Exam Questions ENG PDF

**What is the symptom?** a. the subjective element reported by the patient b. the element objectified by the doctor c. group of symptoms and signs that occur in a disease d. includes the four classic steps: inspection, palpation, percussion, listening 2. **At the general clinical exami...

**What is the symptom?** a. the subjective element reported by the patient b. the element objectified by the doctor c. group of symptoms and signs that occur in a disease d. includes the four classic steps: inspection, palpation, percussion, listening 2. **At the general clinical examination, we are interested in?** a. Patient attitude and posture b. the subjective element reported by the patient c. the patient\'s medical documents d. Patient position in bed 3. Calude -- Bernard -- Horner Syndrom is characterized by: a. Ptosis + Myosis + Anhidrosis b. Anxiety + Myosis + Anhidrosis c. Anxiety + Myosis + COPD d. Ptosis + Myosis + Bronchial Asthma 4. Erythema nodosum can be found in the following diseases? a. Bronchial asthma b. Lung cancer c. Bronchiectasis d. Primary tuberculosis 5. What is the Hoover sign? a. Sign of restriction b. Obstruction sign c. Atelectasis sign d. Lung cancer sign 6. Which best defines TYMPANISM? a. Diminished sonority b. Abolished sonority c. Chen an area where the air is under pressure is percussed d. Increased loudness 7. Increased lung sound: a. Pneumonia b. Large intrapulmonary cavities c. Bronchiectasis d. Lung Cancer 8. Acute cough: a. Lasts for more than 4 weeks b. Lasts less than 3 weeks c. Lasts less than 7 days d. Lasts less than 15 days 9. Acute cough: a. A sign of newly established bronchopulmonary distress b. Sign of chronic distress c. Indicates asthma d. Requires antibiotic treatment 10. Pulmonary complications of cough a. Pneumonia b. Lung cancer c. Pneumothorax d. Bronchial asthma 11. Musculoskeletal complications of cough: a. Mandibular fractures b. Rib fractures c. Sternocleidomastoid muscle tears d. Ruptures of pectoralis major muscles 12. Hemoptysis represents: a. Exteriorization of blood on the mouth b. Externalization of blood in the nose c. is the coughing up of freshly aerated, bright red, bright red blood from the subglottic respiratory tract d. is the effortless expectoration of a small amount of cough 13. Restrictive dyspnea: a. occurs with increased lung capacity b. Occurs by reducing total lung capacity and increasing ventilatory effort c. Occurs by reducing total lung capacity and reducing ventilatory effort d. Occurs by reducing total lung capacity without affecting ventilatory effort 14. Trahee: a. lying lateral left of esophagus b. lying lateral right of the esophagus c. lying anterior to esophagus d. lying posterior to the esophagus 15. The role of the trachea is: a. Supports the bronchial tree b. Role in swallowing c. Role in blood circulation d. Support for the diaphragm muscle 16. Lung hilum contains: a. Superior vena cava b. Pulmonary artery c. Sciatic nerve d. Recurrent laryngeal nerve 17. Fowler\'s apical segment is located at: a. Upper Right Lob b. Medium Lob c. Lower Lob d. Upper Left Lob 18. The role of pleural effusions is: a. Controlul volumului și al compoziției lichidului pleural b. Ensure good ventilation of the alveoli c. Ensure good circulation of the alveoli d. Stimulates the heart beats 19. Bronchial arteries derive from: a. Abdominal aorta b. Thoracic aorta c. Pulmonary artery d. Superior vena cava 20. COPD: a. Is a chronic, preventable and treatable disease b. Is a acute, preventable and treatable disease c. is a acut inflammatory disease d. is a chronic inflammatory disease 21. Causes of COPD: a. Influenza A b. Influenza B c. Bacterial infections d. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency e. flour exposure 22. Mechanisms that induce COPD in smokers: a. dehydration of the bronchial epithelium b. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency c. Influenza A d. Influenza B 23. Mechanisms that induce COPD in smokers: a. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency b. Expectoration c. Cough d. Mucus retention 24. Mechanisms that induce COPD in smokers: a. chronic inflammation b. acut inflammation c. acut viral infection d. acut pneumonia 25. Mechanisms of bronchial obstruction in COPD: a. Occlusion by bronchial secretions b. alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency c. acut inflammation d. Taking salbutamol 26. Mechanisms of bronchial obstruction in COPD: a. Taking salbutamol b. Reduced lung elastic recoil c. Shortness of breath d. Dyspnea 27. **Air trapping in COPD:** a. is caused by lack of mucus in the bronchi b. is caused by excess mucus in the bronchi c. acut viral infection d. Shortness of breath 28. How is COPD diagnosed? a. Functional diagnosis - ventilatory tests b. Blood tests c. Computer PULMONARY TOMOGRAPHY d. CHEST X-RAY 29. How is COPD diagnosed? a. Computer PULMONARY TOMOGRAPHY with contrast material b. Computer