General Surgery Questions PDF

1.6. OTHER GENERAL SURGERY QUESTIONS 1) There is a non-healing ulcer in the center of a large, atrophic scar occupying the middle third of the anterolateral surface of the lower leg. What operations can be used to close the ulcer? a) Perform a necrectomy and treat w...

1.6. OTHER GENERAL SURGERY QUESTIONS 1) There is a non-healing ulcer in the center of a large, atrophic scar occupying the middle third of the anterolateral surface of the lower leg. What operations can be used to close the ulcer? a) Perform a necrectomy and treat with bandages with Vishnevsky ointment b) Perform a non-nectomy and treat in an abacterial environment c) Excise the scar, treat the ulcer and perform plastic surgery with the flap moving d) Excise the scar, treat the ulcer, perform plastic surgery with a free skin flap e) Scrape the bottom of the ulcer and treat with the drug "Baliz" 2) After destructive pneumonia, the patient developed pleural empyema and a bronchopleural fistula opened. What research methods can be used to clarify the diagnosis? a) By percussion and auscultation b) Perform a thoracoscopy c) Perform bronchography d) In the bronchoscope, inject the dye into the bronchus and watch it appear in the drainage e) Perform an overview radiography of the lungs 3) As a result of a penetrating wound, a fistula formed on the anterior abdominal wall above the pubic joint, from which a liquid resembling urine flows out. How can this fistula be connected to the bladder? a) By palpation and percussion b) By probing the fistula c) Perform contrast fistulography d) Insert a contrast agent or paint into the urethral catheter e) By catheterization of the bladder 4) What additional diagnostic methods are most informative in the study of external fistulas? a) Probing of the fistula b) Ultrasound c) Overview radiography d) Contrast fistulography e) Computed tomography 5) Under what conditions can the external lip-shaped intestinal fistula close? a) May heal spontaneously b) After fistula closure surgery c) With his tight tamponade d) After electrocoagulation of the mucous membrane e) In conservative treatment with the use of ointment dressings and physiotherapy 6) A patient with a high intestinal fistula had irritation (maceration) of the skin. What methods can be used to protect the skin around the fistula? a) Use a colostomy bag b) To establish active aspiration of intestinal contents from the fistula c) Lubricate the skin with iodopyron d) Lubricate the skin with Lassar paste or sprinkle with a mixture of gypsum and milk powder e) Conduct a tight tamponade of the fistula 7) If a patient has mediasthenitis due to perforation of the esophagus, how will you feed the patient? a) To establish parenteral nutrition b) Feed through the mouth c) Assign hunger d) Apply a gastrostomy e) Feeding through a nasogastric tube 8) How can purulent fistula be eliminated in chronic hematogenous osteomyelitis? a) Scrape the fistula with a sharp spoon b) Rinse the fistula with drugs that promote its obliteration c) Produce a radical.bone surgery with excision, scraping of the fistula d) Bind the fistula with a ligature e) Excise the fistula passage all over 9) What supports fistula in chronic hematogenous osteomyelitis? a) The presence of infection in the muscles surrounding the fistula b) The presence of sequesters and pus in the sequestral cavity c) Inflammation of the periosteum d) Inflammatory process in the walls of the fistula e) Violation of blood circulation in soft tissues 10) List the main measures for the prevention of bedsores in severe patients in the postoperative period. a) Careful care of the patient's skin b) Active management in the postoperative period with frequent change of position c) Using an inflatable rubber circle d) Giving the patient a Fauvler position e) Breathing exercises 11) What is the most common cause of bedsores in severe patients? a) Vitamin deficiency  b) Violation of carbohydrate metabolism c) Chronic renal failure d) Poor patient care e) Intestinal dysfunction 12) What is a bedsore? a) Purulent inflammation of tissues in certain anatomical areas b) Putrefactive inflammation of tissues c) Necrosis of soft tissues as a result of compression of blood vessels d) Tissue ischemia as a result of injury e) Tissue ischemia due to venous stasis 13) A patient with chronic venous insufficiency of the left lower limb has a trophic ulcer of the left shin measuring 3x5cm., not amenable to conservative treatment.What kind of operation is it advisable for the patient to perform? a) Excise the ulcer and treat conservatively b) Close the ulcer with a free skin graft c) Perform lumbar sympathectomy d) Close the ulcer by moving local tissues e) Close the ulcer with a skin flap, then operate on venous insufficiency 14) What kind of treatment will you carry out in the presence of a trophic foot ulcer that has arisen after a traumatic complete rupture of the sciatic nerve? a) Evacuation of the ulcer and dressing with Vishnevsky ointment b) Treatment in an abacterial environment c) Neurolysis and suture of the damaged sciatic nerve with plastic closure of the ulcer d) Treatment with bandages with hydrophilic ointment e) Perform lumbar sympathectomy 15) What specialized surgical intervention should be performed urgently in case of popliteal artery embolism? a) Puncture of the femoral vein and administration of heparin b) Femoral artery puncture and fibrinolysin injection c) Perform an embolectomy d) Ligate the popliteal artery e) Amputate the limb at the level of the lower thigh 16) What are the symptoms characteristic of acute lower limb ischemia? a) Paleness, coldness of the skin and decreased sensitivity b) Severe pain and disappearance of the pulse on the main arteries c) Overflow of subcutaneous veins with blood d) Limb muscle cramps  e) Pronounced swelling of soft tissues 17) Name the most common cause of pulmonary embolism. a) Aortic atherosclerosis b) Lymphostasis of the upper and lower extremities c) Extensive phlegmon of the lower extremities d) Phlebothrombosis of the pelvis and lower extremities e) Atrial fibrillation with blood clot formation in the left atrium 18) What is the most common cause of thromboembolism of the main arteries of the lower extremities? a) Separation of the embolus from the thrombus in the left heart in endocarditis b) Portal vein thrombosis of the liver c) Injury to the heart or aorta d) Thrombophlebitis of the deep veins of the lower extremities e) Severe atherosclerosis of the aorta and iliac arteries 19) List the main measures that are necessary for the prevention of phlebothrombosis of the lower extremities in the postoperative period. a) Elastic bandaging of the lower extremities b) Introduction of heparin c) Elevated position of the lower extremities d) Gymnastics that activates the "muscle pump" e) Strict bed rest 20) What treatment should be prescribed to a patient with thrombophlebitis of the superficial veins of the lower extremities in the acute period? a) Dressings with heparin ointment topically b) Anti-inflammatory treatment and anticoagulants c) Removal of a blood clot from a vein d) Elevated limb position e) Excision of a thrombosed vein 21) What conditions contribute to the development of wet gangrene of the limb? a) Rapid circulatory disorders and the development of tissue necrosis b) Slow development of limb ischemia c) Rapid weight loss of the patient d) Overweight of the patient and pasty tissue e) Violation of cardiac activity 22) What factors contribute to the development of dry gangrene of the limb?  a) Overweight of the patient b) Reduced patient weight c) Presence of virulent flora d) The presence of low-virulent flora e) Development along with ischemia of phlebothrombosis 23) Under what conditions can some patients not develop gangrene of the limb with a complete violation of the patency of the superficial femoral artery? a) With well-developed collaterals b) With bad collaterals c) With chronic venous insufficiency d) With femoral artery stenosis, contributing to the development of collaterals e) With lymphostasis of the limb 24) What causes lead to circulatory disorders and necrosis of tissue or organ? a) Violation of cardiac activity (decompensation, embolism) b) Prolonged spasm or vascular obliteration c) Severe respiratory failure d) Injury or compression of the vessel e) Violation of blood chemistry, leading to thrombosis of the vessel and its occlusion 25) What is aortic coartation? a) This is an aortic dilation b) This is a narrowing (stenosis) of the aorta c) This is the location of the aorta to the right of the heart d) This is ulcerative degeneration of the aorta e) This is a pronounced segmental sclerosis of the aorta 26) What malformation should be understood by the term "congenital pylorostenosis"? a) Violation of the contractile function of the pylorus b) The presence of polyps in the pylorus area c) Narrowing of the pylorus due to muscle hypertrophy and violation of innervation d) Narrowing of the pilus due to scarring e) Narrowing of the pylorus due to atrophy of the muscles of the gatekeeper 27) What pathology should be understood by the term "atresia of the anus"? a) Absence of the anus in newborns b) Pronounced expansion and violation of the motility of the rectosigmoid department c) Pronounced dilatation, absence of contractile function of the ampoule of the rectum d) Narrowing of the ampullary rectum e) Congenital polyposis of the rectum with impaired patency 28) What is kidney aplasia? a) Changing the position of the kidney b) Reduction of the size of the kidney and violation of its function c) Congenital absence of a kidney d) Polycystic kidney disease e) Pronounced expansion of the pelvis and cups of the kidney with impaired function 29) What is kidney dystopia? a) Reduction of kidney size b) An innate change in her position c) Congenital enlargement of the pelvis and calyx d) Polycystic kidney disease e) Congenital absence of a kidney 30) Define the concept of "cryptorchidism". a) Delay in intrauterine movement into the scrotum of one or both testicles b) This is dropsy of the testicle c) This is an inflammation of the testicle and appendage d) This is a combination of dropsy of the testicle and the spermatic cord e) This is a combination of testicular dropsy and inguinal hernia 31) How does human infection with echinococcus occur? a) Echinococcus eggs enter the bloodstream through damaged skin b) Parasite eggs enter the lymphatic system through damaged skin c) Echinococcus embryos enter the circulatory system when arteries are injured d) The eggs of the parasite enter the intestines and enter the blood in the form of an embryo e) The embryos penetrate through the damaged vein into the blood 32) In which organs and tissues does echinococcus most often develop in humans? a) In the liver b) In the large intestine c) In the small intestine d) In the lungs e) In the urinary tract 33) What treatment is used for echinococcosis? a) Cyst puncture and removal of contents under ultrasound control b) Catheterization of the cyst with antiseptic washing  c) Echinococcectomy d) Echinococcotomy e) Antiparasitic therapy (levomizole, mebendazole) 34) What is the appearance of the alveococcal node? a) Small bubbles filled with pus-like contents ("nostrum cheese") b) The vesicles are located along the vessels with a tendency to proliferation c) These are large bubbles with a transparent liquid in contact with each other d) These are large cystic formations under the liver capsule e) These are dense knots on a glissonous capsule resembling a "cobblestone pavement" 35) What treatment should be used for liver alveococcosis? a) X-ray therapy b) Hormone therapy c) Immunotherapy d) Surgical operation e) Antiparasitic therapy 36) What drug should be used to treat the cavity in the liver after echinococcatomy at the end of the operation? a) An aqueous solution of chlorhexidine b) Dioxidine c) Formalin d) Gentomycin e) Metronidazole 37) What drug should be used to treat instruments after echinococcectomy? a) Formic acid b) Potassium permanganate c) Boric acid d) With a solution of dioxidine e) Formalin 38) List the types of free skin grafting. a) The Yatsenko-Reverden method b) The Tirsch method c) Limberg's method (counter triangles) d) Application of laxative incisions e) Skin grafting on the feeding leg, by displacement of local tissues 39) What developmental anomaly is meant by the term "skin and bone syndactyly"?  