HGD Quiz Without Answers PDF

1) _________ is defined as the cell’s nucleus making an exact copy of all the chromosomes and splitting into two new cells a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Incomplete Dominance d. Eukaryogenesis 2) During _________, the gamete’s chromosomes duplicate and then divide twice, resulting in four cells containing only half the genetic material of original gamete. a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Incomplete Dominance d. Eukaryogenesis 3) The sexual reproduction cells in the body (the sperm and egg) are created by the process of: a. Mitosis b. Meiosis c. Incomplete Dominance d. Eukaryogenesis 4) The cells used in sexual reproduction are called: a. Autosomes b. Ribosomes c. Gametes d. Gonads 5) Whether we are genetically male or female depends on: a. The number of autosomes we have b. Dominant genes c. Recessive genes d. The sex chromosomes we inherit from our parents 6) The sum total of all the genes a person inherits is that persons: a. Phenotype b. Karyotype c. Prototype d. Genotype 7) Although we inherit all of our genetic material from our parents, not all of the possible features are expressed. The features that are actually expressed constitutes that persons: a. Phenotype b. Karyotype c. Prototype d. Genotyp 8) Genes that express themselves in the phenotype even when paired with a different version of the gene are called: a. Prokaryotic b. Dominate c. Eukaryotic d. Recessive 9) Genes that express themselves in the phenotype express themselves only when paired with a similar version of that gene are called: a. Prokaryotic b. Dominant c. Eukaryotic d. Recessive 10) People who have inherited only one recessive gene are called: a. Autosomes b. Carriers c. Imprints d. Mosaics 11) Monozygotic twins are also called: a. Fraternal twins b. Phenotypic twins c. Identical twins d. Genotypic twins 12) Dizygotic twins are also called: a. Fraternal twins b. Phenotypic twins c. Identical twins d. Genotypic twins 13) Monozygotic twins are formed when: a. A segment of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome b. Two eggs or ova are released and fertilized by two separate sperm c. A fertilized egg splits apart during the first two weeks of development d. A section of DNA on a chromosome is replaced by another similar sequence 14) Dizygotic twins are formed when: a. A segment of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome b. Two eggs or ova are released and fertilized by two separate sperm c. A fertilized egg splits apart during the first two weeks of development d. A section of DNA on a chromosome is replaced by another similar sequence 15) Some genetic disorders involve a defective gene on the X-chromosome. These disorders are called: a. Imprinted b. Heritable c. Sex-linked d. Recombinated 16) Who is at greater risk for sex-linked disorders due to a recessive gene? a. Males because they have only one X-chromosome b. Males because they are more affected by recessive genes in general c. Females because they are more affected by recessive genes in general d. Females because they have two X-chromosomes 17) A _________ occurs when a child inherits too many or two few chromosomes. a. Polymorphism b. Chromosomal abnormality c. Methylation d. Mutation 18) The most common cause of chromosomal abnormalities is: a. The age of the mother b. The age of the father c. Environmental conditions such as chemicals and other toxins d. Consuming undercooked meat or shellfish 19) In the human body, chromosomes are arranged in pairs. When a person has three of a certain chromosome instead of two, this causes problems. A person with three of chromosome 21 has: a. Down syndrome b. Trisomy 21 c. Both a) and b), because these terms mean the same thing 20) A sex-linked chromosomal abnormality occurs when the chromosomal abnormality occurs on: a. The 13th pair b. The 18th pair c. The 21st pair d. The 23rd pair 21) _________ is caused by enzyme deficiency resulting in the accumulation of lipids in the nerve cells of the brain. This accumulation results in progressive damage to the cells, a decrease in cognitive and physical development, and early death. a. Achondroplasia b. Tay-Sachs disease c. Huntington’s disease d. Phenylketonuria 22) ________ is a weakening of the muscles resulting in an inability to move, wasting away, and possible death. a. Duchenne muscular dystrophy b. Huntington’s disease c. Sickle cell disease d. Fragile X syndrome 23) _________ is a condition that affects breathing and digestion due to thick mucus building up in the body, especially the lungs and digestive system. a. Achondroplasia b. Phenylketonuria c. Cystic fibrosis d. Tay-Sachs disease 24) _________ occurs when part or all of one of the X-chromosomes is lost and the resulting zygote has an XO composition. a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Gonadal dysgenesis c. Mosaicism d. Turner syndrome 25) _________ results when an extra X-chromosome is present in the cells of a male and the resulting zygote has an XXY composition. a. Klinefelter syndrome b. Gonadal dysgenesis c. Mosaicism d. Turner syndrome 26) The scientific study of the interplay between the genetic and environmental contributions to behavior is called: a. Genetic counseling b. Behavioral genetics c. Genomic imprinting d. Independent assortment 27) The processes by which genetic factors contribute to variations in the environment are called: a. Homologous recombination b. Polymerase chain reaction c. Genotype-environment correlations d. Reproductive fitness 28) _________ genotype-environment correlation occurs when children passively inherit the genes and the environments their family provides. a. Active b. Passive c. Evocative d. Epigenetic 29) __________ genotype-environment correlation occurs when the social environment reacts to individuals based on their inherited characteristics. a. Active b. Passive c. Evocative d. Epigenetic 30) _________ genotype-environment correlation occurs when individuals seek out environments that support their genetic tendencies. a. Active b. Passive c. Evocative d. Epigenetics 31) An active genotype-environment correlation is also known as: a. Parental imprinting b. Genomic imprinting c. Polymorphism d. Niche picking 32) Jess is naturally athletically inclined and thus seeks out opportunities to participate in sports. This is an example of a(n) __________ genotype-environment correlation. a. Active b. Passive c. Evocative d. Epigenetics 33) Josh’s parents really enjoy music and are talented at it, so they expose Josh to a lot of music in hopes that he turns out the same way. This is an example of a(n) __________ genotype-environment correlation. a. Active b. Passive c. Evocative d. Epigenetic 34) Tiffany is discriminated against at work because she is female. This is an example of a(n) __________ genotype-environment correlation. a. Active b. Passive c. Evocative d. Epigenetic 35) Sometimes environmental effects on behavior differ based on genotype. For example, stressful environments appear to affect genetically at-risk children more than they affect children not genetically at risk. This is called a(n): a. Epigenetic variation b. Transmogrification c. Mendelian trait d. Genotype-environment interaction 36) Environmental factors, such as nutrition, stress, and teratogens, are thought to change gene expression by switching genes on and off. These gene changes can then be inherited by daughter cells and affect genetic expression as people age. The study of these changes is called: a. Epigenetics b. Evolutionary psychology c. Behavioral genetics d. Gene targeting 37) The _________ period of prenatal development lasts about 14 days. a. Germinal b. Embryonic c. Fetal d. All of the above 38) The _________ period of prenatal development begins at conception and ends when the fertilized egg implants in the lining of the uterus. a. Germinal b. Embryonic c. Fetal d. All of the above 39) A zygote: a. Contains the combined genetic information from both parents b. Implants in the lining of the uterus during the germinal period c. Is formed when the sperm fertilizes the egg d. All of the above 40) Fewer than one half of all zygotes survive beyond the first two weeks. Why? a. The egg and sperm do not join properly, so their genetic material does not combine b. There is too little or damaged genetic material c. The blastocyst does not implant into the uterine wall d. All of the above are possible reasons 41) After about five days of mitosis, the zygote contains about 100 cells and is called a(n): a. Embryo b. Blastocyst c. Trophoblast d. Fetus 42) The inner layer of the blastocyst is called the: a. Trophoblast b. Paramecium c. Embryonic disk d. Endoplasmic reticulum 43) The outer layer of the blastocyst is called the: a. Trophoblast b. Paramecium c. Embryonic disk d. Endoplasmic reticulum 44) When the blastocyst has implanted in the uterine wall at the end of the germinal period, it’s now called a(n): a. Trophoblast b. Embryo c. Fetus d. Zygote 45) The ________ is a structure connected to the uterus that provides nourishment and oxygen from the mother of the developing embryo via the umbilical cord a. Trophoblast b. Embryonic disk c. Blastocyst d. Placenta 46) __________ development occurs from head to tail. a. Proximodistal b. Latrogenic c. Cephalocaudal d. Nosocomial 47) The embryo’s head is larger than the rest of its body. This is an example of __________ development. a. Proximodistal b. Latrogenic c. Cephalocaudal d. Nosocomial 48) __________ development occurs from the middle outward. a. Proximodistal b. Latrogenic c. Cephalocaudal d. Nosocomial 49) The embryo’s internal organs develop before its fingers do. This is an example of __________ development. a. Proximodistal b. Latrogenic c. Cephalocaudal d. Nosocomial 50) The first chance of survival outside the womb, known as the age of __________, is reached at about 24 weeks gestational age. a. Epistasis b. Viability c. Homeostasis d. Heritability 51) From the ninth week post-conception until birth, the organism is referred to as a(n): a. Embryo b. Zygote c. Blastocyst d. Fetus 52) By _________ weeks gestational age, all of the fetus’ organ systems are developed enough that it could survive outside the mother’s uterus without many of the risks associated with premature birth. a. 9 b. 24 c. 37 d. 40 53) Prenatal brain development begins in the third gestational week with the differentiation of stem cells, which are located in the: a. Neural plate b. Alpha motor neurons c. Mamillary bodies d. Tectum 54) According to your textbook, which