NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Physics - Section A PDF

NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 Physics - Section A 3 A thermodynamic system is taken through...

NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 Physics - Section A 3 A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle abcda. The work done by the gas along the path bc is: 1 A wheel of a bullock cart is rolling on a level road as shown in the figure below. If its linear speed is v in the direction shown, which one of the following options is correct (P and Q are any highest and lowest points on the wheel, respectively)? 1. 30 J 2. −90 J 3. −60 J 4. zero 4 The terminal voltage of the battery, whose emf is 1. Point P moves faster than point Q. 10 V and internal resistance 1 Ω, when connected 2. Both the points P and Q move with equal speed. through an external resistance of 4 Ω as shown in the 3. Point P has zero speed. figure is: 4. Point P moves slower than point Q. 2 Match List I with List II. List I List II (Spectral Lines of Hydrogen for (Wavelength transitions from) (nm)) A. n = 3 to n = 2 2 1 I. 410.2 B. n = 4 to n = 2 2 1 II. 434.1 C. n = 5 to n = 2 2 1 III. 656.3 D. n = 6 to n = 2 2 1 IV. 486.1 1. 6 V Choose the correct answer from the options given 2. 8 V below: 3. 10 V 1. A − III, B − IV, C − II, D − I 4. 4 V 2. A − IV, B − III, C − I, D − II 3. A − I, B − II, C − III, D − IV 5 In an ideal transformer, the turns ratio is Np = 1 2. Ns 4. A − II, B − I, C − IV, D − III The ratio V : V is equal to (the symbols carry their s p usual meaning): 1. 2 : 1 2. 1 : 1 3. 1 : 4 4. 1 : 2 Page: 1  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 6 A light ray enters through a right-angled prism at 9 Given below are two statements: one is labelled as point P with the angle of incidence 30 as shown in Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. ∘ figure. It travels through the prism parallel to its base The potential (V ) at any axial point, at BC and emerges along the face AC. The refractive 2 m distance (r) from the centre of the index of the prism is: dipole of dipole moment vector P→ of Assertion A: magnitude, 4 × 10 C m, is −6 ±9 × 10 V. (Take = 9 × 10 SI 3 1 9 4πε0 units) 2P V = ± , where r is the distance of 4πε0 r2 Reason R: any axial point situated at 2 m from the centre of the dipole. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is NOT the correct 1. √5 explanation of (A). 1. 2. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2 2. √3 3. (A) is False but (R) is True. 4 Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct √3 4. 3. explanation of (A). 2 √5 4. 4 10 In a uniform magnetic field of 0.049 T, a magnetic needle performs 20 complete oscillations in 5 seconds as 7 The quantities which have the same dimensions as shown. The moment of inertia of the needle is those of solid angle are: kg m. If the magnitude of magnetic −6 2 9.8 × 10 1. stress and angle moment of the needle is x × 10 Am ; then the value −5 2 2. strain and arc of 'x' is: 3. angular speed and stress 4. strain and angle 8 A thin flat circular disc of radius 4.5 cm is placed gently over the surface of water. If surface tension of water is 0.07 Nm , then the excess force required to −1 take it away from the surface is: 1. 198 N 2. 1.98 mN 3. 99 N 1. 128π 2 4. 19.8 mN 2. 50π 2 3. 1280π 2 4. 5π 2 Page: 2  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 11 If the monochromatic source in Young's double slit 14 Consider the following Statements A and B and experiment is replaced by white light, then: identify the correct answer: there will be a central dark fringe surrounded by a 1. few coloured fringes. there will be a central bright white fringe surrounded 2. by a few coloured fringes. 3. all bright fringes will be of equal width. 4. interference pattern will disappear. 12 Given below are two statements: For a solar-cell, the I -V characteristics lies in the IV A. Atoms are electrically neutral as they quadrant of the given graph. Statement I: contain equal number of positive and In a reverse-biased pn junction diode, the current negative charges. B. measured in (μA), is due to majority charge carriers. Atoms of each element are stable and Statement II: emit their characteristic spectrum. 1. A is incorrect but B is correct. In the light of the above statements, choose the most 2. Both A and B are correct. appropriate answer from the options given below: 3. Both A and B are incorrect. 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 4. A is correct but B is incorrect. 