a) It is an erysipeloid b) This is a purulent inflammation of all the tissues of the fingers c) This is a combined purulent lesion of the joints and bone phalanges d) This is the fusion of fingers with each other due to skin membranes or bones e) This is an increase in the number of fingers 40) What developmental anomaly is meant by the term "Cleft palate"? a) Non-contamination of the palate b) Non-infection of the upper lip c) Non-contamination of the corner of the mouth d) Gross malocclusion of the jaws e) Congenital underdevelopment of the lower jaw 41) In which anatomical areas should the pulsation of the main arteries of the lower extremities be determined? a) In the groin area b) In the popliteal fossa c) Behind the outer ankle d) Behind the inner ankle e) Between the 1st and 2nd metatarsal bone on the back of the foot 42) What are the causes of acute and chronic limb ischemia? a) Atherosclerotic occlusion of the main arteries b) Deep vein thrombophlebitis c) Thromboembolism of the main arteries d) Stem lymphangitis e) Diabetic micro- and macroangiopathy 43) What operations are performed with wet gangrene of the lower limb? a) Operations aimed at restoring the blood flow of the main arteries b) Necrectomy, an attempt to transfer wet gangrene to dry c) Only conservative treatment d) Amputation of a limb as planned e) Amputation of a limb as a matter of urgency 44) What is tissue necrosis? a) Tissue necrosis b) Skin defect c) Mucosal defect d) Compensatory tissue hypertrophy e) Tissue atrophy 45) What is the most common cause of limb gangrene caused by circulatory disorder? a) Acute and chronic arterial obstruction b) Chronic venous insufficiency c) Lymphadenitis with periadenitis d) Acute thrombophlebitis e) Acute inflammation of lymphatic vessels 46) What is called an ulcer? a) Defect of covers and underlying tissues with poor regeneration, chronic course b) A round-shaped wound with undercut edges c) Wound with excessive development of granulation tissue d) A wound with the formation of hypertrophic scars e) Wound with putrefactive infection and tissue decay 47) What operations are indicated for dry necrosis of the first toe of the right foot and atherosclerotic occlusion of the superficial femoral artery? a) Amputation of a limb at hip level b) Urgent finger amputation and conservative treatment c) Only conservative treatment d) Amputation of a finger after the formation of a demarcation line e) Amputation of a finger, followed by surgery to restore blood flow 48) How are fistulas classified depending on their structure? a) Lip-shaped b) External c) Epithelized d) Granulating e) Internal 49) Which additional research method is the most informative for studying a long and convoluted fistula? a) Ultrasound examination b) Endoscopic examination c) Probing the fistula d) Overview radiography e) Fistulography, with the introduction of a contrast agent into the fistula 50) What pathological processes in the tissues are characteristic of dry gangrene of the foot? a) Swelling of the foot tissues  b) Tissue necrosis with protein coagulation c) Lymphostasis, thrombosis of the veins of the foot d) Drying, shriveling (mummification) of tissues e) Inflammatory infiltrates in the tissues of the foot 51) Where are bedsores most often formed? a) In the sacrum and shoulder blades b) On the posterior surfaces of the lower leg and thigh c) On the front and side of the chest d) In the area of large spits and heels e) On the back of the head and elbows 52) What is a lip-shaped fistula? a) When the lumen of the fistula passage is covered with granulation tissue b) When the fistula is formed by the fusion of the mucous membrane of the hollow organ with the skin c) When the walls of the fistula canal are covered with epithelium d) When the fistula of the hollow organ is located in the center of the wound e) When the fistula passage communicates the lumen of one hollow organ with another 53) What pathological processes are important in the formation of ulcers? a) Disorders of metabolism, blood and lymph circulation b) Systemic, infectious diseases and tumors c) Traumatic effects and diseases of the nervous system d) Hypoproteinemia and hypercoagulation e) Violation of immunity 54) List trophic ulcers associated with circulatory disorders? a) Atherosclerotic b) Post - Thrombophlebitic c) Neurotrophic d) Hypocoagulation e) Hypercoagulation 55) What are the basic principles of treatment of trophic ulcers? a) Pathogenetic treatment aimed at normalization of tissue trophism b) Restorative treatment: full nutrition, vitamin therapy c) Local treatment of ulcers - conservative and operative d) Antibiotic therapy e) Anticoagulant therapy 56) What are the signs of a formed external intestinal fistula? a) The fistula is located at the bottom of a purulent wound b) The fistula is surrounded by fused intestinal loops with fibrinous plaque c) The fistula is surrounded by unchanged skin d) The fistula is surrounded by scar tissue e) The fistula at the skin level is surrounded by granulation tissue 57) Which intestinal fistulas can close on their own, without surgical treatment? a) Lip-shaped b) Tubular lined with epithelium c) Tubular lined with granulation fabric d) Artificial small-intestinal single-stem fistulas e) Artificial single-barrel colonic fistulas 58) What is optional precancer? a) Diseases that always end in the development of cancer b) Diseases that usually lead to cancer c) Diseases that can lead to cancer d) Diseases that can lead to the formation of a non-tumourous tumour e) Diseases that lead to chronic inflammation 59) What signs are characteristic of a tumor? a) Spontaneous occurrence b) Structure polymorphism c) Isolation of growth d) Severe pain syndrome e) Hyperthermic reaction of the body 60) What signs are characteristic of malignant tumors? a) The presence of a capsule b) Ability to metastasize c) Occurrence of relapses d) Infiltrative tumor growth e) Intoxication of the body 61) What is the difference between benign and malignant tumors? a) Rapid growth b) Germination of surrounding tissues c) Slow growth d) The presence of a capsule e) Lack of intoxication 62) Which organs are most often affected by the malignant process in men? a) Lungs b) Kidneys c) Stomach d) The bladder e) Esophagus 63) Which organs are most often affected by cancer in women? a) The bladder b) Kidneys c) Lungs d) Mammary gland e) Cervix 64) What methods are used in the treatment of malignant tumors? a) Surgical treatment b) Radiation therapy c) Chemotherapy d) Hormone therapy e) Treatment with enzymes 65) What is obligate precancer? a) Diseases that end in the formation of a benign tumor b) Diseases that always lead to cancer if left untreated c) Diseases that end in chronic inflammation d) Diseases that often lead to cancer e) Diseases that sometimes lead to cancer 66) What diseases are precancerous? a) Chronic anacid gastritis b) Chronic hyperacid gastritis c) Callous stomach ulcer d) Cervical erosion e) Colon polyps 67) How does sarcoma metastasize? a) By arteries b) Through the veins c) Along the lymphatic pathways  d) By tendon sheaths e) By interfacial spaces 68) Which tumors are considered benign? a) Fibroids b) Osteosarcoma c) Angioma d) Cancer e) Myosarcoma 69) During the operation, a malignant tumor of the stomach up to 4 cm in diameter was found in the patient, sprouting all layers of its wall.The tumor does not germinate into the surrounding organs.Metastases to regional lymph nodes were detected. There are no distant metastases.How do you reflect the prevalence of the tumor process according to the international classification of TNM? a) T1 N0 Mo b) T2 N1 Mo c) T3 N1 Mx d) T4 N2 Mo e) T3 N2 Mx 70) Which cancer patients belong to the 3rd clinical group? a) With benign tumors b) With diseases suspected of malignant tumors c) Patients with malignant tumors d) Patients who have been cured of a malignant tumour by radiotherapy or surgery e) Patients with advanced tumor process, subject to symptomatic treatment 71) What tissue does cancer develop from? a) Epithelial b) Muscle c) Fat d) Bone e) Cartilaginous 72) What is meant by the term "oncological alertness of a doctor"? a) Knowledge of the characteristics of precancerous diseases b) Knowledge of the symptoms of malignant tumors in the early stages c) Exclusion of oncological diseases, especially in patients with difficult diagnosis d) Referral to an oncology centre for a suspected malignant tumour e) Examination of the patient's immune system 73) List benign tumors from connective tissue? a) Papilloma (polyp) b) Fibroma c) Lipoma d) Chondroma e) Osteoma 74) List benign tumors of epithelial origin. a) Fibroma b) Papilloma c) Adenoma d) Chondroma e) Lipoma 75) Which tumors are mixed? a) Adenoma b) Dermoid cysts c) Teratoma d) Parotid gland tumor from dissimilar tissues e) Papillomas 76) What are the differences between angiomas by anatomical structure? a) Gliomas b) Lymphangioma c) Capillary hemangioma d) Cavernous hemangioma e) Branched hemangioma 77) Which distinguish benign tumors from muscles? a) Lymphangioma b) Leiomyoma c) Rhabdomyoma d) Adenoma e) Papilloma 78) From what tissue does leiomyoma form? a) Of fascia b) Of striated muscles c) Made of smooth muscle fibers  d) From the submucosal layer of the muscles or stomach e) From the glandular epithelium 79) From what tissue can sarcoma develop? a) From immature connective tissue b) From the ganglia of the sympathetic nervous system c) From the integumentary epithelium d) From the glandular epithelium e) From the peripheral nerves and the posterior roots of the spinal cord 80) Which cancer patients belong to the 3rd clinical group? a) Patients with precancerous diseases b) Patients with malignant tumor and distant metastases c) Patients with malignant neoplasms to be treated d) Patients who have been cured of a malignant tumour by radiotherapy or surgery e) Patients with benign tumors 81) A 58-year-old patient during the operation revealed a tumor completely obstructing the lumen of the colon, metastases to regional lymph nodes and in the liver.How will you reflect the tumor process according to the international classification of TNM? a) T2N1Mo b) T3N1Mo c) T4N1Mx d) T1N3Mx e) T2N2Mx 82) What is meant by the term "external oncogenic factors"? a) Physical factors (e.g. ionizing radiation) b) Chemical factors (e.g. benzpyrene, benzidine, etc.) c) Substances of biological origin d) The state of the earth's magnetic field e) Climatic factors (large difference in summer and winter temperatures)  1.2. Anesthetization 1) Who demonstrated ether anesthesia for the first time? a) N.V.Sklifasovsky b) N.P. Kravkov c) F.I. Inozemtsev d) William Morton e) N.I.Pirogov 2) In what year was ether anesthesia demonstrated for the first time? a) 1846. b) 1793. c) 1825. d) 1904. e) 1914. 