72-hour fever periodicity ○ d) It is the most prevalent form of malaria in sub-Saharan Africa Answer Key 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. d 6. d 7. b 8. d 9. d 10. b 11. c 12. c 13. c 14. d 15. b 16. a 17. a 18. d 19. c 20. b 21. d 22. b 23. d 24. c 25. a 26. c 27. b 28. c 29. a 30. d 31. a 32. b 33. c 34. d 35. c 36. b  37. d 38. d 39. b 40. d 41. d 42. a 43. b 44. d 45. c 46. c 47. d 48. b 49. b 50. c Done