2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. 15 A particle moving with uniform speed in a circular 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. path maintains: 1. constant acceleration. 13 The maximum elongation of a steel wire of 1 m 2. constant velocity but varying acceleration. length if the elastic limit of steel and its Young's 3. varying velocity and varying acceleration. modulus, respectively, are 8 × 10 N m −2 8 and 4. constant velocity. N m , is: 11 −2 2 × 10 1. 0.4 mm 16 If c is the velocity of light in free space, the correct 2. 40 mm 3. 8 mm statements about photon among the following are: 4. 4 mm A. The energy of a photon is E = hν. B. The velocity of a photon is c. hν C. The momentum of a photon, p = c. In a photon-electron collision, both total energy and D. total momentum are conserved. E. Photon possesses positive charge. Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. A, B, C and D only 2. A, C and D only 3. A, B, D and E only 4. A and B only Page: 3  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 17 Two bodies A and B of same mass undergo 21 A tightly wound 100 turns coil of radius 10 cm completely inelastic one dimensional collision. The body carries a current of 7 A. The magnitude of the magnetic A moves with velocity v while body B is at rest before 1 field at the centre of the coil is: (Take permeability of collision. The velocity of the system after collision is v. 2 free space as 4π × 10 SI units): −7 The ratio v : v is: 1 2 1. 4.4 T 1. 2 : 1 2. 4.4 mT 2. 4 : 1 3. 44 T 3. 1 : 4 4. 44 mT 4. 1 : 2 22 The moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis 18 The graph which shows the variation of ( 1 and passing through its mid point and perpendicular to the ) 2 λ rod is 2400 g cm. The length of the 400 g rod is nearly: 2 its kinetic energy, E is (where λ is de-Broglie 1. 17.5 cm wavelength of a free particle): 2. 20.7 cm 3. 72.0 cm 4. 8.5 cm 23 A bob is whirled in a horizontal plane by means of a 1. 2. string with an initial speed of ω rpm. The tension in the string is T. If speed becomes 2 ω while keeping the same radius, the tension in the string becomes: 1. 4T T 2. 4 3. √2T 4. T 3. 4. 24 Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II (Material) (Susceptibility (χ)) A. Diamagnetic I. χ = 0 19 An unpolarised light beam strikes a glass surface at B. Ferromagnetic II. 0 > χ ≥ −1 Brewster's angle. Then: C. Paramagnetic III. χ ≫ 1 1. the refracted light will be completely polarised. 0 < χ < ε (a small positive D. Non-magnetic IV. both the reflected and refracted light will be number) 2. completely polarised. Choose the correct answer from the options given the reflected light will be completely polarised but below: 3. the refracted light will be partially polarised. 1. A − II, B − I, C − III, D − IV 4. the reflected light will be partially polarised. 2. A − III, B − II, C − I, D − IV 3. A − IV, B − III, C − II, D − I 20 At any instant of time t, the displacement of any 4. A − II, B − III, C − IV, D − I particle is given by 2t − 1 (SI unit) under the influence of force of 5 N. The value of instantaneous power is (in SI unit): 1. 5 2. 7 3. 6 4. 10 Page: 4  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 25 In the following circuit, the equivalent capacitance 29 If m represents the motion of a π x = 5sin(πt + ) 3 between terminal A and terminal B is: particle executing simple harmonic motion, the amplitude and time period of motion, respectively are : 1. 5 m, 2 s 2. 5 cm, 1 s 3. 5 m, 1 s 4. 5 cm, 2 s 30 In the above diagram, a strong bar magnet is moving towards solenoid-2 from solenoid-1. The direction of induced current in solenoid-1 and that in 1. 1 μF solenoid-2, respectively, are through the directions: 2. 0.5 μF 3. 4 μF 4. 2 μF 26 A horizontal force 10 N is applied to a block A as shown in figure. The mass of blocks A and B are 2 kg and 3 kg, respectively. The blocks slide over a frictionless surface. The force exerted by block A on block B is : 1. BA and CD 2. AB and CD 3. BA and DC 4. AB and DC 1. 4 N 31 A logic circuit provides the output Y as per the 2. 6 N following truth table: 3. 10 N A B Y 4. zero 0 0 1 0 1 0 27 X → Y −→ Z −→ P −→ Q + − − 290 α e β e 1 0 1 82 1 1 0 In the nuclear emission stated above, the mass number and atomic number of the product Q respectively, are: The expression for the output Y is : ¯ ¯¯¯ ¯ ¯¯¯ 1. 286, 80 1. A ⋅ B + A 2. 288, 82 2. B ¯ ¯¯¯ 3. 286, 81 3. B 4. 