3) What should be done if during the introductory inhalation anesthesia the patient has the urge to vomit? a) Stop the supply of the narcotic substance b) Increase the supply of narcotic substance c) Refuse to perform inhalation anesthesia d) Urgently rinse the patient's stomach e) Use an airway 4) Who first used intravenous hedonal anesthesia? a) G.Wells b) D. Priestley c) A.Beer d) S.P.Fedorov e) V.K.Anrep 5) What kind of general anesthesia is called "Russian anesthesia"? a) Intramuscular ketamine anesthesia b) Mask anesthesia with nitrous oxide c) Intravenous hedonal anesthesia d) Mask essential anesthesia e) Intravenous viadryl anesthesia 6) What kind of anesthesia is advisable for a patient with a long and complex operation on the abdominal organs? a) Mask essential anesthesia  b) Intravenous hexenal anesthesia c) Endotracheal combined anesthesia d) Mask anesthesia with nitrous oxide e) Intravenous ketalar anesthesia 7) Who first introduced spinal anesthesia into practice? a) A.V. Vishnevsky b) V.K.Anrep c) A.Beer d) N.I.Pirogov e) A.I.Lukashevich 8) After what time is it necessary to replace the sodium lime in the adsorber, if anesthesia is carried out on a closed circuit? a) 10 - 15 min. b) 20-30 min. c) 40-60min d) 1.5- 2 hours. e) 2.5-3 hours. 9) The patient vomited during the introductory anesthesia.How to deal with this complication? a) Urgently rinse the stomach b) Stop anesthesia and postpone the operation c) Deepen the cut, after cleansing the oral cavity and pharynx of vomit d) Stop anesthesia, rinse the stomach, start anesthesia again e) Insert the airway into the mouth and continue anesthesia 10) In what cases is the use of novocaine for local infiltration anesthesia contraindicated? a) With bronchial asthma b) For thrombophlebitis of the subcutaneous veins in the lower extremities c) With intolerance to novocaine d) In ischemic heart disease e) With hypertension 11) The patient is scheduled to undergo mask cyclopropane anesthesia, 2 minutes after the supply of cyclopropane, the patient vomited. What should be done first? a) Enter the airway b) Remove the mask, open the mouth with a mouth expander and remove the vomit c) Perform a tracheostomy d) Perform tracheal intubation e) Push the lower jaw forward 12) With deep mask anesthesia in the position of the patient on his back, breathing became hoarse, ineffective, cyanosis of the face appeared.What should be done immediately? a) Apply a tracheostomy b) Perform tracheal intubation c) Push the lower jaw forward and remove the tongue d) Increase oxygen supply e) Enter the airway and continue anesthesia 13) What is the maximum permissible percentage of nitrous oxide that can be used during inhalation anesthesia? a) 40 % b) 50 % c) 70 % d) 80 % e) 90 % 14) What drugs are not included in the premedication mixture? a) M-cholinolytics b) Narcotic analgesics c) Antibiotics d) Steroid hormones e) Antihistamines 15) What should an anesthesiologist do if, during endotracheal anesthesia in a semi-closed way, sodium lime turned out to be of poor quality and symptoms of hypercapnia appeared? a) Apply a tracheostomy b) Extubate the patient and switch to mask anesthesia c) Switch to the semi-open method d) Switch to the closed method e) Increase oxygen supply 16) How long before the start of anesthesia should drugs be administered to the patient for the purpose of premedication? a) In 3.5-4 hours b) In 2 - 3 hours c) In 1 - 1.5 hours d) In 30 - 40 min. e) In 5-10 minutes. 17) How does blood pressure change at level 2 compared to level 1 of stage III of ether anesthesia?  a) Increases b) Normalizing c) Does not change compared to level 1 of stage III d) Only systolic blood pressure decreases significantly e) Only diastolic blood pressure decreases significantly 18) What are the main signs characteristic of the II stage of ether anesthesia? a) Increased muscle tone, motor arousal b) Pallor of the skin c) Bradycardia d) Increased blood pressure and tachycardia e) Muscle relaxation 19) At what stage and at what level are most surgical operations performed with endotracheal anesthesia? a) In the analgesia stage b) In stage II c) At the 3rd level of the surgical stage d) At the 1st - 2nd level of the surgical stage e) At the 4th level of the III stage 20) What complication can occur in a patient with rapid intravenous administration of barbituric acid preparations? a) Arterial hypertension b) Increased intracranial pressure c) Respiratory and cardiac arrest d) Anuria e) Reflex vomiting 21) What should be done if during the introductory anesthesia with hexenal, the patient stopped spontaneous breathing? a) Apply a tracheostomy as soon as possible b) Insert an airway and observe its efficiency c) Enter cardiamine and continue monitoring the patient d) Start artificial ventilation of the lungs and intubate the patient faster e) Jet intravenously inject hydrocortisone 22) What is the main positive property of intravenous anesthesia with barbiturates? a) Quick and pleasant introduction to anaesthesia, without arousal b) Stimulation of gastrointestinal motility c) Increased vagus nerve tone  d) Prolonged post-acute sleep e) Absence of vomiting 23) For what purpose is atropine included in premedication? a) To maintain the tone of the respiratory, vasomotor centers b) To reduce the CVP c) To reduce the tone of the vagus nerve d) To prevent vomiting and regurgitation e) For the prevention of postoperative intestinal paresis 24) How do pupils react to an overdose of ether? a) Don't change b) Slightly narrowed c) Significantly expanded d) Anisocoria occurs e) Significantly narrowed 25) What complication occurs in a patient with an overdose of nitrous oxide? a) Cardiac arrest b) Hypotension c) Hypertension d) Hypoxia e) Pulmonary edema 26) How does the pulse rate change in the second stage of ether anesthesia? a) Significantly more frequent b) Resolves c) Does not change d) Significantly slows down e) Slows down and becomes arrhythmic 27) At what stage and at what level of ether anesthesia does the pupil's reaction to light disappear? a) In stage II b) At the 1st level of the III art. c) At the 2nd level of the III art. d) At the 3rd level of the III art. e) At the 4th level of the III art. 28) At what stage and at what level of ether anesthesia does respiratory depression occur?  a) In stage I b) In stage II c) At the 1st level of the III art. d) At the 2nd level of the III art. e) At the 3rd level of the III art. 29) By what respiratory circuit (in what way) can anesthesia be performed without the help of an anesthetic apparatus? a) Semi - closed b) Closed c) Open d) Half - open e) Pendulum 30) How long after the onset of clinical death do changes in the cells of the cerebral cortex become irreversible? a) After 1 minute b) After 5 min. c) More than 10 min. d) After 15 min. e) After 20 min. 31) What are the symptoms characteristic of clinical death? a) Absence of pulsation on the carotid arteries (heart tones are not listened to) b) Respiratory arrest c) Cheyne-Stokes Breathing d) Pupil constriction e) Pupil dilation to the limit, complete areflexia 32) When is the most dangerous regurgitation of gastric contents during intubation anesthesia? a) During tracheal intubation b) After tracheal intubation c) In the middle of anesthesia d) At the end of anesthesia e) Before extubation 33) What is the purpose of using muscle relaxants under combined anesthesia? a) Ensuring adequate ventilation of the lungs b) The ability to control hemodynamics c) Cheaper anesthesia d) Providing the opportunity to operate at the 1-2 level of the surgical stage e) Reduction of surgical blood loss 34) What concentration and to what extent is novocaine used for spinal anesthesia? a) 0.25% 5 ml b) 0.5% 5 ml c) 1% 2 ml d) 5% 2 ml e) 10% 2 ml 35) Which liquid narcotic drugs are explosive? a) Chloroethyl b) Ether c) Narcotine d) Chloroform e) Trichloroethylene 36) Is it possible to use muscle relaxants for mask anesthesia? a) Can b) Not under any circumstances c) It is possible only with the use of an airway d) It is possible with very precise dosing e) Short-acting muscle relaxants are possible, long-acting ones are not 37) At what level is it advisable to perform a lumbar puncture for spinal anaesthesia in lower limb surgery? a) At any level of the lumbar spine b) At any level of the thoracic spine c) Between 5 lumbar and 1 sacral vertebrae d) Between the 4th and 5th lumbar vertebrae e) Between the 3rd and 4th lumbar vertebrae 38) What type of anesthesia is most appropriate to use in polyclinic conditions for surgical treatment of subcutaneous panaritium? a) Intravenous anesthesia with barbiturates b) Mask anesthesia with fluorotane c) Infiltration anesthesia with 0.25% novocaine solution d) Intraosseous anesthesia with 0.25% novocaine solution e) Conducting anesthesia with 1-2% novocaine by Lukashevich-Oberst 39) What danger threatens the patient if during the introductory anesthesia the patient has regurgitation of gastric contents?  