NPTEL Human Resource Development PDF

NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 11 TYPE OF QUES...

NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 11 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: What is the definition of Organizational learning? a. development of new knowledge and acquisition of new insights that have the potential to influence financial benefit changes. b. research the old knowledge and topics that can influence changes and improve organizational performance. c. development of new knowledge acquisition and new insights that can influence behavioral changes and thus improve organizational performance d. Develop technical skills to increase an organization's revenue. Correct Answer: c. development of new knowledge and acquisition of new insights which have the potential to influence behavioral changes and thus improve organizational performance Detailed Solution: Organizational learning is the development of new knowledge and the acquisition of new insights that have the potential to influence behavioral changes and thus improve organizational performance. QUESTION 2: Rules, contracts, and documents are examples of which type of knowledge: a. tacit knowledge b. explicit knowledge c. knowledge sharing d. procedural knowledge Correct Answer: b. explicit knowledge Detailed Solution: Rules, contracts, and documents are examples of explicit knowledge. QUESTION 3: “The largest database of any organization” situated in human resources is known as: a. explicit knowledge b. HR database management system c. artificial intelligence d. tacit knowledge Correct Answer: d. tacit knowledge Detailed Solution: Tacit knowledge is the collective know-how, techniques, processes, and difficult-to-articulate expertise that is part of an individual's or organization's knowledge base. QUESTION 4: “Lower-level Learning” and “Not-Strategic Learning” are the characteristics of the type of organizational learning: a. single loop learning b. double loop learning c. triple loop learning d. multi-loop learning Correct Answer: a. single loop learning Detailed Solution: Lower-level Learning” and “Not-Strategic Learning” are the characteristics of single-loop learning. QUESTION 5: Define the term triple-loop learning: a. when errors are detected and corrected, but firms continue with their present policies and goals. b. the organization questions and modifies its existing norms, procedures, policies, and objectives c. organizational members ‘learn how to learn’ and form new beliefs that impact their thinking and, therefore, what they do and how they do it. d. when people get better at a particular activity through practice or training Correct Answer: c. organizational members ‘learn how to learn’ and form new beliefs that impact their thinking and, therefore, what they do and how they do it. Detailed Solution: Triple loop learning goes beyond a reflection on patterns of success and failure; it's about asking what is right. In other words, it's about considering why we do what we do and reflecting on who we should be as a program and even the organization itself. QUESTION 6: Which of the following is not a component of a learning organization: a. can be achieved through quick management training b. it is a multi-level concept c. based on continuous knowledge transfer and adaptation d. requires specific HRM policies supportive of learning culture Correct Answer: a. can be achieved through quick management training Detailed Solution: The learning organization concept cannot be seen as a quick fix, which can be achieved by sending all managers on a short training course. QUESTION 7: Which of the following is an element of an information processing system: a. development b. strategy c. distribution d. communication Correct Answer: c. distribution Detailed Solution: Distribution is an element of the information processing system. QUESTION 8: Which of the following is NOT a subsystem of Experiential Learning in the roadmap of organizational learning: a. Organizational self-appraisal b. Scanning c. Unintentional learning d. Organizational Experiments Correct Answer: b. Scanning Detailed Solution: Experiential learning means learning by doing. Environmental scanning is a process that systematically surveys and interprets relevant data to identify external opportunities and threats for the organization. It is, therefore, not a subprocess of experiential learning. QUESTION 9: Supply chains, the government, and professional societies form a part of which of these workplace learning communities: a. networks and partnerships b. the individual c. the workgroup d. the enterprise Correct Answer: a. networks and partnerships Detailed Solution: Supply chains, the government, and professional societies are examples of networks and partnerships that can help the enterprise become a learning organization. QUESTION 10: According to Senge, which of the following is not one of the five disciplines of Learning Organization: a. shared mission b. systems thinking c. mental models d. team learning Correct Answer: a. shared mission Detailed Solution: Systems Thinking, Personal Mastery, Mental Models, Shared Vision, and Team Learning are the five disciplines. QUESTION 11: Which of the following is a characteristic of a complex adaptive system: a. dynamic behavior b. quantum leaps c. new product d. new service Correct Answer: a. dynamic behavior Detailed Solution: Dynamic behavior is a characteristic of a complex adaptive system. QUESTION 12: The gap between aspirations and current reality in personal mastery is known as: a. creative tension b. inquiry c. superego d. yin & yang Correct Answer: a. creative tension Detailed Solution: People with high levels of personal mastery are skilled at creating a personal vision and accurately assessing their current reality concerning that vision. The gap between current reality and personal vision propels them forward. This gap is often referred to as 'creative tension.' Personal mastery is, therefore, about generating and sustaining 'creative tension' and living comfortably with that tension. QUESTION 13: Which of the following is one of the five main learning activities in which learning organizations are skilled? According to Garvin: a. communication b. adaptability c. systemic problem-solving d. problem analysis Correct Answer: c. systemic problem solving Detailed Solution: Systemic problem-solving is one of the five main learning activities in which learning organizations are skilled. According to Garvin QUESTION 14: Using data and statistical analysis is a tool used by which method of building a learning organization: a. Experimentation b. Learning from others c. Learning from Past Experience d. Systematic Problem Solving Correct Answer: d. Systematic Problem Solving Detailed Solution: Systematic Problem Solving relies on the scientific method for diagnosing problems. Data and Statistical analysis are used as tools for Generating ideas and collecting information, reaching consensus, Analyzing and displaying data, and Planning actions. QUESTION 15: Which of the following is true in the context of double-loop learning: a. lower-level learning b. adaptive learning c. it involves strategic learning d. the firm continues with present policies Correct Answer: c. it involves strategic learning Detailed Solution: Option c is correct.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 12 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: Which statement best describes the relationship between Diversity and Inclusion? a. Diversity and Inclusion are not related; they are mutually exclusive. b. Inclusion enables an organization to leverage the strategic value of Diversity. c. Inclusion represents the costs, while Diversity represents the benefits. d. Inclusion is a strategic approach, while Diversity is a tactical approach. Correct Answer: b. Inclusion enables an organization to leverage the strategic value of Diversity. Detailed Solution: Diversity refers to the variety of differences among people (e.g., race, gender, age, background), while Inclusion focuses on creating an environment where everyone feels valued and respected. Inclusion allows organizations to harness the benefits of Diversity by ensuring that all employees can contribute fully to the organization's success. QUESTION 2: What does the term “glass ceiling” refer to in the context of organizational advancement? a. A metaphorical barrier that prevents qualified women and minorities from advancing to senior management positions. b. A physical ceiling made of glass that exists in corporate offices. c. A metaphorical test given to employees to judge their skills and qualifications. d. A barrier that prevents entry-level employees from reaching middle management. Correct Answer: a. A metaphorical barrier that prevents qualified women and minorities from advancing to senior management positions. Detailed Solution: The glass ceiling refers to an artificial barrier based on an attitudinal or organizational bias that prevents qualified women and other minorities from advancing upward into senior management-level positions. It is a situation where the advancement of a qualified person within the hierarchy of an organization is stopped at a lower level due to some form of discrimination. QUESTION 3: Which statements best describe the relationship between workforce diversity and organizational culture? a. Workforce diversity has no impact on organizational culture. b. Organizational culture is determined solely by the leadership team. c. Workforce diversity can positively influence organizational culture. d. Organizational culture is static and unaffected by external factors. Correct Answer: c. Workforce diversity can positively influence organizational culture. Detailed Solution: A diverse workforce brings different perspectives, experiences, and ideas together. When employees from various backgrounds collaborate, they can generate innovative solutions and drive creativity within the organization. Fostering workforce diversity contributes to a positive organizational culture, benefiting employees and the organization. QUESTION 4: Which of the following dimensions is part of Hofstede’s cultural dimensions theory? a. Power distance b. Emotional intelligence c. Technological advancement d. Economic growth Correct Answer: a. Power distance Detailed Solution: Power distance: the extent to which a society accepts the fact that power in institutions and organizations is distributed unequally QUESTION 5: The belief that an organization accommodates several subcultures is known as: a. Ethnocentricism b. Ethnorelativism c. Pluralism d. Homogeneity Correct Answer: c. Pluralism Detailed Solution: Pluralism holds that people of different beliefs, backgrounds, and lifestyles can coexist in the same society and participate equally in the political process. It assumes that practicing pluralism will lead decision-makers to negotiate solutions that contribute to the "common good" of society. QUESTION 6: Equal Employment Opportunity is related to the challenge of Diversity: a. Availability Challenge b. Fairness Challenge c. Synergy Challenge d. Conflict Challenge Correct Answer: b. Fairness Challenge Detailed Solution: “Fairness” was typically viewed as equal treatment, i.e., Equal Employment Opportunity. However, employers must now embrace new Diversity by focusing on "differences." QUESTION 7: The