280, 81 4. A ⋅ B + A ¯ ¯¯¯ 28 In a vernier calipers, (N + 1) divisions of vernier 32 A wire of length ′ ′ l and resistance 100 Ω is divided scale coincide with N divisions of main scale. If 1 MSD into 10 equal parts. The first 5 parts are connected in represents 0.1 mm, the vernier constant (in cm) is: series while the next 5 parts are connected in parallel. 1. 1 100(N +1) The two combinations are again connected in series. The 2. 100N resistance of this final combination is: 3. 10(N + 1) 1. 52 Ω 4. 1 2. 55 Ω 10N 3. 60 Ω 4. 26 Ω Page: 5  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 33 The output (Y ) of the given logic gate is similar to Physics - Section B the output of an/a: 36 The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of earth of mass M and radius R in a circular orbit at an altitude of 2R from the surface of the earth is: 1. 2GmM 3R 2. GmM 2R 3. GmM 1. NOR gate 3R 2. OR gate 4. 5GmM 6R 3. AND gate 4. NAND gate 37 A small telescope has an objective of focal length 140 cm and an eye piece of focal length 5.0 cm The 34 A thin spherical shell is charged by some source. magnifying power of telescope for viewing a distant The potential difference between the two points C and P object is: (in V) shown in the figure is: 1. 28 ( Take = 9 × 10 SI units) 1 4πϵ0 9 2. 17 3. 32 4. 34 38 The velocity (v)- time (t) plot of the motion of a body is shown below: 1. 1 × 105 2. 0.5 × 10 5 3. zero 4. 3 × 105 The acceleration (a)- time (t) graph that best suits this motion is: 35 The mass of a planet is ( th 1 10 ) that of the earth and its diameter is half that of the earth. The acceleration due to gravity on that planet is: 1. 2. 1. 9.8 ms −2 2. 4.9 ms −2 −2 3. 3.92 ms 4. 19.6 ms −2 3. 4. Page: 6  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 39 Two heaters A and B have power rating of 1 kW 43 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by connecting it and 2 kW, respectively. Those two are first connected in to a battery through a resistor. If i is the current in the series and then in parallel to a fixed power source. The circuit, then in the gap between the plates: ratio of power outputs for these two cases is: displacement current of magnitude equal to i flows in 1. 2 : 9 1. the same direction as i. 2. 1 : 2 displacement current of magnitude equal to i flows in 3. 2 : 3 2. a direction opposite to that of i. 4. 1 : 1 displacement current of magnitude greater than i 3. flows but can be in any direction. 40 A force defined by; F = αt + βt acts on a particle 2 4. there is no current. at a given time t. The factor which is dimensionless, if α and β are constants, is: 1. αt/β 44 Choose the correct circuit which can achieve the 2. αβt bridge balance : 3. αβ/t 4. βt/α 41 A 10 μ F capacitor is connected to a 210 V, 50 Hz 1. 2. source as shown in the figure. The peak current in the circuit is nearly (π = 3.14): 3. 4. 1. 0.93 A 2. 1.20 A 3. 0.35 A 4. 0.58 A 42 A metallic bar of Young's modulus, Nmand coefficient of linear thermal 11 −2 0.5 × 10 −5 ∘ −1 expansion 10 C length 1 m and area of cross- section 10 m is heated from 0 C to 100 C without −3 2 ∘ ∘ expansion or bending. The compressive force developed in it is: 1. 50 × 10 N 3 2. 100 × 10 N 3 3. 2 × 10 N3 4. 5 × 10 N3 Page: 7  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 45 A sheet is placed on a horizontal surface in front of 47 The following graph represents the T -V curves of a strong magnetic pole. A force is needed to: an ideal gas (where T is the temperature and V the A. hold the sheet there if it is magnetic. volume) at three pressures P , P and P compared with 1 2 3 B. hold the sheet there if it is non-magnetic. those of Charles's law represented as dotted lines. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform C. velocity if it is conducting. move the sheet away from the pole with uniform D. velocity if it is both, non-conducting and non-polar. Choose the correct statement(s) from the options given below: 1. A and C only 2. A, C and D only 3. C only 4. B and D only Then the correct elation is : 1. P > P > P 1 3 2 46 If the plates of a parallel plate capacitor connected 2. P > P > P 2 1 3 to a battery are moved close to each other, then: 3. P > P > P 1 2 3 A. the charge stored in it, increases. 4. P > P > P 3 2 1 the energy stored in it, decreases. 48 The property which is not of an electromagnetic B. C. its capacitance increases. wave travelling in free space is that : D. the ratio of charge to its potential remains the same. the energy density in electric field is equal to energy E. the product of charge and voltage increases. 1. density in magnetic field. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 2. they travel with a speed equal to 1. given below: √μ ϵ 0 0 1. A, C and E. only they originate from charges moving with uniform 2. B, D and E. only 3. speed. 3. A, B and C. only 4. they are transverse in nature. 4. A, B and E. only 49 An iron bar of length L has magnetic moment M. It is bent at the middle of its length such that the two arms make an angle 60 with each other. The magnetic ∘ moment of this new magnet is: 1. M 2 2. 2M 3. M √3 4. M 50 If the mass of the bob in a simple pendulum is increased to thrice its original mass and its length is made half its original length, then the new time period of x oscillation is 2 times its original time period. Then the value of x is: 1. √2 2. 2√3 3. 4 4. √3 Page: 8  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 Chemistry - Section A 54 Match List I with List II. List I List II 51 The reagents with which glucose does not reason to (Process) (Conditions) give the corresponding test/products are: A. Isothermal I. No heat exchange A. Tollen's reagent process B. Schiff's reagent II. Carried out at constant C. HCN B. Isochorio process temperature D. NH OH 2 C. Isobaric process III. Carried out at constant volume E. NaHSO 3 D. Adiabatic Choose the correct options from the given below:- Iv. Carried out at constant pressure process 1. A and D 2. B and E Choose the correct answer from the options given below 3. E and D : 4. B and C 1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 52 The energy of electron in the ground state (n = 1) 3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I for He ion is-xJ , then that for an electron in n = 2 4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I + state for Be ion in J is : 3+ 55 For the reaction 2 A ⇌ B + C, K = 4 × 10. At −3 1. − x 9 c 2. −4x a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is : M. −3 3. − x 4 [A] = [B] = [G] = 2 × 10 9 4. −x Then, which of the following is correct? 1. Reaction has a tendency to go in forward direction. 53 Which reaction is NOT a redox reaction? 2. Reaction has a tendency to go in backward direction. 3. Reaction has gone to completion in forward direction. 1. 2KClO + I → 2KIO + Cl 3 2 3 2 4. Reaction is at equilibrium. 2. H + Cl → 2HC 2 2 3. BaCl + Na SO → BaSO + 2NaCl 2 2 4 4 4. Zn + CuSO → ZnSO + Cu 4 4 Page: 9  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 56 Match List I with List II. 58 Identify the correct reagents that would bring about List II (Type of the following transformation. List I (Complex) isomerism) A. [Co(NH3 ) 5 (NO2 )] Cl2 I. Solvate isomerism B. [Co(NH 3) (SO4 )] Br 1. (i) BH 5 II. Linkage isomerism 3 ⊖ (ii)H2 O2 / OH C. (iii) PCC [Co(NH3 ) ] [Cr(CN)6 ] 6 III. Ionization isomerism 2. (i) BH 3 ⊖ (ii)H2 O2 / OH D. [Co(H 2 O)6 ] Cl3 IV. Coordination (iii) alk. KMnO 4 (iv) H O3 + 3. (i) H O/H 2 + Choose the correct from the options given below : (ii) PCC 1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II 4. (i) H O/H + 2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II 2 (ii) CrO 3. A-II, B-IV, G-III, D-I 3 4. A-II, B-III,G-IV, D-I 57 In which of the following processes entropy increases? A. A liquid evaporates to vapour. B. Temperature of a crystalline solid lowered from 130 K to 0 K. C. 2NaHCO → Na CO 3( s) + CO 2 + H O 3( s) 2( g) 2 (g) D. Cl2( g) → 2Cl (g) Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. A, B and D 2. A, C and D 3. C and D 4. A and C Page: 10  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 59 Match List I with List II. 60 In which of the following equilibria, Kp and Kc are List II NOT equal? List I 1. H (Reagents/ + I ⇌ 2HI (Reaction) 2( g) 2( g) (g) Condition) 2. CO + H O ⇌ CO (g) 2 (g) 2( g) + H2( g) I. 3. 2BrCl ⇌ Br(g)+ Cl 2( g) 2( g) 4. PCl ⇌ PCl + Cl A. 5( g) 3( g) 2( g) 61 Which one of the following alcohols reacts instantaneously with Lucas reagent? 1. B. 2. II.CrO 3 C. 3. KMnO4 III. 4. CH3 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 OH KOH, Δ D. IV. (i)O3 (ii)Zn − H2 O Choose the correct answer from the options given below : 1. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III 3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III 4. A-IV,B-I, C-III, D-II Page: 11  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 62 Given below are two statements : 66 Fehling solution 'A' is The boiling point of three isomeric 1. alkaline copper sulphate Statement I : pentanes follows the order 2. alkaline solution of sodium potassium tartrate n-pentane > isopentane > neopentane (Rochelle's salt) When branching increases, the molecule 3. aqueous sodium citrate attains a shape of sphere. This results in 4. aqueous copper sulphate smaller surface area for contact, due to Statement II : 67 Match List I with List II. which the intermolecular forces between the spherical molecules are weak, thereby List II List I lowering the boiling point. (Number and types of bond/s (Molecule) between two carbon atoms) In the light of the above statements, choose the most A. ethane I. one σ − bond and two π − bonds appropriate answer from the option given below: B. ethene II. two π-bonds 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. carbon 2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. C. molecule, III. one σ-bond 3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct. C2 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. D. ethyne IV. one σ − bond and one π − bond 63 Given below are two statements: Choose the correct answer from the options given below: Statement I : Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts 1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I alkylation reaction. 2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I Statement II : Aniline cannot be prepared through 3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II Gabriel synthesis. 4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below : 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are false. 68 Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in 2. Statement I is correct but Statement II is false. 3. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true. 1. 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 64 The E° value for the Mn3+/Mn2+ couple is more positive than that of Cr3+/Cr2+ or Fe3+/Fe2+ due to change of 1. d5 to d2 configuration 2. 2. d4 to d5 configuration 3. d3 to d5 configuration 4. d5 to d4 configuration 3. HF 65 On heating some solid substances change from solid to vapour state without passing through liquid state. The technique used for the purification of such solid 4. substances based on the above principle is known as 1. Sublimation 2. Distillation 3. Chromatography 4. Crystallization Page: 12  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 69 The highest number of helium atoms is in: 73 A compound with a molecular formula of C6H14 1. 4 u of helium has two tertiary carbons. Its IUPAC name is: 2. 4 g of helium 1. 2-methyl pentane 3. 2.271098 L of helium at STP 2. 2, 3-dimethylbutane 4. 4 mol of helium 3. 2, 2-dimethylbutane 4. n-hexane 70 Match List I with List II. List II 74 The Henry's law constant KH values of three gases List I (Conversion) (Number of Faraday (A, B, C) in water are 145, 2 × 10-5 and 35 kbar, required) respectively. The solubility of these gases in water A. 1 mol of H2O to O2 I. 3F follow the order: 1. B > C > A B. 1 mol of M nO to M n − 2+ II. 2F 4 2. A > C > B 1.5 mol of Ca from molten 3. A > B > C C. III. 1F CaCl2 4. B > A > C D. 1 mol of FeO to Fe2O3 IV. 5F Choose the correct answer from the options given 75 The compound that will undergo S 1 N reaction with below: the fastest rate is 1. A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II 2. A - II, B - III, C - I, D - IV 3. A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I 1. 2. 4. A - II, B - IV, C - I, D - III 71 Among Group 16 elements, which one does NOT show -2 oxidation state? 1. Se 3. 4. 2. Te 3. Po 4. O 72 'Spin only' magnetic moment is same for which of the following ions? A. Ti3+ B Cr2+ C. Mn2+ D. Fe2+ E. Sc3+ Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below: 1. A and E only 2. B and C only 3. A and D only 4. B and D only Page: 13  NEET 2024 Exam Paper - Contact Number: 9667591930 / Code R1 8527521718 76 The most stable carbocation among the following is 79 Given below are two statements : : Statement I : The boiling point of hydrides of Group 16 elements follow the order H O > H Te > H Se > H S. 2 2 2 2 Statement II : On the basis of molecular mass, H2O is 1. expected to have lower boiling point than the other members of the group but due to the presence of extensive H-bonding in H2O, it has higher boiling point. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below: 2. 1. Both statement I and statement II are false. 2. Statement I is true and Statement II is false 3. Statement I is false but Statement II is true. 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 3. 80 Arrange the following elements in increasing order of first ionization enthalpy: Li, Be, B, C, N Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. Li