a) Asphyxia b) Cardiovascular insufficiency c) Laryngospasm d) Reflex bradycardia e) Respiratory arrest 40) Under what type of anesthesia is it advisable to perform surgical treatment of the forearm phlegmon? a) Under intravenous anesthesia b) Under endotracheal anesthesia c) Under infiltration anesthesia d) Under intraosseous anesthesia e) Under peridural anesthesia 41) What should an anesthesiologist do if, when examining a patient going for emergency surgery under general anesthesia, it turned out that less than 4 hours had passed after eating? a) Postpone the operation for a few hours b) Apply intubation anesthesia c) Ask surgeons to perform surgery under local anesthesia d) Rinse the stomach with a probe and then perform anesthesia e) Prescribe laxatives, make a cleansing enema before surgery 42) What should be the ratio of the frequency of closed heart massage to the frequency of artificial lung ventilation during resuscitation by two resuscitators (the first column of numbers is the frequency of heart massage, the second is the respiratory rate)7 a) 1 / 1 b) 3 / 2 c) 2 / 1 d) 5 / 1 e) 10 / 1 43) What method of local anesthesia does anesthesia according to A.V. Vishnevsky belong to? a) Terminal b) Conductor c) Infiltration d) Intravenous e) Intraosseous 44) At what depth of ether anesthesia does the corneal reflex disappear? a) In stage I b) In stage II c) At the 1st level of the III art.  d) At the 2nd level of the III art. e) At the 3rd level of the III art. 45) The patient will undergo radical surgery for a chronic lung abscess. What type of anesthesia will you choose? a) Intravenous anesthesia b) Endotracheal anesthesia c) Mask anesthesia d) Peridural anesthesia e) Infiltration anesthesia 46) What is called a shock index (Algover index)? a) The ratio of pulse rate to systolic blood pressure b) The ratio of hourly diuresis to the specific weight of urine c) The ratio of CVP to heart rate d) The ratio of systolic blood pressure to diastolic blood pressure e) The ratio of CVP to systolic blood pressure 47) What is the volume and concentration of novocaine injected into a hematoma with a fracture of the tubular bone before performing a simultaneous manual reposition of fragments? a) 30-40 ml. 0.25% solution b) 15-20ml 2% solution c) 10-15ml. 5% solution d) 5-10ml. 10% solution e) 1-2ml. 20% solution 48) What should be the frequency of closed heart massage during resuscitation? a) 5 -10 in min. b) 15 - 30 in min. c) 40 - 50 in min. d) 70-80 in min. e) 100-120 in min. 49) What is the method of administration of novocaine and its concentration during infiltration anesthesia according to A.V. Vishnevsky? a) Injection of 0.5% novocaine solution near the nerve trunk b) Infusion of 1% novocaine solution subfascially c) Injection of 0.1% novocaine solution in layers into the soft tissue d) Introduction of 0.25% novocaine solution in layers into soft tissues e) Introduction of 0.25% novocaine solution endofascially 50) In what quantity, what concentration is novocaine used and where is it injected when performing a case (circular) hip blockade? a) 0.5% 80-100ml.novocaine is administered subcutaneously circularly b) 0.5% 120-150ml.novocaine is injected under the superficial fascia c) 0.25% 150-200ml.novocaine is injected into all fasci.-muscle cases of the thigh d) 0.25% 150-200ml.novocaine is injected circularly under the periosteum e) 0.25% 100-120ml.novocaine is injected into a vein distal to the applied tourniquet 51) What is the technique of intraosseous anesthesia during hip surgery? a) Novocaine injection into the cancellous bone substance without a tourniquet b) Novocaine injection into the spongy substance in the bone, distal to the tourniquet c) Novocaine injection into spongy substance, condyle region, proximal to tourniquet d) Introduction of novocaine under the periosteum distal to the tourniquet e) Introduction of novocaine under the periosteum proximal to the tourniquet 52) Where is the anesthetic solution injected when performing spinal anesthesia? a) In the spinal cord vestibule b) Into the subarachnoid space c) Into the peridural space d) Into the roots of the spinal cord e) Into the dura mater 53) Where is the anesthetic solution injected and which parts of the nervous system are blocked when performing epidural (peridural) anesthesia? a) Into the dura mater and the spinal cord roots are blocked b) Into the subarachnoid space and the spinal cord roots are blocked c) Into the dura mater and the spinal cord is blocked d) Into the epidural space and block the spinal cord roots e) Into the epidural space and block the spinal cord roots 54) Which parts of the central nervous system are affected by narcotic drugs during anesthesia in the arousal stage? a) Inhibit the centers of the brain stem b) The bark is inhibited greatly.hemispheres, while disinhibiting. subcortical centers c) Inhibit subcortical centers d) Inhibit the reticular formation with preserved cortical function of the large hemispheres e) Inhibit the cerebral cortex and inhibit the reticular formation 55) Which parts of the central nervous system are affected by narcotic drugs in the surgical stage of anesthesia? a) Inhibition of the cerebral cortex, which inhibits the reticular formation.  b) Inhibit subcortical centers c) Inhibit large hemisphere cortex, reticular formation and subcortical centres d) Inhibit the centers of the brain stem e) Inhibit reticular formation with preserved cerebral cortex function 56) Which parts of the central nervous system are affected by narcotic drugs during the development of the toxic stage of anesthesia? a) On the cortex of the large hemispheres b) On the reticular formation c) On subcortical centers d) Isolated on the medulla oblongata e) For the entire brain, including the stem department 57) Ether anesthesia is performed at the III level of the III stage. The patient had a movement of the eyeballs, slightly dilated pupils and slightly increased muscle tone.What do these symptoms indicate? a) The depth of anesthesia decreases and the 1st level of the 3rd stage occurs b) Anesthesia is reduced to level 3 stage 3 c) These symptoms are characteristic of stage 1 d) These symptoms are characteristic of stage 2 e) There is an overdose of the drug 58) During the operation under one-component mask anesthesia, the patient's pupils dilated and muscle tone increased.This interferes with the operation.What should an anesthesiologist do? a) Introduce muscle relaxants and switch to endotracheal anesthesia b) Stop the drug supply in order to reduce the level of anesthesia c) Increase the inhalation drug concentration in the inhalation mixture to deepen anaesthesia d) Subcutaneously inject 1 ml of 1% morphine hydrochloride solution e) Perform peridural anesthesia 59) During the operation under one-component mask anesthesia, the patient's pupils dilated and muscle tone was completely lost. At what stage of anesthesia is the patient? a) in the analgesia stage b) at the 1st level of the surgical stage c) anesthesia deepens to a toxic stage d) the patient wakes up (comes out of anesthesia) e) at the 2nd level of the surgical stage 60) In what cases can paranephral blockade be used? a) In case of hemotransfusion shock  b) With intestinal paresis c) With intestinal bleeding d) As a basis for the local anesthesia during operations in the lumbar region e) For the treatment of hemorrhoids 61) How many minutes after the introduction of lidocaine by Kulenkampf, analgesia of the brachial plexus develops? a) 10-15 min. b) 20-25 min. c) 30-35 min. d) 40-45 min. e) 50-60 min. 62) What complications can occur when performing peridural anesthesia? a) Hypoxia due to respiratory disorders b) Convulsive seizures c) Nausea and vomiting d) Hypertensive crisis e) Hypotension 63) When performing spinal and peridural anesthesia, the needle passes through several ligaments. Name them. a) Supraspinal b) Cruciform c) Longitudinal d) Interstitial e) Yellow 64) What drugs are used for spinal anesthesia? a) Pentamine b) Dicaine c) Lidocaine d) Marcaine e) Novocaine 65) Which of the listed drugs for intravenous anesthesia causes the minimum duration of anesthesia sleep? a) Sodium oxybutyrate b) Sombrevin c) Viadryl d) Hexenal e) Ketamine 66) Only one of the listed drugs for anesthesia causes an increase in blood pressure. Name it. a) Sodium oxybutyrate b) Sombrevin c) Viadryl d) Hexenal e) Ketamine 67) Which drug, usually used for intravenous anesthesia, can also be used for intravenous anesthesia? a) Ketamine b) Thiopental sodium c) Hexenal d) GHB e) Sombrevin 68) What is the duration of anesthesia sleep with fractional administration of sombrevin? a) 5-6 min. b) 20-30 min. c) 40-50 min. d) 1-1.5 hours e) 2 hours or more 69) What complications are possible with intravenous anesthesia with barbiturates? a) Falling blood pressure b) Inhibition of myocardial contractility c) Respiratory depression d) The Rise of blood pressure e) Disorders in the blood coagulation system 70) In what cases can barbituric acid derivatives be used for anesthesia? a) For introductory anesthesia b) For short-term intravenous anesthesia c) As a basic preparation for combined anesthesia d) For long-term intravenous anesthesia e) For long-term endotracheal anesthesia 71) What is the maximum allowable one-time dose of hexenal for anesthesia? a) 100 mg b) 200 mg  c) 1 g d) 5 g e) 20 g 72) What should be attributed to the advantages of intravenous anesthesia? a) Quick introduction to anesthesia b) Lack of arousal c) Pleasant falling asleep for the patient d) No complications e) Good handling 73) How are drugs administered for premedication during emergency surgical interventions? a) Subcutaneously b) Orally c) Into the rectum d) Intramuscularly e) Intravenously 74) What level (stage) of anesthesia is characterized by pupil dilation and the absence of its reaction to light? a) For stage 1 b) For stage 2 c) For Stage 3 level d) For level 2 stage 3 e) For level 4, stage 3 75) During ether anesthesia, the patient's blood pressure began to decrease and his pulse rate increased.What is the depth of anesthesia characterized by such hemodynamic changes? a) For 3 levels 3 stages b) For level 2 stage 3 c) For level 1 stage 3 d) For level 4, stage 3 e) For the second stage of anesthesia 76) What is the depth of ether anesthesia characterized by the appearance of diaphragmatic breathing? a) 1 stage b) 2 stage c) 2 levels 3 stages d) 3 levels 3 stages e) 4 levels 3 stages 77) At what depth of ether anesthesia begins relaxation of intercostal muscles and the predominance of diaphragmatic breathing? a) 1 stage b) 2 stage c) 1 level 3 stage d) 2 level 3 stage e) 3 level 3 stages 78) What concentration of lidocaine is used for peridural anesthesia? a) 20% b) 10% c) 2% d) 1% e) 0,5% 79) With what liquid narcotic drug does sodium lime react chemically, releasing toxic substances at the same time? a) Fluorotane b) Ether c) Chloroform d) Chloroethyl e) Trilen 80) Which, in your opinion, nodes of the anesthesia apparatus are not related to the respiratory circuit? a) Fur (bag) b) Inhalation and exhalation valves c) Adsorber d) Vaporizer e) Rotameter 81) What complications can occur during intravenous anesthesia with hexenal? a) Respiratory arrest b) Psychomotor agitation c) Inhibition of cardiovascular activity d) Arterial hypertension e) Clonic seizures 82) A 40-year-old patient, mentally balanced, will undergo surgery for a benign tumor of the radius. Under what kind of anesthesia can this operation be performed?  