part of the brain continues to develop neurons throughout life? a. Hypothalamus b. Thalamus c. Cerebellum d. Hippocampus 55) The formation of neurons is called: a. Apoptosis b. Neurogenesis c. Spondylosis d. Praxis 56) Regions of the brain that contain the cell bodies are referred to as the: a. Gray matter b. White matter c. Dark matter d. Dura mater 57) Regions of the brain that contain the axons that form the neural pathways are referred to as the: a. Gray matter b. White matter c. Dark matter d. Dura mater 58) Myelin is: a. A fatty substance that is white in appearance b. Important for the efficiency of neural transmission c. A covering on the axons of our neurons d. All of the above 59) _________ are environmental factors that can contribute to birth defects. a. Prions b. Antigens c. Teratogens d. Neurogens 60) A factor influencing the effect that teratogens have on prenatal development is: a. Amount of exposure b. Being male or female c. Timing of exposure d. All of the above 61) The effects of fetal alcohol spectrum disorders include: a. Lower IQ scores b. Small heads c. Poor impulse control d. All of the above 62) The primary way that smoking tobacco affects prenatal development is by: a. Producing cancer cells in the lungs of the fetus b. Reducing the amount of oxygen available to the fetus c. Exposing the fetus to high levels of radiation d. Affecting the absorption of vitamins and other nutrients available to the fetus 63) __________ is a complication of pregnancy in which the fertilized egg implants itself outside of the uterus. a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Preterm birth c. Placenta previa d. Placenta abruption 64) __________ is a complication of pregnancy in which placenta lies low in the uterus and covers all or part of the cervix. a. Ectopic pregnancy b. Preterm birth c. Placenta previa d. Placenta abruption 65) Possible effects of smoking during pregnancy include: a. Problems with the health and functioning of the placenta b. Fetal growth restriction c. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome d. All of the above 66) If a baby’s mother used an addictive drug during pregnancy, that baby can get addicted to the drug before birth and go through drug withdrawal after birth. This is called: a. Neonatal abstinence syndrome b. Delirium tremens c. Spongiform encephalopathy d. Pseudobulbar effect 67) Why is it difficult to determine the effects of illicit drugs on prenatal development? a. Because women who use drugs may use more than one drug b. Because women who use drugs may be exposed to other teratogens such as alcohol and tobacco smoke c. Because women who smoke may have other unhealthy habits such as poor nutrition d. All of the above 68) Possible effects of exposure to illicit drugs during pregnancy include: a. Premature birth b. Heart defects c. Brain defects d. All of the above 69) Which of the following chemicals appears to have negative effects on prenatal development? a. Lead b. Mercury c. Bisphenol A d. All of the above 70) ___________ is a parasite found in cat feces, dirt, and uncooked meats and can cause problems during prenatal development. a. Schistosoma mansoni b. Toxoplasma gondii c. Balatidium coli d. Cystoisospora belli 71) Which of the following is NOT mentioned in your book as an illness that can cause problems during prenatal development? a. HIV b. Syphilis c. Influenza d. German measles 72) The increased risk of medical and genetic complications starts when women turn age: a. 15 b. 35 c. 21 d. 60 73) Rh disease is: a. A sexually transmitted disease b. Caused by developing diabetes during pregnancy c. A form of anemia d. Caused by developing hypertension during pregnancy 74) The emphasis of the _________ method is on teaching the woman to be in control in the process of delivery by encouraging things like muscle relaxation and breathing through contractions. a. Ferber b. Fletcher c. Lamaze d. Braxton-Hicks 75) The first stage of labor involves: a. Uterine contractions that increase in duration and frequency b. Braxton-Hicks contractions c. Passage of the baby through the birth canal d. Delivery of the placenta 76) The second stage of labor involves: a. Uterine contractions that increase in duration and frequency b. Braxton-Hicks contractions c. Passage of the baby through the birth canal d. Delivery of the placenta 77) The third stage of labor involves: a. Uterine contractions that increase in duration and frequency b. Braxton-Hicks contractions c. Passage of the baby through the birth canal d. Delivery of the placenta 78) The longest stage of labor is typically the _______ stage. a. First b. Second c. Third d. Trick questions! All three stages of labor usually last the same amount of time 79) __________ contractions are also called “false labor”. a. Ehlers-Danlos b. Machado-Joseph c. Braxton-Hicks d. Aarskog-Scott 80) A(n) ____________ is an incision made in the tissue between the vaginal opening and anus to prevent vaginal tearing. a. Cesarean section b. Episiotomy c. Laparotomy d. Vaginoplasty 81) A(n) __________ is a regional analgesic that can be used during labor and alleviates most pain in the lower body without slowing labor. a. Auscultation b. Politzerization c. Nocebo d. Epidural block 82) A(n) __________ is surgery to deliver the baby by being removed through the mother’s abdomen. a. Cesarean section b. Episiotomy c. Laparotomy d. Vaginoplasty 83) When we say that a birth is “induced”, we mean that: a. The baby is born prematurely b. The baby was conceived using some kind of fertility treatment c. The baby was delivered before labor begins d. The baby needed resuscitation immediately after birth 84) In the APGAR assessment, the P stands for: a. Proprioception b. Pulse c. Position d. Pregnancy 85) The APGAR assessment is used to assess functioning: a. During labor and delivery b. During prenatal development c. At one and five minutes after birth d. One day after birth 86) In addition to the APGAR assessment, we can also assess newborn functioning using the: a. Differential Ability Scales b. Bayley Scales of Infant Development c. Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale d. Denver Developmental Screening Questionnaire 87) A baby is considered to be of “low birth weight” if they weigh less than _________ at birth. a. 7 pounds b. 5 pounds, 8 ounces c. 3 pounds, 5 ounces d. 2 pounds 88) The average newborn in the United States weighs about ________ pounds. a. 5.5 b. 7.5 c. 10 d. 3.5 89) The average American baby will ________ their birth weight by the time they turn 1 year old. a. Double b. Triple c. Quadruple d. Trick question! Babies don’t gain any weight between birth and 1 year of age 90) __________ are branching extensions that collect information from other neurons. a. Axons b. Myelin sheaths c. Synapses d. Dendrites 91) The formation of connections between neurons is called: a. Neurogenesis b. Neural migration c. Synaptogenesis d. Predictive wiring 92) The term “synaptic blooming” refers to: a. The improvement in cognitive and motor skills as a result of synapse formation b. The period of rapid neural growth in infancy and toddlerhood c. The time period in the late 20th century when scientists learned a lot about how the brain works d. The improvement in sensory functions as a result of synapse formation 93) Which part of the neuron passes messages away from the cell body and on the other neurons? a. Axon b. Myelin sheath c. Synapse d. Dendrite 94) The process through which neural connections are reduced, thereby making those that are used much stronger, is called: a. Heterotopia b. Synaptic pruning c. Watershed infarct d. Oligemia 95) Which of the following statements about synaptic pruning is FALSE? a. It is the result of some kind of illness or injury to the brain b. It helps the brain work more efficiently c. It is affected by experience d. It continues into childhood and adolescence 96) Myelin is: a. A chemical that is released by the synapse b. A build-up of fatty deposits in our cerebral arteries c. A loss of pain sensation d. A coating of fatty tissues around the axon of the neuron 97) Which of the following is a function of the myelin? a. Speed the rate of transmission of impulses from one cell to another b. Improve coordination and control of movement and thought processes c. Insulate the nerve cell d. All of the above 98) The cortex is: a. The thin outer covering of the brain involved in voluntary activity and thinking b. The structure at the back of the brain that coordinates movement c. The part of the brain that produces cerebrospinal fluid d. A collection of fluid-filled chambers inside the brain 99) The _________ lobe is responsible for thinking, planning, memory, and judgement a. Temporal b. Frontal c. Parietal d. Occipital 100) _________ is the process in which different functions become localized primarily on one side of the brain. a. Transmogrification b. Lateralization c. Myelination d. Synaptogenesis 101) Which term refers to the brain’s ability to change, both physically and chemically, to enhance its adaptability to environmental change and compensate for injury? a. Double simultaneous stimulation b. Abulia c. Neuroplasticity d. Skew deviation 102) Approximately how much time does a newborn sleep during a 24-hour period? a. 16 b. 24 c. 8 d. 10 103) Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) is identified when: a. An infant is stillborn b. The death of a healthy infant occurs suddenly and unexpectedly, and medical and forensic investigation findings (including an autopsy) are inconclusive c. An infant accidentally suffocates from bedding, stuffed animals, or another person obstructing their breathing d. All of the above 104) Rates of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) began to decline significantly in the mid-1990s after the American Academy of Pediatrics recommended that: a. Mothers breastfeed b. Parents avoid co-sleeping with their infants c. Babies be put to bed on their backs d. Adults not smoke in houses where babies lived 105) _________ are involuntary movements in response to stimulation a. Action potentials b. Reflexes c. Gross motor skills d. Fine motor 106) The _________ reflex involves turning the head when the cheek is touched. a. Babinski b. Moro c. Tonic neck d. Rooting 107) The _________ reflex involves the toes fanning out and curling when the sole of the foot is stroked from heel to toe. a. Babinski b. Moro c. Tonic neck d. Rooting 108) Reflexes are useful because they: a. Offer pediatricians insight into the maturation and health of