General Science Questions PDF

QUESTIONS ON GENERAL SCIENCE Prepared by Praturi Potayya Sarma Mobile : 8143189271  PHYSICS – 2 OUR UNIVERSE – GRAVITATION: 1) Copernican theory is also known as _____________________________ Ans : Helio centric theory 2) Mass (...

QUESTIONS ON GENERAL SCIENCE Prepared by Praturi Potayya Sarma Mobile : 8143189271  PHYSICS – 2 OUR UNIVERSE – GRAVITATION: 1) Copernican theory is also known as _____________________________ Ans : Helio centric theory 2) Mass (M) of earth is _________ Ans: 6 x 1024 Kg 3) Radius ® of earth is ______________ Ans: 6.4 x 106 m 4) the value of ‘g’ on the earth in S.I. system is _____________ Ans : 9.8 m/s2 5) The value of ‘g’ on the moon is ____________ Ans : 1.67 m/s 2 6) the value of ‘g’ on the sun is ______________ Ans : 27.4 m/s2 7) The force that keeps the planets in their orbits is the _______ of the sun Ans : gravitational force 8) The moon makes one revolution about the earth in ______ days Ans : 27.3 9) The distance of the moon from the earth is about ___________ KMs Ans: 3.85 x 105 10) The basis of Newton’s Laws of universal gravitation is ___________ Ans : Kepler’s Laws 11) Orbiting around the sun in circular orbits is first proposed by _______ Ans : Copernicus 12) The path of a planet around the sun is ________  Ans : elliptical 13) The value of ‘g’ at the poles of the earth is _______ Ans : maximum 14) The value of ‘g’ at the equator is __________ Ans : minimum 15) 1 Kilogram weight weight on earth is equal to _________ Ans : 9.8 Newtons 16) The orbital velocity required for an object to go round the earth is _______ Ans : around 8 km/sec 17) Escape velocity of an object, to go out of the gravitational pull of the earth is _____ Ans : 11.2 Km/sec 18) Ecape velocity of an object, to go out of the gravitational pull of the sun is ________ Ans : about 42 KM/sec 19) Mass of a body anywhere in the world is __________ Ans : same DYNAMICS: 1) Circular motion is a special case of ______ Ans : rotator motion 2) If the string of whirling stone is cut, the stone moves in ___________ Ans: tangential 3) In a uniform circular motion the angular velocity is __________ Ans : constant 4) Centre seeking force is called as ______________ Ans : Centripetal force 5) Centrifugal force means __________ Ans : centre fleeing force or a force directed away from the centre 6) Newton’s laws are valid in _______ frame of reference. Ans : inertial 7) The study of motion of a body under the action of force is called __________ Ans : dynamics 8) Examples for translator motion ______________ Ans (1) motionof a flywheel,(2) motion of earth about its axis 9) Examples for oscillatory motion ______________ Ans : (1) motion of a pendulum (2) motion of mass attached to a string 10) Earth goes round the sun because of _______ of attraction between them. Ans : gravitational force 11) The gravitational force of attraction provides the necessary ______ for a satellite revolving round a planet. Ans : centripetal force 12) When electron revolves round the nucleus in an atom, the centripetal force is provided by the _________ of attraction between them. Ans : electro static force 13) Centrifugal force is also known as ____________ Ans : fictitious force or pseudo force 14) A _______________ is used to separate particles of higher mass from the lower mass in a given mixture. Ans : centrifuge 15) When a running car takes a sudden left turn, a man sitting in the back seat falls to the right due to _______ of direction. Ans : inertia 16) The magnitude of centripetal force and centrifugal force is ______ Ans: same 17) ________ depends on the expected speed of vehicle and the radius of the curvature of the road. Ans: Banking angle 18) _______ is a body orbiting around another body. Ans : Satellite 19) Earth goes round the sun because of ________ Ans : gravitational force of attraction 20) The domestic churner works on the principle of a __________ Ans : centrifuge 21) The natural satellite of earth is ________ Ans : Moon 22) Satellites and space stations used for study of planets, stars and _____ in the universe. Ans : galaxies 23) “The orbinal velocity of an artificial satellite is ________ km/sec. Ans : about 8 and less than 11 24) ____________ force is a pull on the body towards the centre of a circle. Ans : Centripetal 25) The principle of launching an artificial satellite into orbit is to sufficient intial _____ speed such that it revolves round the earth at the choosen height. Ans : horizontal 26) The device used to separate particles of higher mass from those of lower mass in a given mixture _______ Ans : centrifuge 27) A car moves on a curved but level road. The necessary centripetal force on the car is provided by ___________ Ans : friction between the tyres and the road SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION : 1) Any motion that repeats itself along the same path in equal intervals of time is called a _________ Ans : periodic motion 2) Periodic motion is also called as _______ Ans : harmonic motion 3) A _____________ is associated with every wave motion. Ans : simple harmonic motion 4) The time period of a simple pendulum is ____________ Ans : directly proportional to the square root of length ELECTROMAGNETIC SPECTRUM : 1)What is Spectrum ? Ans : Spectrum is a group of wave lengths or frequencies. 2) When a ray of sun light falls on a prism, the transmitted light produces a sequence of colours called a _________ Ans : visible spectrum or VIBGYOR 3) The prisms made of ______ are used to defect Infra red radiations. Ans : rock salt 4) The invisible radiation before violet are called _______ Ultraviolet radiations 5) __________ radiations are characterized by oscillating electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation. Ans : electromagnetic 6) The waves travelling with velocity of light and consisting of Oscillating electric and magnetic fields perpendicular to each other and also perpendicular to the direction of their propagation form the __________ Ans : electromagnetic spectrum 7) The wavelength of the Visible spectrum extends from about 0.4 µ m to _______ that is from violet to red colour. Ans : 0.7 µ m 8) _______________ spectrum is emitted when the excited valence electrons in atoms jump to their normal states. Ans : Visible 9) _____________ radiations are emitted by atoms or molecules when they change their states of rotational to vibrational motion. Ans : Infra red 10) _______ radiations can be detected by thermopile Ans : Infra red 11) Infra red radiations find applications in _________ Ans : physiotherapy 12) Infra red radiations are also used to take photographs of objects in ________ Ans : darkness 13) The wave length of the micro waves are in the range from _________ to ________ Ans: 10 µ m to 1 n m 14) Radio waves have wavelengths from _______ to about _________ Ans : 1 m , 100 KM 15) Radio waves are produced by the electromagnetic oscillators of __________ Ans : low frequency 16) _________ radiations are produced by the high energy transitions of the electrons in atoms Ans : Ultra violet 17) We are protected from ultraviolet radiations of the sun due to _____ layer in our atmosphere. Ans: ozone 18) Wave lengths of x-rays range from ______ to ______ Ans : 0.001 nm, 10nm or 0.01 Å m 100 Å 19) ___________ are produced in discrete wavelengths in individual transitions amon g the inner electrons of an atom. Ans : X-rays 20) X-rays of short wavelengths are also called as __________ Ans : hard x-rays 21) Soft x-rays are used in medical diagnosis called _____________ Ans : radiography 22) x-rays are also used to cure some diseases. This method is called ________ Ans : radio therapy 23) gamma ( γ ) rays are emitted in __________ Ans : radio activity 24) All electromagnetic