Histology of RBCs & Erythropoiesis MCQ Quiz PDF

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This document is a multiple-choice question (MCQ) quiz focusing on red blood cells and the process of blood cell formation. The quiz covers topics such as structure, function, diseases, and laboratory techniques related to RBCs.

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Histology of RBCs & Erythropoiesis MCQ Quiz Medium Difficulty 1. What is the normal shape of a red blood cell (RBC) as seen in a stained blood smear? ○ a) Biconvex disc ○ b) Biconcave disc ○ c) Sphere ○ d) Sickle-shaped 2. What is the advantage of the biconcave shape of RBCs? ○ a) It inc...

Histology of RBCs & Erythropoiesis MCQ Quiz Medium Difficulty 1. What is the normal shape of a red blood cell (RBC) as seen in a stained blood smear? ○ a) Biconvex disc ○ b) Biconcave disc ○ c) Sphere ○ d) Sickle-shaped 2. What is the advantage of the biconcave shape of RBCs? ○ a) It increases the cell's volume. ○ b) It facilitates gas exchange. ○ c) It makes the cell more rigid. ○ d) It slows down the cell's movement. 3. Which of the following is an abnormal shape of RBCs associated with an inherited disease? ○ a) Biconcave disc ○ b) Sickle-shaped ○ c) Cuplike shape ○ d) Rouleaux formation 4. What is the normal diameter range of RBCs? ○ a) 4-6 μm ○ b) 6-9 μm ○ c) 9-12 μm ○ d) 12-15 μm 5. What is the normal concentration of RBCs in blood for males? ○ a) 3.9- 5.5 million/ μL ○ b) 4.1- 6.0 million/ μL ○ c) 4.5- 6.5 million/ μL ○ d) 5.0- 7.0 million/ μL 6. What percentage of the RBC cell membrane is composed of proteins? ○ a) 10% ○ b) 40% ○ c) 50% ○ d) 60% 7. Which protein network provides structural support and flexibility to the RBC membrane? ○ a) Spectrin, ankyrin, and actin ○ b) Collagen, elastin, and fibronectin ○ c) Tubulin, dynein, and kinesin ○ d) Myosin, tropomyosin, and troponin 8. What is the primary source of energy for RBCs? ○ a) Oxidative phosphorylation ○ b) Anaerobic glycolysis ○ c) Fatty acid oxidation ○ d) Krebs cycle 9. What is the average lifespan of an RBC? ○ a) 30 days ○ b) 60 days ○ c) 90 days ○ d) 120 days 10. Which cells are responsible for removing dead or worn-out RBCs from circulation? ○ a) Neutrophils ○ b) Lymphocytes ○ c) Macrophages ○ d) Eosinophils 11. What is the term for the process of blood cell formation? ○ a) Hemostasis ○ b) Hemolysis ○ c) Hemopoiesis ○ d) Hematopoiesis 12. In adults, where does hemopoiesis primarily occur? ○ a) Liver and spleen ○ b) Yolk sac ○ c) Bone marrow ○ d) Thymus 13. All blood cells are derived from which type of cell? ○ a) Pluripotential hemopoietic stem cell ○ b) Myeloid stem cell ○ c) Lymphoid stem cell ○ d) Progenitor cell 14. Which type of progenitor cell gives rise to lymphocytes? ○ a) Myeloid stem cell ○ b) Lymphoid stem cell ○ c) CFU-GM ○ d) CFU-E 15. What is the first precursor cell in the erythropoiesis lineage? ○ a) Reticulocyte ○ b) Proerythroblast ○ c) Basophilic erythroblast ○ d) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast 16. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a mature erythrocyte? ○ a) No nucleus ○ b) Acidophilic cytoplasm ○ c) Presence of ribosomes ○ d) Biconcave shape 17. What is the term for an increase in the proportion of reticulocytes in circulating blood? ○ a) Anemia ○ b) Polycythemia ○ c) Reticulocytosis ○ d) Leukocytosis 18. Reticulocytes make up approximately what percentage of total RBCs in peripheral blood? ○ a) 0.1% ○ b) 1% ○ c) 5% ○ d) 10% 19. Which stain is a mixture of acidic and basic dyes used to stain blood smears? ○ a) Leishman's stain ○ b) Giemsa stain ○ c) Wright stain ○ d) Hematoxylin and eosin stain 20. What is the term for the stacks of RBCs that may adhere to one another? ○ a) Rouleaux ○ b) Agglutination ○ c) Coagulation ○ d) Hemolysis Difficult Difficulty 21. Which of the following statements about the structure of RBCs is FALSE? ○ a) RBCs lack a nucleus and cell organelles. ○ b) RBCs are densely filled with hemoglobin molecules. ○ c) RBCs rely on aerobic glycolysis for energy production ○ d) The RBC membrane is highly flexible with a supporting