a) Under intravenous hexenal anesthesia b) Under local infiltration anesthesia c) Under combined intubation anesthesia d) Under anesthesia of the brachial plexus by Kulenkampf e) Under mask anesthesia with nitrous oxide 83) A patient aged 75 years with concomitant CHD and hypertension needs to perform amputation of the lower leg due to decompensated ischemia. Which method of anesthesia will you choose? a) Intubation anesthesia b) Mask anesthesia with ether c) Local infiltration anesthesia d) Spinal anesthesia e) Intravenous anesthesia with hexenal 84) Which of the listed medications does not apply to local anesthetics? a) Lidocaine b) Trimecain c) Dicaine d) Viadryl e) Sovcain 85) What kind of anesthesia should be chosen during the operation-pulmonectomy? a) Intravenous anesthesia with hexenal b) Combined endotracheal anesthesia c) Mask essential anesthesia d) Spinal anesthesia e) Local infiltration anesthesia according to Vishnevsky 86) What type of anaesthesia would you choose for the surgical treatment of a subcutaneous panaric lesion in a patient with circulatory insufficiency? a) Mask essential anesthesia b) Intravenous anesthesia with hexenal c) Mask anesthesia with fluorotane d) Endotracheal combined anesthesia e) Conducting anesthesia according to Oberst-Lukashevich 87) What type of anesthesia will you choose to perform an appendectomy in a patient with psychoneurostenia and with a tendency to hypotension? a) Local infiltration anesthesia according to Vishnevsky b) Spinal anesthesia c) Intubation combined anesthesia  d) Intravenous anesthesia with ketamine e) Peridural anesthesia 88) What type of anaesthetic would you choose for the surgical treatment of a carbuncle of the neck in a patient with hypertension? a) Mask anesthesia with nitrous oxide b) Intubation combined anesthesia c) Local infiltrative anesthesia d) Intravenous hexenal anesthesia e) Intravenous anesthesia with ketamine 89) What is the duration of anesthesia after a single intravenous injection of hexenal or sodium thiopental? a) 5-6 min. b) 10-15 min. c) 20-30 min. d) 40-45 min. e) 1-1.5 hours 90) The patient during the mask ether anesthesia showed a decrease in blood pressure, increased pulse.What should an anesthesiologist do? a) Increase the supply of ether b) Perform tracheal intubation c) Stop the supply of ether, ventilate the respiratory circuit d) Introduce muscle relaxants e) Stop the operation 91) In which cases is peridural anesthesia with catheterization of the peridural space indicated? a) In elderly and senile persons b) For long-term anesthesia in the postoperative period c) In patients with ongoing bleeding d) In patients with low blood pressure e) In patients with arterial hypertension 92) How much analgesic agent is injected into the epidural space? a) 1-2 ml b) 5-6 ml c) 10-15 ml d) 20-30 ml e) 50-60 ml 93) What signs indicate that when performing an epidural puncture, the needle got into the peridural space? a) Disappearance of resistance under pressure on the syringe piston b) Absence of leakage of cerebrospinal fluid from the needle c) The occurrence of paresthesia d) Shooting pain at the puncture site e) Irradiation of pain in the lower limb 94) What complications are possible after operations under spinal anesthesia with violations in the technique of its implementation? a) Motor paresis b) Purulent meningitis c) Meningism d) Hearing disorders e) Disorders of the vestibular apparatus 95) What position should be given to the patient after the introduction of novocaine into the subarachnoid space during spinal anesthesia? a) Lower the foot end of the table b) Put the patient on his stomach c) Lower the head end of the table d) Lay on your back strictly horizontally e) Lay it on its side 96) What position is advisable to give the patient after the introduction of lidocaine into the subarachnoid space? a) On the stomach b) On the side c) On the back strictly horizontally d) On the back and lift the head end of the table e) On the back and lift the leg end of the table 97) In what operations is spinal anesthesia indicated for the patient? a) During bladder surgery b) During operations on the rectum c) In operations on lower limbs d) During operations on the pancreas e) During operations on the stomach 98) Which of the following symptoms are characteristic of spinal anesthesia? a) Loss of pain sensitivity  b) Loss of temperature and tactile sensitivity c) Oppression of consciousness d) Moderate decrease in blood pressure e) Motor arousal 99) What is a contraindication for spinal anesthesia? a) Traumatic shock b) Hypertension c) Senile age d) Spinal deformity and purulent process in the puncture area e) Tuberculosis of the lungs 100) Choose the concentration of drugs that it is advisable to observe during spinal anesthesia? a) Novocaine solution 0.5% b) Lidocaine 10% solution c) Lidocaine 2% solution d) Novocaine solution 5% e) Trimecaine 1% solution 101) What is the concentration of novocaine solution and how much novocaine is needed to perform a unilateral paranephral blockade? a) 0.25%-80ml. b) 0.5%-60ml. c) 1%-30ml. d) 5%-20ml. e) 10%-10ml. 102) What are the main tasks of the preoperative period? a) Establish the diagnosis of the underlying disease b) Establish indications for the operation, urgency and nature of the operation c) Prepare the patient for surgery d) Choose the right method of anesthesia e) Prescribe antibiotics immediately after the patient's admission to the hospital 103) What sign indicates a properly conducted vagosympathetic blockade? a) The emergence of the Gorner's syndrome b) Quickening of the pulse c) Pulse reduction d) Increased breathing e) Increased systolic blood pressure 104) What amount of novocaine is used for therapeutic vagosympathetic blockade? a) 2-3 ml. b) 10-15 ml. c) 20-25 ml. d) 40-50 ml. e) 100-150 ml. 105) What is the cervical vagosympathetic blockade used for? a) For the prevention and treatment of pleuropulmonary shock b) It can be used for anesthesia during operations on the chest c) For the treatment of pneumonia d) For the treatment of gastric ulcer and duodenal ulcer e) For the treatment of esophagitis 106) What concentration and how much novocaine solution is used to perform a retromammary blockade? a) 0.25%-200ml. b) 0.5%-100ml. c) 1%-50ml. d) 5%-20ml. e) 10%-10ml. 107) What concentration and what volume of novocaine will be required to be administered to the patient when performing a case (circular) hip blockade? a) 0.25%-up to 600ml. b) 0.5%-up to 300ml. c) 1%-up to 50ml. d) 2%-up to 50 ml. e) 5%-up to 20 ml 108) What concentration and in what quantity will lidocaine be required for anesthesia of the brachial plexus according to Kulenkampf? a) 1%-30ml. b) 0.25%-30ml. c) 0.5%-30ml. d) 5%-10ml. e) 10%-5ml. 109) What concentration and how much novocaine solution should be used to perform intercostal anaesthesia?  a) 1%-5ml. b) 0.25%-10ml. c) 0.5%-10ml. d) 5%-5ml. e) 10%-1ml. 110) What drug for anesthesia is contraindicated in patients with arterial hypertension? a) Sodium oxybutyrate b) Ketamine c) Nitrous oxide d) Thiopental sodium e) Hexenal 111) In what cases is fluorotane anesthesia not indicated? a) In chronic venous insufficiency of the lower limbs b) In case of violation of the blood coagulation system c) With arterial hypertension d) With arterial hypotension e) In patients with anemia 112) What narcotic drugs are included in the Shane-Ashman mixture? a) Nitrous oxide and ether b) Fluorotane and ether c) Ether and cyclopropane d) Nitrous oxide and cyclopropane e) Fluorotane and nitrous oxide 113) For which type of anaesthesia and for which blockades is 0.25% novocaine solution used? a) Local infiltration anesthesia b) Terminal anesthesia c) Case blockade d) Spinal anesthesia e) Peridural anesthesia 114) What types of operations can be performed under regional anesthesia? a) Operations on the extremities b) Operations on the pelvic organs c) Lung surgery d) Heart surgery e) Brain surgery 115) What gaseous and liquid drugs can be used for introductory anesthesia? a) Nitrous oxide b) Fluorotane. c) Chloroform d) Azeotropic mixture (ether with fluorotane) e) Chloroethyl 116) What method of anesthesia should be used during surgery for intracranial hematoma in a patient with a closed skull injury? a) Intravenous anesthesia with ketamine b) Mask anesthesia with nitrous oxide c) Regional anesthesia with 0.25% novocaine solution d) Local infiltration anesthesia with 0.25% novocaine solution e) Combined intubation anesthesia 117) Which drug is an antagonist of antidepolarizing muscle relaxants? a) Promedol b) Euphyllinum c) Atropine d) Proserin e) Cytitone (lobelin) 118) What complication is most common in the postoperative period after the use of depolarizing muscle relaxants? a) Arterial hypotension b) Hyperthermia c) Cardiac arrhythmia d) Muscle pain e) Respiratory failure due to tongue entrapment 119) What are the causes of asphyxia that can be observed in a patient during mask anesthesia? a) Vomiting followed by aspiration of gastric contents b) Tongue sinking during deep anesthesia c) Entry of foreign bodies into the airways or sputum in the trachea and bronchi d) Insufficient minute volume of breathing e) Malfunction of the anesthesia machine 120) Why is Jackson's position assigned to a patient on the operating table? a) For performing operations on the pelvic organs  b) During neck surgeries c) During operations on the head d) To facilitate tracheal intubation e) During operations on abdominal organs 121) What are the main signs of severe respiratory failure? a) Cyanosis of the face and fingertips b) Shortness of breath and increased sweating c) Increase in hourly diuresis d) Bradycardia e) Pupil constriction 122) What drug for intravenous anesthesia can cause phlebitis? a) Sombrevin b) Sodium Oxybutyrate c) Viadryl d) Ketamine e) Hexenal 123) From what calculation is sodium oxybutyrate prescribed for introductory anesthesia? a) 0.5-1.0 mg/kg b) 5-10 mg/kg c) 15-20mg/kg d) 30-50 mg/kg e) 100-150 mg/kg 124) What mixture of narcotic substances is called azeotropic? a) Nitrous oxide and ether b) Fluorotane and ether c) Ether and cyclopropane d) Nitrous oxide and fluorotane e) Cyclopropane and nitrous oxide 125) What should be done if, after the end of the operation, the patient does not recover spontaneous breathing, and the cause of this complication is the prolonged action of depolarizing relaxants? a) Prescribe atropine b) Transfuse fresh citrate blood c) Introduce diphenhydramine d) Assign Proserin e) Perform forced diuresis 126) Which muscle relaxants are depolarizing? a) Ardoine b) Ditilin c) Myorelaxine d) Listenon e) Diplacin 127) Which relaxants are non-depolarizing? a) Ardoine b) Listenon c) Tubacurarin-chloride d) Myorelaxine e) Diplacin 128) Which of the authors and in what year first used curare drugs during anesthesia? a) 1846 Wells and Morton b) 1908 Kravkov and Fedorov c) 1879 Anrep and Oberst d) 1925 Yudin and Tomashevsky e) 1942 Griffith and Johnson 129) Name the drugs - derivatives of barbituric acid? a) Hexenal b) Viadryl c) Ketamine d) Thiopental sodium e) Sombrevin 130) What narcotic substance can cause hallucinations and delusions in the post-acute period? a) Sodium