waves are ____________ in nature. Ans : transverse 25) The visible spectrum is emitted when excited valence ____ in atoms jump to their normal states. Ans: electrons 26) The colour of light emitted by a particular substance is characteristic of the ____ of the substance. Ans : atoms 27) The light emitted from the sun and distant stars give information about the _____ of the matter present in them. Ans : composition 28) IR means_______ Ans : Infra red 29) Infra red radiations are emitted by _______ when they change their states of rotational or vibrational motion. Ans : molecules 30) Hot bodies form sources of the _______ radiations Ans : Infra red 31) IR radiations can be detected by ___________ Ans : Thermopile or bolomometer 32) Microwaves are produced by high frequency electromagnetic _____ in electric circuits Ans : Oscillators 33) ___________ waves are used in satellite communications Ans : Micro waves 34) Mapping of the radio emissions from extra terrestrial sources is known as ________ Ans : radio radiations 35) UV means _______ Ans : Ultra violet rays/ ultra violet spectrum 36) RADAR means _________ Ans : Radio detection and ranging 37) The reason of depletion of ozone layer in atmosphere is due to the reactions with ________ Ans: chloro fluro carbons 38) Speed of light in vacuum is ___________ Ans : 3 x 10 8 m/sec 39) Microwaves are often used in _________ Ans : RADAR 40) The type of radiations used in Radar are ________ Ans : Microwaves SOUND : 1) Speed of sound in air is ________ Ans : 333 mps ( in normal conditions) 2) _____________ is the phenomenon in which if one of the two bodies of the same natural frequency is set into vibration, the other body also vibrates with large amplitude under the influence of the first body. Ans : Resonance 3) ____________ is not transmitted in stationary waves. Ans : Energy 4) Sound waves travel in air are ___________ waves Ans : longitudinal 5) _____________ waves are formed in a resonating air column. Ans: Stationary 6) The periodic vibrations of decreasing amplitude are called ______ vibrations. Ans : damped 7) Everybody has its own frequency called ________ Ans : natural frequency 8) Velocity of sound is maximum in ______ Ans : solids ( like iron rods) 9) The velocity of sound in vacuum is ________ Ans : zero 10) When the soldiers cross a suspension bridge they are asked to break their steps to prevent_______ Ans : resonance 11) A tuning fork vibrates when a vibrating tuning fork is brought near it. This is due to _____ Ans : rersonance 12) Velocity of sound on moon is _______ Ans : zero 13) The longest wave is ________ Ans : Radio wave 14) In a resonating air column ____ waves are formed. Ans : stationary LIGHT NATURE OF LIGHT & SOURCES OF LIGHT 1) Newton proposed ________ theory of light Ans : corpuscles 2) Corpuscles are _____ by the reflecting surface Ans : repelled 3) Corpuscles are ______ by the refracting surface Ans : attracted 4) Wave theory of light was proposed by __________ Ans : Huygens 5) According to Newton, the colours of light are due to difference in the ______ of corpuscles. Ans : different sizes 6) Light rays can be produced from __________ body Ans : luminous 7) Examples of luminous bodies are _______ Ans: Sun, Stars 8) Maxwell proposed _________ theory of light Ans : electromagnetic 9) Light consists of radiations called ________ Ans : photons 10) Light waves are ________ Ans : transverse 11) In a ripple tank , crest of the light wave, behaves as _____ lens Ans : convex 12) In a ripple tank the trough of light wave behaves as ______ lens Ans : concave 13) In a ripple tank _____ band is formed due to crests Ans : bright 14) In a ripple tank _____ band is formed due to troughs Ans : dark 15) Speed of light in vacuum is _________ Ans : 3 x 10 8 m/sec Visual Photometry: 1) The visual light is an energy on the _______ Ans : flow 2) Example for self luminous body is ________ Ans : Sun 3) Unit of luminous flux is ________ Ans : Lumen 4) Sun light has its maximum radiant energy close to ________ Ans: green light LASER: 1)Laser stands for __________ Ans : Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation 2) The light used in destroying ICBM is in itself is __________ Ans : Laser 3) First laser was called _________  Ans : pulsed laser 4) The basic scientific principle behind a laser was put forward by ________ Ans : Dr. Charles 5) ICBM stands for _____ Ans : Inter Continental Ballistic Missile 6) The property coherence in Laser is called ________ Ans : temporal coherence 7) Lack of coherence makes ordinary light an ______ Ans : optical noise 8) Coherence makes a laser light _____ Ans : optical music 9) The important characteristic properties of laser are ________ Ans : 1) coherence 2) directionality 3) monochromacity and high intensity 10) Example for monochromatic light is _______ Ans : sodium lamp 11) Laser emits light only in one dirction. This is called _____ of laser light. Ans: directionality 12) The process of achieving population inversion is called _________ Ans : pumping ( It is a word used in Lasers) 13) The process of electrons being released on their own from the excited states in atoms and emitting incoherent light is called ________ Ans : spontaneous emission 14) _______ are used for bloodless surgery Ans : Lasers 15) Lasers are used now for __________ Ans : drilling, cutting materials 16) Lasers are used in guided ______ and to deflect enemy target Ans : missiles 17) Lasers employed in special 3-dimensional photography are called _______ Ans : Holography 18) The development of lasers which helped in establishing a new revolutionary method of communications called __________  Ans : fibre optic communication 19) The spread of wavelength about the maximum intensity is called ______ Ans : Band width 20) Ruby laser is an example for ______ Ans : solid laser 21) Helium – Neon laser is an example for _______ Ans : gaseous laser 22) The three dimensional photography is called _____ Ans : Holography 23) The process of achieving “population inversion” is called_____ Ans : pumping 24) By ______ large energy can be concentrated into an extremely small band width. Ans : Monochromacity 25) The light from an ordinary light source spreads out uniformly in all directions and forms ______ wave fronts around it. Ans : spherical  GENERAL QUESTIONS ON SCIENCE & TECHNOLOGY Prepared by: P.Potayya Sarma CHEMISTRY & INDUSTRY: 1) Cement is a mixture of _________ Ans : Calcium Silicate and aluminates 2) Glass – blowing is possible with _______ Ans : Pyrex glass 3) Terra – cotta articles are _______ Ans : Porous 4) Which gives colour to the fibre? Ans : Chromophore 5) Chief component of cooking gas (LPG) is ____ Ans : Butane 6) _________________ gives blue colour to the glass Ans: Cobalt oxide 7) The chemical composition of talc is ____ Ans : Magnesium silicate 8) What is insulin ? Ans : It is a harmone 9) For making bottles, which type of glass is used ? Ans : Soda Glass 10) For making optics, which type of glass is used ? Ans : Flint glass 11) For making laboratory glassware, which type of glass is used ? Ans : Pyrex glass 12) Cooking gas is known as ____ Ans : LPG (Liquid Petroleum Gas) 13) Example of natural manure is _____ Ans : Compost 14) Glass is a mixture of _______ Ans : sodium silicate, calcium silicate and sand 15) The natural gas is _______________ Ans: methane ( CH4) 16) Another name of petrol is ________ Ans: Gasoline 17) Domestic Gas Cylinder contains a mixture of ____________ Ans : Propane, Butane and Propine 18) Shaving soap contains excess of ___________ Ans : Stearic acid OILS & FATS: 1) Detergents are used even in _______ because Ca+ and Ma+2 react with hard water ions but do not form precipitate Ans : Hard Water 2) Examples for saturated fatty acids? Ans : Lauric, Myristic, Palmitic, Stearic acids 3) Examples for Unsaturated fatty acids? Ans : Myriscoleic, Palmitoleic, Oleic, Linoleic, Linoleinic acids 4) Hydrogenation of oils give _____ Ans : Fats (Vanaspathi) 5) How Dalda(Vanaspathi) is manufactured ? Ans : Dalda is a fat obtained by the catalytic hydrogenation of vegetable oil 6) Soaps are ____________ Ans : sodium salt or potassium salt of fatty acid of long carbon chains 7) Soaps contain 30% of _______ Ans : water 8) Detergents differ from soap in their action with __________ Ans : Hard water 9) Detergents are ___________ Ans: sodium salts of alkyl benzene sulphonates or fatty alcohol sulphates 10) No. of amino acids known so far _______ Ans : 26 CARBOHYDRATES AND PROTEINS : 1) Sweetest sugar is_____________ Ans : Fructose 2) The sugar content of molasses is _____ Ans : 50% 3) Consumption of denatured spirit causes __ Ans : Unconsciousness 4) Sukrose is broken down into _____ and ______ during fermentation. Ans: Glucose , fructose 5) _______________ enzyme breaks the sucrose. Ans : Invertase 6) Beer is made from ____ Ans : Barley 7) Non-sugars are found in ________ Ans : rice, pulses and potato 8) Starch and cellulose are examples of _________ Ans : polysaccharides 9) Cellulose in the form of cotton is useful for _________ Ans : our clothing 10) Starch is tested by which solution ? Ans : iodine solution 11) Iodine solution turns starch solution into _____ in colour Ans : blue 12) The sugar of our daily use, is mainly obtained from ________ Ans : sugar cane 13) Sugarcane contains 11 – 15% of ______ by weight.  Ans : sucrose 14) Line is added to neutralize sugar cane juice in ________ Ans : sugar industry 15) Which is called as mother liquor ? Ans : Molasses 16) Ethyl alcohol is produced by fermentation of molasses by ______ Ans : yeast 17) Consumption of denatured spirit causes ____________ Ans: blindness and death 18) Ethyl alcohol mixed with pyridine or methyl alcohol is called as ______ Ans : denatured spirit 19) Amino acids are building blocks of _________ Ans : Proteins 20) Essential amino acids must be supplied to human body through ______ only Ans : diet 21) Out of 26 amino acids, human body cannot synthesise how many amino acids ? Ans : Nine amino acids. These nine amino acids are also called as essential amino acids 22) Sickel cell haemoglobin causes a disease called as _______________ Ans : Sickle cell anemia 23) Which is present in skin, hair, nails, wool, horn, and feathers? Ans :Keratine 24) Which regulates blood sugar level ? Ans : Insuline 25) The beverage which contains high percentage of alcohol is _______ Ans : brandy CHEMISTRY OF CARBON COMPOUNDS: 1) The refractive index of diamond is ____ Ans : 2.45 2) The chemical name of washing soda is _______ Ans : sodium carbonate 3) In diamonds and graphites which is common ? Ans : Carbon 4) The occurrence of same element in two or more different forms I called as ________ Ans : allotropy 5) Diamond reflects light falling on it , making it shine. What is the reason ? Ans : refractive index 6) Why diamond is used as glass cutter ? Ans : due to its hardness 7) Graphite is used as ______ Ans : lubricant 8) Which gas accumulates in caves and mines ? Ans : Carbon dioxide ( because carbondioxide is heavier than air ) 9) Carbon dioxide is soluble in _______ Ans : Water 10) Carbon dioxide is used in the preparation of ____________ Ans : Soda water and cool drinks 11) Which gas is used as fire extinguisher ? Ans: Carbon dioxide 12) Coal deposits are called as ______ Ans: Store of Sun 13) Anthracite coal contains 95% of ________ Ans : carbon 14) The commonest variety of coal is __________ Ans : bituminous coal or stone coal 15) Bituminous coal contains ________ of carbon. Ans : 82% 16) Lignite coal contains how much of carbon ? Ans : 70% 17) Ethyne is commonly known as _________ Ans : acetylene 18) Acetylene is used in __________ Ans : welding, artificial ripening of fruits 19) The allotrope of carbon which has tetrahedral structure is ___________ Ans : Graphite 20) Polythene is obtained from ethylene by the __________ Ans : poluymerization ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS : 1) What is colour of methyl orange indicator in acidic medium ? Ans : Red 2) What is the colour of phenolphthalein indicator in basic solution? Ans : Pink 3) The pH (point of hydrogen) of gastric juice is__________ Ans : 1 – 2 4) The pH of acids is in the range of ______ Ans : 0 to 7 5) The pH of bases is in the range of _______ Ans : 7 to 14 6) Human blood pH is _______ Ans : more than 7 (i.e., 7.32 to 7.45) 7) Acids turn blue litmus to ______ Ans : red 8) Bases turn red litmus to ______ Ans : blue 9) pH was introduced by ______ Ans : Sorensen 10) pH of pure water is ________ Ans : 7 11) pH of urine is _______ Ans : 4.8 to 7.5 12) Acids reacts with metal and gives _______ Ans : hydrogen SOLUTIONS: 1) The common name of so0dium thiosulphate is _______ Ans : hypo 2) Soda is a solution of carbondioxide in ______ Ans : water 3) Naphthalene dissolves in ________ Ans : Kerosene 4) Naphthalene is not soluble in _____ Ans : Water 5) Sodium chloride in water is ___________ Ans : strong electrolyte ALKALINE EARTH METALS : 1) Carnalite is one of ore of _____ Ans : magnesium 2) Epson salt is the mineral of ______ Ans : magnesium metal 3) Magnesium reacts with _______ Ans : Hot water 4) Radium is a _______ Ans : radioactive element 5) The element which gives dazzling light (Deepavali crackers) when burnt in air is _____ Ans : Magnesium 6) Dolomite is the mineral of _______ Ans : magnesium PERIODIC CLASIFICATIN OF ELEMENTS: 1) Mendeleef’s periodic table is based on the _________ Ans : atomic weight 2) Eka aluminium is _______ Ans : gallium 3) Eka boron is _____ Ans : scandium 4) Removal of hydrogen is called as _____  Ans: oxidation 5) Addition of hydrogen or removal of oxygen is called as ______ Ans : reduction 6) The first classification of elements is attempted by _____ Ans : Dobereiner CHEMICAL BOND: 1) Complete transfer of electrons from one atom to another leads to the formation of _______ Ans : ionic bond 2) Oxygen has _____ lone pairs of electrons in water molecule Ans : two 3) Water molecule has ______ shape bond. Water molecule is in non-linear bond. Ans : ‘V ‘ (English letter V) 4) Ammonia molecule has _______ shape bond. Ans : pyramidal ATOMIC STRUCTURE : 1) Bohr’s theory is valid for ___________ Ans : any atom or ion having one electron 2) The scientist who invented elliptical orbits is _________ Ans : Sommerfield 3) Rutherford proposed planetary model based on his ________ scattering experiment. Ans : alfa – ray 4) Quantum theory of radiation is proposed by ________ Ans : Max planck 5) Electron was discovered by ________ Ans : J.J.Thomson 6) The nucleus of an atom is made up of protons and neutrons and so they are known as ____ Ans : nucleons 7) Rutherford’s model of atom is also known as planetary model or ______ model. Ans : nuclear 8) The splitting of spectral lines when atom is put in magnetic field is called ______ Ans : Zeeman’s effect 9) Atomic sizes are expressed in ______ units. Ans : Angstrom 10) An alfa particle consists of _________ Ans : two protons, two neutrons 11) The element having no neutron in its nucleus is ________ Ans : Hydrogen 12) Chadwick discovered _______ Ans : neutrons 13) Who discovered protons ? Ans : Rutherford and Goldstein 14) Hydrogen atom gets stability by achieving the configuration of ________ Ans : Helium  MODEL TEST questions 1)Consider the following with reference to IN-SPACe : 1) IN-SPACe, or Indian Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre, is touted as the body that will ensure a level playing field for Indian industry in a fast-growing global space sector. It will function autonomously and parallel to ISRO “without taking away anything from it”, 2)NewSpace India Ltd will be strengthened and empowered with a larger role in what the government has called the new “open and inclusive” space sector. It will work with IN- SPACe and enable industry consortia to take on some of the activities of ISRO. These include launch vehicles and satellite production, launch services and space-based services. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a)1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 (d) None Ans: b 2) Consider the following : 1)“Subsequently, we now have four of these, which the World Health Organization has called Alpha, Beta, Gamma & Delta. 2)“Delta is the one that was identified in India,’’ 3)Director-General of the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR), warned that India was still not out of the second wave of the pandemic. 3)The reason why SARS-CoV-2 mutated includes random error during replication, immune pressure after treatments (Convalescent Plasma, Vaccination etc), and uninterrupted transmission due to lack of COVID-19-appropriate behaviour, which allowed the virus to transmit more and acquire fitness,. 4)“Variants of Concerns (VoC) with public health importance detected in community samples in India include Alpha [3,969], Beta , Gamma and B.1.617, Delta and Kappa were detected in 16,238 samples,” Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a)1 only (b)1 , 2, 3,4 (c) 3,4 (d) None Ans: b 3) Consider the following with reference to CoWIN : 1) CoWIN is an extension of an electronic vaccine intelligence network, eVIN, which is used to collect real-time feedback of the vaccination programmes.. 2) It is a cloud-based IT solution for planning, implementing, monitoring and evaluating COVID-19 vaccination in the country Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a)1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 (d) None Ans: c 4) Consider the following with reference to Zika virus : 1)Zika virus is said to be primarily transmitted through the bite of an infected aedes species mosquito. 2)The incubation period is three to 14 days, with the symptoms being acute onset of fever, maculopapular rash, joint pain, conjunctivitis and may include muscle pain and headache, according to the Health Department. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a)1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1, 2 (d) None Ans: c 5) Consider the following with reference to plasma donation : 1) Persons aged 18-65 can donate plasma. Patients who have tested positive for COVID-19 are eligible to donate plasma 14 days after their swab returns negative for COVID-19. Those with co-morbidities such as hypertension, diabetes, cardiac diseases, cancer and kidney diseases and those who have undergone organ transplants and surgeries cannot donate plasma. 2)Persons who come forward to donate plasma will undergo screening, and a maximum of 500 ml of plasma will be collected from eligible donors. The process will take 30 minutes and persons can donate plasma twice in 28 days. The plasma can be stored at -40 degrees Celsius for a year. 3)When steroids and other medications did not help patients or when the oxygen requirement kept increasing, plasma therapy could offer a higher chance of recovery. Patients required transfusion of 200 ml of plasma each for two days. Antibodies in the transfused plasma could neutralise the virus, reducing the viral load and the patients’ dependence on oxygen support, Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a)1 only (b)1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) None Ans: c 6) Consider the following with reference to Oximeter : : People with COVID-19 often need oxygenation support, so this tool, a staple for many doctors, has become something of a necessity for the layperson. 1)Oximeters have been flying off the shelves for many households’ first aid kits, largely because they are non-invasive, low-cost, easy to use, and effective at detecting hypoxemia (low blood oxygen levels). 2)Oximeter comprises a monitor which contains the batteries and display; a probe, which consists of light emitting diodes or LEDs and a light detector called a photo-detector. This probe senses the user’s pulse. 3)There are two important readings: (i) the pulse rate, recorded as beats per minute (60 to 100 is the safe range); and (ii)the oxygen saturation of haemoglobin in arterial blood, the reading of which is recorded as SpO2. Normal readings range from 95% to 100%; anything less, and the user should get medical assistance from a doctor. If your oximeter has alarms, a typical readings will set them off. Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a)1 only (b)1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, and 3 (i) & 3(ii) (d) None Ans: c 7) Consider the following with reference to Rapid Antigen Tests (RAT) for Covid-19 :  1)Rapid Antigen Tests (RAT) for Covid-19, are quick and are said to be very reliable in confirming if someone has tested positive for the virus. However, it has a low sensitivity or that it can also miss — sometimes as many as 50% — of those who may be carrying the infection. 2)Therefore, the ICMR advisory has been to retest all those who test negative for the test and those who manifest symptoms. 3)“It takes about five days for fever-like symptoms to manifest and there’s a big chance that in that period, both RT-PCR and antigen tests may miss detecting the virus. 4)The same goes for asymptomatics. In that sense, both are similar for finding a positive case. States have been told to use an intelligent and calibrated testing policy depending on which area needs more testing,” Which of the statements given above is / are correct ? (a)1 only (b)1 and 2 only (c) 1, 2, and 3,4 (d) None Ans: c 8) The second unit of Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant is now operational. The power plant is situated in which state ? a) Karnataka b) Tamil Nadu c) Kerala d) Maharashtra Answer:- b) Tamil Nadu 9) 1)Indian Space Research Organisation is getting ready to launched AdityaL1. Which of the following statements is / are application application to AdityaL1 Mission? 1)It is the first mission to study the Sun 2)This will be India’s second space-based astronomy expedition after AstroSat, launched in 2015. 3)AdityaL1 Mission is to be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian Point (L1)of the Sun- Earth system. 4)L1, is 1.5 million KM from the Earth, and it offers the advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipse. 5)Halo Orbit is a periodic three-dimensional orbit near the L1,L2 or L3 Select the correct answer using the codeds given below : a)1 only b)2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d)1,2,3,4,5 Ans : d 10) Through which of the following places in plants, exchange of gases take place ? a) Lenticels and Stomata in leaves, which serve as openings b) dried wood c) dried leaves d) None of these Ans : a 11) What are the causes of cancer ? a) Ionising radiations like X-rays and gamma rays and non-ionizing radiations like UV cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation. b) The chemical carcinogens present in tobacco smoke have been identified as a major cause of lung cancer c) Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes. d) All the above Ans : d 12) Prokaryotic cells are represented by which of the following ? a) Bacteria b) Blue-green algae c) Mycoplasma and Pleuro Pneumonia Like Organisms ( PPLO) d) All the above Ans : d 13) What are the four basic shapes of bacteria ? a)Bacillus (rod like) b) Coccus (spherical) c) Vibrio (Comma shape) and Spirillum (spiral) d) All the above Ans : d 14)Chewing is an example of which type of Digestion ? a)Mechanical digestion b)Chemical