the nervous system b. Are important to feeding (such as the rooting and sucking reflexes) c. Are primitive forms of voluntary behaviors (such as grasping and stepping) d. All of the above 109) __________ development occurs from head to tail. a. Proximodistal b. Latrogenic c. Cephalocaudal d. Nosocomial 110) Babies learn to hold their heads up before they learn to walk. This is an example of ___________ development. a. Proximodistal b. Latrogenic c. Cephalocaudal d. Nosocomial 111) __________ development occurs from the middle outward. a. Proximodistal b. Latrogenic c. Cephalocaudal d. Nosocomial 112) Which term refers to our ability to move our bodies and manipulate objects? a. Praxis b. Asterixis c. Neuralgia d. Motor skills 113) _________ motor skills focus on the muscles in our fingers, toes, and eyes, and enable coordination of small actions. a. Gross b. Fine c. Hypertonic d. Hypotonic 114) Using a spoon is an example of a _________ motor skills. a. Gross b. Fine c. Hypertonic d. Hypotonic 115) ________ motor skills focus on large muscle groups that control our head, torso, arms and legs and involve larger movements. a. Gross b. Fine c. Hypertonic d. Hypotonic 116) Running and jumping are examples of _________ motor skills. a. Gross b. Fine c. Hypertonic d. Hypotonic 117) Which typically develops first in infants, the palmer grasp or the pincer grasp? a. Palmer b. Pincer c. Infants never develop either d. They usually develop at the same time 118) Grasping an object using the forefinger and thumb is called the: a. Limbic grasp b. Infantile grasp c. Pincer grasp d. Palmer grasp 119) Grasping an object using the hand and fingers, but not the thumb, is called the: a. Limbic grasp b. Infantile grasp c. Pincer grasp d. Palmer grasp 120) Which of the following senses appears to be least developed at birth? a. Hearing b. Touch c. Vision d. Smell 121) Infants will best be able to see things that: a. Are close to their faces (instead of far away) b. Have big patterns (instead of small ones) c. Contain high contrast colors like black and white (instead of pastels) d. All of the above 122) Typically, infants can perceive depth in both real life and pictures by: a. 1 month of age b. 4 months of age c. 6 months of age d. 1 year of age 123) Infants typically prefer to look at: a. Faces instead of other patterns b. Patterns instead of solid colors c. Unusual images instead of familiar ones d. All of the above 124) Newborns prefer to hear _______ voice over other voices. a. Their father’s b. Their own c. Their mother’s d. An autotuned 125) _________ is the surgical removal of the foreskin of the penis. a. Castration b. Circumcision c. Catheterization d. Cauterization 126) Newborns can distinguish between sour, bitter, sweet, and salty flavors and show a preference for ________ flavors. a. Salty b. Sour c. Bitter d. Sweet 127) Decreased responsiveness to a stimulus after repeated presentations is called: a. Entrenchment b. Proprioception c. Habituation d. Reticular formation 128) In general, babies who are fed breast milk have: a. Fewer instances of diarrhea and upset stomach b. Lower rates of asthma, diabetes, and SIDS c. Lower rates of ear and respiratory infections d. All of the above 129) In general, women who breastfeed have: a. Lower rates of breast and ovarian cancer b. Uterine contractions that help the uterus regain its normal size c. Reduced risk of developing Type 2 diabetes d. All of the above 130) _________ refers to starvation due to a lack of calories and protein. a. Phenylketonuria b. Kwashiorkor c. Infantile marasmus d. Sectoranopia 131) Children with ___________ have diets deficient in protein, usually because another baby has been born and taken over breastfeeding. a. Phenylketonuria b. Kwashiorkor c. Infantile marasmus d. Sectoranopia 132) Early malnutrition is associated with: a. Attention problems b. Behavioral issues at school c. Lower IQ scores d. All of the above 133) The process of fitting new information into an existing schema is called: a. Accommodation b. Assimilation c. Attribution d. Affiliation 134) Malik has a dog at home and so is familiar with what a dog is. He sees a bear for the first time and says “Doggie!” What process is he using? a. Accommodation b. Assimilation c. Attribution d. Affiliation 135) The process of expanding the framework of knowledge to accommodate the new situation is called: a. Accommodation b. Assimilation c. Attribution d. Affiliation 136) Carmen has a dog at home and so is familiar with what a dog is. She sees a bear for the first time and says “Doggie!” Her sister says “No, that’s a bear”, and Carmen now has separate schemas for dogs and bears. What process is being described here? a. Accommodation b. Assimilation c. Attribution d. Affiliation 137) The first stage of cognitive development in Piaget’s theory is the: a. Concrete operational period b. Preoperational period c. Sensorimotor period d. Formal operational period 138) Piaget’s sensorimotor period has six substages. In which substage does the infant begin to actively involve their own body in some form of repeated activity? a. Coordination of secondary circular reactions b. Beginning of representational thought c. Secondary circular reactions d. Primary circular reactions 139) Piaget’s sensorimotor period has six substages. In which substage does the infant begin to interact with objects in the environment, first accidentally and then deliberately? a. Coordination of secondary circular reactions b. Beginning of representational thought c. Secondary circular reactions d. Primary circular reactions 140) Hiromi sees a toy car under the kitchen table and then crawls, reaches, and grabs the toy. Which of Piaget’s substages is she illustrating here? a. Coordination of secondary circular reactions b. Reflexes c. Secondary circular reactions d. Tertiary circular reactions 141) The “little scientist” substage of Piaget’s sensorimotor period is also called: a. Secondary circular reactions b. Coordination of secondary circular reactions c. Beginning of representational thought d. Tertiary circular reactions 142) Rahul has a basic understanding that objects can be used as symbols and can solve problems using mental strategies, remember and repeat something heard days before, and engage in pretend play. Which of Piaget’s substages is he in? a. Tertiary circular reactions b. Beginning of representational thought c. Secondary circular reactions d. Primary circular reactions 143) _________ is the understanding that even if something is out of sight, it still exists. a. Object permanence b. Categorical schema c. Doppler effect d. Pareidolla 144) The inability to recall memories from the first few years of life is called: a. Proactive amnesia b. Source amnesia c. Infantile amnesia d. Retroactive amnesia 145) Deferred imitation is: a. Imitation of actions in order to get a reward b. Imitation of actions after a time delay c. Imitation of actions of an authority figure d. Imitation of actions in order to avoid punishment 146) The smallest unity of sound that makes a meaningful difference in a language is called a: a. Morpheme b. Grapheme c. Phoneme d. Lexeme 147) Your book defines “language” as: a. A communicative ability present in all animals b. A system of communication that uses symbols in a regular way to create meaning c. The system of communication used by a particular community or country d. The expression of ideas by means of speech-sounds combined into words 148) A string of one or more phonemes that makes up the smallest units of meaning in a language is called a: a. Morpheme b. Grapheme c. Phoneme d. Lexeme 149) The set of rules we use to obtain meaning from morphemes is called: a. Pragmatics b. Semantics c. Syntax d. Morphology 150) How we communicate effectively and appropriately with others is called: a. Pragmatics b. Semantics c. Syntax d. Morphology 151) We use contextual information, the information surrounding language, to help us interpret it. Examples of contextual information include: a. Our own knowledge b. Facial expressions c. Gestures d. All of the above 152) According to your textbook, cooing is defined as: a. Intentional vocalization that lack specific meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence b. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel sound c. The infant understanding more than they can say d. One-word expressions 153) According to your textbook, babbling is defined as: a. Intentional vocalization that lack specific meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence b. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel sound c. The infant understanding more than they can say d. One-word expressions 154) According to your textbook, receptive language is defined as: a. Intentional vocalization that lack specific meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence b. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel sound c. The infant understanding more than they can say d. One-word expressions 155) According to your textbook, holophrasic speech is defined as: a. Intentional vocalization that lack specific meaning and comprise a consonant-vowel repeated sequence b. A one-syllable combination of a consonant and a vowel sound c. The infant understanding more than they can say d. One-word expression 156) Thinking that a word can be used for only that particular object, such as thinking that “Mama” refers only to your own mother and no one else, is called: a. Overregularization b. Underregularization c. Underextension d. Overextension 157) Thinking that a label applies to all objects that are similar to the original object, such as thinking that “Mama” applies to every woman regardless of her relation to you, is called: a. Overregularization b. Underregularization c. Underextension d. Overextension 158) The first work of English-speaking children tend to be: a. Nouns b. Verbs c. Adjectives d. Adverbs 159) Utterances such as “Mommy go” or “Daddy shoe” are examples of: a. Holophrases b. Babbling c. Telegraphic speech d. Jargon 160) Infant-directed speech is also called: a. Telegraphic speech b. Baby talk c. Text message speech d. Jargon 161) Infant-directed speech involves: a. Using a high-pitched voice b. Exaggerating the vowel and consonant sounds c. Using facial expressions d. All of the above 162) Which of the following research findings supports the idea that language is not solely learned from our environment? a. Children say things (such as errors like “eated”) that they have never heard other people say b. Children may learn languages