highest level of diversity awareness is: a. Adaptation b. Acceptance c. Integration d. Minimizing Differences Correct Answer: c. Integration Detailed Solution: A multicultural attitude enables one to integrate differences and adapt both cognitively and behaviorally, which is the highest level of diversity awareness. QUESTION 8: Employees who live and work in a country other than their own are called: a. minority b. multicultural c. tourist d. expatriate Correct Answer: d. expatriate Detailed Solution: An expatriate is a migrant worker who is professional or skilled in their profession. The worker takes a position outside their home country, either independently or as a work assignment scheduled by the employer. QUESTION 9: In the Triple-bottom line model, which of the following is the economic variable dealing with the bottom line: a. People b. Planet c. Profit d. Principle Correct Answer: c. profit Detailed Solution: The triple bottom line is a sustainability framework that examines a company's social, environmental, and economic impact. Traditionally, a company’s success has been measured solely by its financial performance—its ability to generate profit for shareholders. However, the TBL expands this perspective. While profit remains essential, it is no longer the sole focus. Purpose-driven leaders recognize that financial success can coexist with positive societal and environmental impact. QUESTION 10: Match the following terms related to future trends and their definition: 1) Globality A) Design and deploy software that supports business activities 2) service-oriented architecture B) clusters of businesses that come together over the Internet 3) business-web C) a geographically dispersed organization 4) multiunit enterprises D) We will all be competing with everyone, from, for everything a. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B b. 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C c. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D d. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C Correct Answer: d. 1-D, 2-A, 3-B, 4-C Detailed Solution: These terms are predictions about future HRD trends. 'Globality' will characterize global markets: we will all be competing with everyone, from everywhere, for everything…a whole new mindset that embraces profit and competition as well as sustainability and collaboration". Using 'service-oriented architecture' to design and deploy software that supports business activities: "It is becoming possible to design many business activities as Lego-like software components that can be easily put together and taken apart." The emergence of the business-web (or b-web) which are "clusters of businesses that come together over the Internet" to create wealth and "are predicated on a new kind of inter- enterprise collaboration." The continued growth in multiunit enterprises: "a geographically dispersed organization built from standard units such as branches, service centers, hotels, restaurants, and stores, which are aggregated into larger geographic groupings such as districts, regions and divisions." QUESTION 11: The HRD ethical stance in which there is disengagement from ethical problems is: a. Prophet b. Subjectivist c. Rhetorician d. Quietist Correct Answer: d. Quietist Detailed Solution: The stances of the prophet, the subjectivist, the quietist, and the rhetorician represent four approaches to the ethical aspects of HRD practitioners’ roles. The doctrine of quietism has often been taken to imply the rejection of philosophical questions and the philosophical enterprise as a whole. Quietism is understood as simple non-interventionism or, more pejoratively, the requirement to remain utterly silent in philosophy. QUESTION 12: According to Crane and Matten (2007), which aspect of CSR involves voluntary actions that benefit society, such as charitable donations or community development projects: a. Economic b. Legal c. Ethical d. Philanthropic Correct Answer: d. Philanthropic Detailed Solution: Philanthropic initiatives support various causes. Examples include: Employee volunteer programs: Encouraging employees to volunteer their time. Sponsoring community events: Supporting local initiatives and charities. Creating corporate foundations: Establishing funds for charitable giving. QUESTION 13: Which of the following is an example of the benefit of CSR to the society: a. Development of the arts and sports through company sponsorship initiatives b. Increased employee trust in management c. Accumulation of customer goodwill d. Limited government interference Correct Answer: a. Development of the arts and sports through company sponsorship initiatives Detailed Solution: The Development of the arts and sports through company sponsorship initiatives and the reduction of social ills are ways in which CSR can benefit society. The other options are examples of CSR benefits for the organization and employees. QUESTION 14: Which of the following is NOT an implication for the future of HRD: a. Understanding how technology can be used to sustain competitive advantage. b. Developing an organization’s collaborative capabilities. c. Limiting online collaboration. d. Embracing technology as a vehicle for learning. Correct Answer: c. Limiting online collaboration. Detailed Solution: Option c is correct. One of the significant implications for the future of HRD involves supporting and increasing online collaborations to ensure global connectivity. QUESTION 15: The phenomenon where clusters of businesses come together over the Internet is known as: a. prosumers b. globality c. service-oriented architecture d. business web Correct Answer: d. Business web Detailed Solution: A future trend of HRD is the emergence of the business web (or b-web), which are clusters of businesses that come together over the Internet to create wealth and are predicated on a new kind of inter-enterprise collaboration.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 7 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: What is the advantage of in-house employee counseling: a. Confidentiality b. Lack of needed resources c. Subject matter experts d. Sense of ownership Correct Answer: d. Sense of ownership Detailed Solution: Option d. is correct. QUESTION 2: How many stages are there in the counseling program? a. 6 b. 12 c. 8 d. 5 Correct Answer: a. 6 Detailed Solution: There are six stages in the counseling program. QUESTION 3: What is done at the last stage of the counseling process? a. Intervention and problem b. Research and evaluation c. Termination and Follow-Up d. Relationship building Correct Answer: b. Research and evaluation Detailed Solution: Stage One: Relationship building Stage Two: Assessment and Diagnosis Stage Three: Formulation of counseling goals Stage Four: Intervention and problem-solving Stage Five: Termination and Follow-Up Stage Six: Research and evaluation QUESTION 4: Which of the following is not correct in the context of Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs)? a. Identify happy employees b. Motivate employees to resolve their problems c. Provide access to counseling d. Provide access to treatment Correct Answer: a. Identify happy employees Detailed Solution: Option A is correct. Other options regarding Employee Assistance Programs (EAPs) are correct. QUESTION 5: Which of the following is a characteristic of the EAP Approach? a. Board members monitor employees to identify changes in workplace behavior that indicate potential problems b. The problem is defined in clinical terms c. Problem is defined in terms of job performance d. Supervisors decide what is to be done to avoid any changes in workplace behavior Correct Answer: c. The problem is defined in terms of job performance. Detailed Solution: Characteristic of the EAP Approach -  The problem is defined in terms of job performance rather than in clinical terms  Supervisors monitor employees to identify changes in workplace behavior that indicate potential problems QUESTION 6: Which statements concerning the Employee Assistance Programme Approach to Resolving Employee Personal Problems are incorrect? a. Work performance is not a reflection of employee's problems b. Employees can be motivated to seek help c. Work is vital to people d. The problem is defined in terms of job performance rather than in clinical terms Correct Answer: A. Work performance is not a reflection of an employee's problems Detailed Solution: Option A is incorrect because work performance is linked to and affected by an employee's problems. That is one of the bases of EAP interventions. QUESTION 7: Which of the following is not a behavioral problem indicating possible Substance abuse? a. Absenteeism b. Poor job performance c. Decreased turnover d. Poor relationships with co-workers Correct Answer: c. Decreased turnover Detailed Solution: behavioral problem indicating possible substance abuse –  Absenteeism  On-the-job absences  High accident rate  Poor job performance  Poor relationships with co-workers QUESTION 8: Negative stress, which often results in overload, is known as: a. insecurity b. distress c. eustress d. job strain Correct Answer: b. distress Detailed Solution: Distress is described as negative stress, in which an individual experiences insecurity or inadequacy because of helplessness or disappointment. QUESTION 9: According to the Demand-Control Model of Workplace Stress, when both job control and job demands are high, it leads to: a. Low strain b. Distress c. Eustress d. Boredom and passiveness Correct Answer: c. Eustress Detailed Solution: Demand-Control Model of Workplace Stress suggests that experienced stress is a function of job demands and control. When both job control and job demands are high, it leads to stress. QUESTION 10: What is meant by "Role ambiguity”? a. a situation in which goals, expectations, and essential job requirements are unclear b. a situation where too much work or work that is too complex is present c. a situation where there are not enough resources to get the job done d. controlled overseeing of the activities of employees, leading to a lack of freedom Correct Answer: a. situation in which goals, expectations, and basic job requirements are unclear Detailed Solution: In the workplace, researchers have pointed out role ambiguity as an essential reason for stress among employees. Role ambiguity is the level of disinformation experienced by the employee or the lack of information related to the task assigned to the employee. QUESTION 11: “Function of workplace demands and the control an individual has in meeting those demands” explains which of the following terms: a. Job strain b. Job demand c. Job identification d. Job Resources Correct Answer: a. Job strain Detailed Solution: Job strain function of workplace demands and the control an individual has in meeting those demands. QUESTION 12: Which of the following is not an Organizational Stressor? a. Factors extrinsic to the job b. Organizational structure and control c. Rewards systems d. Leadership Correct Answer: a. Factors extrinsic to the job Detailed Solution: Organizational Stressors-  Factors intrinsic to the job   Organizational structure and control  Rewards systems  Human resource systems  Leadership QUESTION 13: Which of the following is a psychological consequence of stress? a. headache b. excessive smoking c. violence d. sleeplessness Correct Answer: d. sleeplessness Detailed Solution: Psychological consequence of stress - Anxiety Depression Low self-esteem Sleeplessness Frustration Family problems Burnout QUESTION 14: Quit rate is an assessment method generally used to measure the effectiveness of which employee wellness program: a. Fitness b. Smoking cessation c. Hypertension control d. Weight control Correct Answer: b. Smoking cessation Detailed Solution: Two related measures of the success of smoking cessation programs are the quit rate and the percentage of smokers participating. QUESTION 15: Which of the following is an ethical issue in counseling? a. Low-performance b. Employee scheduling problems, c. Confidentiality d. Increase liability to lawsuits Correct Answer: c. Confidentiality: Detailed Solution: Option c. is correct.