digestion c)Thorough digestion d) None of these Ans : a 15)Which of the following is the correct route of digestion ? a) Mouth – Pharynx – Esophagus – Stomach – Small intestine – Large intestine – Anus b) Moutn – Esophagus – Pharynx – Small intestine – stomach – Anus c) Mouth – Small intestine – Stomach – Pharynx – anus d) None of these Ans : a 16)Where the digestion is completed and the final products of digestion such as glucose, fructose, fatty acids, glycerol and amino acids are absorbed through the mucosa into the blood stream and lymph ? a)Small intestines b) Esophagus c) Mouth d) None of these Ans : a 17) Increased blood pressure may be caused by excess secretion of _______ a) thyroxin b)testosterone c)estradiol d)adrenalin Ans : d 18)Insulin has 51 amino acids in two polypeptide chains which are linked by a) one sulphide bond b) one disulphide bond c)two disulphide bonds d) three disulphide bonds Ans :c 19) Which one of the following vitamins contains a metal atom ? a) Riboflavin b) Vitamin B12 c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B6 Ans : b 20) Which of the following hormones contains iodine ? a) Adrenalin b)Testosterone c) Thyroxine d) Insulin Ans : c 21) Which of the following is derived from sugar cane ? a) Sucrose b) Maltose c) Lactose d) Cellulose Ans : a 22) At times the alcoholics, by mistake , drink ethanol, mixed with methanol also called denatured alcohol. In the body, methanol is oxidized first to methanal and then to methanoic acid.It may cause Which of the following ? a)blindness and death b) more weight c) sea sickness d) air stickness Ans : a 23) Who discovered effectiveness of DDT as insecticide ? ( Dichlorodiphenyl-trichloro-ethane) ? a) Paul Muller b)Victor Grignard c)C. Le Bel d) J Van’t Hoff Ans : a 24) Which of the following is chemically known as Chloroform ? a) Trichloromethane b) Dichloromehane c) Triiodomethane d) Freons Ans : a 25) Who discovered the antibacterial properties of Penicillium fungus ? a) Paul Ehrlich b) Alexander Fleming c) Hendrik Antoon Lorentz d) Nikola Tesla Ans : b 1)With reference to Mahatma Gandhi , which one of the following statement is correct ? 1) Mahatma Gandhi was concerned for public and private sanitation which was also a part of his Satyagraha campaign since the days he spent in South Africa. 2)’Everyone is his own scavenger’, said Gandhi , reiterating the fact of making cleanliness a personal responsibility and the key to removing untouchability. 3)Gandhiji said ‘sanitation is more important than Independence’. a)1 and 2 only b)2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) 1,2,and 3 Ans : d 2)With reference to India, consider the following : 1.Kayakalp initiative of the Health & Family Welfare begain in 2015 with the aim of improving infracture upkeep, hygiene and sanitation and infection control practices in central government institutions and public health facilities in all the States and UTs. 2.Kayakalp made a modest beginning in its first year with assessing only the District Hospitals 3.Subsequently, within a span of three years., all sub district hospitals , community health centres and primary health centres (Rural and Urban) have also been brought under its ambit. Which of the above can be considered as steps taken to achieve the ‘ hygiene ‘ in India? a)1 and 2 only b)2 and 3 only c) 3 only d) 1,2,and 3 Ans : d 3)Consider the following relating to ‘water budgeting’ : 1.It involves understanding a household’s overall water requirement based on the number of family members. major areas of consumption, and identifying areas for potential areas of reuse for water. 2.It is simple yet effective tool that allows households to concretely appreciate utilization of their resources.  a)1and 2 only b) 2 only c) 1and 3 only d)1,2 and 3 Ans : 1)Indian Space Research Organisation is getting ready to launched AdityaL1. Which of the following statements is / are application application to AdityaL1 Mission? 1)It is the first mission to study the Sun 2)This will be India’s second space-based astronomy expedition after AstroSat, launched in 2015. 3)AdityaL1 Mission is to be placed in the halo orbit around the Lagrangian Point (L1)of the Sun-Earth system. 4)L1, is 1.5 million KM from the Earth, and it offers the advantage of continuously viewing the Sun without any occultation/eclipse. 5)Halo Orbit is a periodic three-dimensional orbit near the L1,L2 or L3 Select the correct answer using the codeds given below : a)1 only b)2 and 3 only c) 1 and 3 only d)1,2,3,4,5 Ans : d 2) For Aedes-borne infections, including dengue, Professor Scott O’Neil and his team from Monash University, Melbourne, Australia developed Wolbachia-based strategy for the control of Aedes aegypti transmitted dengue/ chikungunya/zika viruses. Ae. aegypti does not harbor Wolbachia in nature. To develop Wolbachia infected Ae. aegypti strain, Wolbachia isolated from Drosophila melanogaster was introduced stably into this mosquito species. The transinfected Ae. aegypti mosquitoes in addition to exhibiting cytoplasmic incompatibility (producing sterile eggs) in crosses with wild Ae. aegypti females and maternal transmission of Wolbachia to the progeny in crosses with wild Ae. aegypti males, exhibits interruption of dengue, chikungunya, zika , yellow fever viruses replication. సివిల్ సర్వీసెస్ ప్ిిలిమిన్స్ జి.యస్ ప్ేపర్ లో సెన్ ై స్ పిశ్నలు 2019 సివిల్ సర్వీసెస్ ప్ిలి ి మినర్వ ఎగ్జాం జనరల్ సట డస్ ీ ప్ేపర్ లో కొన్ని పిశ్ిలు సెన ై సు & టెక్ిలజీ కి సాంబాంధాంచినవి ఉన్నియి. ఇాందసలో కొన్ని పిశ్ిలు స్మానయ ప్ఠకుడి కి అాందసబాటులో ఉన్నియి. మర్ి కొన్ని పిశ్ిలు స్ాంకేతిక శ్స్ ర లో వసస్ని నూతన ఆవిష్కరణలు / పర్ిశోధనలకు సాంబాంధాంచినవి ఉన్నియి. మూడు న్నలుగు సాంవతుర్్ల కిాందట సివిల్ సర్వీస్ పర్వక్ష లో సెన ై సు పిశ్ిలు కేవలాం 10 వ తరగతి సెన ై సు బుక్ లో వి వచ్చేవి. ఇపపుడు క్లనస గుణాం గ్ పిశ్ిల సరళి / పిశ్ిాంచ్చ తీరు బాగ్ మార్ిపో యిాంద. బాగ్ చదవిన అభ్యర్ిికి కూడన పర్వక్ష హాలోో తికమక అయియయటటు ో ఉాంటున్నియి. ఉదనహరణ కి , 2019 వచిేన కొన్ని పిశ్ిల కు సాంబాంధచిన టాప్ిక్ లనస పర్ిశీలిాంచటాం చ్చయటాం జర్ిగిాంద. కనసక అభ్యరుిలు పిపాంచాం లో సెన ై సు & టెక్ిలజీ లో వసస్ని వేగవాంతమన ై మారుులనస కూడన తెలుుకోవటాం చ్నలా అవసరాం. 1)మీథేన్స హడ్ ై ిట్ ే నిక్షేపాలు : *గలోబల్ వ్ర్ిమాంగ్ వలో మీథచన్ హైడట్ చి డిప్జిట్ ల నసాండి మీథచన్ వ్యువప విడుదల క్వచసేనస. ఆర్ికటిక్ ప్ిాంత టుాండని లోనూ , సముది గర్్ాన అతి ప్ెదద మీథచన్ హడ ై చట్ ి దచపో జిట్ లు కనసగొన బడనాయి. వ్తనవరణాం లో ఉని మీథచన్ , 12 సాంవతుర్్ల తర్్ీత ఆకసుకరణ పది తిలో క్రబన్ డయాక్సుడ్ గ్నస మారుత ాంద. *పాంట పొ లాల లో, పాంట పాండిాంచిన తర్్ీత పాంటనస /గిాంజలనస కోస్్రు. వర్ి గడిా / గలధసమ గడిా అలాగే ఉాండి పో త ాంద. ఇలా మిగిలిపో యిన గడిా న్న పాంట పొ లాం లోన్ే క్లిే వేస్ ్రు. ఇలా క్లిేనపపుడు ధూళి కణనలు , న్ట ై ిరజన్ ఆక్సుడ్ , క్రబన్ మోన్నక్సుడ్ , సలఫర్ డయాక్సుడ్ , సీసాం, ప్దరసాం , హాన్న కర వ్యు క్లుష్య క్రక్లు విడుదల అవపతనయి. *వయవస్యాం లో క్ర్లబ ఫపర్్న్ , మిథెల్ ై ప్ర్్థయాన్ , ఫో ర్ే ట్, టియాజో ఫో స్, వాంటివి ప్ెసట స ి డ్ ెై ు గ్ వ్డుత న్నిరు. ఈ ప్ెసట స ి డ్ ెై ు / రస్యన్నలనస , మొకకలు తమ వేళ్ళ దనీర్్ ప్ీలుేకుాంటాయి. ఇలాాంటి మొకకల పాంటనస గ్న్న / ఆకులు గ్న్న తిని తిని జీవపలు లనస హాన్న కలు ు త ాంద. ముఖ్యాం గ్ వన్ిముక గల జీవపలకు, పక్షులకు చ్నలా హాన్న జరుగుత ాంద. 2)మొబైల్ ఫో న్స టెక్ానలజీ : LTE క్ి VoLTE క్ి గల తేడ్ా ఏమిటి ? LTE: లాాంగ్ టర్మ ఎవ లూయష్న్ VoLTE: వ్యిస్ ఓవర్ లాాంగ్ టర్మ ఎవ లూయష్న్ స్ాంపిదనయ LTEన్ట్ వర్క , డచటా న్న , వ్యిస్ న్న కలిప్ి సపో ర్ట చ్ెయయ వచసేనస. కొన్ని సమయాలోో సపో ర్ట చ్ెయయ లేక పో వచసేనస. అాందస వలన , మొబల్ ై ఫో న్ లో వ్యిస్ క్ల్ క్ీలిటీ దెబబ తిన వచసేనస. VoLTE అన్ేద మొబల్ ై ఫో న్ న్ట్ వర్క లో 4 వ తరాం టెక్ిలజీ కొాందరు అాంటున్నిరు. VoLTE అన్ేద ఇాంటర్ న్ట్ పో ి టర క్ల్ మల్టట మీడియా సబ్ సిసటాం యొకక సెుసిఫక ి ేష్న్. ఇద వ్యిస్ న్న, డచటా న్న , ఒకే స్ర్ి సపో ర్ట చ్ెయయ గలదస, ఒక దనన్ని మర్ొకటి అడుా కోకుాండన. 3)పర్ాావరణ హానిక్ి సంబంధంచిన్ మైక్రో బీడ్స్ ( ససక్ష్మ పూసలు ) : క్సెమటిక్ు ( స ాందర్లయపకరణనలు) , ష్వర్ జ్ల్ు (స్ినాం చ్చసేటపపుడు వ్డచవి ) , టూత్ ప్ేసట స లలోనస , ప్ేస్ కసరాం లలోనూ సూ క్ష్మమతి సూక్షమ ప్ోసిటక్ పూసలు ఉాంటాయి. వీటి సెైజు 5 మిలిో మీటరో కన్ని చిని గ్ ఉాంటుాంద. ఇవి ప్ోసిటక్ ముకకల వాంటివి. 