better than they ever hear them c. Children learn words too fast for them to be learned through reinforcement d. All of the above 163) The term __________ refers to the innate characteristics of the infant, including mood, activity level, and emotional reactivity, noticeable soon after birth. a. Personality b. Equilibrium c. Temperament d. Habituation 164) In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant temperaments, which type is most common? a. Difficult b. Easy c. Slow to warm up d. Trick question! These types appear to be equally common 165) In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant temperaments, a(n) ___________ infant is described as being able to quickly adapt to routine and new situations, remains calm, is easy to soothe, and usually in a positive mood. a. Difficult b. Easy c. Slow to warm up d. Undifferentiated 166) In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant temperaments, a(n) ___________ infant is described as being one who reacts negatively to new situations, has trouble adapting to routine, is usually negative in mod and cries frequently. a. Difficult b. Easy c. Slow to warm up d. Undifferentiated 167) In Chess and Thomas’ system for classifying infant temperaments, a(n) ____________ infant is described as being one who has a low activity level, adjusts slowly to new situations and is often negative in mood. a. Difficult b. Easy c. Slow to warm up d. Undifferentiated 168) The term _________ refers to how well the interaction styles and communication patterns between infants and their parents match. a. Habituation b. Personality c. Stephosymbolia d. Goodness of fit 169) The term _________ refers to an individual’s consistent pattern of feeling, thinking, and behaving. a. Personality b. Equilibrium c. Temperament d. Habituation 170) Infants begin to smile at other people who engage their positive attention at around: a. Two months of age b. Four months of age c. Six months of age d. One year of age 171) Fear in response to the presence of a stranger is called: a. Separation anxiety b. Stranger wariness c. Social referencing d. Emotional self-regulation 172) Fear in response to the departure of significant others is called: a. Separation anxiety b. Stranger wariness c. Social referencing d. Emotional self-regulation 173) The process whereby infants seek out information from others to clarify a situation and then use that information to act is called: a. Separation anxiety b. Stranger wariness c. Social referencing d. Emotional self-regulation 174) The process whereby we use strategies to control our emotional states so that we can attain goals is called: a. Separation anxiety b. Stranger wariness c. Social referencing d. Emotional self-regulation 175) Which of the following is NOT a basic emotion? a. Shame b. Sadness c. Anger d. Fear 176) Which of the following is NOT a self-conscious emotion? a. Doubt b. Envy c. Disgust d. Pride 177) The ability to experience emotions such as shame and pride requires the development of: a. Secure attachment b. Language skills c. Fine motor skills d. A self-concept 178) The realization that you are separate from others is called: a. Self-concept b. Self-awareness c. Self-esteem d. Self-serving bias 179) __________ is the close bond with a caregiver from which the infant derives a sense of security. a. Attachment b. Couvade c. Secure base d. Contact comfort 180) The infant’s need for physical closeness and touching is referred to as: a. Attachment b. Couvade c. Secure base d. Contact comfort 181) ___________ is a parental presence that gives the child a sense of safety as the child explores the surroundings. a. Attachment b. Couvade c. Secure base d. Contact comfort 182) According to Erikson, which of the following is required in order for infants to successfully resolve the crisis of Trust vs. Mistrust? a. The caregiver must consistently be responsive to the child’s needs b. The caregiver must co-sleep with the infant c. The caregiver must set firm limits on the infant d. All of the above 183) Which of the following situation could result in the infant failing to successfully resolve the crisis of Trust vs. Mistrust? a. A caregiver is unavailable, either emotionally or physically b. A child is born prematurely or has medical problems c. A caregiver is ill-prepared to care for a child d. All of the above 184) In the Strange Situation, a child with a secure attachment will typically: a. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns b. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver leaves, but remain upset with the caregiver returns c. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when separated or reunited d. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the mother and then freezing 185) In the Strange Situation, a child with a disorganized attachment will typically: a. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns b. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver leaves, but remain upset when the caregiver returns c. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when separated or reunited d. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the mother and then freezing 186) In the Strange Situation, a child with an avoidant attachment will typically: a. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns b. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver leaves, but remain upset when the caregiver returns c. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when separated or reunited d. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the mother and then freezing 187) In the Strange Situation, a child with an ambivalent attachment will typically: a. Explore the environment, be upset when the caregiver leaves, and calm down when the caregiver returns b. Cling to the caregiver, be upset when the caregiver leaves, but remains upset when the caregiver returns c. Avoid or ignore the mother and show little reaction when separated or reunited d. Behave in inconsistent ways, such as approaching the mother then freezing 188) During the Strange Situation, Chaska explores the environment, is upset when his mother leaves, and is comforted when she returns. His attachment style can be best described as: a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoidant d. Disorganized 189) During the Strange Situation, Mei pays little attention to her mother and doesn’t seem to care whether or not she’s present. Her attachment style can best be described as: a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoid d. Disorganized 190) During the Strange Situation, Nnenne clings to her mother, is upset when her mother leaves, but does not calm down her mother returns. Her attachment style can best be described as: a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoid d. Disorganized 191) During the Strange Situation, Iyad seems disoriented in the environment, is upset when his mother leaves, but ignores her when she returns. His attachment style can best be described as: a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoid d. Disorganized 192) In the United States, the most common attachment style appears to be: a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoid d. Disorganized 193) A(n) __________ attachment develops when there is consistent contact from one or more caregivers who meet the physical and emotional needs of the child in a responsive and appropriate manner. a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoidant d. Disorganized 194) A(n) ____________ attachment occurs when the caregiver does not provide care and cannot be relied upon for comfort. a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoidant d. Disorganized 195) A(n) ____________ attachment occurs when the parent is insensitive and responds inconsistently to the child’s needs. a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoidant d. Disorganized 196) A(n) ____________ attachment is often seen in children who have been abused. a. Secure b. Ambivalent c. Avoidant d. Disorganized 197) According to Erikson, if a caregiver is overly anxious about the toddler’s actions for fear that the child will get hurt or violate others’ expectations, the toddler may fail to successfully achieve: a. Trust b. Autonomy c. Industry d. Initiative 198) Greater development in the prefrontal cortex, the area of the brain behind the forehead, helps us to: a. Understand how to play games, especially ones that involve strategy and planning b. Control attention c. Inhibit emotional outbursts d. All of the above 199) Changes in the human brain that occur between ages three and six years include: a. Development of dendrites b. Myelination c. Growth of the corpus callosum 200) The _________ is a dense band of fibers that connects the two hemispheres of the brain. a. Longitudinal fissure b. Limbic system c. Corpus callosum d. Reticular formation 201) The term _________ refers to the brain’s ability to change its structure and function in response to experience or damage. a. Neuroplasticity b. Anisocoria c. Red desaturation d. Sectoranopia 202) Which of the following fine motor skills could be seen in a 3-year-old, but not in a 2-year-old? a. Can turn a doorknob b. Can look through a book turning one page at a time c. Drawing a person with 3 parts d. Building a tower of 6-7 cubes 203) Which of the following fine motor skills could be seen in a 4-year-old, but not in a 3-year-old? a. Can copy a circle b. Can cut out a picture using scissors c. Builds tower of 9 blocks d. Feeding self easily 204) Which of the following fine motor skills could be seen in a 5-year-old, but not in a 4-year-old? a. Drawing a square b. Managing a spook and fork neatly while eating c. Putting on clothes properly d. Using a knife to spread soft foods 205) Which of the following gross motor skills could be seen in a 3-year-old, but not in a 2-year-old? a. Can kick a ball without losing balance b. Can pick up objects while standing, without losing balance c. Can pedal a tricycle d. Can run with some coordination 206) Which of the following gross motor skills could be seen in a 4-year-old, but not in a 3-year-old? a. Can pedal a tricycle b. Throws a ball overhand with coordination c. Can briefly balance and hop on one foot d. May walk up stairs with alternating feet (without holding the rail) 207) Which of the following gross motor skills could be seen in a 5-year-old, but not in a 4-year-old? a. Stays balanced while standing on one foot with eyes closed b. Hops on one foot without losing balance c. Throws a ball overhand with coordination d. Using a knife to spread soft foods 208) Children’s early drawings of people are described using which term?