Oxybutyrate b) Ketamine c) Viadryl d) Sodium thiopental e) Hexenal 131) What narcotic substances are contraindicated in patients in a state of shock? a) Fluorotane b) Barbiturates c) Ketamine d) GHB  e) Nitrous oxide 132) Which narcotic drug for inhalation anesthesia is inappropriate to use for introductory anesthesia? a) Nitrous oxide b) Fluorotane c) Ether d) Ether with fluorotane (azeotropic mixture) e) Cyclopropane 133) For what purpose is premedication used? a) For a moderate increase in blood pressure b) To enhance cardiac output c) To increase central venous pressure d) To suppress vagus nerve function e) For antihistamine and analgesic action 134) Who first discovered the anesthetic effect of nitrous oxide? a) W. Morton b) W. Jackson c) G.Wells d) V.K.Anrep e) N.I.Pirogov 135) What color are the nitrous oxide cylinders? a) Blue b) Gray c) Red d) Black e) Orange 136) How to determine the amount of oxygen in a cylinder in liters? a) By weighing the balloon b) By subtracting the weight of an empty balloon from the weight of a full one c) According to the readings of the pressure gauge d) Multiplying the weight of the cylinder by the pressure in the cylinder e) Multiplying the cylinder capacity by the oxygen pressure in it 137) What is the oxygen pressure in the filled cylinder? a) 1 atm  b) 10 atm c) 50 atm d) 150 atm e) 200 atm 138) What color are oxygen cylinders painted in? a) Black b) Orange c) Blue d) Gray e) Red 139) What drugs are used to treat anaphylactic shock? a) Saline solution and plasma b) Rheopoliglyukin and vasoconstrictor drugs c) Antihistamines and glucocorticoids d) Metronidazole and dioxidine e) Antihypertensive agents and vitamins 140) Name the signs characteristic of stage III anaphylactic shock. a) Disorder and loss of consciousness b) Shortness of breath, stridorous breathing c) Increased diuresis d) Increased bleeding e) Dilation of pupils to the limit 141) Name the signs characteristic of anaphylactic shock stage II. a) Quincke's edema b) Tachycardia and decreased blood pressure c) Loss of consciousness d) Increased diuresis e) Apnea 142) What are the signs of stage I anaphylactic shock? a) Itching of the skin, the appearance of a rash b) The appearance of pathological types of breathing c) Headache, dizziness d) Sharp decrease in blood pressure e) Small rapid pulse 143) List the main signs indicating the effectiveness of resuscitation measures?  a) Pupil constriction, the appearance of a reaction to light b) The appearance of pulsation of the veins of the neck c) The appearance of a pulse on the main arteries d) the appearance of intestinal noises e) Involuntary urination 144) What kind of effort should be applied when pressing on the sternum during a closed heart massage in adults? a) 1-2 kg b) 3-4 kg c) 5-6 kg d) 8-9 kg e) 12-15 kg 145) What are the absolute signs of clinical death? a) Absence of a pulse on the carotid artery and cessation of spontaneous breathing b) Reduction of central venous pressure c) The pupil is maximally expanded, not reacting to light d) Pallor of the skin e) Absence of pulse in peripheral vessels 146) What is the cause of cerebral edema during anesthesia? a) Transfusion of freshly frozen plasma during anesthesia b) Use for anesthesia of sodium oxybutyrate c) Prolonged and deep hypoxia d) High central venous pressure e) Hyperventilation 147) What should be done to prevent hypothermia in a patient during surgery and anesthesia? a) Monitor the air temperature in the operating room (not lower than 22 degrees C) b) Transfuse blood substitutes warmed to body temperature c) Administer antihistamines d) Use only inhaled drugs e) To introduce cardiovascular analeptics 148) What can cause the patient's circulatory arrest during surgery and anesthesia? a) Massive blood loss and stage IV haemorrhagic shock b) Oliguria and anuria c) Severe hypoxia and hypercapnia d) A sharp decrease in total protein e) Increased blood clotting 149) With what type of local anesthesia is hydraulic tissue preparation possible? a) Conductor b) Case c) Terminal d) Infiltration anesthesia by A.V.Vishnevsky e) Intraosseous 150) What complications are possible with tracheal intubation? a) Damage to teeth, vocal cords, pharynx and trachea b) Apnea c) Conducting an intubation tube into the esophagus or right bronchus d) Stomach rupture e) Injury of the main vessels of the neck 151) What complications can develop with an overdose of fluorotane? a) Muscle trembling b) Arterial hypotension c) Indomitable vomiting d) Hyperthermia e) Convulsions 152) At what levels should a tourniquet be applied when performing intravenous anesthesia on the forearm? a) On the upper and lower third of the forearm b) On the middle third of the forearm c) On the lower third of the forearm d) On the upper third of the forearm e) on the lower third of the shoulder 153) Specify the landmarks of the puncture site when performing a peridural blockade? a) Bisecting the angle between the XII rib and the length of the back muscles by 1-2 cm. b) Along the lower edge of the XII rib c) Between the XI and XII ribs d) Along the scapular line below the XII rib e) 2 cm above the posterior inferior spine of the ilium 154) How to determine that the adsorber is "working" and the process of carbon dioxide absorption by sodium lime is active? a) The adsorber tank will be warm compared to other units of the device  b) The patient will maintain a normal pulse rate c) Central venous pressure will remain at a low level d) It is necessary to conduct a test with an indicator every 15 minutes. e) The patient will be missing a wedge.signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia 155) What method of anesthesia will you use during appendectomy if the patient does not tolerate novocaine? a) Do you use lidocaine for local anesthesia b) Apply intravenous anesthesia or inhalation mask anesthesia c) 20 minutes before novocaine anaesthesia, administer suprastine to the patient d) For premedication, before novocaine anesthesia, use neuroleptics e) Perform the operation under endotracheal anesthesia 156) What are the main disadvantages of inhalation anesthesia with nitrous oxide? a) It is impossible to achieve deep anesthesia b) If the permissible concentration of nitrous oxide is exceeded, hypoxia occurs c) Metabolic processes in the patient's body are disrupted d) There are cardiac arrhythmias e) Impaired liver and kidney function 157) What is the mechanism of hypoxia in case of nitrous oxide overdose? a) The respiratory center is oppressed b) The tone of the respiratory muscles decreases c) The process of oxygen diffusion through the alveolar membrane is disrupted d) Insufficient amount of oxygen in the respiratory mixture e) O 2 in hemoglobin is displaced by nitrous oxide and its transport is disrupted 158) What are the advantages of local infiltrative anesthesia according to A.V. Vishnevsky? a) Reduced novocaine concentration b) Hydraulic tissue preparation is possible c) The effect of the anesthetic is prolonged d) At the end of anesthesia, a sedative effect occurs e) The operation can be started immediately after anesthesia 159) What is the most appropriate and safest concentration of hexenal solution for intravenous anaesthesia? a) 0.1-0.5% solution b) 1-2.5% solution c) 3-5% solution d) 10-15% solution e) 20-25% solution 160) The patient has bradycardia and spontaneous breathing is not restored as a result of the prolonged action of antidepolarizing relaxants.What medications and in what sequence should be prescribed to the patient to restore spontaneous breathing? a) Caffeine and then proserin b) Cordiamine and then proserin c) Atropine and then proserin d) Proserin and then atropine e) Atropine and then proserin 161) What is the maximum dose of thiobarbituric acid preparations allowed during anesthesia? a) 1/2g dry substance b) 1gr. dry substance c) 1.5gr. dry substance d) 3gr. dry substance e) 5gr. dry substance 162) During resuscitation, where can adrenaline be injected in addition to the right ventricle of the heart? a) Into the left ventricle b) In the aorta c) Into the brachial artery d) Into the carotid artery e) Into the subclavian vein 163) What is the ratio of "systole" to "diastole" most appropriate to observe when conducting a closed heart massage? a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:4 d) 1:5 e) 1:6 164) Why can't a closed heart massage be performed less than 60 per minute? a) Min heart volume will not be enough to deliver oxygen to the brain b) You cannot ensure that artificial respiration is carried out correctly c) With this rhythm, you can damage the sternum and ribs d) Rare compression of the heart will reduce the CVP e) There will not be enough reflex pulses to restore cardiac activity 165) What complications are possible if the technique of conducting a closed heart massage is violated? a) Fracture of the sternum b) Rib fracture c) Rupture of the heart muscle d) Lung rupture e) Damage to the esophagus 166) In which cases will heart massage be ineffective? a) The patient is lying on a stretcher b) The patient is lying on a soft bed or sofa c) The patient is lying on the floor d) The patient is lying on the ground e) The patient is lying on the operating table 167) Why can't a closed heart massage be performed less than 60 per minute? a) This will lead to a sharp increase in intracranial pressure b) This will lead to a significant increase in the CVP c) You will squeeze an empty heart, because it does not have time to fill with blood d) This will prevent the proper conduct of artificial respiration e) Such a rhythm will cause rapid fatigue of the resuscitator 168) How to properly position the resuscitator's hands on the patient's chest during a closed heart massage? a) The entire palm of the left hand rests on the lower third of the sternum, the right hand on top b) The entire palm of the right hand lies on the sternum and the left hand is on top c) Tenar, hypotenar of the left hand lies on the lower third of the sternum, right hand on top d) Tenar, hypotenar of the right hand lies on the lower third of the sternum, left hand on top e) All of the above is not essential 169) What are the most common mistakes made by a patient in a state of clinical death during mouth-to-mouth or mouth-to-nose artificial respiration? a) Airway obstruction has not been eliminated b) Not enough air is blown in and the head is not thrown back c) The patient is not given intravenous cordiamine beforehand d) A heart puncture is not performed beforehand and adrenaline is not injected e) The resuscitator is waiting for another doctor to start a closed heart massage 170) In which anatomical area is it most appropriate to perform a heart puncture during resuscitation? a) In 3, the intercostal space on the right is 1.5-2.0 cm from the edge of the sternum b) In the 2nd intercostal space on the right, retreating 0.5 cm.from the edge of the sternum c) In the 3rd intercostal space on the left, retreating 1.5-2.0 cm from the edge of the sternum d) In the 3rd intercostal space on the left, retreating 0.5 cm. from the edge of the sternum e) In the projection area of the apex of the heart 171) What respiratory and cardiovascular analeptics are injected into the right ventricle during resuscitation? a) Adrenaline 1.0 b) Cordiamine 1.0 c) Cytitone 1.0 d) Lobelin 1.0 e) Caffeine 2.0 172) What resuscitation measures should you perform first of all in case of sudden cardiac arrest in a patient if he is in a medical institution? a) Auxiliary artificial blood circulation b) Closed heart massage and artificial respiration c) Defibrillation of the heart and intracardiac administration of adrenaline d) Intra-arterial blood transfusion e) Open heart massage 173) What late complications can occur after spinal anesthesia? a) Purulent meningitis and meningism b) Motor paralysis and persistent headaches c) Hypoproteinemia and hypokalemia d) Oliguria and anuria e) Hypertension and cardiac arrhythmia 174) Why should a heart puncture be performed retreating from the edge of the sternum on the left by 1.5-2.0 cm in the 3rd intercostal space? a) This is the shortest way to the left ventricle b) This is the area to which the right ventricle is closest c) To avoid damage to the sternum d) To avoid damage to the pleura e) To avoid damage to the internal artery of the breast 175) What type of anesthesia do you choose in a patient with cardiovascular insufficiency for surgical treatment of subcutaneous panaritium III of the phalanx II of the left finger?  