PULMONARY TOMOGRAPHY without contrast substance c. History of smoking or occupational exposure d. Chest X-ray 30. **Symptomatology in COPD:** a. Shortness of breath b. Headaches c. Abdominal pain d. Odynophagia 31. **Symptomatology in COPD:** a. Headaches b. Weight loss c. Nocturnal dyspnea d. Asthenia 32. **FEV1 - Forced expiratory volume:** a.  is the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from your lungs after taking the deepest breath possible b. has normal values in all patients with COPD c. is less than 70% in all COPD patients d. refers to the air an individual can exhale during a forced breath in* *1 seconds 33. **FVC - Forced Vital Capacity:** a. refers to the air an individual can exhale during a forced breath in* *1 seconds b. is the amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from your lungs after taking the deepest breath possible c. has normal values in all patients with COPD d. is less than 70% in all COPD patients 34. **Chest X-ray in patients with COPD:** a. It is mandatory for the diagnosis of COPD b. It must be accompanied by lung Ct with contrast medium c. Hypertransparent - normal or increased lung drawing d. If normal, it rules out the diagnosis of COPD 35. **6 - minute walk test:** a. Mandatory for all COPD patients b. Mandatory for all patients with heart failure c. Requires the patient to walk for at least 6 minutes d. Contraindications -saturation below 88%, BP above 200/10mmHg, severe mental or locomotor disorders, recent MI, recent stroke 36. **6 - minute walk test:** a. Requires the patient to walk for at least 6 minutes b. Requires the patient to walk for 6 minutes maximum c. Constant walking for 6 minutes d. Mandatory for all COPD patients 37. **Blood gas assessment:** a. helps determine the stage of COPD b. helps set the treatment regimen c. helps to determine the type of COPD associated Respiratory Failure d. spirometry must be done before 38. **Management goals in COPD:** a. Just stop smoking b. Relieving symptoms c. Prevents weight gain d. forces the patient to take your treatment 39. **beta 2 adrenergic -- SABA:** a. formoterol, b. salmeterol c. indacaterol d. salbutamol 40. **beta 2 adrenergic - Side effects:** a. **sinus tachycardia** b. hand numbness c. Headaches d. Shortness of breath 41. **Anticholinergics:** a. Formoterol b. Salmeterol c. Indacaterol d. Glycopironium 42. **Anticholinergics -- side effects:** a. moisten the oral mucosa b. dry the lining of your mouth c. Strengthen the lining of the mouth d. Softens the lining of the mouth 43. **Methylxanthines:** a. They have a strong bronchodilator effect b. elective action on phosphodiesterase inhibitors c. Has a modest bronchodilator effect compared to BDLA d. Administrat în asociere cu alte bronhodilatatoare nu îmbunătățește FEV1 și dispneea 44. **Oral corticosteroids în COPD:** a. No adverse effects b. Routinely given to patients with COPD c. Must be given from diagnosis d. useful in the treatment of exacerbations, short courses of treatment 45. **Long-term Oxygen therapy:** a. taken 5-10 hours/day b. 10-15 hours/day c. Indicated if SaO2 is below 88% or PaO2 below 55mmHg d. Indicated if SaO2 is below 84 % or PaO2 below 55mmHg 46. **Bronchial asthma -- definition:** a. chronic noninflammatory airway syndrome b. chronic inflammatory airway syndrome c. without reversibility d. is a genetic disease 47. **Bronchial asthma:** a. chronic noninflammatory airway syndrome b. treated with high-dose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. treated with low-dose non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs d. requires corticosteroid-type anti-inflammatory drugs 48. **Risk Factors (RF) in Asthma:** a. antihypertensive treatments b. respiratory infections c. Inadequate hydration d. Repeated antibiotic treatments 49. **How we diagnose asthma?** a. Chest x-ray b. Symptom relief after taking salbutamol c. Variable functional obstructive syndrome d. Arterial blood gases 50. **How we diagnose asthma?** a. Identification of causative and triggering factors (history + skin tests + blood tests) b. Chest x-ray c. Repeated antibiotic treatments d. smoking patient 51. **What are the Symptoms of Asthma?** a. Cough rarely dominant, usually accompanies dyspnea b. weight loss c. positive allergy tests d. chest pain in the back, predominantly at night 52. **Asthmatic crisis:** a. slow onset of symptoms b. paroxysmal dyspnoea, wheezing and chest tightness, with non-productive cough c. without spontaneous reversibility or under bronchodilator treatment d. symptoms only appear in the second half of the day 53. **Clinical examination in the asthmatic patient:** a. prolonged expiration (including auscultator b. short expiration c. weak patient d. fat patient 54. **Variable obstructive syndrome:** a. decrease in the PEF by more than 15% b. Increase in PEF by more than 15% c. decrease FVC by more than 12% d. increase FVC by more than 12% 55. **The