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 8 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: What is competency mapping? a. A process to identify and define the skills, knowledge, abilities, and behaviors needed for successful work. b. A technique to create a comprehensive framework for organizational job positions. c. A method to assess employee performance based on specific competencies. d. A strategy to reduce employee turnover. Correct Answer: a. A process to identify and define the skills, knowledge, abilities, and behaviors needed for successful work Detailed Solution: Competency mapping involves evaluating and understanding the knowledge, skills, motives, traits, and social roles of individuals and departments within an organization. It helps identify gaps and compare them to the competencies required for specific roles. QUESTION 2: Competence is: a. a person-related term b. a work-related term c. a combination of person and work-related terms d. neither person nor work-related Correct Answer: b. a work-related term Detailed Solution: Competence is a work-related concept that refers to areas of work in which the person is competent QUESTION 3: Attribute is a part of competency which is related to: a. personal characteristics or traits b. physical domain c. cognitive domain d. the ability to do things Correct Answer: a. personal characteristics or traits Detailed Solution: Attributes are specific qualities or features that describe something or characteristics that are broad traits that encompass many different aspects of someone or something. Personal attributes are natural personality traits that support and enable soft skills. QUESTION 4: What distinguishes Threshold Competencies from Differentiating Competencies? a. Threshold Competencies are common and exhibited by all individuals while differentiating competencies are unique and rare. b. Threshold Competencies are exhibited only by superior performers, while superior and effective performers possess differentiating competencies. c. Threshold Competencies are essential for achieving organizational goals while differentiating competencies adds value. d. Threshold Competencies are technical skills while differentiating competencies are interpersonal skills. Correct Answer: a. Threshold Competencies are common and exhibited by all individuals, while differentiating competencies are unique and rare. Detailed Solution: Threshold Competencies are common and possessed by superior and effective performers. However, only some individuals exhibit differentiating competencies since they distinguish superior from adequate performers. QUESTION 5: The model which distinguishes between hidden and visible competencies is: a. Johari model b. Herzberg model c. Iceberg model d. Competency matrix Correct Answer: c. Iceberg model Detailed Solution: The iceberg model for competencies takes the help of an iceberg to explain the concept of competency. An iceberg has just one-ninth of its volume above water, and the rest remains beneath the surface of the sea. Similarly, a competency has some visible components, like knowledge and skills, but other behavioral components, like attitude, traits, thinking styles, self-image, organizational fit, etc., are hidden or beneath the surface. QUESTION 6: According to the Lancaster (Burgoyne) Model of Managerial Competencies, creativity and self-knowledge are a part of which level of competency: a. Level 1 b. Level 2 c. Level 3 d. Level 4 Correct Answer: c. Level 3 Detailed Solution: This model of competencies has eleven competencies under three levels. Creativity and self-knowledge are in Level 3, i.e., meta-qualities. QUESTION 7: The competency definitions, which are key behavior indicators, are based on the following: a. management theories b. academic research c. generic definitions of job profile d. outstanding current performance in the organization Correct Answer: d. outstanding current performance in the organization Detailed Solution: The competency definitions are based on outstanding current performance in the organization. These competencies must reflect someone's management theory or an academic idea of doing the job well. It is based on what works within the organization and directly contributes to top performance. QUESTION 8: An organization created a multi-rater feedback instrument to assess employee needs for competency development. It is an example of applying the competency model in the area of a. Selection b. Compensation c. Training and development d. Succession planning Correct Answer: c. Training and development Detailed Solution: Training and Development can use the competencies to design a curriculum for Training and other workforce development activities and create a multi-rater feedback instrument to assess employee needs for competency development. QUESTION 9: Choose the correct sequence of competency mapping: a. job description -> job analysis -> aligning resources to fulfill competency needs b. job analysis -> job description -> aligning resources to fulfill competency needs c. aligning resources to fulfill competency needs -> job description -> job analysis d. job analysis -> aligning resources to fulfill competency -> needs job description Correct Answer: b. job analysis -> job description -> aligning resources to fulfill competency needs Detailed Solution: The technique of competency mapping involves conducting a job analysis to identify core skills and behaviors required to perform the role, drafting a job description based on the key competencies, and aligning resources to fulfill competency needs best. QUESTION 10: The data collection method in which a facilitator works with a small group of job incumbents, their managers, supervisees, clients, or others to define the job content or to identify the competencies they believe are essential for performance is: a. Critical incidents b. Observation c. Literature review d. Focus Group Correct Answer: d. Focus Group Detailed Solution: Expert panels or focus groups derive and validate competencies for specific roles. In focus groups, a facilitator works with a small group of job incumbents, their managers, supervisees, clients, or others to define the job content or to identify the competencies they believe are essential for performance. QUESTION 11: One of the steps in competency mapping involves defining observable behaviors required to perform a job well. This step is also called: a. Employee feedback b. Finalizing behavioral dictionary c. Action plan d. Assessing role-holder skill Correct Answer: b. Finalizing behavioral dictionary Detailed Solution: A behavioral dictionary is a collection of definitions for competencies that address all the skills, knowledge, and abilities required for an organization's jobs. It often includes a combination of general competencies common to all jobs and technical competencies needed for specific jobs or functions within the organization. QUESTION 12: Which hidden human competency is related to self-concept and values: a. Skills b. Knowledge c. Traits d. Self-image Correct Answer: d. Self-image Detailed Solution: Self-image has been defined as the total subjective perception of oneself, including an image of one’s body and impressions of one’s personality, capabilities, and others. Self-image is a hidden competency in the Iceberg model. QUESTION 13: Communication, initiative, listening, etc. are examples of the following: a. Generic competencies b. Managerial competencies c. Technical competencies d. All of these Correct Answer: a. Generic competencies Detailed Solution: Generic competencies refer to transferable skills or attributes that individuals can apply across various domains, including professional and social contexts. Examples include communication, initiative, etc. QUESTION 14: BEI is a data collection method in which top performers are interviewed individually about what they did, thought, said, and felt in challenging situations. BEI stands for: a. Behavioral Excellence Interface b. Best Educational Instruction c. Best Event Incident d. Behavioral Event Interviews Correct Answer: d. Behavioral Event Interviews Detailed Solution: The Behavioral Event Interview is a structured and systematic method or approach used to interview potential employees to uncover their past behaviors in specific scenarios. In simple terms, BEI can be understood as an interview technique that asks candidates to explain specific situations or experiences from their previous jobs. QUESTION 15: Which of the following would be the best definition for the ‘Expert’ level of competence: a. Understanding at a macro level b. Understanding at a macro level and being able to pass it on c. Understanding at the detailed level, contributing, analyzing, and teaching d. Understand at the Micro level, contribute, analyze, teach, and recreate Correct Answer: c. Understanding at the detailed level, contributing, analyzing, and teaching Detailed Solution: Expert- Understanding at the detailed level, contributing, analyzing, and teaching the "How to do ?" "Competence to understand, teach, and criticize the book."  