0.2 అాంగుళాల కన్ని తకుకవ పొ డుగు ఉాంటాయి. మనాం చ్చసే స్ినo తర్్ీత , ఇవి డెన్ ైర జ్ ే లోకి వళిో పో త ాంటాయి. నదీ జలాలలో కలిు పో త ాంటాయి / కొన్ని స్రుో సముది జలాలోోన్నకి చ్చరుత ాంటాయి. క్న్న వీటిన్న చ్చపల వాంటి జల చర్్లు ఆహారాం అనసకున్న తిన్ేస్ ్యి. అలా ఆహార చకరాం లోకి ప్ోసిటక్ చ్చర్ిపో త ాంద. ఇవి సముది ఎకో సిసటాం కి చ్నలా హాన్న చ్చస్ సన్నియి. 4)H-CNG : హైడరి జన్ చ్చత సససాంపనిాం (ఎన్నిచ ) చ్చయబడిన CNG( కాంప్ెి స్ా న్నచసరల్ గ్యస్ ). దీన్ని పబ్లోక్ టాిన్ు పో ర్ట లో ఇాంధనాం గ్ వ్డనలన్ే పితిప్దనలు ఉన్నియి. H-CNG వ్డటాం వలన , క్రబన్ డయాక్ుస డ్ విడుదల మర్ియు హైడరి క్రబన్ విడుదల తగిు పో త ాంద. CNG లో 1/5 వాంత హైడరి జన్ కలిప్ి బససు లకి ఇాంధనాం గ్ వ్డవచసేనస. కాంప్ెస్ ి ా న్ేచసరల్ గ్యస్ లో మీథచన్ (CH4) అతయధక ప్ీడనాం వదద న్నలీ ఉాండచ టటు ో చ్చస్ ్రు. 5)ర్్తిి పూట ఆక్శ్ాం మేఘావృతమై ఉనిపపుడు న్ేలమీద ఉని ఆకుపచేన్న గడిా మీద /చ్ెటో ఆకుల మీద మాంచస బ్లాందసవపలు ఏరుడవప ఎాందసచ్చత ? క్రణాం : భ్ూమి యొకక వ్తనవరణాం లో ఉని వేడి ర్్తిి పూట , ఆక్శ్ాం లోన్న తిర్ిగి వళ్ళ కుాండన మేఘాలు అడుా కుాంటాయి. తదనీర్్ గ్లి లోన్న వేడి ఎకుకవ అవపత ాంద. (గవరన్ హౌస్ ఎఫెక్ట లాాంటిద ఏరుడుత ాంద ). అాందసవలో నీరు ఘనీభ్విాంచ్చ అవక్శ్ాం ఉాండదస. మాంచస బ్లాందసవపలు ఏరుడవప.(ఇలాాంటి పిశ్ి గత క్లాం లో వచిేాంద ) 6)ఉపగోహాల చితాిలు / ర్ిమోట్ సెని్ంగ్ డ్ేటా సేకరణ : i)ఒక పిదచశ్ాం లో ప్ెర్గ ి ే మొకకల ఆకులలో ఉాండచ పతి హర్ితనన్ని , మల్టట సెుకటరల్ ఉపగరహ చితనిన్ని తీససకుoటారు. ii)ఒక పిదశ్ చ ాం లో ఉాండచ వర్ి చ్చల నసాండి విడుదల అయియయ గవరన్ హౌస్ వ్యువపల ఉపగరహ ఛనయ చితనిలు తీస్్రు iii)భ్ూమి మీద ఒకోక చ్లట , ఒకోక విధమన ై ఉష్ోో గరత ఉాంటుాంద. జియో సెన ై సు లో లాయాండ్ సర్ేఫస్ టెాంపర్ేచర్ (LST) పిధననమైనద. పాంటల పర్ిసి తిన్న , మొకక ప్ెరుగుదలన్న , గవరన్ హౌస్ ఎఫెక్ట న్న అాంచన్న వేయటాన్నకి LST న్న వ్డతనరు. 7)హపటెైటస్ ి B: హపటెైటస్ ి B అన్ేద వర ై ల్ ఇన్ఫక్షన్. పిపాంచాం లో 257 మిలియన్ ల మాంద దీన్న వలో ఇన్ఫక్ట అవపత న్నిరు. హపటెైటస్ ి B వర ై స్ , ఒకర్ి రక్ ాం మర్ొకర్ికి ఎకికాంచటాం వలో వ్యప్ిస్ సాంద , లేదన ఇతరుల శ్ర్వర దివ్ల దనీర్్ కూడన వ్యప్ిాంచ వచసేనస. 2015 లో హపటెైటస్ ి B దనీర్్ 8.87 లక్షల మాంద చన్నపో యారు (సిర్రల సిస్ త సహా కలిప్ి ). హల్్ వరకర్ లకి ఇదొ క వృతి్ పర పిమాదాం. 8)Cas9 పోి టీన్స : CRISPR(Clustered Regularly Interspaced Short Palindromic Repeats) త అనస బాంధాం ఉని పో ి టీన్ 9 ఇద. DNA వర ై స్ ల నసాండి ఇముమన్ో లాజికల్ (వ్యధ న్నర్లధక ) రక్షణ ఇద కలిుసస్ాంద. జ్న్టిక్ ఇాంజనీర్ిాంగ్ లో దీన్ని బాగ్ వ్డుత న్నిరు. ఇద DNA(డి ఆకిు ర్్సబో నూయకిోక్ ఆసిడ్ )న్న ఇద కతి్ ర్ిస్ సాంద. ఇద జీవ కణాం యొకక జ్న్ోమ్ నస మారే గలదస. లక్షయాం గ్ ప్ెటట ు కుని జీన్ ల ‘ఎడిటిాంగ్ ‘ లో దీన్న వ్డతనరు. 9)క్్ై మ ల ేట్ ఇంజనీర్ింగ్ మర్ియు జియో ఇంజనీర్ింగ్ : భ్ూమి వ్తనవరణాం లో ఉని తనప్న్ని తగిుాంచటాన్నకి ‘సిరరస్’ మేఘాలనస పలుచ బడచటో ు చ్చయటాం , క్ో మ ల ేట్ ఇాంజనీర్ిాంగ్ లో భాగాం అవపత ాంద. దీన్న వలో సిరరస్ మేఘాలు , ఇన్నరా ర్ేడయి ి యష్న్ (పర్్రుణ కిరణనల ర్ేడయి ి యష్న్ ) ప్ీలుే కోవటాం తగుుత ాంద. భ్ూ వ్తనవరణాం లో తనపాం తగుుత ాంద. భ్ూమి యొకక స్టా టరసిుయర్ లోన్నకి సలేఫట్ ఏర్ల సల్ ప్ర్ిట కల్ు నస ఇాంజ్క్ట చ్చయటాం వలన , సూరయ క్ాంతి అాంతర్ిక్షo లో న్నకి తిప్ిు పాంప్ిాంచబడుత ాంద. ఆ విధాం గ్ భ్ూమి వ్తనవరణాం లో వేడి తగుుత ాంద. 10)ప్ెైర్ో లి సిస్ మర్ియు పాైస్ామ గాసి ఫిక్ష ే న్స : ప్ెర్ ై ల లి సిస్ మర్ియు ప్ోస్మ గ్సి ఫికష్ ే న్ పది త లు వయరి పదనర్్ిలనస శ్కి్ గ్ మార్ేే టెక్ిలజీ కి సాంబాందాంచినవి. ఈ పది త లలో అతయధక ఉష్ోో గరత లలో వయరి పదనర్్ిలనస మాండిాంచి , శ్కి్ న్న విడుదల అయియయ టటు ో చ్చస్ ్రు. ప్ేపర్ లు , ప్ోసిటక్ , వయరి ఆహార పదనర్్ిలనస ఈ పది తి లో మాండిస్ ్రు. S&T questions were more on technological aspect than on basic science such as biology. Direct relation of S&T developments could be linked with current affairs in questions like digital signature, black hole, patents, etc. However, few questions checked deeper knowledge and clarity like functional chromosomes, RNA-I, etc. 2019 సివిల్ సర్వీసెస్ ప్ిలి ి మ్ు పర్ిక్ష జనరల్ సట డీస్ ప్ేపర్ లో సెన ై సు & టెక్ిలజీ కి సాంబాంధాంచిన పిశ్ిలు 12 వరకు ఉన్నియి. అాందసలో ముఖ్యాం గ్ మొబైల్ ఫో న్ టెక్ిలజీ కి, కాంపూయటర్ రాంగపప వరుేువల్ ర్ియాలిటీ కి, DNA టెక్ిలజీ కి , డిజిటల్ సిగేిచర్ కి, శ్ర్వరాం ప్ెై ధర్ిాంచ్చ టెక్ిలజీ పర్ికర్్లు , RNA ఇాంటర్ ఫియర్ేన్ు There were about 22 questions from this hidden syllabus in CSP 2019!! About 12 of these 22 were from emerging technologies and bio-technology! 12 questions from S&T in 2019 5. With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference / differences between LTE (Long- Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)? 1. LTE 'is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G. 2. LTE is data-only technology and VoLTE is voice-only technology. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: d Explanation: LTE stands for ‘Long Term Evolution’ and VoLTE stands for ‘Voice over Long Term Evolution’. LTE is a mobile network and transmits only data; while VoLTE is software and transmits both voice and data. LTE is a term used for the particular type of 4G network that delivers the fastest mobile Internet experience. The VoLTE enables one to make calls over the LTE network, it allows phone's dialer to place call through internet and sends voice and data over the network. 41. In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements: 1. In Augmented Reality (AR) , a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out. 2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings. 3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC. 4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 4 only Answer: b Virtual Reality technology immerses users in a completely virtual environment that is generated by a computer. You need to wear a special VR headset to experience virtual reality. Most VR headsets are connected to a computer (Oculus Rift) or a gaming console (PlayStation VR) butthere are standalone devices (Google Cardboard is among the most popular) as well. Most standalone VR headsets work in combination with smartphones – you insert a smartphone, wear a headset, and immerse in the virtual reality. In augmented reality, users see and interact with the real world while digital content is added to it. Pokemon Go is an example of augmented reality. If you own a modern smartphone, you can easily download an AR app and try this technology. There’s a different way to experience augmented reality, though – with special AR headsets, such as Google Glass, where digital content is displayed on a tiny screen in front of a user’s eye. Hence, only statements 3 and 4 are correct. 42. The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to (a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs (b) an early human species (c) a cave system found in North-East India. (d) a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent Answer: b The first evidence for Denisovans or Denisova hominins was first discovered in 2008 in a cave in the Altai mountains in Siberia. Analysis of a fossil jawbone containing molars recovered from Baishiya Karst cave in Xiahe, Gansu, China shows Denisovans lived in the Tibetan Plateau some 1,60,000 years ago. This is the firsttime evidence of Denisovan presence has been found outside the Denisova cave 43. With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species. (b) Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in Iaboratories. (c) A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory. (d) Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes. Answer: a Options C and D are correct: Given appropriate surroundings, most plant and animal cells can live, multiply, and even express differentiated properties in a tissue -culture dish. The cells can be watched continuously under the microscope or analyzed biochemically, and the effects of adding or removing specific molecules, such as hormones or growth factors, can be explored. In