a) Mask anesthesia with cyclopropane b) Intubation anesthesia with nitrous oxide c) Local infiltration anesthesia with 0.25% novocaine solution d) Local anesthesia with 0.25% novocaine by Lukashevich-Oberst e) Intraosseous anesthesia with 0.25% novocaine solution 176) What type of anesthesia will you choose for mediastinal surgery? a) Mask anesthesia b) Spinal anesthesia c) Epidural anesthesia d) Endotracheal anesthesia e) Intravenous anesthesia 177) The patient will undergo surgery for chronic hematogenous osteomyelitis of the hip. What type of anesthesia do you choose for the operation? a) Intraosseous anesthesia b) Spinal or peridural anesthesia c) Mask or endotracheal anesthesia d) Local infiltration anesthesia e) Intravenous local anesthesia 178) The patient has a transverse fracture of the diaphysis of the right thigh. An operation is to be performed - intramedular metallosteosynthesis. What kind of anesthesia will you choose? a) Endotracheal anesthesia b) Mask anesthesia c) Intravenous anesthesia d) Spinal anesthesia e) Local infiltration anesthesia 179) The patient has a medium-sized lipoma on his back. There is no concomitant pathology. What kind of anesthesia will you choose? a) Conduction anesthesia b) Terminal anesthesia c) Local infiltration anesthesia d) Endotracheal anesthesia e) Intravenous anesthesia 180) An adult patient has a bruised - chopped head wound. Primary surgical treatment of the wound is to be performed. Under what kind of anesthesia is it advisable to perform this operation? a) Under terminal anesthesia  b) Under local infiltration anesthesia c) Under endotracheal anesthesia d) Under mask anesthesia e) Under conductor anesthesia 181) The planned appendectomy operation was first performed under local infiltration anesthesia. However, the vermiform process turned out to be intact. It was decided to perform a median laparotomy for revision of the abdominal cavity. Under what kind of anesthesia will the operation be continued? a) Continue local infiltration anesthesia b) It is necessary to switch to mask anesthesia c) Apply endotracheal anesthesia d) Apply spinal anesthesia e) Apply peridural anesthesia 182) The patient needs to perform surgery under combined endotracheal anesthesia.He has a serious concomitant pathology-coronary heart disease with severe arrhythmia after suffering 2 myocardial infarctions.What narcotic drugs can not be used in this case? a) Fluorotane b) Cyclopropane c) Thiopental-sodium d) Nitrous oxide e) Ketamine 183) The patient's heart suddenly stopped during the operation - resection of the left lung. Which complex of resuscitation measures should be performed first? a) Closed heart massage b) Open heart massage and ventilator through an intubation tube c) Administration of cardiovascular analeptics and cardiac defibrillation d) Introduction of respiratory analeptics through a subclavian catheter e) Intravenous jet transfusion of saline solution 184) Hypoxia occurred in the patient during mask anesthesia with nitrous oxide due to his overdose. What should be done to eliminate this complication? a) Continue mask anesthesia with a minimum supply of nitrous oxide (1:1) b) Introduce an airway to the patient and continue anaesthesia with min. nitrous oxide c) Stop the supply of nitrous oxide and remove the mask from the face of the patient d) Stop the supply of nitrous oxide and supply oxygen through the mask 6 l/min e) Start the reverse ventilation of the lungs with a bag and a supply of O2 6 l/min without N2O 185) Which liquid narcotic drugs are explosive?  a) Ether b) Nitrous oxide c) Fluorotane d) Cyclopropane e) Chloroethyl 186) What devices are used for artificial lung ventilation? a) Narcon b) Polinarkon c) АН-4 (ЭМО) d) RO-6 e) Phase 5 187) Name the anesthesia machines. a) Phase-5 b) Narcon c) Polinarkon d) АН-4 (ЭМО) e) RO-6  1.3. BLEEDING AND BLOOD TRANSFUSION 1) What first aid will you provide to the patient if he has a secondary late arterial bleeding from a purulent wound of the stump of the right foot? a) Intravenous administration of single-group blood b) Elevated limb position c) Application of a hemostatic tourniquet d) Topical application of fibrin film and hemostatic sponge e) Ligation of the artery along 2) List the causes of secondary late bleeding ? a) Purulent melting of the vessel wall b) Slipping of the ligature from the vessel c) Bedsore of the vessel wall under pressure from bone fragments, drains d) Ejection of a blood clot from an artery with an increase in blood pressure e) Rough manipulations in the wound when removing drains and tubes 3) What are the causes of early secondary bleeding? a) Insufficient control of hemostasis during surgery b) Advanced age of the patient c) Increased blood pressure after surgery d) Leukocytosis and the shift of the leukocyte formula to the left e) Slipping of the ligature from the vessel, pushing the thrombus out of the vessel 4) What tissues in the patient can be used to stop parenchymal bleeding during surgery for liver rupture? a)Muscle tissue b) Oil seal c) Subcutaneous fat d) Skin e) Peritoneum 5) What are the methods of stopping bleeding related to biological? a)Hemostatic sponge b) Native plasma c) Hydrogen peroxide d) 10% calcium chloride e) Aminocaproic acid 6) What methods of stopping bleeding are mechanical?  a) Ligation of the vessel in the wound b) Applying a clamp c) Using cold d) Electrocoagulation of the vessel e) Using a hemostatic sponge 7) What factors contribute to the development of hemorrhagic shock? a) Ultraviolet irradiation b) Overheating c) Hypothermia d) X-ray irradiation e) Prior transfusion of saline solutions 8) Which of the vitamins affects the synthesis of blood clotting factors? a) B vitamins b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin A e) Vitamin K 9) In what pathology does cholemic bleeding develop? a) Acute hemorrhagic gastritis b) Acute stomach ulcer c) Jaundice of various etiologies d) Acute pyelonephritis e) Acute cholecystitis 10) In what diseases are diapedetic bleeding observed? a) Pneumonia b) Sepsis c) Scarlet fever d) Diabetes mellitus e) Kidney stone disease 11) What pathological changes occur in the body of the b-th with deseminated intravascular coagulation syndrome (DIC)? a) Reduction of blood pressure b) Increasing the CVD c) Multiple formation of clots and blood clots in the vessels  d) Increase in body temperature e) Dehydration of the patient 12) What is the maximum length of a tourniquet for arterial bleeding? a) Up to 30 minutes b) Up to 1 hour c) Up to 2 hours d) Up to 3 hours e) Up to 4 hours 13) How much acute blood loss is absolutely fatal? a) 25% of the circulating blood volume b) 30% c) 40% d) 45% e) 50% 14) Why does the blood that has poured into the serous cavities lose its ability to coagulate? a) Due to a decrease in the level of partial pressure of O2 in the parietal pleura b) Due to an increase in the level of carbon dioxide in the parietal pleura c) Due to the fixation of fibrin by the serous integument d) Due to a decrease in the number of vit.K in the outpouring of blood e) Due to infection of the spilled blood 15) What are the symptoms characteristic of profuse bleeding into the pleural cavity? a) Dulling of percussion sound and weakening of breathing during auscultation b) Anuria c) Anaemia and progressive decline in blood pressure d) Hematuria e) Tachycardia 16) What laboratory data can confirm the presence of latent bleeding from the gastrointestinal tract? a) General blood test b) Blood test for total protein c) Stool analysis for hidden blood d) Analysis of feces for dysbiosis e) Determination of gastric secretion 17) What are the symptoms characteristic of the accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity?  a) Chest pain and shortness of breath b) Vomiting, dysuric disorders c) Dulling of percussion sound and weakening of breathing over the lungs d) The appearance of Kus-Maul or Biota-type respiration e) Bradycardia 18) What are the local symptoms characteristic of the accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity? a) Painful abdomen on palpation and restricted participation in the act of breathing b) Sudden bloating and increased intestinal motility c) Dry tongue as a "brush" d) Absence of dullness in the sloping places of the abdomen e) Dulling of percussion sound in the sloping places of the abdomen 19) What clinical signs are not characteristic of hemarthrosis? a) Positive "drawer" symptom b) Impaired joint function, positive patellar balancing symptom c) Marbling of the skin in the joint area d) Increased skin temperature in the joint area e) Swelling in the knee joint area, receiving blood during puncture 20) What biological drugs are used to stop bleeding? a) rheopolyglucin b) Platelet mass c) Fibrinogen, freshly frozen plasma d) Acetylsalicylic acid,nicotinic acid e) Saline solution and 5% glucose solution 21) What is indicated by a decrease in central venous pressure during bleeding? a) To reduce the volume of circulating blood b) For stagnant phenomena in the small circle of blood circulation c) To increase the speed of blood flow d) To reduce venous blood flow to the heart e) To increase venous blood flow to the heart 22) Loss of how much blood is dangerous for newborns? a) A few milliliters b) 50 ml c) 100 ml d) 110 ml e) 150 ml 23) Which patients suffer the most from blood loss? a) Men b) Women c) Old people d) Children e) Age and gender do not matter 24) What is the pulse rate characteristic of acute blood