normal value of nitric oxide in exhaled air is in the range:** a. 10-20 PPB b. 30-40 PPB c. 15-25 PPB d. 20-30 PPB 56. **Elevated nitric oxide values in exhaled air suggest:** a. good control of lower airway inflammation b. low control of lower airway inflammation c. the patient needs increased doses of bronchodilator treatment d. the patient needs a lower dose of bronchodilator treatment 57. **Chest radiography in patients with bronchial asthma:** a. Is highly suggestive for the diagnosis of asthma b. It is NOT diagnostic in its absence c. In most patients it is NORMAL d. Must be associated with contrast-enhanced CT of the lung 58. **The differential diagnosis in the asthmatic patient must be made with:** a. Anxiogenic tachypnea b. Pulmonary tuberculosis c. Heart attack d. Influenza type A 59. **The differential diagnosis in the asthmatic patient must be made with:** a. Influenza type A b. Influenza type B c. COPB d. Stroke 60. **The differential diagnosis in the asthmatic patient must be made with:** a. Influenza type A b. Stroke c. COVID19 d. HRB post respiratory viral infections 61. **The differential diagnosis in the asthmatic patient must be made with:** a. Sleep Apnea Syndrome b. Rhinosinusitis c. Angina pectoris d. Community-acquired pneumonia 62. **The differential diagnosis in the asthmatic patient must be made with:** a. Community-acquired pneumonia b. Influenza type B c. COVID19 d. Benign tracheal tumors 63. **Salbutamol treatment in asthmatic patients:** a. Take only when needed b. Take in the morning and evening c. It is the first intention d. Take 2 puffs every 8 hours 64. **Inhaled corticoids:** a. are contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma b. Increased beta agonist response c. reduce beta agonist response d. Only given to patients with bronchial asthma in crisis 65. **Inhaled \"controller\" corticosteroids:** a. have significant adverse effects b. are contraindicated in patients with bronchial asthma c. improve lung function d. requires multiple administrations per day 66. **Inhaled \"controller\" corticosteroids -- EFFECTS ADVErse:** a. are systemic and important b. only occurs at high doses c. Local side effects d. have no adverse effects 67. **Theophylline retard:** a. Not for patients with bronchial asthma b. First-line treatment for patients with bronchial asthma c. Toxic dose close to therapeutic dose d. Administered by injection only 68. **Choose Anti-leukotriene:** a. Acidacetylsalicylic acid b. Paracetamol/Acetaminophen c. Metoprololum d. Montelukast 69. **Benralizumab is:** a. Biologic Medications b. Anti-leukotriene c. Inhaled \"controller\" corticosteroids d. Beta 2 long-acting agonist 70. **CRITERIA for defining severity grades prior to treatment:** a. Nocturnal symptoms b. Failure by the patient to take treatment c. continued smoking d. Dyspnea when stressed or upset 71. **Markers of severity in patients with bronchial asthma:** a. Pa O2 below 60 mmHg b. Pa O2 over 60 mmHg c. Pa O2 below 80 mmHg d. Pa O2 over 80 mmHg 72. **Hospitalization criteria for patients with bronchial asthma:** a. At the patient\'s request b. use of accessory muscles c. Patient has no money to buy treatment d. Peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) is 94% 73. **Hospitalization criteria for patients with bronchial asthma** a. The patient has been admitted to the ward before b. The patient is using daily the inhalator devices for symptom control c. dependence on corticoids d. The patient coughs 74. **Hospitalization criteria for patients with bronchial asthma** a. At the patient\'s request b. Patient has dyspnea but SpO2 = 95% c. Patient cannot sleep at night d. return to the emergency room after initial treatment 75. **Hospitalization criteria for patients with bronchial asthma** a. Peripheral oxygen saturation (SpO2) is 94% b. Patient has no money to buy treatment c. Excessive use or dependence on aerosol d. The patient coughs 76. **Pneumonia:** a. Acute inflammation of the lung parenchyma b. Acute inflammation of the bronchi c. Acute inflammation of the trachea d. It\'s exposure to cold 77. **Pneumonia:** a. Pathogenic germs get into the lungs through food b. Pathogenic germs get into lungs through contaminated water c. Pathogens enter by air or blood d. Pathogens enter through exposure to cold 78. **Bronchopneumonia:** a. includes multiple lobular and bronchiolar exudates b. It means water to the lungs c. Appears only in children d. Only occurs in the elderly 79. **Interstitial pneumonia:** a. Localized bronchial inflammation b. Localized inflammation of the upper lobes c. Localized inflammation of the lower lobes d. inflammation localized to the peribronchovascular interstitium 80. **Non-infectious pneumonia is caused by:** a. Streptococci b. Staphylococci c. Hemophilus Influeza d. Oils, drowning, foreign body 81. **Non-infectious pneumonia is caused by:** a. Hemophilus Influeza b. Mycobacteria c. After radiotherapy