\ a. Tadpoles b. Chicks c. Embryos d. Efts 209) In Piaget’s _________ stage of development, children use symbols to represent words, images, and ideas. a. Sensorimotor b. Concrete operational c. Formal operational d. Preoperational 210) In Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the term “operational” refers to: a. Understanding cause and effect b. Being able to engage in deferred imitation c. Logical manipulation of information d. Being able to use symbols to convey meaning 211) The __________ substage of the preoperational stage is characterized by the child being able to mentally represent an object that is not present and a dependence on perception in problem solving. a. Animistic b. Symbolic function c. Egocentric d. Intuitive thought 212) The __________ substage of the preoperational stage is marked by greater dependence on intuitive thinking rather than just perception. a. Animistic b. Symbolic function c. Egocentric d. Intuitive thought 213) Piaget believed that children’s pretend play: a. Was pointless and a waste of time b. Helped children solidify new schemata they were developing c. Helped children learn d. Both b) and c) 214) _________ is the tendency of young children not to be able to take the perspective of others, and instead the child thinks that everyone sees, thinks, and feels just as they do. a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Centration d. Conservation 215) _________ is the behavior of attributing life-like qualities to objects. a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Centration d. Conservation 216) _________ is the tendency of young children to focus on only one characteristic of an object to the exclusion of others. a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Centration d. Conservation 217) ___________ refers to the ability to recognize that moving or rearranging matter does not change the quantity. a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Centration d. Conservation 218) Alex has a scoop of ice cream in a small bowl. Daniel has the same amount of ice cream, but in a larger bowl, so the ice cream takes up less space in the bowl. Daniel is upset because he thinks Alex has more ice cream. Daniel is having a problem with: a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Centration d. Conservation 219) Alex has a scoop of ice cream in a small bowl. Daniel has the same amount of ice cream, but in a larger bowl, so it takes up less space in the bowl. Daniel is upset because he thinks Alex has more ice cream, and he cannot understand that he needs to consider both the size of the bowl and the amount of ice cream when figuring out who has more. The best term to describe this is: a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Centration d. Scaffolding 220) When Juan plays hide-and-seek, he “hides” by covering his eyes, because he believes that if he can’t see someone else, they must not be able to see him either. The best term to describe this is: a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Centration d. Conservation 221) Laylah doesn’t want hot chocolate put in her Doc McStuffins cup because she’s worried the hot liquid will burn Doc McStuffins. The best term to describe this is: a. Animism b. Egocentrism c. Scaffolding d. Conservation 222) _________ reasoning involved making faulty inferences from one specific example to another. a. Inductive b. Deductive c. Transductive d. Inconclusive 223) Vygotsky believed that children’s cognitive skills improved as a result of: a. Social interactions with more learned peers b. Language, writings, and concepts arising from the culture c. Social interactions with adults d. All of the above 224) A child is in the zone of proximal development when: a. They can perform a task independently b. They are unable to perform a task c. They can almost perform a task, but not quite on their own without assistance d. They are almost ready to start learning to perform a task 225) __________ is the temporary support that parents or teachers give a child to do a task a. Scaffolding b. Proximal development c. Facilitated communication d. Centration 226) Piaget believed that children talked to themselves because: a. They were learning to solve problems or clarify thoughts b. They were egocentric c. They had insecure attachments d. They were resolving the crisis of Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt 227) Vygotsky believed that children talked to themselves because: a. They were learning to solve problems or clarify thoughts b. They were egocentric c. They had insecure attachments d. They were resolving the crisis of Autonomy vs. Shame and doubt 228) The ability to switch our focus on a single task or stimulus while ignoring distracting information is called: a. Sustained attention b. Selective attention c. Divided attention d. Prodromal attention 229) The ability to stay on task for long periods of time is called: a. Sustained attention b. Selective attention c. Divided attention d. Prodromal attention 230) _________ is the first stage of the memory system and stores sensory input in its raw form for a very brief duration, just long enough for the brain to register and start processing the information. a. Sensory memory b. Working memory c. Long-term memory d. Eidetic memory 231) ________ is the component of memory in which current conscious mental activity occurs. a. Sensory memory b. Working memory c. Long-term memory d. Eidetic memory 232) According to your book, short-term memory is most similar to: a. Sensory memory b. Working memory c. Long-term memory d. Eidetic memory 233) ________ is thought to be permanent. a. Sensory memory b. Working memory c. Long-term memory d. Short-term memory 234) Self-regulatory processes, such as the ability to inhibit a behavior or cognitive flexibility, that enable adaptive responses to new situations or to reach a specific goal are called: a. Executive function b. Inductive logic c. Deductive logic d. Mnemonic devices 235) Which part of the brain appears to be particularly important for the development of executive function? a. Cerebellum b. Hypothalamus c. Thalamus d. Prefrontal cortex 236) Rehearsing previous material while adding in additional information is called: a. Rote rehearsal b. Method of loci c. Clustering rehearsal d. Mental mapping 237) The memory of older children is generally better than that of young children due to improvements in: a. Attention b. Executive functions c. Brain maturation d. All of the above 238) Declarative memories are also called: a. Implicit b. Explicit c. Working d. Eidetic 239) Non-declarative memories are also called: a. Implicit b. Explicit c. Working d. Eidetic 240) When we say that a memory is “declarative” or “explicit”, we mean that: a. It is tied to a timeline b. It is not tied to a timeline c. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously recollect d. It is highly automated and does not require conscious recollection 241) When we say that a memory is “non-declarative” or “implicit”, we mean that: a. It is tied to a timeline b. It is not tied to a timeline c. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously recollect d. It is highly automated and does not require conscious recollection 242) The factor that distinguishes a semantic memory from an episodic memory is that: a. It is tied to a timeline b. It is not tied to a timeline c. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously recollect d. It is highly automated and does not require conscious recollection 243) The factor that distinguishes an episodic memory from a semantic memory is that: a. It is tied to a timeline b. It is not tied to a timeline c. It is a memory for facts or events that we can consciously recollect d. It is highly automated and does not require conscious recollection 244) Remembering the definition of “declarative memory” is an example of: a. Autobiographical memory b. Non-declarative memory c. Episodic memory d. Semantic memory 245) Remembering the definition of “declarative memory” is an example of: a. Autobiographical memory b. Non-declarative memory c. Episodic memory d. Declarative memory 246) Our “personal narrative” is our: a. Autobiographical memory b. Non-declarative memory c. Episodic memory d. Semantic memory 247) The primary way that Neo-Piagetian theories differ from Piaget’s original theories is that they: a. Assume cognitive development can be separated into different stages with qualitatively different characteristics b. Advocate that children’s thinking becomes more complex in advanced stages c. Believe that aspects of information processing, not logic, change the complexity of each stage d. Believe in constructivism 248) The ability to think about other people’s thoughts is called: a. Theory of mind b. Theory-theory c. Fast mapping d. Scaffolding 249) In the false belief task, a child must think logically about a situation from the perspective of someone who knows something different than they do. In order to reason correctly about this situation, the child must have: a. Theory of mind b. Theory-theory c. Fast mapping d. Scaffolding 250) In order to correctly pass the false belief task, a child must: a. Distinguish between what they once thought was true and what they now know to be true b. Understand that what guides people’s actions and responses are what they “believe” rather than what is reality c. Separate what they “know” to be true from what someone else might “think” is true d. All of the above 251) During the “vocabulary spurt”, children learn about _________ new words per week. a. 1-2 b. 10-20 c. 50-100 d. 200-10,000 252) Karen has learned that adding “-ed” to the end of verbs is the standard way to make them past tense, so she adds “-ed” to all verbs, producing words like “swimmed” and “sleeped”. This process is called: a. Overgeneralization b. Undergeneralization c. Overregularization d. Underregularization 253) Which of the following is NOT one of the criteria for a high-quality preschool as described in your textbook? a. Establishes and maintains collaborative relationships with families b. Uses teaching approaches that are developmentally, culturally and linguistically appropriate c. Promotes children’s health and nutrition d. The majority of children who go there come from a high socioeconomic status 254) Why has it been difficult to evaluate the effectiveness of the Head Start program? a. Head Start programs vary in