loss? a) 50-60 min. b) 70-80 c) 85-90 d) 100-120 e) Over 120 25) What clinical signs are characteristic of acute blood loss? a) Clonic and tonic seizures b) Bradycardia and increased CVP c) Euphoria and disappearance of tendon and skin reflexes d) Pallor and moisture of the skin, increased breathing e) Frequent, weak pulse, decreased blood pressure and CVP 26) What drug can be used to correct developing acidosis with massive blood loss? a) 10% glucose solution b) 0.9% table salt solution c) 4% sodium bicarbonate solution d) Reopoliglyukin e) 10% table salt solution 27) What should be done if, after applying a tourniquet to the shin, arterial bleeding from a deep wound on the foot continues, and the patient needs to be transported to a hospital? a) Inject caffeine subcutaneously b) Inject adrenaline intramuscularly c) Apply a gauze bandage to the foot wound d) Introduce calcium chloride and vicasol e) Re-attach the tourniquet to the lower third of the thigh 28) Which method of research allows the most correct diagnosis of hemopericardium? a) Puncture of the pleural cavity b) Chest X-ray c) Ultrasound examination of the heart  d) Determination of percussion boundaries of the heart e) Pericardial puncture 29) How much accumulated blood in the pericardium can lead to tamponade of the heart? a) 50-100 ml b) 100-150 ml c) Up to 200 ml d) Up to 300 ml e) 400-500 ml 30) What are the causes of the development of hemopericardium? a) Heart injury or closed heart injury b) Sepsis, rupture of a heart aneurysm c) Lung injury d) Rib fracture e) Fracture of the thoracic vertebrae 31) What are the symptoms characteristic of the hemopericardium? a) Shortness of breath and deafness of heart tones b) Tachycardia and expansion of the boundaries of cardiac dullness c) Increased blood pressure and hard breathing in the lungs d) Oliguria, up to anuria e) Encephalopathy and lack of pupil response to light 32) What manipulation will be reliable for the diagnosis of hemarthrosis? a) Percussion and palpation of the joint b) Radiography of the joint c) Joint puncture d) Measurement of the volume of movements in the joint e) Joint thermography 33) What are the symptoms characteristic of hemarthrosis? a) Crepitation in the joint area b) Local temperature rise c) The presence of a history of injury and swelling of the joint d) Restriction of movement in the joint, positive patellar balancing syndrome e) Cyanosis of the skin along the entire circumference of the joint 34) What causes can lead to the occurrence of hemarthrosis? a) Traumatic injuries of bones and soft tissues in the joint area  b) Scurvy or hemophilia c) Rheumatic polyarthritis d) Joint contracture e) Ankylosis of the joint 35) After what period of time should the first signs of hemagglutination appear when determining blood groups? a) After 30 seconds b) 45 sec c) 60 seconds d) 90 sec e) 120sec 36) At what temperature (in degrees Celsius) should standard serums be stored? a) 0 - +3 degrees. b) +4 - +10 degrees. c) +11 - +14 degrees. d) +15 - +18 degrees. e) +20 - +24 degrees. 37) At what lowest air temperature is it still possible to determine blood groups? a) +5 degrees. b) +10 degrees. c) +15 degrees. d) +20 degrees. e) +25 degrees. 38) What ratios of blood and standard serum should be observed when determining the blood type? a) 1:1 b) 1:2 c) 1:3 d) 1:5 e) 1:10 39) Name the maximum shelf life of dry plasma. a) Up to 1 year b) Up to 2 years c) Up to 3 years d) Up to 4 years old e) Up to 5 years 40) Which drug is most effective in the case of protein deficiency in the patient developed in the immediate postoperative period? a) Protein b) Albumin c) Aminopeptide d) Hydrolysin e) Casein Hydrolysate 41) How long can fresh native plasma be used? a) Within 2-3 hours b) Within 6-12 hours c) Within 1-2 days d) Within 5-10 days e) Within 12-24 days 42) What should the temperature of the water bath be maintained when defrosting red blood cells? a) Up to +7 degrees. b) +14 degrees. c) +21 degrees. d) +36 degrees. e) +45 degrees. 43) What temperature is used for slow freezing of red blood cells? a) From -10 to -20 degrees. b) From -21 to -30 degrees. c) From -31 to -45 degrees. d) From -46 to -69 degrees. e) From -70 to -80 degrees. 44) What is the shelf life of red blood cells frozen at ultra-low temperatures? a) 1 month b) Up to 1 year c) Up to 5 years d) 8-10 years old e) 11-15 years old 45) What is the maximum period of use of erythrocyte suspension after defrosting? a) Up to 12 hours b) Up to 24 hours  c) Up to 2 days d) Up to 3 days e) Up to 5 days 46) At what temperature and for how long can heparinized blood be stored? a) 3 hours at a temperature of +4gr. C b) 6 hours at a temperature of +8gr.C c) 24 hours at a temperature of +4gr.C d) 24 hours at a temperature of +8gr.C e) 48 hours at 0gr.C 47) What should be the ratio of the stabilizing solution (6% sodium citrate) to the volume of freshly harvested blood? a) 1:2 b) 1:3 c) 1:5 d) 1:8 e) 1:10 48) What causes of death are not contraindications for harvesting cadaveric blood from deceased people? a) Traumatic brain injury b) Acute heart failure c) Bruising of the chest organs and an open fracture of the hip d) Sepsis e) Blunt abdominal trauma with damage to internal organs 49) Specify hemodynamic blood substitutes? a) Hemodesis b) Polyamine c) Rheopolyglukin d) Lipofundin e) Polyglukin 50) What are the indications for transfusion of erythrocyte suspension? a) Acute anemia b) Hemorrhagic shock c) Burn shock d) Anaphylactic shock e) Citrate shock 51) What is the mechanism of action of transfused blood? a) Replacement of lost blood b) Normalization of blood protein composition c) Normalization of the electrolyte balance d) Stimulation of the liver and kidneys e) Increase of coagulating properties of blood 52) Specify what side effects may occur on the introduction of blood substitutes? a) Development of acidosis b) Development of alkalosis c) Allergic reactions d) Pyrogenic reactions e) Toxic reactions 53) With what complications associated with blood transfusion, plasma exchange with removal of 1500-2000ml. plasma is indicated? a) In severe pyrogenic reactions b) In case of hemotransfusion shock c) With anaphylactic shock d) With citrate shock e) With air embolism 54) What are alpha and betta agglutinins contained in? a) In red blood cells b) In eosinophils c) In plasma d) In platelets e) In leukocytes 55) What are the main methods of treating pyrogenic and allergic reactions as complications of blood transfusion? a) Warming the patient and prescribing antipyretics b) Appointment of narcotic analgesics c) Appointment of diuretics d) Ice on the lower back, gastric lavage e) Desensitizing and in severe cases hormonal therapy 56) What are the main causes of hemotransfusion shock? a) Transfusion of large doses of blood b) Transfusion of fresh blood c) Transfusion of blood incompatible with the ABO system and Rh factor  d) Acute massive blood loss e) Intra-arterial blood transfusion under high pressure 57) What are the indications for transfusion of leukocyte mass? a) Anemia b) Hemophilia c) Leukopenia d) Radiation sickness e) Traumatic shock 58) What studies must be performed in a patient before blood transfusion due to massive blood loss? a) Determine the blood type and Rh factor of the patient and the donor b) Make a general blood and urine test, determine the validity of donated blood c) To make samples on an individual and rhesus compatibility and biological sample d) Do an ECG e) Perform an ultrasound of the kidneys 59) Specify what are the main tasks a doctor should solve before transfusion of blood substitutes? a) Determine the indications and contraindications for transfusion of blood substitutes b) Conduct a test for individual compatibility c) Determine the suitability of blood substitutes for transfusion and the rate of their administration d) Determine the condition of the patient's blood coagulation system e) Determine the daily diuresis of the patient 60) Choose blood substitutes classified according to the direction of their action? a) Hemodynamic and detoxification b) For parenteral nutrition and water-salt regulators c) Low molecular weight d) Hemostatic e) High molecular weight 61) Define a hematoma. a) Accumulation of blood in the abdominal cavity b) Tissue dissection with a cavity and accumulation of blood c) Accumulation of blood in the hollow organ d) Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity e) Accumulation of blood in the joint cavity 62) Who first transfused cadaveric blood? a) N.I.Pirogov b) S.S.Yudin c) K.Landsteiner d) A.S.Viner e) V.N.Shamov 63) Specify the mechanism of action of detoxifying blood substitutes? a) The ability to adsorb toxins b) Ability to destroy toxins c) The ability to accelerate the speed of blood flow d) Improvement of capillary perfusion and release of toxins from tissues e) Improving oxygen transport to tissues 64) What biological tissues and medications are used for local hemostasis? a) Hemostatic sponge and biological antiseptic swab b) Vikasol c) Fibrinolysin d) Ephedrine e) Omentum and muscles 65) What informative method of determining blood loss can be used in the clinic? a) Determination of the Algover shock Index b) Determination of hematocrit taking into account the indicators of red blood c) Determination of the volume of circulating blood d) Determination of hemoglobin e) Counting the number of red blood cells 66) What should be understood by hemorrhage? a) The presence of blood in the abdominal or pleural cavity b) Accumulation of blood in the hollow organ due to bleeding c) Diffuse blood impregnation of tissues d) The outflow of blood from the bloodstream into the joint cavity e) Accumulation of blood in the cavity between the tissues as a result of bleeding 67) What are the differences between bleeding according to anatomical classification? a) Parenchymal and capillary b) Bleeding from arterioles and venules c) Arrosive and cholemic bleeding d) Arterial and venous bleeding e) Intracranial and intrapleural 68) What medicinal substances are used for general hemostatic action? a) Caffeine and cardiamine b) Saline solution and 5% glucose solution c) Platelet mass and vikasol d) Cryoprecipitate and freshly frozen plasma e) Rheopoliglyukin and hemodesis 69) Specify which is the easiest way to finally stop bleeding from varicose veins of the lower extremities? a) Superimposing an ice bubble b) Applying a pressure bandage c) Application of chemical hemostatic substances d) Vascular suture e) Electrocoagulation 70) What are the thermal methods of stopping bleeding based on? a) On blood clotting b) On protein coagulability at high temperatures c) On vascular spasm at low temperature d) On the sealing of the vessel wall e) On the aggregation of shaped blood elements 71) What is the normal value of hematocrit? a) 0,32-0,38 b) 0,1-0,2 c) 0,42-0,46 d) 0,50-0,52 e) 0,55-0,60 72) What is the most optimal treatment method you will choose to finally stop bleeding from a damaged carotid artery