d. Clamidii 82. **Non-infectious pneumonia is caused by:** a. Clamidii b. Legionella c. Various allergens d. Hemophilus Influeza 83. **Non-infectious pneumonia is caused by:** a. Mycobacteria b. Hemophilus Influeza c. Collagen diseases d. Legionella 84. **The complications of pneumonia are:** a. Fever above 40 degrees C b. Marked physical asthenia c. Dissemination d. Profuse sweating predominantly at night 85. **The complications of pneumonia are:** a. Cough accompanied by muco-purulent expectoration b. Weight loss c. Chest pain on the affected side d. Pleurisy 86. **\"Primary\" pneumonia:** a. germs come exogenously b. germs come from an endogenous source c. Hematogenously d. septicemia 87. **Metastatic pneumonia:** a. germs come exogenously b. septicemia c. germs are transmitted by air d. is a mild form of pneumonia 88. **Favorable inoculation conditions:** a. Congenital diseases b. Bronchial asthma c. Appears in short patients d. Common in obese patients 89. **Favorable inoculation conditions:** a. Influenza type A b. Influenza type B c. Direct inoculation d. Patients with a history of pulmonary tuberculosis 90. **Favorable inoculation conditions:** a. Oropharyngeal aspiration b. Patients whose parents had COPD c. Patients whose parents have Bronchial Asthma d. Patients with COVID19 91. **Community-acquired pneumonia:** a. In patients with recent hospitalization b. In patients with recent contact with people with tuberculosis c. No recent hospitalization d. Patient with recent respiratory syncytial virus infection 92. **Nosocomial pneumonia:** a. In patients who have recently had a cardiology consultation b. In patients who have had a recent pneumology consultation c. Pneumonia occurring within 24 hours of hospitalization d. Pneumonia occurring 48-72 hours after admission 93. **Ventilator-Associated Pneumonia (VAP):** a. In patients who have had a recent pneumology consultation b. Pneumonia occurring 48-72 hours after admission c. In patients more than 48 hours after orotracheal intubation d. In patients with recent hospitalization 94. **Community-acquired pneumonia is more common in:** a. Medical staff in pneumology wards b. Medical staff in infectious diseases wards c. Common in children d. Common in people with high blood pressure 95. **Community-acquired pneumonia is more common in:** a. Common in elderly b. Common in people with diabetes c. Common in people who smoke d. Medical staff in pneumology wards 96. **The diagnosis of pneumonia is made by:** a. Health history b. Treatment history c. Chest X-ray d. Visual examination of the patient 97. **The following do not suggest the diagnosis of pneumonia:** a. Fever / subfever ± solemn chills b. Temperatures above 39-40 degrees C c. Very high blood sugar levels d. Clinical condensation syndrome (dullness, vocal vibration, crackling ± tubal murmur) 98. **The following suggest the diagnosis of pneumonia:** a. Clinical condensation syndrome (dullness, vocal vibration, crackling ± tubal murmur) b. Patient with low socio-economic status c. Patient with chronic ischemic heart disease d. Patient with a history of pneumonia 99. **Which clinical features alone suggest pneumonia?** a. Fever / subfever ± solemn chills b. Respiratory symptoms: cough ± expectoration c. Dyspnea ± chest pain d. There are no clinical elements that alone or in combination could give the diagnosis of pneumonia 100. **Atypical pneumonia:** a. Flu-like-moderate fever with slight chills b. Quick start c. Bad general condition d. Patients require emergency hospitalization 101. **Most common etiology of atypical pneumonia:** a. Streptococcus pneumoniae b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Legionella pneumophila d. Koch bacillus 102. **Most common etiology of atypical pneumonia:** a. Influenza A, B b. Koch bacillus c. Hemophilus influenzae d. Echerichia Coli 103. **Atypical pneumonia:** a. Patient history is sufficient for diagnosis b. Clinical examination and blood tests are sufficient for diagnosis c. Clinical elements are insufficient to establish with reasonable accuracy the etiology of pneumonia d. Chest X-ray is sufficient for diagnosis 104. **The most common etiology of typical or community-acquired pneumonia:** a. COVID19 b. Influenza A c. Legionella pneumophila d. Streptococcus pneumoniae 105. **The most common etiology of typical or community-acquired pneumonia:** a. Influenza B b. Influenza A c. Chlamydia pneumoniae d. Hemophilus influenzae 106. **Clinical presentation of community-acquired pneumonia:** a. Acute lower respiratory tract illness - onset less than 1 month b. Acute lower respiratory tract disease - onset greater than 1 month c. In most cases it evolves asymptomatically d. No treatment needed 107. **Clinical presentation of community-acquired pneumonia:** a. Patients are in good general condition b. Initially dry cough + rusty, purulent expectoration c. Weight loss d. Headaches 108. **Clinical presentation of