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 9 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: Career can be defined as: a. Flexible line of movement through which an employee may move during employment with a company b. Formal approach used by the organization to help people acquire the skills and experiences needed to perform current and future jobs c. General course that a person chooses to pursue throughout his or her working life d. Firm identifies paths and activities for individual employees as they develop Correct Answer: c. General course that a person chooses to pursue throughout his or her working life Detailed Solution: General course that a person chooses to pursue throughout his or her working life QUESTION 2: “Firm identifies paths and activities for individual employees as they develop." define which of the following terms: a. Organizational employee development b. Organizational career planning c. Organizational employee demand d. Organizational system planning Correct Answer: b. Organizational career planning Detailed Solution: Organizational career planning - The Firm identifies paths and activities for individual employees as they develop. QUESTION 3: The career planning tool which stimulates thinking about careers, strengths/limitations, and development needs is: a. Career planning system b. Career planning workshop c. Career counseling d. Career planning workbook Correct Answer: d. Career planning workbook Detailed Solution: The career workbook is designed to help identify strengths, skills, and work preferences. QUESTION 4: What is job security: a. Development of expertise that helps ensure employment within various careers b. Development of marketable skills for job promotion c. Protection against job loss within company d. Implies security in one job, often with multiple companies Correct Answer: c. Protection against job loss within the company Detailed Solution: Protection against job loss within the company QUESTION 5: What are the individual needs in the career development program: a. Restaffing b. Staffing c. Development d. Fitting into organization Correct Answer: d. Fitting into organization Detailed Solution: INDIVIDUAL NEEDS-  Making career/job choice  Making contributions  Fitting into organization  Using experience QUESTION 6: Which of the following statements is incorrect concerning career anchors: a. Career anchors are developed on a short-term basis b. Career anchors can shape an individual’s self-image c. Career anchor evolves into self-concept d. Career anchors include skills, attitudes and values Correct Answer: A. Career anchors are developed on a short-term basis Detailed Solution: Career anchors develop over a long period. QUESTION 7: What are the task needs at the establishment stage of Career-Impacted Life Stages: a. Technical updating and coaching skills b. Rethink work and family, c. Identify successors and develop outside interests d. Learn the ropes and get challenging jobs Correct Answer: d. Learn the ropes and get challenging jobs Detailed Solution: Establishment Stage- Task needs -  Learn the ropes  Get challenging jobs  Increase competence  Be innovative QUESTION 8: “Express midlife feelings” is an emotional need of which stage of Career-Impacted Life Stages: a. Growth b. Exploration c. Maintenance d. Establishment Correct Answer: c. Maintenance Detailed Solution: Maintenance stage - Social-emotional needs-  Express midlife feelings  Rethink work, family QUESTION 9: Who developed career anchors: a. Brousseau et al. b. Nicholson c. Edgar Schein d. Cianni & Wnuck Correct Answer: c. Edgar Schein Detailed Solution: Career anchors are developed by Edgar Schein QUESTION 10: Which of the following is not a career anchor by Schein: a. Technical competence b. Managerial competence c. Creativity d. Working style Correct Answer: d. working style Detailed Solution: 8Career anchor by Schein:  Technical competence  Managerial competence  Security  Creativity  Autonomy  Dedication to a cause  Pure challenge  Life style QUESTION 11: What is the responsibility of a manager in career development: a. knowing why b. advising c. deciding where d. financial assistance Correct Answer: b. advising Detailed Solution: Manager’s Responsibilities -  Coaching  Appraising  Advising   Referring QUESTION 12: Career insight can be defined as: a. realistic perceptions about one’s career goals b. the extent to which people define themselves by their work c. the ability to resist career barriers or disruptions d. the characteristics of a job or career that individuals are drawn to Correct Answer: a. realistic perceptions about one’s career goals Detailed Solution: Career insight is people's ability to be realistic about themselves and their careers. People with high career insight accurately understand their strengths and weaknesses and set clear career goals. QUESTION 13: Which of the following is not an internal staffing issue: a. Retraining b. Transfers c. Demotions d. Promotion Correct Answer: a. Retraining Detailed Solution: Internal staffing issues-  Promotions  Transfers  Demotions  Separations QUESTION 14: “The ability to resist career barriers or disruptions” explains which of the following terms: a. Career resilience b. Career insight c. Career reliability d. Career identity Correct Answer: a. Career resilience Detailed Solution: Career resilience is resisting career barriers or disruptions. QUESTION 15: What do you understand by the term network career path: a. Opportunities are available at the age of the employee b. Only horizontal opportunities c. Employee progresses vertically upward in organization d. Both vertical job sequence and horizontal opportunities Correct Answer: d. Both vertical job sequence and horizontal opportunities Detailed Solution: The network career path includes vertical job sequences and horizontal opportunities.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 10 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: What does intellectual capital refer to in a business context? a. Tangible assets such as machinery and equipment b. The value of a company’s employee knowledge, skills, and proprietary information c. Financial capital invested by shareholders d. Physical infrastructure and real estate Correct answer: b. The value of a company’s employee knowledge, skills, and proprietary information Detailed Solution: Intellectual capital encompasses intangible assets, including employee expertise, organizational processes, and proprietary knowledge that contribute to a company’s competitive advantage QUESTION 2: Which of the following is considered a subset of intellectual capital? a. Inventory management b. Brand awareness c. Accounts receivable d. Fixed assets Correct answer: b. Brand awareness Detailed Solution: Brand awareness is one of the subsets of intellectual capital. Other subsets include human capital, information capital, and instructional capital. QUESTION 3: How is intellectual capital typically measured? a. Using a standardized method accepted across all organizations b. By integrating it directly into the balance sheet c. Through the balanced scorecard approach d. By quantifying tangible assets Correct answer: c. Through the balanced scorecard approach Detailed Solution: Measuring intellectual capital is subjective, and various methods exist. The balanced scorecard, which considers financial, customer, internal processes, and organizational capacity perspectives, is one approach. However, there is no uniform standard accepted industry-wide QUESTION 4: According to Edvinsson & Malone, the Book Value of a company is: a. human capital + structural capital b. Assets + Stock price c. Stock price – outstanding shares d. Assets - Liabilities Correct answer: d. Assets - Liabilities Detailed Solution: A company's book value is the sum of all the line items in a balance sheet's shareholders' equity section. The book value represents the value of a company’s total assets minus its total liabilities. QUESTION 5: Match the components of intellectual capital with their examples: 1) Human Capital A) brand value 2) Structural Capital B) competence 3) Relational Capital C) intellectual property 4) Social Capital D) cooperative action a. 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B b. 1-A, 2-D, 3-C, 4-B c. 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D d. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D Correct answer: d. 1-B, 2-C, 3-A, 4-D Detailed Solution: Individual education, know-how, and competence are examples of human capital. Structural capital includes Intellectual property and Infrastructural assets. Relational capital includes brand, recognition, and goodwill. Support, cooperative action, networks, trust, and mutual understanding are included in social capital. QUESTION 6: Annual turnover of staff and Leadership index are IC measures for which of Skandia’s focus areas: a. Human focus b. Renewal focus c. Financial focus d. Process focus Correct Answer: A human focus Detailed Solution: Skandia uses 91 new IC measures (or metrics) and 73 traditional (accounting) measures in the five focus areas. Human Focus measures include managers with advanced degrees (nr), annual turnover of staff (%), and leadership index (%). QUESTION 7: Ante Pulic’s method of measuring intellectual capital is called: a. Intellectual Capital Index b. The Technology Broker c. Value Added Intellectual Coefficient d. Intangible Asset Monitor Correct answer: c. Value-added Intellectual Coefficient Detailed Solution: Ante Pulic's value-added intellectual coefficient (VAIC) is designed to assess the efficiency of key resources in business organizations. The key assumption is that human capital is an investment, not a cost. QUESTION 8: Which of the following is NOT one of the strengths of the IC index: a. it is generalizable across companies b. it focuses on the monitoring of IC dynamics c. it can take into account prior performance d. it is self-correcting Correct answer: a. It is generalizable across companies Detailed Solution: Several scholars have attempted to merge different IC measures into a single index. However, one of the areas for improvement of the IC index is that it is context- specific and cannot be generalized across companies. QUESTION 9: Which of the following statements is most closely related to the Technology Broker method: a. Value-added = Output – Input b. 20 questions make up the IC Indicator c. concentrates on changes in Market Value Added occurring from new projects d. Three families of intangible assets: External structure, internal structure, and individual competence Correct answer: b. 20 questions make up the IC Indicator Detailed Solution: According to Annie Brooking, Intellectual Capital can be divided into four main components: market assets, human-centered assets, intellectual property assets, and infrastructure assets. This method first identifies intellectual capital through a questionnaire consisting of 20 questions. After this test, the organization’s ability to comply with the questionnaire is evaluated. The fewer the questions fully responded to by the organization, the greater the need for backing its intellectual capital structure. QUESTION 10: In Sveiby’s framework, management, legal structure, manual systems, and attitudes are used to measure: a. External structure b. Visible equity c. Individual competence d. Internal structure Correct answer: d. Internal structure Detailed Solution: Sveiby proposes a conceptual framework based on three families of intangible assets. The internal structure includes the organization: management, legal structure, manual systems, attitudes, R&D, software, etc. QUESTION 11: Which of the following types of assets have limited capacity: a. Intangible asset b. Invisible asset c. Tangible asset d. Intellectual asset Correct answer: c. Tangible asset Detailed Solution: Tangible assets have ownership properties and are fixed, current assets, such as land, equipment, stocks, debtors, and bank deposits. QUESTION 12: The intellectual capital of an organization includes: a. Financial Capital and Structural Capital b. Relational Capital and Physical Capital c. Human Capital and Relational Capital d. Financial Capital and Physical Capital Correct answer: c. Human Capital and Relational Capital Detailed solution: Intellectual Capital includes Human Capital (HR and Company capacities of creating value and innovation), Structural Capital (to support HR activities, such as Systems, processes, and technology), and Relational Capital (the value of the relationship with the stakeholders). QUESTION 13: Innovation and know-how of employees is an example of: a. Tangible Internal resource b. Intangible Internal resource c. Tangible External resource d. Intangible External resource Correct answer: b. Intangible Internal resource Detailed solution: There are several ways in which Human Resources can add value to an organization. The know-how of employees and innovation are intangible resources that add internal value. QUESTION 14: ABC Bank wanted to measure its IC. Which of the following indicators would be best suited to measure the level of Human Capital in the bank: a. People with high motivation b. Number of internet portals c. New products released d. Number of customer complaints Correct Answer: a. People with high motivation Detailed Solution: The indicators of Human Capital include employee motivation, which can be estimated through job performance and quality. QUESTION 15: The only intangible assets that have found a place in corporate financial statements are: a. Stock prizes b. Employee Skills c. Bonds d. Patents/Trademarks Correct answer: d. Patents/Trademarks Detailed Solution: There is limited disclosure of intellectual capital-related items, and the information provided is based on voluntary disclosures. The only intangible assets that have found a place in corporate financial statements are intellectual property, such as patents, trademarks, and acquired items like goodwill.