several ways (such as teacher qualifications) depending on the location b. Testing young children is difficult c. Ethical concerns make it difficult to use an experimental design to measure cause and effect d. All of the above 255) To produce a healthy resolution of the Initiative vs. Guilt crisis, caregivers should: a. Provide consistent, affectionate care b. Offer praise for the child’s efforts and avoid being critical of messes or mistakes c. Allow the child to try new things and explore their expanding self-concept d. Model initiative-taking behavior of their own 256) Our self-description according to various categories is called our: a. Self-esteem b. Categorical self c. Self-concept d. All of the above, because these terms mean the same thing 257) Our evaluative judgement about who we are is called our: a. Self-esteem b. Cateforical self c. Self-concept d. All of the above, because these terms mean the same thing 258) Our focus on external qualities when describing ourselves is called our: a. Self-esteem b. Categorical self c. Self-concept d. All of the above, because these terms mean the same thing 259) Why do young children tend to have a positive self-image? a. Because their parents praise them for everything b. Because they are genuinely good at everything c. Because they lack a basis for comparison d. All of the above 260) Self-identification based on a continuum from male to female is known as: a. Gender schemas b. Gender roles c. Gender dysphoria d. Gender identity 261) The expectations associated with being male or female are known as: a. Gender schemas b. Gender roles c. Gender dysphoria d. Gender identity 262) _________ parents are supportive and show interest in their kids’ activities, but are not overbearing and allow them to make constructive mistakes. a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Permissive d. Uninvolved 263) ________ parents are disengaged from their children. They do not make demands on their children and are non-responsive. a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Permissive d. Uninvolved 264) ________ parenting is the traditional model of parenting in which parents make the rules and children are expected to be obedient. a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Permissive d. Uninvolved 265) Parenting involves holding expectations of children that are below what could be reasonably expected from them. a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Permissive d. Uninvolved 266) Children of ___________ parents tend to have greater self-confidence and competence as a result of their parents’ high but reasonable expectations. a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Permissive d. Uninvolved 267) Children of __________ parents are likely to do poorly in school and have poor relationships with peers. a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Permissive d. Uninvolved 268) Children of __________ parents may fear rather than respect their parents and may become aggressive toward peers. a. Authoritarian b. Authoritative c. Permissive d. Uninvolved 269) Spanking children appears to be associated with: a. Lower vocabulary scores b. More aggressive behavior in children c. Higher scores on a measure of rule-breaking d. All of the above 270) Sibling interactions can help the development of: a. Empathy b. Sharing c. Social skills d. All of the above 271) In Parten’s play classification system, __________ refers to random behavior without a specific goal. a. Parallel paly b. Solitary play c. Unoccupied play d. Associative play 272) In Parten’s play classification system, ___________ occurs when children interact with each other and share toys, but are not working toward a common goal. a. Parallel paly b. Solitary play c. Unoccupied play d. Associative play 273) Too much television is thought to negatively affect child development because it: a. Reduces focus on active, hands-on play b. Is linked to attention problems c. May negatively affect cognitive and language development d. All of the above 274) Which of the following is NOT one of the four main types of child maltreatment? a. Psychological maltreatment b. Financial exploitation c. Neglect d. Physical abuse 275) How does stress negatively affect the developing child? a. Stress hormones can also reduce immunity to disease b. Exposure to long periods of severe stress can make the child hypersensitive to stress in the future c. Stress hormones can reduce the size of the hippocampus and affect the child’s memory abilities d. All of the above 276) The relationship of height to weight is expressed in a measure called the: a. Set point b. Body mass index (BMI) c. Homeostatic equilibrium d. Golden ration 277) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), children whose BMI is at or above the 85th percentile for their age are considered: a. Overweight b. Obese c. Both a) and b), because these terms mean the same thing 278) According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), children whose BMI is at or above the 95th percentile for their age are considered: a. Overweight b. Obese c. Both a) and b), because these terms mean the same thing 279) In children, excess weight is associated with: a. High blood pressure b. Deficits in executive functioning c. Poor decision making d. All of the above 280) In children, excess weight is associated with: a. Insulin resistance b. Deficits in working memory c. Depression d. All of the above 281) Risks of being overweight as a child include: a. Being teased, bullied, or rejected by peers b. Increased incidence of heart attack or stroke in adulthood c. Orthopedic problems like knee injuries d. All of these above 282) In Piaget’s concrete operational stage, the word “concrete” refers to things that: a. Can be touched, seen, or experienced directly b. Have organic compounds c. Have only one possible solution d. Have been taught to us by more experienced learners 283) _________ is logical process in which multiple premises believed to be true are combined to obtain a specific conclusion. a. Inductive reasoning b. Deductive reasoning c. Transdeductive reasoning d. Conductive reasoning 284) A child in the concrete operational stage will best be able to solve problems that are: a. Abstract b. Tied to their own experience c. Hypothetical d. All of the above 285) During the concrete operational stage, children develop the ability to build schemata and organize objects in many different ways. This is called: a. Identity b. Classification c. Seriation d. Decentration 286) During the concrete operational stage, children develop the arrange items along a quantitative dimension, such as length or weight, in a methodical way. This is called: a. Identity b. Classification c. Seriation d. Decentration 287) During the concrete operational stage, children develop the understanding that objects have qualities that do not change even if the object is altered in some way. This is called: a. Identity b. Classification c. Seriation d. Decentration 288) During the concrete operational stage, children no longer focus on only one dimension of any object and instead consider the changes in other dimensions too. This is called: a. Identity b. Classification c. Seriation d. Decentration 289) Changing one quality (such as the height of water in a container) can be compensated for by changes in another quality (such as the width of the container). The ability to understanding this is called: a. Seriation b. Decentration c. Conservation d. Reversibility 290) The capacity of working memory increases in childhood due to: a. Changes in the myelination and synaptic pruning in the cortex b. The ability to inhibit irrelevant information from entering memory c. Increased processing speed d. All of the above 291) The knowledge we have about our own thinking and our ability to use this awareness to regulate our own cognitive processes is called: a. Introspection b. Critical thinking c. Metacognition d. Growth mindset 292) The detailed examination of beliefs, courses of action, and evidence is called: a. Introspection b. Critical thinking c. Metacognition d. Growth mindset 293) _________ disorders affect the rate of speech. a. Articulation b. Voice c. Fluency d. Lexemic 294) _________ disorders affect the ability to correctly produce speech sounds. a. Articulation b. Voice c. Fluency d. Lexemic 295) ________ disorders affect the ability to produce speech sounds with appropriate pitch and loudness. a. Articulation b. Voice c. Fluency d. Lexemic 296) The most common fluency disorder is: a. Central auditory processing disorder b. Cluttering c. Stuttering d. Substitution 297) _________ was the first to propose that intelligence was a single construct that underlay all cognitive abilities and skills. a. Sternberg b. Gardner c. Spearman d. Thurstone 298) The general intelligence factor involves the ability to: a. Benefit from instruction and experience b. Adapt to novel situations c. Reason abstractly d. All of the above 299) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the ability to adapt to new situations and create new ideas is called: a. Practical intelligence b. Creative intelligence c. Structural intelligence d. Analytical intelligence 300) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the ability to demonstrate common sense and “street smarts” is called: a. Practical intelligence b. Creative intelligence c. Structural intelligence d. Analytical intelligence 301) In Sternberg’s triarchic theory of intelligence, the ability to solve academic problems and perform calculations is called: a. Practical intelligence b. Creative intelligence c. Structural intelligence d. Analytical intelligence 302) Sternberg believes that traditional intelligence overemphasizes the measurement of: a. Practical intelligence b. Creative intelligence c. Structural intelligence d. Analytical intelligence 303) Thinking that is directed toward finding the correct answer to a given problem is called: a. Subvergent b. Divergent c. Convergent d. Transvergent 304) Thinking that involved the ability to generate many different ideas or solutions to a single problem is called: a. Subvergent b. Divergent c. Convergent d. Transvergent 305) Creativity is more strongly associated with __________ thinking. a. Subvergent b. Divergent c. Convergent d. Transvergent 306) Taking on projects for interest instead of money is called: a. Expertise b. Risk taking c. Intrinsic interest d. Imaginative thinking 307) Viewing problems in new and different ways is called: a. Expertise b. Risk taking