community-acquired pneumonia:** a. fever \> 37.7 b. Headaches c. Abdominal pain d. Upper limb muscle pain 109. **The clinical examination of a patient with community-acquired pneumonia usually does not identify any tracer:** a. Submatitis b. Crackling wheezing c. Tachycardia d. Superficial circulation in the chest on the side with pneumonia 110. **The severity of pneumonia is assessed according to:** a. Patient\'s place of work b. It very much depends on where the patient lives c. Associated diseases d. If the patient has been vaccinated 111. **The severity of pneumonia is assessed according to:** a. If the patient has been vaccinated b. Age c. If the patient is a smoker d. If the patient is taking bronchodilator treatment 112. **Pneumonia Severity Index:** a. Determines whether patients should be treated at home or in hospital b. Determines whether patients should be treated with antibiotics c. Determines whether patients should be treated with inhaled cortisone d. Determines whether patients need to be treated with bronchodilators 113. **Which of the following is part of the pneumonia severity score:** a. Height of patients b. Presence of an associated disease c. Patients\' workplace d. Smoking or non-smoking status 114. **In the absence of chest X-ray in patients with pneumonia:** a. The patient will be rescheduled on a day when a chest X-ray can be performed b. The patient will be treated on the basis of anamnestic, clinical and biological elements c. The patient will be prescribed symptomatic treatment d. The patient will be prescribed cortisone and bronchodilator treatment, especially if they also have dyspnoea 115. **Chest x-ray in patients with community-acquired pneumonia:** a. Chest X-ray is not essential b. Chest X-ray is essential c. Chest X-ray doesn\'t help diagnose pneumonia d. It must be accompanied by a lung CT scan 116. **Pathogen identification in patients with community-acquired pneumonia is required:** a. Chest X-ray b. Lung CT scan c. Sputum examination d. Abdominal ultrasound scan 117. **Pathogen identification in patients with community-acquired pneumonia is required:** a. Usual blood tests: Glycemia, liver samples, hemoleukogram, Fibrinogen, C-reactive protein, Urea, Creatinine, etc b. Chest X-ray c. Pneumococcal antigen in urine d. Blood culture - fever and or chills 118. **Pathogen identification in patients with atypical pneumonia is required:** a. Nasal and pharyngeal exudate - SARS COV 2 b. Lung CT scan c. Chest X-ray d. Usual blood tests: Glycemia, liver samples, hemoleukogram, Fibrinogen, C-reactive protein, Urea, Creatinine, etc 119. **Procalcitonin is a marker for:** a. Bacterial infection b. Viral infection c. Antibiotic treatment d. Cortisone treatment 120. **Complications of pneumonia:** a. Fever b. Cough with sputum expectoration c. Parapneumonic pleurisy d. Marked physical asthenia 121. **Complications of pneumonia:** a. Marked physical asthenia b. Cardiac insufficiency c. Rupture of the diaphragm muscle d. Marked increase in procalcitonin 122. **Non-infectious pneumonia can occur in:** a. Koch bacillus infection b. Hemophilus influenzae infection c. Radiation d. Legionella infection 123. **Non-infectious pneumonia can occur in:** a. Streptococcus pneumoniae infection b. Staphilococcus infection c. Moraxella catarrhalis infection d. Sarcoidosis 124. **Non-infectious pneumonia can occur:** a. Patients with collagenosis b. Patients with diabetes c. Patients with bronchial astma d. Patients with TB 125. **The initial treatment of community-acquired pneumonia is:** a. With empirically administered antibiotics b. Depending on the antibiogram result c. Depends on the sputum test result d. Depends on where the patient works 126. **Outpatient treatment of patients with community-acquired pneumonia without risk factors is:** a. Cortizone b. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories + mucolytics c. Bronchodilators + Amoxicillin d. Amoxicillin 127. **Outpatient treatment of patients with community-acquired pneumonia without risk factors is:** a. Paracetamol if patients have a fever b. Bronchodilators if they have shortness of breath c. Amoxicillin+ Ac. Clavulanic if they have a history of antibiotic use at home d. Bronchodilator + inhaled corticosteroid 128. **Outpatient treatment of patients with community-acquired pneumonia without risk factors is:** a. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatories + mucolytics b. Bronchodilator + inhaled corticosteroid c. Bronchodilators + Amoxicillin d. Levofloxacin or Moxifloxacin 129. **Treatment of patients with community-acquired pneumonia allergic to penicillins is done with:** a. Ciprofloxacin b. Amoxicillin+ Ac. Clavulanic if they have a history of antibiotic use at home c. Aztreonam + Macrolide or FQ d. Cephalosporins III / IV 130. **Treatment of patients with pneumonia due to influenza A virus infection:** a. Aztreonam + Macrolide b. Moxifloxacin c. Oseltamivir d. Bronchodilator + inhaled corticosteroid 131. **Treatment of patients with pneumonia due to SARS COV2 infection (COVID19):** a. Oseltamivir b. Levofloxacin c. Amoxicillin d. Molnupiravir 132. **The duration of treatment for community-acquired pneumonia is:** a. 5 days outpatient, 7 days inpatient b. 7 days outpatient, 5 days inpatient c. 5 days outpatient, 5 days inpatient d. 7 days outpatient, 7 days inpatient 133. **Staphylococcus pneumonia treatment takes time:** a. 10 days b. 15 days c. 21 days d. 14 days 134. **Legionella pneumonia treatment takes time:** a. 14 days b. 21 days c. 21 days d. 7 days 135. **Gram negative pneumonia treatment takes time?** a. 14 - 28 days b. 10 - 14 days c. 20 - 41 days d. 28 - 38 days 136. **Staphylococcus pneumonia:** a. Mild form of pneumonia b. Outpatient treatment c. Necrotizing pneumonia d. Common in patients who smoke 137. **Bronchopneumonia Klebsiella pneumoniae:** a. Common in young people b. Requires 5 days of outpatient treatment c. Requires 5 days of inpatient treatment d. Antibiotic treatment 3-4 weeks 138. **Sources of Legionella infection:** a. Hot and cold water storage tanks b. Coffee c. carbonated drinks d. Kisses 139. **Bronchopulmonary neoplasm:** a. Symptoms are specific b. Low mortality due to early diagnosis c. Is a silent disease d. It can be operated immediately after diagnosis 140. **Consequences of smoking on the lung:** a. Inhibition of the mobility of bronchial cilia and macrophages b. Stimulates the movement of cilia in the bronchial tree c. Reduces mucus secretion d. Stimulates surfactant secretion 141. **Signs and symptoms of lung cancer:** a. Nonspecific and highly variable b. Specific and highly suggestive c. Acute onset d. Limited to lungs only 142. **Symptoms that have high diagnostic significance for lung cancer:** a. Cough b. Cough with expectoration c. Cough with shortness of breath d. Change in cough character 143. **Symptoms that have high diagnostic significance for lung cancer:** a. Weight loss of more than 10% of initial weight b. Weight gain c. Cough with expectoration d. Profuse sweating predominantly at night 144. **Atypical presentations for lung cancer:** a. Weight gain b. **Embolic syndrome** c. Patients with diabetes d. Patient smoker 145. **Atypical presentations for lung cancer:** a. neurologic syndrome b. Biceps muscle tear c. Rupture of the sternocleidomastoid muscle d. Diarrhea 146. **Benefits of sceening for lung cancer:** a. Decreased cancer mortality b. Lung cancer mortality rising c. They bring no benefit d. Requires mandatory spirometry 147. **The downsides of lung cancer screening?** a. Forces the patient to make many trips to the hospital b. Smoking cessation c. False-positive result d. Reduced anxiety 148. **The diagnosis of lung cancer requires:** a. Anamnesis b. Clinical Examination c. Imaging investigations d. All of the above 149. **The following are sufficient for the diagnosis of lung cancer:** a. Routine blood tests b. Tumor markers c. Chest X-ray and lung Ct d. None of the above 150. **Before we operate on a lung cancer patient, we need the following investigation:** a. Chest X-ray b. Lung Ct c. Spirometry d. Patient medical insurance 151. **Lung Ct:** a. Mandatory for all patients who cough b. does not differentiate benign from malignant lymph nodes c. It is mandatory for all patients with coughing and dyspnea to have contrast contrast d. Done only after chest X-ray 152. **PET CT:** a. Mandatory for all patients who cough b. Mandatory in all patients who have had a contrast-enhanced lung ct and nothing was found to explain the cough c. Differential diagnosis between benign and malignant masses by assessment of metabolic activity d. **It is not done in patients who have already undergone contrast-enhanced lung Ct** 153. **Indications for bronchoscopy in patients with lung cancer:** a. In those with contraindications to surgical treatment b. In patients who also have diabetes c. In patients who also have bronchial asthma and do not take inhaled therapy d. At patients\' request 154. **Chest ultrasound:** a. It\'s an expensive and painful investigation b. No indication in patients with lung cancer c. Diagnosis of primary/secondary tumors in contact with the chest wall d. Only done in patients with associated pleural fluid overflow 155. **Signs suggesting inoperable lung cancer:** a. Persistent cough b. Recent use of antibiotic treatments c. Infiltration of the tracheal wall or entrapment of a main bronchus \ 156. **Signs suggesting inoperable lung cancer:** a. Contralateral mediastinal or supraclavicular-laterocervical mediastinal adenopathy b. Metastases identified in the same site as the tumor c. The bronchoscopic examination determines whether the patient can have surgery d. Lung computed tomography is sufficient to establish the indication for surgery 157. **Surgical contraindications in lung cancer patients:** a. Bronchial asthma patient on inhaled