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 1 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: Who coined the term “Human Resource Development” (HRD): a. Hamlin and Stewart b. Leonard Nadler c. Robert Owen d. Fomburn Correct Answer: b. Leonard Nadler Detailed Solution: Option b Leonard Nadler coined the term “Human Resource Development” (HRD). QUESTION 2: Which of the following is not a challenge for HRD professionals? a. Stagnant workforce demographic b. Competing in the global economy c. Eliminating the skill gap d. Need for lifelong learning Correct Answer: a. Stagnant workforce demographic Detailed Solution: Changing workforce demographics is a challenge for HRD professionals, not stagnant workforce demographics. QUESTION 3: Which of the following definitions of HRD is correct? a. Human resource development is the process of increasing the capacity of the human resource through development b. Human resource development is fostering short-term work-related learning capacity at individual, group, and organizational level c. A set of systematic and planned activities designed by an organization to provide its members with the necessary skills to meet the financial demands of the organization d. Human resource development is fostering short-term work-related learning capacity at an organizational level Correct Answer: a. Human resource development is the process of increasing the capacity of the human resource through development Detailed Solution: Option A is correct because HRD fosters long-term learning capacities, not short-term ones, and it is the process of increasing the capacity of human resources through development. QUESTION 4: Who suggested 5 principles of Organizational learning? a. Robert Owen b. T.V Rao c. Peter Senge d. Chris Argyris Correct Answer: c. Peter Senge Detailed Solution: Peter Senge - 5 Principles suggested to become a learning organization QUESTION 5: Which of the following is not one of the 5 learning organization principles? a. individual learnings b. personal mastery c. shared visions d. system thinking Correct Answer: a. individual learning Detailed Solution: Options b, c, and d are correct. A is not a principle of learning organization. QUESTION 6: Employee orientation and coaching are primarily related to which of the following functions of HRD: a. Scholarship b. Organizational development c. Training d. Personal growth Correct Answer: c. Training Detailed Solution: Training is improving the knowledge, skills, and attitudes of employees for the short-term, particular to a specific job or task – e.g., Employee orientation and coaching, etc. QUESTION 7: What improves an organization's effectiveness and member's well-being by applying behavioral science concepts ? a. organization learning b. Organizational Development c. Education d. Counselling Correct Answer: b. Organizational Development Detailed Solution: Organizational development is a planned, systematic change in the values or operations of employees to create overall growth in a company or organization. QUESTION 8: Professional associations, government departments, and voluntary organizations represent HRD at the: a. micro level b. individual level c. macro level d. both macro and micro levels Correct Answer: c. macro level Detailed Solution: HRD at the community/societal level includes professional associations, educational institutions, government departments, community groups, and voluntary organizations. QUESTION 9: Which of the following is correct in the context of HRD? a. reactiveness b. routine c. administrative d. proactiveness Correct Answer: d. proactiveness Detailed Solution: HRD is a proactive process. The rest of the options are true in the context of HRM. QUESTION 10: From an Organizational perspective, how many performance variables are there: a. 9 b.12 c. 6 d.18 Correct Answer: a. 9 Detailed Solution: From an Organizational perspective, 9 performance variables are formed by combining 3 performance needs and 3 performance levels. QUESTION 11: Which of the following is the role of the supervisor in HRD? a. On-the-job training b. Off-the-job training c. Research d. Promotes HRD as a profit enhancer Correct Answer: a. On-the-job training Detailed Solution: The supervisor's role in HRD includes on-the-job training but not off-the- job training. QUESTION 12: In which role does the HRD professional implement coaching activities: a. HRD professional as instructor b. HRD professional as consultant c. HRD professional as researcher d. HRD professional as an executive Correct Answer: b. HRD professional as a consultant. Detailed Solution: HRD professional as consultant implements coaching activities. QUESTION 13: Which of the following is true in the context of HRM: a. Effective utilization of people for better performance b. Creative and continuous process c. Concerned with developing knowledge, skills, and attitudes to improve performance and behavior d. Developing the competence of the people Correct Answer: a. Effective utilization of people for better performance Detailed Solution: Option A is true. The rest of the options are correct in the context of HRD. QUESTION 14: Which of the options defines “career development”: a. process by which groups progress through single change actions to achieve their professional achievement as per the organization b. Developing the skills and attitude not directly related to the job linked to personal growth and development: c. process of improving an organization’s effectiveness and member’s well-being through the application of behavioral science concepts d. process by which individuals progress through a series of changes until they achieve their maximum achievement. Correct Answer: d. The process by which individuals progress through a series of changes until they achieve their level of maximum achievement. Detailed Solution: Process by which individuals progress through a series of changes until they achieve their maximum achievement. QUESTION 15: Which of the following is not one of the core principles of andragogy: a. Motivation b. Self-concept of learner c. Forced conditioning of learner d. Readiness to learn and practice Correct Answer: c. Forced conditioning of learners Detailed Solution: Andragogy is the art or science of teaching or helping adults learn. In contrast to pedagogy, or the teaching of children, andragogy is based on a humanistic conception of self-directed and autonomous learners where teachers are defined as facilitators of learning.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 6 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: What is the primary role of a sponsor in an organization? a. Providing advice and guidance to junior employees b. Advocating for career advancement and opportunities c. Offering emotional support during challenging times d. Facilitating team-building activities Correct Answer: b. Advocating for career advancement and opportunities Detailed Solution: Sponsors actively champion their protégés within the organization, opening doors for promotions, career growth, and other opportunities. Unlike developmental mentors who provide guidance, sponsors directly impact the protégé’s career trajectory. QUESTION 2: Identify which of the following is the role of a line manager: a. help learners build relationships with team members b. help the learner develop insight into the cause of poor performance c. challenge learner’s thinking and assumptions d. be a role model for personal growth Correct Answer: a. Help learner build a relationship with team members Detailed Solution: Helping the learner build relationships with team members is the role of the line manager, not the mentor. QUESTION 3: The objectives of the mentoring programme are specified in which of these steps of the implementation process: a. Introduction of the programme b. creation of mentoring structures c. training of coordinators d. evaluation of the programme Correct Answer: a. Introduction of the programme Detailed Solution: Setting the objectives of the mentoring program is part of the first step in implementation, which is the program's Introduction. QUESTION 4: At which stage of the mentoring programme uses brochures, newsletters, posters, and E-mail notices to provide information: a. Creating mentoring implementation structures b. Identifying mentors/mentees c. Training of mentoring coordinators d. Introducing the mentoring programme Correct Answer: b. Identifying mentors/mentees Detailed Solution: Information in brochures, newsletters, posters, and E-mail notices are used to indicate the benefits /promote the program in interactive sessions so that mentors and mentees can be identified. QUESTION 5: The final step in the implementation of the mentoring programme is: a. Training the mentors b. Goal-setting c. Implementation d. Evaluation and feedback Correct Answer: d. Evaluation and feedback Detailed Solution: Systematic evaluation of the mentoring process is essential to implementing a mentoring programme. QUESTION 6: Which of the following terms are NOT associated with the mentoring process: a. reciprocal b. static c. mentee d. mentor Correct Answer: b. static Detailed Solution: Mentoring is a dynamic (not static) and reciprocal relationship in a work environment between an advanced career incumbent (mentor) and a beginner (mentee) aimed at promoting career development for both. QUESTION 7: Which of the following questions can be used to evaluate the Program Outputs of the mentoring relationship: a. Are meetings sufficiently frequent? b. How many learning objectives were reached? c. How many mentees are suitable for promotion after the mentoring process? d. Has the mentee improved? Correct Answer: c. How many mentees are suitable for promotion after the mentoring process? Detailed Solution: One of how the program outputs can be evaluated is by using questions such as "How many mentees are suitable for promotion after the mentoring process?” and “Have performance appraisal scores in key competencies increased?” QUESTION 8: An informal/Long-term mentoring process would be most suitable in which of these situations: a. new employees or graduate students b. Grooming to take over position c. “friendship” mentoring d. off-the-cuff strong intervention Correct Answer: c. “friendship” mentoring Detailed Solution: "Friendship" mentoring is a