c. Intrinsic interest d. Imaginative thinking 308) Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences is based on: a. Research involving people who had strokes that compromised some capacities, but not others b. The idea that it would be evolutionarily functional for different people to have different talents and skills c. The existence of eight (or possibly nine) intelligences that can be differentiated from each other d. All of the above 309) In Gardner’s theory of multiple intelligences, ____________ intelligence is described as the ability to move the body in sports, dance, or other physical activities. a. Interpersonal b. Intrapersonal c. Kinesthetic d. Existential 310) Your textbook defines “intelligence quotient” (IQ) as: a. A person’s mental age b. A measure of intelligence that is adjusted for age c. The discrepancy between a person’s ability and their actual performance d. The highest level of intellectual performance a person can achieve 311) Intelligence tests and definitions of intelligence have been criticized for: a. Failing to account for changes caused by experience b. Inadequately measuring non-academic types of intelligence or talent c. Being biased in favor of Anglo-American, middle-class respondents d. All of the above 312) In statistics, the pattern of scores usually observed in a variable that clusters around its average is called a: a. Positively skewed distribution b. Negatively skewed distribution c. Normal distribution d. Bimodal distribution 313) _________ is a chromosomal disorder caused by the presence of all or part of an extra 21 st chromosome. a. Turner syndrome b. Williams syndrome c. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome d. Down syndrome 314) The severity of intellectual disability is determined by: a. A person’s IQ score b. The age at which the intellectual disability is diagnosed c. How well the person handles everyday life tasks d. The cause of the intellectual disability 315) Someone with an IQ score below 70 is likely to be diagnosed with: a. Down syndrome b. Intellectual disability c. Autism spectrum disorder d. A learning disability 316) People with an IQ of 130 or higher are classified as: a. Average b. Super genius c. Intellectually disabled d. Gifted 317) Parents who have higher levels of income, occupational status, and their qualities favored in society have ________, which is a form of power that can be used to improve a child’s education. a. Family capital b. Problem-focused coping c. Resilience d. Intersectionality 318) Cultural differences in ________ can affect how children are perceived by their teachers and peers, and ultimately how successful they are in school. a. Preference for activities that are cooperative rather than competitive b. Social distance c. Eye contact d. All of the above 319) Cultural differences in ________ can affect how children are perceived by their teachers and peers, and ultimately how successful they are in school. a. Whether or not it’s okay to speak without first being spoken to b. Instructional methods such as teachers asking the students questions the teacher already knows the answer to c. Wait time following questions d. All of the above 320) _________ is specific impairment of academic learning that interferes with a specific aspect of schoolwork and reduces a student’s academic performance significantly. a. Down syndrome b. Intellectual disability c. Autism spectrum disorder d. A learning disability 321) A student cannot be diagnosed as having a learning disability if their academic difficulties are caused by: a. The challenges of learning English as a second language b. Physical, sensory, or motor handicaps c. Generalized intellectual impairment d. All of the above 322) _________, a type of learning disability, involves having difficulty in the area of reading. a. Dyslexia b. Dyspraxia c. Dyscalculia d. Dysgraphia 323) ________, a type of learning disability, involves having difficulty in the area of mathematics. a. Dyslexia b. Dyspraxia c. Dyscalculia d. Dysgraphia 324) ________, a type of learning disability, involves having difficulty with writing. a. Dyslexia b. Dyspraxia c. Dyscalculia d. Dysgraphia 325) Children with ADHD may show behavior that is: a. Inattentive b. Hyperactive c. Impulsive d. All of the above 326) A ________ is a tendency to act in such a way as to make what you predict will happen actually come true. a. Self-fulfilling prophecy b. Self-serving bias c. Confirmation bias d. Problem-focused coping strategy 327) Our beliefs about our general personal identity are our: a. Self-esteem b. Self-concept c. Self-efficacy d. Self-fulfilling prophecy 328) Compared to young children, children in middle and late childhood differ in their self-concept in that they: a. Are able to include other peoples’ appraisals of them into their self-concept b. Have a more realistic sense of self c. Better understand their strengths and weaknesses d. All of the above 329) Our evaluation of our own identity is our: a. Self-esteem b. Self-concept c. Self-efficacy d. Self-fulfilling prophecy 330) ________ is the belief that you are capable of carrying out a specific task or of reaching a specific goal. a. Self-esteem b. Self-concept c. Self-efficacy d. Self-fulfilling prophecy 331) In Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person who reasons about right and wrong based on self-interest (such as getting rewards and avoiding punishment) is using __________ morality. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 332) In Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person whose moral reasoning is based on care for others and being a good member of society is using ________ morality. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 333) In Kohlberg’s theory of morality, a person who reasons about right and wrong based on higher, universal ethical principles of conduct that may or may not be reflected in the law is using _______ morality. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 334) Simon obeys his parents’ rules because he is afraid he will be punished if he doesn’t. he is using ________ morality. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 335) Nina finds someone’s wallet and returns it because she knows the person who lost it will want it back, and she doesn’t want them to be inconvenienced. She is using ________ morality. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 336) Charles feels that it’s unfair that women get paid less than men do, so he participates in a protest march to try to encourage lawmakers to pass equal pay standards. He is using _______ morality. a. Preconventional b. Conventional c. Postconventional d. Unconventional 337) Kohlberg’s theory of morality has been criticized on the grounds that it: a. May not adequately account for gender differences in moral reasoning b. May not adequately account for cultural differences in moral reasoning c. Does not always show a connection between reasoning and behavior d. All of the above 338) Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, friendship focuses on mutual activities. a. Reward-cost b. Normative expectation c. Empathy and understanding d. Expansion 339) Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, children emphasize similar interests as the main characteristics of a good friend. a. Reward-cost b. Normative expectation c. Empathy and understanding d. Expansion 340) Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, friendship focuses on conventional morality. a. Reward-cost b. Normative expectation c. Empathy and understanding d. Expansion 341) Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, children describe a friend as someone who is kind and shares with you. a. Reward-cost b. Normative expectation c. Empathy and understanding d. Expansion 342) Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in children’s friendships. In the ________ stage, friendship focuses on commitment and sharing intimate information. a. Reward-cost b. Normative expectation c. Empathy and understanding d. Expansion 343) Bigelow and La Gaipa described three stages in children’s friendships. In the _________ stage, children describe friends as people who are loyal, committed to the relationship, and share intimate information. a. Reward-cost b. Normative expectation c. Empathy and understanding d. Expansion 344) Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early childhood through to adulthood. In stage 0, called “momentary physical interaction”, a friend is: a. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time b. Someone who returns a favor c. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they are d. Someone who does nice things for you 345) Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early childhood through to adulthood. In stage 1, called “one-way assistance”, a friend is: a. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time b. Someone who you can tell things you would tell no one else c. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they are d. Someone who does nice things for you 346) Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early childhood through to adulthood. In stage 2, called “fair-weather cooperation”, a friend is: a. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time b. Someone who returns a favor c. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they are d. Someone who does nice things for you 347) Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early childhood through to adulthood. In stage 3, called “intimate and mutual sharing”, a friend is: a. Someone who you can tell things you would tell no one else b. Someone who returns a favor c. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they are d. Someone who does nice things for you 348) Selman outlines five stages of friendship from early childhood through to adulthood. In stage 4, called” autonomous interdependence”, a friend is: a. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time b. Someone who you can tell things you would tell no one else c. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they are d. Someone who does nice things for you 349) Popularity, or attraction between members of a group, is often measured using a technique called: a. Someone who you are playing with at this point in time b. Someone who returns a favor c. Someone who accepts you and that you accept as they are d. Someone who does nice things for you 350) Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring popularity ask children to name peers they like and peers they don’t like. Children who receive many votes in the “like” category would be classified as: a. Average b. Popular c. Controversial d. Neglected 351) Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring popularity ask children to name peers they like and peers they don’t like. Children who are mentioned frequently in each category would be classified as: a. Rejected b. Average c. Controversial d. Neglected 352) Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring popularity ask children to name peers they like and peers they don’t like. Children who receive more unfavorable votes and few favorable ones would be classified as: a. Rejected b. Neglected c. Popular d. Average 353) Sociometric assessment techniques for measuring popularity ask children to name peers they like and peers they don’t like. Children who receive very few votes in either category would be classified as: a. Average b. Controversial c. Popular d. Neglected 354) Popular children can be subcategorized into two types. Popular-____________ children are nice and have good social skills, and they are generally cooperative and do well in school. a. Antisocial b. Prosocial c. Withdrawn d. Aggressive 355) Popular children can be subcategorized into two types. Popular-___________ children may gain popularity by acting tough or spreading rumors about others. a. Antisocial b. Prosocial c. Withdrawn d. Aggressive 356) Rejected children can be subcategorized into two types. Rejected-__________ children are ostracized because they are antagonistic, loud, and confrontational, possibly as a way of acting out insecurities. a. Antisocial b. Prosocial c. Withdrawn d. Aggressive 357) Rejected children are subcategorized into two types. Rejected-_________ children are shy and withdrawn and are easy targets for bullies because they are unlikely to retaliate. a. Antisocial b. Prosocial c. Withdrawn d. Aggressive 358) Unwanted, aggressive behavior that involves a real or perceived power imbalance is called: a. Bullying b. Power assertion c. Induction d. Hazing 359) Cyberbullying is particularly difficult to address because it: a. May be difficult to trace or delete b. Can occur at any time of day and without being in the presence of others c. Can be posted anonymously and distributed quickly d. All of the above 360) _________ are at particular risk for being bullied. a. Lesbian, gay, bisexual, or transgender (LGBT) youth b. Children who are overweight c. Children with disabilities d. All of the above 361) A good home environment is one in which: a. The family enjoys a high socioeconomic status b. The parents are happily married c. The child’s physical, cognitive, emotional, and social needs are adequately met d. There are many extended family members close by 362) Which of the following situations might a child experience following their parent’s divorce? a. Reduced financial resources b. Changing school or residence c. Parental unavailability due to work or stress d. All of the above 363) During adolescence, growth proceeds from the extremities toward the torso. This is referred to as: a. Distalproximal development b. Mass-to-specific development c. Rostral-causal development d. Pubertial-sequential development 364) Your textbook defines puberty as: a. The time in life when our physical abilities peak b. A period of rapid growth and sexual maturation c. The brain’s process of removing unnecessary synapses d. The myelination of the axons in our frontal lobes 365) __________ sexual characteristics are visible physical changes not directly linked to reproduction, but signal sexual maturity. a. Auxiliary b. Tertiary c. Primary d. Secondary 366) _________ sexual characteristics are visible physical changes not directly linked to reproduction, but signal sexual maturity. a. Auxiliary b. Tertiary c. Primary d. Secondary 367) The term “menarche” refers to: a. The age gap between when girls and boys experience puberty b. The height/weight growth patterns in puberty c. The first menstrual period d. Racial and ethnic differences in average height and weight 368) The term “spermarche” refers to: a. The age gap between when girls and boys experience puberty b. The increased muscle mass typically experienced by boys during puberty c. The first ejaculation of semen d. The tendency for boys to be taller and heavier than girls 369) The skin condition caused by overactive sebaceous gland is: a. Eczema b. Psoriasis c. Keratosis pilaris d. Acne 370) According to your book, boys are more likely than girls to develop acne because of: a. Poorer hygiene b. Poorer eating habits c. Higher levels of testosterone d. All of the above 371) For girls, early puberty is associated with: a. Mental health issues such as depression, substance use, and eating disorders b. Early sexual behavior c. More anxiety and les confidence in their relationships with family and friends d. All of the above 372) Brain maturation during adolescence involves: a. Synaptic pruning in the gray matter of the brain b. Increased myelination c. Increased connectivity of neurons d. All of the above 373) The changes that occur in adolescents’ brains allow the brain to: a. Work more efficiently b. Better integrate memory and experiences into decision-making c. Consolidate skills already learned, like language d. All of the above 374) The limbic system: a. Regulates emotion and reward b. Assists with planning and decision making c. Transfers information from short-term to long-term memory d. Coordinates sensory information from all different parts of the body 375) The ________ is involved in the control of impulses, organization, planning, and making good decisions. a. Hippocampus b. Corpus callosum c. Limbic system d. Thalamus 376) The mismatch between the development of the _________ can result in risky behavior, poor decision making, and weak emotional control for the adolescent. a. Thalmus and hypothalamus b. Reticular formation and suprachiasmatic nucleus c. Limbic system and prefrontal cortex d. Occipital lobe and cerebellum 377) _________ is the naturally occurring chemical involved in reward circuits. a. Ghrelin b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Oxytocin 378) _________ is a naturally occurring chemical which facilitates bonding and makes social connections more rewarding. a. Ghrelin b. Serotonin c. Dopamine d. Oxytocin 379) To support adolescents’ later sleeping schedule, the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) released recommendations that school not being any earlier than: a. 730 am b. 8:30 am c. 8:00 am d. 9:00 am 380) Adolescent mothers are: a. More likely to live in poverty b. Less likely to finish high school c. More likely to have children who don’t complete high school d. All of the above 381) Aaliyah has recurrent episodes of binge eating followed by a “purge” using laxatives. Based on this description, she most likely has: a. Anorexia nervosa b. Binge eating disorder c. Bulimia nervosa d. Orthorexia 382) Thomas severely restricts his food intake because he has an intense fear of gaining weight and believes himself to weigh much more than he does. Based on this description, he most likely has: a. Anorexia nervosa b. Binge eating disorder c. Bulimia nervosa d. Orthorexia 383) Health consequences of eating disorders include: a. Heart problems b. Osteoporosis c. Esophageal rupture d. All of the above 384) When we use the word “abstract” to refer to principles such as freedom and morality, we mean that: a. They can only be understood by adults b. They can be tested experimentally c. They have no physical reference d. They are composed of several other principles 385) Developing hypotheses based on what might logically occur is called: a. Seriation b. Hypothetical-deductive reasoning c. Inductive reasoning d. Post hoc, ergo propter hoc reasoning 386) Adolescents demonstrate hypothetical-deductive reasoning instead of solving problems through _______, which younger children tend to do. a. Trial and error b. Heuristics c. Algorithms d. Transitivity 387) If A>B and B>C, then A>C. This relationship is called: a. Trial and error b. Heuristics c. Algorithms d. Transitivity 388) The heightened self-focus that many adolescents experience is called: a. Trial and error b. Heuristics c. Algorithms d. Transitivity 389) The adolescent’s belief that those around them are as concerned and focused on their appearance as they themselves are is called the: a. Personal fable b. Unique invulnerability c. Self-fulfilling prophecy d. Invisible audience 390) The adolescent’s belief that one is unique and special is called: a. Personal fable b. Unique invulnerability c. Self-fulfilling prophecy d. Invisible audience 391) Thinking about one’s thoughts and feelings is called: a. Idealism b. Introspection c. Pseudostupidity d. Hypocrisy 392) Approaching problems at a level that is too complex and failing because the tasks are too simple is called: a. Idealism b. Introspection c. Pseudostupidity d. Hypocrisy 393) When people pretend to be what they are not, this is called: a. Idealism b. Introspection c. Pseudostupidity d. Hypocrisy 394) Insisting upon high standards of behavior is called: a. Idealism b. Introspection c. Pseudostupidity d. Hypocrisy 395) Self-regulation, or the ability to control impulses, is especially likely to fail when: a. There is not a clear relationship between behavior and outcomes b. There is high stress or high demand on mental functions c. Previously learned information has not been adequately stored in long-term memory d. The environment is unstimulating 396) Inductive reasoning can be defined as: a. Successfully transferring information from short-term to long-term memory b. Thinking in novel, divergent ways c. Using specific observations, or specific comments from those in authority, to draw general conclusions d. Proposing specific conclusions based on general overarching principle 397) Deductive reasoning can be defined as: a. Successfully transferring information from short-term to long-term memory b. Thinking in novel, divergent ways c. Using specific observations, or specific comments from those in authority, to draw general conclusions d. Proposing specific conclusions based on general overarching principle 398) Which is more likely to produce accurate results, inductive reasoning or deductive reasoning? a. Inductive, because it is based on what authority figures tells us b. Inductive, because our experiences always accurately represent the way the world works c. Deductive, assuming that the prem

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