corticosteroid treatment b. Recent myocardial infarction c. COPD in inhaled therapy d. Therapeutically controlled hypertension 158. **Surgical contraindications in lung cancer patients:** a. COPD in inhaled therapy b. FEV1\< 1 l or \< 30% c. FEV1\ 30% d. FEV1\< 1.5 l or \< 50% 159. **Lung cancer metastasizes:** a. In patients who have been coughing for more than 6 months b. In patients who continue to smoke c. In mediastinal ganglia d. In patients undergoing bronchoscopy with biopsy 160. **Characteristics of Mycobacterium Tuberculosis:** a. Germens multiply only in parasitized tissue b. Handshakes and hugs are the way to pass it on c. The BCG vaccine is given to adults before they start work in hospital d. Transmission is fast from person to person 161. **Source of tubercle bacillus infection:** a. Using the same cup of water by a tuberculosis patient and a healthy person b. Animals and people with tuberculosis shed bacilli into the environment c. Using the same towel by a healthy person and a sick person d. Sitting on a bus or metro bench next to someone with tuberculosis 162. **Mycobacterium Tyuberculosis:** a. Immotile, unsporulated and without capsule b. Sporulated and mobile c. They multiply quickly d. Present on the tubing of air conditioners 163. **Tuberculosis is:** a. Non-infectious disease b. Non-contagious disease c. Disease that only affects the lungs d. Infectious-contagious disease caused by bacteria of the genus Mycobacterium Tuberculosis 164. **Tuberculosis is usually associated with the following disease:** a. COPD b. Bronhial asthma c. Lung cancer d. HIV 165. **Tuberculosis is:** a. 100% curable disease at first treatment b. Untreatable disease c. Chronic disease requiring lifelong treatment d. Disease 100% resistant to first treatment 166. **The sources of infection are:** a. Over 95% of animals get tuberculosis b. Use of the same bath by tuberculosis patients and healthy people c. People with TB transmit the disease more than 95% of the time d. Mosquito bite 167. **The transmission route of tuberculosis is:** a. The aerial route b. The blood pathway c. Mosquito bite d. Tick bite 168. **Latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI):** a. Characterized by the presence of clinical signs and symptoms b. Characterized by the presence of radiological signs c. Persistent cough for more than 3 months d. Positive tuberculin response without clinical 169. **Active tuberculosis -- disease:** a. Characterized by the presence of radiological signs b. Persistent cough for more than 6 months c. Positive tuberculin response without clinical d. Positive tuberculin response without radiological signs 170. **The risk of infection with the Koch bacillus is commonly found in:** a. Known patients with bronchial asthma b. Known diabetes patients on insulin treatment c. Patients with COPD d. Sedentary patients 171. **Tuberculin skin test (TST):** a. It is used to detect Mycobacterium Tuberculosis infection b. It is a test that should be done in all patients with suspected pulmonary tuberculosis c. It is an outdated test that is no longer practiced today d. It is only done in patients who are allergic to the contrast material and in whom contrast-enhanced chest CT cannot be performed 172. **Tuberculin skin test (TST):** a. The test is read 15 minutes after taking the test b. The test is read 48 hours after the test is taken c. The reading of the test is quantitative and is done between 48 and 72 hours (ideally 72 hours) d. The reading of the test is quantitative and is done between 78 and 96 hours (ideally 96 hours) 173. **Differential diagnosis of secondary TB - Single cavitary lesion :** a. Lung cancer b. Heart failure c. Bronchial asthma d. Pulmonary fibrosis 174. **First-line anti-tuberculosis drugs:** a. Capreomycin b. Levofloxacin c. Clarithromycin d. Isoniazid 175. **Pulmonary fibrosis:** a. It\'s a 100% curable disease with treatment b. It\'s a progressive disease c. Diagnosed by spirometry and measurement of alveolo-capillary membrane transfer factor d. The main symptom is cough accompanied by expectoration 176. **The diagnosis of Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis is established by:** a. Pulmonologist b. Radiologist c. Thoracic surgeon d. Multidisciplinary diagnostic team 177. **Diffusion tests: characteristic in PID:** a. Early decrease in TLCO even before the onset of spirometric restrictive syndrome b. Early increase in TLCO even before the onset of spirometric restrictive syndrome c. Not necessary if spirometry is normal d. It is not done in COPD patients, since in this category of patients, TLCO also decreases 178. **Treatment of Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis:** a. There is NO treatment b. Corticosteroids should be given to all patients c. Inflammatory suppression to prevent further fibrosis d. High-dose anti-inflammatory treatment required 179. **Diseases that can benefit from lung transplantation:** a. Lung Cancer b. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis c. Bronchial asthma d. Sarcoidosis stage I 180. **REM SLEEP:** a. Muscle tone is present b. Eye movements are abolished c. Decreases gastric acid secretion d. Peripheral vasodilation 181. **Sleep deprivation leads to:** a. Increased ability to concentrate b. Increasing life expectancy c. It\'s a very effective way to lose weight d. Daytime sleepiness 182. **Sleep deprivation leads to:** a. Reducing the risk of cardiovascular disease b. Boosting workplace performance c. Decreased immune response d. Boost immune system performance 183. **Treatment of sleep deprivation:** a. Reducing light intensity in the room 2-3 hours before bedtime b. Taking natural (herbal) sleeping pills c. Taking benzodiazepines d. Use of APAP or CPAP night breathing devices 184. **The first-line investigation in patients with suspected obstructive sleep apnea is:** a. **Chest X-ray** b. Neurological examination -- Electroencephalogram (EEG) c. Nocturnal ventilatory polygraphy d. Spirometry with bronchodilator test 185. **Obstructive sleep apnea -- SASO:** a. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \> 10 sec b. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \> 5 sec c. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \< 10 sec d. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \< 5 sec 186. **Obstructive sleep apnea -- SASO:** a. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \> 5 sec b. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \< 10 sec c. Respiratory effort of chest and abdominal muscles present d. Decreased airflow by at least 30% \>10sec with 187. **Hypopnea of the obstructive type:** a. Respiratory effort of chest and abdominal muscles present b. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \> 5 sec c. Lack of airflow to nose and mouth \< 10 sec d. Presence of respiratory effort 188. **Types of respiratory events:** a. Mixed sleep apnea b. Peripheral apnea c. Cardiac apnea d. Pulmonary apnea 189. **Apnoea Hypopnopnoea Index (AHI):** a. The ratio between the number of apnoea, hypopnoea and total sleep time (TST) b. Number of apneas in a night c. The number of hippos in a night d. the decrease of the oxygen saturation curve by more than 3-4% in relation to total sleep time (TST) 190. **Upper airway resistance syndrome** a. Peripheral oxygen level (SpO2) drops by more than 4% b. Peripheral oxygen level (SpO2) increases by more than 4% c. No desaturation d. Decreases respiratory effort 191. **Most common presentation of hypoventilation syndromes:** a. BMI obesity - 20 - 30kg/m2 b. Hypercapnia (PaCO2 above 45 mmHg) c. Patients have insomnia d. Common in patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease 192. **Risk factors for central apnea:** a. Bronchial asthma b. Neuromuscular disorders c. BMI obesity - 30 - 40kg/m2 d. Patients with deviated nasal septum 193. **Central Sleep Apnea Syndrome:** a. episodes of obstructive sleep apnea predominate b. equal parts of central and obstructive events in total sleep time c. episodes of central sleep apnea predominate more than 50% of total sleep time d. Insomnia for more than 50% of the night 194. **Obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is more common in**: a. Patients with bronchial asthma b. Neuromuscular disorders c. BMI obesity - 30 - 40kg/m2 d. Cardiovascular disease - atrial fibrillation 195. T**he following nocturnal symptoms are common in patients with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome:** a. Headaches b. Memory and concentration problems c. Lack of energy d. Hypersalivation 196. **The following daytime symptoms are common in patients with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome:** a. Profuse sweating b. Feeling of suffocation c. Pauses in breathing noticed by bed partner d. Falling asleep during routine activities 197. **Severity of Sleep Apnea Syndrome:** a. Mild - apnea-hypopnea index between 5 and 15 respiratory events per hour of sleep b. Moderate - apnea-hypopnea index between 10 and 20 respiratory events per hour of sleep c. Severe - apnea-hypopnea index greater than 20 respiratory events per hour of sleep d. Mild - apnea-hypopnea index between 0 and 10 respiratory events per hour of sleep 198. **Complications of untreated sleep apnea syndrome:** a. Weight gain b. Anxiety and depression c. Lowers insulin resistance d. Decreases oxidative stress 199. **Treatment of obstructive sleep apnea syndrome involves:** a. Correct and effective treatment for high blood pressure b. Treating diabetes correctly and effectively c. Weight reduction d. Treatment of hypothyroidism associated with obstructive sleep apnea syndrome 200. **The gold standard treatmen** **CPAP este tratamentul de elecție t for obstructive sleep apnea syndrome is:** a. CPAP is the treatment of choice b. BiPAP is the treatment of choice c. APAP is the treatment of choice d. Nocturnal oxygen therapy