long-term process in which boundaries are often established organically over time. Mentor and mentee adapt to each other’s needs and feelings, and boundaries are flexible. It is an informal relationship in which mentors offer emotional support through empathy, understanding, and shared experiences. QUESTION 9: 'Getting the message right' is essential for which of the following stages of the formal mentoring lifecycle: a. Scale stage b. Creation stage c. Pilot stage d. Concept stage Correct Answer: a. Scale stage Detailed Solution: The scale stage of the mentoring lifecycle involves active mentoring. The mentor provides guidance, shares knowledge, and helps the mentee develop skills. In this stage, it is essential to get the right message across. QUESTION 10: What is the key responsibility of a mentee in an organization? a. Actively seeking guidance and feedback from the mentor to enhance professional skills and knowledge. b. Managing organizational finances. c. Conducting performance appraisals. d. Handling administrative tasks. Correct Answer: a. Actively seeking guidance and feedback from the mentor to enhance professional skills and knowledge. Detailed Solution: In an organization, a mentee’s role includes actively seeking guidance, demonstrating a willingness to learn, and setting clear goals for professional development. QUESTION 11: At the end of a mentoring program, the mentee can integrate into the system and has improved technical competence. Which quality has the mentee developed: a. Wisdom b. Resilience c. Knowledge d. Independence Correct Answer: c. Knowledge Detailed Solution: One of the primary benefits for mentees is gaining knowledge. Mentees learn about specific topics, industry practices, and problem-solving techniques through regular interactions with their mentors. This knowledge can be both practical (such as technical skills) and strategic (such as understanding organizational dynamics). QUESTION 12: A senior mentor in Company X had the technical skills but needed to be more empathetic and ready to listen to the mentee. In which area is the mentor lacking: a. credibility b. emotional responsibility c. leadership d. experience Correct Answer: b. emotional responsibility Detailed Solution: One of the requirements of a good mentor is to have the emotional maturity and availability to empathize with the mentee and listen to their problems and issues. QUESTION 13: What is reverse mentoring? a. A traditional mentorship where senior employees guide junior counterparts. b. A partnership where junior employees mentor senior employees, often on technology and innovation. c. A program where senior executives learn from their peers in the same age group. d. A process where employees switch roles between mentor and mentee periodically. Correct Answer: b. A partnership where junior employees mentor senior employees, often on technology and innovation Detailed Solution: Reverse mentoring is where younger employees mentor older ones, often from different generations, to bridge the generational gap and enhance skills and innovation. QUESTION 14: Choose the INCORRECT statement about advice for potential mentors: a. break the ice by sharing some of your career experiences b. Stay in your zone of expertise/experience c. Be clear that the mentee sets the pace of the relationship d. Manage, do not advice Correct Answer: d. Manage, do not advice Detailed Solution: Option d is correct because mentors should advise, not manage, their mentees. QUESTION 15: Which of the following is the best way to begin a formal mentoring relationship: a. giving complex instructions/feedback b. asking broad informal questions c. sharing sensitive personal information d. providing impressions of third parties Correct Answer: b. asking broad informal questions Detailed Solution: The beginning of a formal mentoring program needs to build comfort/trust. Start with small/talk - common Ground (Background, education, weather, traffic, family, travel); Begin with broad, open-ended questions.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 5 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: During the process of coaching, the one who provides one-on-one coaching is referred to as: a. Coach b. Coachee c. Trainee d. Client Correct Answer: a. Coach Detailed Solution: Coach refers to the one who provides one-on-one coaching. Coachee refers to the one who gets the professional service, namely, the executive. The client refers to the stakeholders, including senior executives and HR representatives. QUESTION 2: What is the role of HRD professionals in coaching: a. Advise and demonstrate desired teamwork behaviors and skills b. Provide training to correct performance problems c. Establish and clarify the goals of the session d. Develop a plan to accomplish the tasks and responsibilities Correct Answer: b. Provide training to correct performance problems Detailed Solution: The role of HRD professionals is to provide training to correct performance problems. QUESTION 3: The focus of coaching is: a. problem-centered b. people-centered c. money-centered d. training centered Correct Answer: a. A centered Detailed Solution: The focus of coaching is problem-centered. QUESTION 4: Arrange these steps of coaching in the correct order- 1. Responding to poor performance, 2. Using a coaching discussion, 3. Conducting a coaching analysis, 4. Defining poor performance: a. 4,1,2,3 b. 4,3,2,1 c. 4,1,3,2 d. 3,4,2,1 Correct Answer: c. 4,1,3,2 Detailed Solution: The correct sequence of coaching is – 1. Defining poor performance, 2. responding to poor performance, 3. conducting a coaching analysis, 4. Using the coaching discussion. QUESTION 5: Which of the following is the antecedent in the Conceptual Framework for Understanding coaching: a. coaching approach b. coaching relationship c. coachee characteristics d. individual success Correct Answer: c. Coachee characteristics Detailed Solution: Coachee characteristics are the antecedent in the Conceptual Framework for understanding coaching. QUESTION 6: Showing favoritism and gossiping are examples of types of deviant workplace behavior: a. Production deviance b. Property deviance c. Political deviance d. Personal aggression Correct Answer: c. Political deviance Detailed Solution: Deviant workplace behavior can be defined as “voluntary behavior that violates significant organizational norms, and in doing so threatens the well-being of an organization, its members, or both. Political deviance includes showing favoritism and gossiping. QUESTION 7: What are the two types of performance standards: a. Absolute and standard b. Absolute and relative c. Absolute and reliable d. Reliable and appropriate Correct Answer: b. Absolute and relative Detailed Solution: Absolute and relative are the two types of performance standards. QUESTION 8: What do you understand by Causal Attribution Theory: a. Assumes or attributes behavior comes from a cause within a person b. Attributes behavior comes from surrounding people c. People assign causes to behavior d. People assign causes to supervisor Correct Answer: c. People assign causes to behavior Detailed Solution: Causal Attribution Theory-  People assign causes to behavior.  Different actions are likely based on internal versus external attributions. QUESTION 9: One of the critical success factors for coaching is supplementing the initial framing of the situation with an assessment to determine if there is a gap between the executive’s goals and reality. This factor is also known as: a. Conditions b. Commitment c. Continuous improvement d. Clarity Correct Answer: a. Conditions Detailed Solution: Organizations should approach implementing coaching services from a systems perspective. For example, when coaching becomes a normal and accepted activity within an organization, it has the potential to 'ripple out' into a broader and richer learning culture. Therefore, the conditions of coaching are critical factors for success. QUESTION 10: “Engaging in ongoing cycles of action with intentional reflection to ensure that actions achieve the desired results, including celebration of successes and making adjustments as needed" explains which of the critical success factors for coaching: a. continuous improvement b. conditions c. clarity d. commitment Correct Answer: a. continuous improvement Detailed Solution: continuous improvement - Engaging in ongoing cycles of action with intentional reflection to ensure that actions achieve the desired results, including celebrating successes and making adjustments as needed. QUESTION 11: Define Coaching analysis: a. The process of analyzing the employees that contribute to satisfactory performance and deciding on the appropriate response to improve performance b. The process of analyzing the employees that contribute to unsatisfactory performance and deciding on the appropriate response to hire new ones c. The process of analyzing the factors that contribute to satisfactory performance and deciding on the appropriate response to improve performance d. The process of analyzing the factors that contribute to unsatisfactory performance and deciding on the appropriate response to improve performance Correct Answer: d. The process of analyzing the factors that contribute to unsatisfactory performance and deciding on the appropriate response to improve performance Detailed Solution: Coaching analysis is the process of analyzing the factors contributing to unsatisfactory performance and deciding on the appropriate response to improve performance. QUESTION 12: Which part of the GROW model includes offering suggestions: a. reality b. options c. goal d. will Correct Answer: b. options Detailed Solution: Option B is correct. QUESTION 13: Which of the following is not a component of Kinlaw’s Approach: a. Confronting or presenting b. Using reactions to develop information c. Resolving or resolution d. Follow-up to measure results Correct Answer: d. Follow-up to measure results Detailed Solution: Kinlaw’s Approach:  Confronting or presenting  Using reactions to develop information  Resolving or resolution QUESTION 14: Which of the following is not an essential skill of Coach: a. enables b. facilitates c. encourages d. gives judgments Correct Answer: d. gives judgments Detailed Solution: Making judgments is wrong. Instead, a coach suspends judgments. QUESTION 15: Which of the following is an enabling factor for a coach to achieve success in coaching: a. learning style a b. ability c. support systems d. motivation Correct Answer: b. ability Detailed Solution: enabling factor in coach to achieve success in coaching: Skills, ability, and style  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 4 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: Which of the following methods should be used for novice learners according to the learning pyramid: a. exploratory b. guided c. creative d. focused Correct Answer: b. guided Detailed Solution: Novice learners need more guided and factual programmes. QUESTION 2: Identify which of these is a classroom training delivery method: a. roleplay b. computer-based Training c. coaching d. mentoring Correct Answer: a. roleplay Detailed Solution: Classroom training approaches are conducted outside the normal work setting. In the roleplaying technique, trainees are presented with an organizational situation, assigned a role or character, and asked to act out the role with one or