cytoskeleton 22. Which of the following is NOT a site of hemopoiesis in the fetus? ○ a) Yolk sac ○ b) Liver ○ c) Spleen ○ d) Thymus 23. Which of the following is a characteristic of a proerythroblast? ○ a) Small size ○ b) Acidophilic cytoplasm ○ c) Condensed nucleus ○ d) Active nucleus 24. Which stage of erythropoiesis is characterized by the extrusion of the nucleus? ○ a) Basophilic erythroblast ○ b) Polychromatophilic erythroblast ○ c) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast ○ d) Reticulocyte 25. Which of the following conditions is associated with RBCs larger than 9 μm in diameter? ○ a) Microcytic anemia ○ b) Macrocytic anemia ○ c) Spherocytosis ○ d) Sickle cell disease 26. Which of the following statements about reticulocytes is TRUE? ○ a) They lack mitochondria. ○ b) They have a condensed nucleus ○ c) They contain a reticulum of ribosomal RNA ○ d) They make up about 10% of total RBCs in peripheral blood 27. Which of the following is NOT a function of the RBC membrane's cytoskeleton? ○ a) Providing structural support ○ b) Facilitating gas exchange ○ c) Maintaining cell shape ○ d) Enabling flexibility 28. Which of the following is NOT a type of Romanowsky stain? ○ a) Leishman's stain ○ b) Giemsa stain ○ c) Wright stain ○ d) Neutral red stain 29. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of sickle-shaped RBCs? ○ a) Less flexible ○ b) More fragile ○ c) Short life span ○ d) Decreased blood viscosity 30. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the differentiation of a pluripotential hemopoietic stem cell into a mature erythrocyte? ○ a) CFU-E ○ b) Proerythroblast ○ c) CFU-GM ○ d) Reticulocyte 31. In which stage of erythropoiesis does the cytoplasm exhibit both basophilia and acidophilia? ○ a) Basophilic erythroblast ○ b) Polychromatophilic erythroblast ○ c) Orthochromatophilic erythroblast ○ d) Reticulocyte 32. Which of the following best describes the change in nuclear activity during erythropoiesis? ○ a) It increases progressively. ○ b) It decreases progressively ○ c) It remains constant ○ d) It fluctuates randomly 33. Which of the following is the correct order of erythropoietic stages from least to most mature? ○ a) Proerythroblast, Basophilic erythroblast, Polychromatophilic erythroblast, Orthochromatophilic erythroblast, Reticulocyte, Mature erythrocyte ○ b) Mature erythrocyte, Reticulocyte, Orthochromatophilic erythroblast, Polychromatophilic erythroblast, Basophilic erythroblast, Proerythroblast ○ c) Proerythroblast, Orthochromatophilic erythroblast, Basophilic erythroblast, Polychromatophilic erythroblast, Reticulocyte, Mature erythrocyte ○ d) Reticulocyte, 34. What shape do RBCs adopt when passing through small blood vessels? ○ a) Biconcave disc ○ b) Sickle-shaped ○ c) Cuplike shape ○ d) Rouleaux formation 35. Which of the following describes the thickness of an RBC? ○ a) Uniform thickness throughout ○ b) Thicker at the rim, thinner in the center ○ c) Thinner at the rim, thicker in the center ○ d) Varies randomly 36. What is the function of antigens on the RBC surface? ○ a) Gas exchange ○ b) Flexibility ○ c) Energy production ○ d) Blood group determination 37. Where are dead or worn-out RBCs primarily removed from circulation? ○ a) Bone marrow ○ b) Spleen, liver, and bone marrow ○ c) Lungs ○ d) Kidneys 38. Which of the following is NOT a site of hemopoiesis in adults? ○ a) Vertebrae ○ b) Ribs ○ c) Liver ○ d) Sternum 39. Which cells are responsible for maintaining the population of hemopoietic stem cells? ○ a) Progenitor cells ○ b) Pluripotential hemopoietic stem cells themselves ○ c) Macrophages ○ d) Lymphocytes 40. Which of the following cells gives rise to platelets? ○ a) CFU-GM ○ b) CFU-E ○ c) CFU-Meg ○ d) CFU-L Answer Guide 1. b 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. c 7. a 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. d 12. c 13. a 14. b 15. b 16. c 17. c 18. b 19. a 20. a 21. c 22. d 23. d 24. c 25. b 26. c 27. b 28. d 29. d 30. c 31. b 32. b 33. a 34. c 35. b 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c Done

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