more other trainees. The role play should offer trainees an opportunity for self-discovery and learning. QUESTION 3: The type of lecture method in which groups of trainees present topics to the class is called: a. Standard lecture b. Team teaching c. Panels d. Student presentations Correct Answer: d. Student presentations Detailed Solution: Student presentations are an alternate form of the lecture method in which the trainees present information to the class. QUESTION 4: Which type of question is used to produce a very narrow response? a. Reflective questions b. Open-ended questions c. Direct questions d. Leading questions Correct Answer: c. Direct questions Detailed Solution Direct questions are designed to elicit specific, concise answers. They focus on a particular aspect and often have a straightforward answer. For example, asking, "Who are the key players in this case?" is a direct question seeking a narrow response. QUESTION 5: Audio cassettes, CDs, Film are examples of: a. static media b. dynamic media c. telecommunication d. behaviour modeling Correct Answer: b. dynamic media Detailed Solution: Techniques that present dynamic sequences of events are considered dynamic media and include compact discs (CDs), DVDs (high-definition DVDs), diskettes, videotapes, film, and audiocassettes. QUESTION 6: Arrange the steps to prepare a case study in the correct order- 1. Prepare a story outline, 2. Identify a story, 3. Prepare case materials; 4. Gather information, 5. Decide on administrative issues: a. 34215 b. 23451 c. 24153 d. 34215 Correct Answer: c. 24153 Detailed Solution: The correct sequence of steps to prepare a case study is to identify a story, Gather information, Prepare a story outline, Decide on administrative issues, and Prepare case materials. QUESTION 7: The type of group-building activity that places team members in a realistic context while learning is known as: a. panel discussion b. guided team self-correction c. action learning d. scenario-based Training Correct Answer: d. scenario-based Training Detailed Solution: Scenario-based Training is an immersive training environment where learners meet realistic work challenges and get realistic feedback as they progress since everything that happens reflects the learner's choices. QUESTION 8: Which of the following is a weakness of on-the-job Training: a. Training at one’s regular workstation b. Facilitating training transfer to the job c. Reduced training costs d. No formal structure Correct Answer: d. No formal structure Detailed Solution: If on-the-job Training is conducted informally, without structure, planning, or careful thought, it can lead to increased error rates, lower productivity, and decreased training efficiency. QUESTION 9: What is the primary advantage of self-paced CBT? a. Reduced learner engagement b. Standardized content delivery c. Flexibility for learners d. Limited content variety Correct Answer: c. Flexibility for learners Detailed Solution: Self-paced CBT allows learners to progress at their speed, accommodating different learning styles and schedules. QUESTION 10: The evaluation used to identify weaknesses in instructional material, methods, or learning objectives to develop prescriptive solutions is called: a. Formative evaluation b. Summative evaluation c. Formal evaluation d. Instructional evaluation Correct Answer: a. Formative evaluation Detailed Solution: Formative evaluation is gathering and analyzing feedback during developing or implementing a program, project, or product. It identifies strengths, weaknesses, and areas for improvement to make adjustments to improve its quality. QUESTION 11: According to the Kirkpatrick model, Trainee satisfaction will be an outcome to evaluate which of these criteria: a. Results b. Behavior c. Learning d. Reactions Correct Answer: d. Reactions Detailed Solution: The Kirkpatrick Model is a widely recognized framework for evaluating and analyzing the effectiveness of training and educational programs. Level 1: Reaction - This level measures participants' initial reactions to the Training, including trainee satisfaction. QUESTION 12: Which of the following are categories used for evaluation in Holten’s model: a. Context, Input, Process, Product b. Secondary Influences, Motivation Elements, Environmental Elements, Enabling Elements c. Goal setting, Program Design, Program Implementation, Immediate outcomes d. Cognitive outcomes, Skill-based outcomes, Affective outcomes Correct Answer: b. Secondary Influences, Motivation Elements, Environmental Elements, Enabling Elements Detailed Solution: Holten’s (1996) model identifies five categories of variables and their relationships: Secondary Influences, Motivation Elements, Environmental Elements, Outcomes, and Ability/Inability Elements. QUESTION 13: Which of these outcomes can be evaluated by observing trainees’ performance in work samples such as simulators: a. cognitive outcomes b. reaction outcomes c. skill-based outcomes d. return-on-investment Correct Answer: c. skill-based outcomes Detailed Solution: The extent to which trainees have learned skills can be evaluated by observing their performance in work samples such as simulators. QUESTION 14: The extent to which training outcomes measure inappropriate capabilities or are affected by extraneous conditions is known as: a. criterion contamination b. reliability c. discrimination d. practicality Correct Answer: a. Criterion contamination Detailed Solution: Criterion contamination refers to a situation in which factors unrelated to the concept being measured influence a response measure (the criterion). Essentially, it occurs when the measurement of a particular variable is affected by extraneous or irrelevant factors, leading to potential distortions in the assessment. QUESTION 15: Which of the following would be classified as Systemwide Performance Data collected for HRD evaluation: a. Test scores b. Attendance records c. Product liability claims d. Customer satisfaction levels Correct Answer: d. Customer satisfaction levels Detailed Solution: Customer satisfaction levels are an example of systemwide performance data. Test scores and attendance records are individual-level data, while product liability claims are economic data.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 3 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: What do you understand by the term "front-end analysis" in the context of need assessment? a. A single step of analysis that leads to plans for overcoming deficiencies in human performance b. A series of analytical and decision-making steps that lead to plans for overcoming deficiencies in human performance c. A series of decision-making steps lead to plans for overcoming deficiencies in machinery performance d. A series of analytical steps that lead to plans for overcoming deficiencies in human hiring process Correct Answer: b. A series of analytical and decision-making steps that lead to plans for overcoming deficiencies in Human Performance Detailed Solution: A series of analytical and decision-making steps that lead to plans for overcoming deficiencies in Human Performance QUESTION 2: Arrange the following steps of the need analysis process in the correct order- 1. Present training recommendation 2. Perform gap analysis 3. Determine current knowledge levels 4. Understand your environment, 5. Identify learning objectives: a. 2,3,5,4,1 b. 4,5,2,3,1 c. 4,5,3,2,1 d. 4,3,5,2,1 Correct Answer: c. 4,5,3,2,1. Detailed Solution: The correct order of the need analysis process is to understand your environment, identify learning objectives, determine current knowledge levels, Perform gap analysis, and Present training recommendations. QUESTION 3: Which type of needs identify new or better ways to do things: a. Performance needs b. Analytic needs c. Compliance needs d. Diagnostic needs Correct Answer: b. analytical needs Detailed Solution: Analytical needs help identify new or better ways to do things. QUESTION 4: Which of the following is true in the context of a structured questionnaire: a. asks employees what they know, have experience, or actually do. b. questionnaire is difficult to analyze and summarize c. requests typically information on a specific phenomenon and its importance. d. questionnaire with unlimited close-ended questions is among the most frequently used Correct Answer: c. requests typically information on a specific phenomenon and its importance. Detailed Solution: Structured questionnaires typically request information on a specific phenomenon and its importance. A structured questionnaire with limited open-ended questions are among the most frequently used. QUESTION 5: What level of needs assessment determines where training is needed and under what conditions: a. Person b. Organization c. Task d. Process Correct Answer: b. Organization Detailed Solution: The organizational analysis is aimed at shortlisting the focus areas for training within the organization and the factors that may affect the same. Organizational mission, vision, goals, people inventories, processes, and performance data are all studied. QUESTION 6: In which of the following data collection methods experts identifies what needs to be done: a. telephone interview b. DACUM c. questionnaire d. face-to-face interview Correct Answer: b. DACUM Detailed Solution: In the DCCUM/Delphi technique of data collection, experts identify what needs to be done. QUESTION 7: Which type of gap analysis finds deficiencies in skills, attitude, and knowledge needed by employees to carry out their assignments and duties is called: a. Organizational gaps b. Management gaps c. Need gaps d. Performance gaps Correct Answer: c. Needs gaps Detailed Solution: The need gap analysis is a way to find out which skills and knowledge need to be improved among the employees in the organization. It is the difference between skills employers want or need and skills their workforce offers. QUESTION 8: Select the correct set of levels for need assessment: a. organization, task, and person b. organization, machine, feedback c. organization, person, feedback d. organization, task, outcome Correct Answer: a. organization, task, and person Detailed Solution: Organization, task, and person are correct in setting the level for need assessment. QUESTION 9: Which of the following actions is done at the organizational analysis level of the need assessment process (Knoe, 2010): a. work activity b. feedback c. strategic direction d. evaluation Correct Answer: c. strategic direction Detailed Solution: Strategic direction is done at the organizational analysis level of the need assessment process (Knoe, 2010). QUESTION 10: What is the first step of designing a training program: a. setting lessons for development b. selecting trainer c. preparing materials d. setting objectives Correct Answer: b. setting objectives Detailed Solution: Creating meaningful, relatable, and effective training objectives is important for the overall success of participating employees. Setting objectives is usually the first step because it gives the course or program purpose and leads the training design process. QUESTION 11: What are the sources for collection of data about a specific job or group of Jobs: a. job description b. systems change c. mission statement d. Quality of Working Life indicators Correct Answer: a. job description Detailed Solution: Sources Include: Job descriptions Task analysis Performance standards Perform job Observe job Ask questions QUESTION 12: ‘What are the characteristics of the trainees?’ is related to which of these features of a lesson plan: a. Lesson outline b. Lesson outcome c. Support material d. Target audience Correct Answer: d. Target audience Detailed Solution: Once a training program has been designed, the trainer must create an effective lesson plan. The lesson plan is the blueprint that outlines the activities and a step-by- step breakdown of what will take place in the training session. One of the components of a lesson plan is identifying the target audience, which can be done through questions like ‘Who is in the lesson?’ and ‘What are the characteristics of the trainees?’ QUESTION 13: “Discover performance reasons" explains which type of person analysis: a. summary analysis b. diagnostic analysis c. preferred analysis d. system analysis Correct Answer: b. diagnostic Detailed Solution: Diagnostic analysis discovers reasons for Performance. QUESTION 14: Define the term “performance gaps”: a. deficiencies in skills, knowledge, and attitude the employees need to carry out their tasks and duties. b. deficiencies in how employees are managed and motivated within the organization c. deficiencies in how the organization manages Performance, designs jobs, or reinforces and rewards performance. d. deficiencies in the way organizations are conceived, designed, and managed. Correct Answer: c. deficiencies in the way the organization manages Performance, designs jobs, or reinforces and rewards performance Detailed Solution: Performance gaps- deficiencies in how the organization manages Performance, designs jobs, or reinforces and rewards Performance. QUESTION 15: What is the last step of The Strategic Training and Development Process: a. matric that shows the value of training b. a business strategy c. strategic training and development initiatives, d. training and development activities Correct Answer: a. matric that shows the value of training Detailed Solution: Step of The Strategic Training and Development Process- 1. business strategy, 2. strategic training and development initiatives, 3. training and development activities, 4. matric that show the value of training.  NPTEL Online Certification Courses Indian Institute of Technology Kharagpur Human Resource Development Assignment- Week 2 TYPE OF QUESTION: MCQ Number of questions: 15 Total mark: 15 X 1 = 15 MCQ Question QUESTION 1: Which of the following is a component of the theory of HRD: a. political b. philosophical c. physical d. psychological Correct Answer: d. psychological Detailed Solution: Theory of HRD is proposed to be the integration of psychological, economic, and system theories within an ethical frame. QUESTION 2: Which of the following corresponds to the Chaos Theory of HRD: a. HRD must help its host organization retain its purpose and effectiveness given the uncertainty it faces b. HRD must help its host organization shape alternative futures c. HRD must understand how it and other subsystems connect and disconnect from the host organization d. HRD must develop the knowledge and expertise of individual contributors, work process owners, and organizational leaders Correct Answer: a. HRD must help its host organization retain its purpose and effectiveness given the uncertainty it faces Detailed Solution: Chaos theory focuses on understanding the behavior of dynamical systems that are highly sensitive to initial conditions. These systems were once thought to be completely random, but chaos theory reveals underlying patterns and deterministic laws. QUESTION 3: Which of the following statements is incorrect: a. Gestalt theory focuses on the whole rather than the parts b. Rewards and motivation systems are a part of behaviorism c. Piaget and Bruner are representative theorists of Cognitive theories d. Gestalt theories are the foundation for instructional design Correct Answer: d. Gestalt theories are the foundation for instructional design Detailed Solution: Cognitive theories are the foundation for instructional design. By considering the structure of information and the cognitive architecture that allows learners to process that information, cognitive theorists have been able to generate a unique variety of new instructional designs and procedures. QUESTION 4: Which of the following historical events led to the establishment of roots of training within organizations: a. The emancipation of the serfs in Russia and the abolition of slavery in the United States b. Concepts of scientific management c. Herbart’s psychological processes of learning as a means of devising educational programs d. Introduction of computer-based training (CBT) Correct Answer: c. Herbart’s psychological processes of learning as a means of devising educational programs Detailed Solution: Herbart's method is a scientific model of education that prioritizes the development of internal character. It consists of five formal steps in teaching: preparation, presentation, association, generalization, and application. QUESTION 5: Level 1 of Garavan’s SHRD model includes: a. Job value and uniqueness b. The global environment c. Strategy, structure, culture and leadership d. Individual expectations, employability and careers: Correct Answer: b. The global environment Detailed Solution: According to Garavan, the first level of context that shapes the SHRD activities is the global context, which consists of local, national and multinational conditions. The other levels are 2. the organizational context, including strategy, structure, culture, and leadership (Level 2); 3. the job (Level 3), and 4. the individual (Level 4). QUESTION 6: According to Peterson’s model of SHRD, developing performance standards and promoting a continuous learning culture would help in achieving which of the following objectives: a. to align systems and processes b. to forge strategic relationships c. to develop a system of accountability d. to create high-performance work systems and culture Correct Answer: d. to create high-performance work systems and culture Detailed Solution: An important characteristic of a strategically oriented HRD function concerns its focus on articulating strategic HRD goals and objectives. One of the objectives is the creation of high-performance work system and culture, which involves developing performance standards, fostering open communication and promoting a continuous learning culture. QUESTION 7: Which is the second step of the basic model to align HR strategy and actions with business strategy: a. Develop detailed HR scorecard measures b. Identify workforce requirements c. Formulate HR strategic policies and activities d. Formulate business strategy: Correct Answer: b. Identify workforce requirements Detailed Solution: The steps to translate strategy into HR Policy and Practice are 1. Formulate business strategy, 2. Identify workforce requirements, 3. Formulate HR strategic policies and activities, 4. Develop detailed HR scorecard measures QUESTION 8: Which of the following is a Traditional SHRD activity: a. Learning by doing b. Training and development records c. Knowledge management d. Cultural change programs Correct Answer: a. Learning by doing Detailed Solution: a. Learning by doing is a traditional SHRD activity. The other options fall under transformational or transactional activities. QUESTION 9: Norms, group dynamics and team work are issues related to which of the following factors influencing employee behaviour: a. Outcomes b. Supervision c. Coworkers d. Organization Correct Answer: c. Coworkers Detailed Solution: Coworkers, and especially team members, can exert a strong influence on an employee’s behavior in several ways like norms, group dynamics and team work. Norms, or informal rules for appropriate behavior established within work groups, can serve as guidelines for appropriate behavior, if the employee chooses to comply. Also, because HRD programs are often administered to groups of employees and employees must perform newly-learned behaviors in group settings, HRD professionals need to understand the effect of group dynamics on behavior. QUESTION 10: An employee receives an award for being on-time for work daily. This is an example of which method of behavior modification: a. Extinction b. Punishment c. Positive reinforcement d. Negative reinforcement Correct Answer: c. Positive reinforcement Detailed Solution: Positive reinforcement refers to increasing the frequency of a behavior by following the behavior with a pleasurable consequence. QUESTION 11: Which of the following is most stable and difficult to change: a. Attitudes b. Skills c. Knowledge d. Abilities Correct Answer: a. Attitudes Detailed Solution: Attitude is a person’s general feelings of favor or disfavor towards something, Feelings towards a person, place, thing, event, or idea. They tend to be VERY stable and hard to change QUESTION 12: Which of the following best defines the term ‘Knowledge’: a. person’s general feelings of favor or disfavor towards something b. understanding of the factors or principles related to a specific subject c. general capacities related to the performance of specific tasks d. combines abilities and capacities, generally the result of training Correct Answer: b. understanding of the factors or principles related to a specific subject Detailed Solution: Knowledge is defined as the body of information that you have that can be applied in helping you to do the job. It is the theoretical or practical understanding of a subject. QUESTION 13: The decision to participate in training activities and acquire skills is viewed as a rational choice on the part of individuals. This statement reflects which approach of SHRD: a. Human Capital Approach b. Behavioural Perspective c. Resource based Approach d. None of these Correct Answer: a. Human Capital Approach Detailed Solution: According to Human Capital Approach, SHRD can be viewed as an investment in human capital, and the decision to participate in training activities and acquire skills is viewed as a rational choice on the part of individuals QUESTION 14: Customer need satisfaction and innovation are typical metrics for measuring performance drivers for which of the following domains of performance: a. Mission b. Critical performance subsystem c. Process d. Individual Correct Answer: c. Process Detailed Solution: To understand process performance in an organization, the typical indicators include the level of customer satisfaction, innovation and quality of products and processes. QUESTION 15: Arrange these steps of HR scorecard approach in correct order- 1. Identify the required workforce behaviors, 2. Define the business strategy, 3. Outline the company’s value-chain activities, 4. Design the HR scorecard measurement system, 5. Identify the strategically relevant HR system policies and practices: a. 34215 b. 23451 c. 32514 d. 23154 Correct Answer: d. 23154 Detailed Solution: The steps of the HR Scorecard Approach to Formulating HR Policies, Activities, and Strategies are- 1. Define the business strategy, 2. Outline the company’s value-chain activities, 3. Identify the strategically required business outcomes, 4. Identify the required workforce behaviors, 5. Identify the strategically relevant HR system policies and practices, 6. Design the HR scorecard measurement system, 7. Periodically reevaluate the scorecard system