addition, by mixing two cell types, the interactions between one cell type and another can be studied. Experiments performed on cultured cells are sometimes said to be carried out in vitro (literally, “in glass”) to contrast them with experiments using intact organisms, which are said to be carried out in vivo (literally, “in the living organism”). Options B is correct: DNA is an organic chemical molecule made from atoms of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and phosphorous. Like many other organic molecules that are made inside living cells, DNA can also by synthesized in test tubes using the tools of organic chemistry. In most descriptions of DNA synthesis technology, we hear that DNA sequences can be made by simply adding together the A's T's C's and G's -- the "bases" that make the rungs of the twisted DNA ladder. Options A is not correct: Functional chromosomes can not be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species 44. Consider the following statements: A digital signature is 1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it 2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet. 3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: d Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. Examples of physical certificates are drivers' licenses, passports or membership cards. Certificates serve as a proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver's license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove your identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally. 45. In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices? 1. Location identification of a person 2. Sleep monitoring of a person 3. Assisting the hearing impaired person Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: d Wearable technology is a category of electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, implanted in the user's body, or even tattooed on the skin. The devices are hands -free gadgets with practical uses, powered by microprocessors and enhanced with the ability to send and receive data via the Internet. Location - and position - tracking sensors (i.e., GPS, altimeter, magnetometer, compasses, and accelerometers) are the most common type of sensors on wearable devices, such as activity trackers, smartwatches, and even medical wearables where they are used to check the physical activity and health of patients. Fitness trackers, also known as activity trackers, are typically worn on the wrist, chest, or ears, and are designed to monitor and track outdoor sport activities and measure fitness -related metrics, such as the speed and distance of running, exhalation, pulse rate, and sleeping habits. In more recent times, there has been a new surge in wearable technology worn on the ear, referred to as hearables. Hearing -Aids is a category of hearables involving use of a microphone, speaker and amplifier. This amplifies sounds to help people with hearing impairment hear. Example, Phonak Audeo V. Hence, all the options are correct. 46. 'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why? 1. It is used in developing gene silencing therapies. 2. It can be used in developing therapies for-the treatment of cancer. 3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies. 4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 only Answer: a RNAi is a gene silencing technology that inhibits protein synthesis in target cells using double-stranded RNA. RNAi has huge significance within the Indian context, considering the deep-seated resistance over the years to Bt cotton and other genetically modified seeds. RNA-reliant solutions could be a viable alternative. RNAi is used in functional genomics (systematic analysis of loss-of-function phenotypes induced by RNAi triggers) and developing therapies for the treatment of viral infection, dominant disorders, neurological disorders, and many types of cancers (in vivo inactivation of gene products linked to human disease progression and pathology). 47. Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? (a) 'Higgs boson particles' were detected. (b) 'Gravitational waves' were detected. (e) Possibility of inter-galactic space travel through 'wormhole' was confirmed. (d) It enabled the scientists to understand 'singularity'. Answer: b The LIGO detectors discovered the first gravitational waves produced by two giant merging blackholes in 2016. The 2017 Nobel Prize for physics has been awarded to the LIGOVIRGO collaboration for their detection of gravitational waves arising from the merger of two black holes. 48. Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India? 1. Genetic predisposition of some people 2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases 3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming 4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 only (e) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 Answer: a Antibiotic consumption in Humans: In 2014, India was the highest consumer of antibiotics, followed by China and the United States. In India, antibiotic FDCs are heavily prescribed even without the knowledge of a proven advantage over single compounds. Injudicious use of antibiotic FDCs could lead to emergence of bacterial strains resistant to multiple antibiotics. (However, the per capita consumption of antibiotics in India is much lower than in several other high-income countries). Antibiotic consumption in Animals: The use of antibiotics in food animals plays a major role in human health, as antibiotic- resistant bacteria can be transmitted between humans and animals through contact, in food products, and from the environment. Hence, 2 and 3 are correct. 49. What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news? (a) A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing (b) A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients (c) A gene that makes plants pest-resistant (d) A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops Answer: a CRISPR-Cas9 is a system used by bacterial cells to recognise and destroy viral DNA as a form of adaptive immunity. Using components of the CRISPR system, researchers can remove, add or alter specific DNA sequences in the genome of higher organisms. The gene editing tool has two components — a single- guide RNA (sgRNA) that contains a sequence that can bind to DNA, and the Cas9 enzyme which acts as a molecular scissor that can cleave DNA 50. Which one of the following statements is not correct? (a) Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV. (b) Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine. (c) Globally, the number of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV. (d) Some of those infected with Hepatitis Band C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years. Answer: b Hepatitis B is a viral infection that attacks the liver and can cause both acute and chronic disease. The virus is transmitted through contact with the blood or other body fluids of an infected person. (HIV also gets transmitted via the exchange of a variety of body fluids from infected individuals, such as blood, breast milk, semen and vaginal secretions) The hepatitis B vaccine is the mainstay of hepatitis B prevention. WHO recommends that all infants receive the hepatitis B vaccine as soon as possible after birth, preferably within 24 hours. (Hence, option b is not correct) Hepatitis B is a global public health threat and the world’s most common serious liver infection. It is up to 100 times more infectious than the HIV/AIDS virus. In those people who develop symptoms from acute infection, the average time from exposure to symptoms ranges from 2 to 12 weeks. However, most people who are infected with the hepatitis Cvirus do not develop symptoms. Most people with chronic hepatitis C virus infection do not have any symptoms or have general, or common symptoms such as chronic fatigue and depression. Many people eventually develop chronic liver disease, which can range from mild to severe, including cirrhosis (scarring of the liver) and liver cancer. Chronic liver disease in people with hepatitis C usually happens slowly, without any signs or symptoms, over several decades 83. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements: 1. The main adyantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions. 2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. 3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses. 4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG. Which of the statements given above is / are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: b 84. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night? (a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth's surface. (b) Clouds reflect back the Earth's radiation. (c) The Earth's surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights. (d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level. Answer: b 91. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of (a) anti-malarial drug (b) blodiesel (c) pulp for paper industry (d) textile fibre Answer: d 92. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: d For the measurement/ estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used? 1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location 2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location 3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3  With the development of remote sensing from space, satellite data offers the possibility for measuring land surface temperature over the entire globe with sufficiently high temporal resolution and with complete spatially averaged rather than point values. The global food supply is being monitored with satellite imagery and the Normalized Difference Vegetation Index (NDVI). Near -infrared radiation is being used to detect healthy vegetation in agriculture. Healthy vegetation reflects green light and absorbs red and blue light. The green light that our eyes see is chlorophyll created by plants during photosynthesis. Chlorophyll will reflect more light in the green and near infrared spectrum compared to other wavelengths. This is why near infrared radiation in combination with NDVI is one of the primary remote sensing applications in agriculture and the environment. Remote sensing from satellites can deliver information on GHG soil emissions by estimating tropospherical, near -surface CO2 and CH4 concentrationsbased on the measurement of the intensity of the reflected sunlight in small wavelength bands in the visible and short-wavelength IR portion of the spectrum. 94. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate? 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits. 2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor. 3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two. Select the correct answer using the code given below. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer: d 95. Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Methane 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 4 'only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: d 99. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as (a) pesticides in agriculture (b) preservatives in processed foods (c) fruit-ripening agents (d) moisturising agents in cosmetics Answer: a 1 Nail polish remover contains ? A. benzene B. acetic acid C. acetone D. petroleum ether 2. What nucleus of atom contains ? A. protons B. electrons C. electrons and protons D. protons and neutrons 3. The isotope atoms differ in ? A. number of protons B. atomic number C. number of neutrons D. atomic weight 4. Human bone does not contain A. calcium B. carbon C. oxygen D. phosphorous 5. Homo nuclear molecules contain ? A. polar bond B. covalent bond C. ionic bond D. coordinate bond 6. Air contains maximum amount of A. oxygen B. nitrogen C. hydrogen D. carbon dioxide 7. Washing soda is ? A. sodium sulphite B. sodium bicarbonate C. sodiun carbonate D. sodium biosulphite 8. Natural rubber is a polymer derived from ? A. ethylene B. propylene C. isoprene D. butadiene 9. The chemical used as a fixer in photography is ? A. sodium thiosulphate B. sodium sulphate C. borax D. ammonium sulphate 10. Water drops are spherical because of ? A. viscosity B. density C. polarity D. surface tension ANSWER KEY : 1- ( C),2- ( D), 3- (C), 4- (C),5- (B),6- ( B), 7- (C),8- (C),9- (A),10- (D). అాంతర్ిక్ష పర్ిశోధన ప్ితూర్ి పో తయయ శ్రమ 8143189271 1)ISRO అబ్లివేష్న్ లో R దచన్నకి సాంబాంధాంచిాంద ? a) ర్వసర్ ె ే b) ర్ేష్న్ c) ర్్సల్ d) ర్వల్ Ans: a (ISRO:ఇాండియన్ సేుస్ ర్వసెర్ే ఆరు న్ైజే ష్న్) 2)ఎవర్ిి భారత దచశ్ అాంతర్ిక్ష ప్ితనమహుడు అాంటారు? a) డనకటర్ హో మీ జహాంగవర్ భాభా b) డనకటర్ వికరాం స్ర్్భాయ్ c) A.S.కిరణ్ కుమార్ d) మాధవన్ న్నయర్ Ans : b 3) ఎపపుడు ఇసో ి న్న స్ిప్ిాంచ్నరు? a) 1947 b) ఆగష్ట 15, 1969 c) 195 7 d) 1967 Ans : b 4)డిప్రుటమాంటు అఫ్ సేుస్ ఎపపుడు ప్ిరాంభాంచ్నరు a) 1950 b) 1948 c) 1972 d) 1949 Ans : c 5)ఉపగరహలిి ఎకకడ తయారు చ్చస్ ్రు a) నూయ ఢిల్టో b) కోలకతన c) ఇసో ి satellite సెాంటర్, బాంగలూరు d) ముాంబై Ans : c 6) భారత దచశ్ాం లో అాంతర్ిక్ష ర్్క్ట్ లనస ఎకకడ తయారు చ్చస్ ్రు ? a) భోప్ల్ b) న్నగపూర్ c) వికరాం స్ర్్భాయ్ సెాంటర్, తిరువనాంత పపరాం d) డెహాాడున్ Ans : c 7) భారత దచశ్ాం లో ఎకకడ నసాండి అాంతర్ిక్ష ర్్క్ట్ లనస పియోగిస్ ్రు ? a) హద ై ర్్బాద్ b) చ్ెన్ైి c) శీరహర్ి కోట d) పూర్ి Ans : c 8) భారత దచశ్ాం లో గతాం లో స ాండిాంగ్ ర్్క్ట్ లనస ఎకకడ నసాండి పియోగిo చ్నరు ? a) మచిల్టపటట ణాం b) తిివాం డిాం నసాండి c) న్నగ్యలాంక d) అవన్నగడా Ans : b 9)Thumba Equitorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) ఎకకడ ఉాంద ? a) శీరహర్ికోట b) : తిరు వ్నాంత పపరాం c) ఆహమమదనబాద్ d) కన్నయకుమార్ి Ans : b 10) TERLS కోసాం తిివాండుిాం లో త ాంబ అన్న ప్ేరుప్ెటట న ి పిదచశ్న్ని శ్సీ్ య ర పరాంగ్ న్న ఎాందసకు సెలెక్ట చ్చశ్రు ? a) మలెో పూలు బాగ్ పూస్్యి b) ఇకకడ నసాండి geomagnetic equator పో త ాండటాం చ్చత c) పిశ్ాంతాం గ్ ఉాంటుాంద d) ఇవేవి క్వప Ans : b (న్ోట్: ఇకకడ ‘త ాంబ’ అన్ే పూలు బాగ్ పూస్్యి ) 11) ఇసో ి వ్రు పాంప్ే ‘స ాండిాంగ్ ర్్క్ట్’ ఉపయోగాం ఏమిటి a) శ్బద ాం చ్చయటాన్నకి b) భ్ూమి యొకక అపుర్ atmosphere లోన్న physical parameters అాంచన్న వేయటాన్నకి c) వేడుక కోసాం d) దీప్వళి కోసాం Ans : b 12)RH ర్్క్ట్ అన్ే ప్ేరులో RH దచనీి తెలియచ్చస్ సాంద a) ర్్ట్ స హాయాండ్ b) ర్లహిణి ర్్క్ట్ c) ర్ివర్ు హాయాండ్ d) ర్ివర్ హడ్ ై Ans : b 13)భారత దచశ్ాం పాంప్ిన తొలి ర్్క్ట్ ఏద a) ఆరయ భ్టట b) నవాంబర్ 21, 1963 Nike-Apache, దీన్ని US నసాండి కొన్నిరు c) భాసకర d) యాప్ిల్ Ans : b (న్ోట్: ర్్క్ట్ వేరు, ఉపగరహాం వేరు ) 14)భారత దచశ్ాం సొ ాంతాంగ్ తయారు చ్చసన ి తొలి ర్్క్ట్ ఏద ? a) SLV b) RH-75. దీన్ని నవాంబర్ 20, 1975 న్నడు పియోగిాంచ్నరు c) PSLV d) GSLV Ans : b (న్ోట్: SLV: Satellite Launch Vehicle; PSLV: Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle; GSLV: Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) 15) సేుస్ సెన ై సు & టెక్ిలజీ సెాంటర్ న్న ఎపపుడు వికరాం స్ర్్భాయ్ సేుస్ సెాంటర్ గ్ మార్్ేరు? a) 1980 b) 1975 c) 1972 లో ( డనకటర్ వికరాం స్ర్్భాయ్ డిసెాంబర్ 30, 1971 న్నడు చన్నపో యాక) d) 1979 Ans : c 16) ఈ కిాంద వ్టిన్న జత చ్చయాండి ? ఏద కర్్క్ట ? a) Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) : Thiruvananthapuram; b) ISRO Satellite Centre (ISAC) : Bangalore c) Satish Dhawan Space Centre (SDSC – SHAR) : Sriharikota d) ప్ెవ ై నీి Ans : d 17) భారత దచశ్ాం పాంప్ిన తొలి లాాంచ వహికల్ ఏద ? a) RH-75 b) GSLV c) satellite లాాంచ వహికల్ (SLV-3) (జూలెై 18, 1980 శీరహర్ి కోట నసాండి ) d) PSLV Ans : c 18) SLV-3 క్కుాండన, ఇసో ి తయారు చ్చసన ి ఇతర ర్్క్ట్ లు ఏవి ? a) ASLV b) PSLV c) GSLV d) ప్ెవ ై నీి Ans : d 19) ఉపగరహాలనస పిధననాం గ్ ఎన్ని రక్లుగ్ వర్వు కర్ిస్ ్రు ? అవి ఏవి ? a) : ర్్ాండు రక్లుగ్. ( (i) కమూయన్నకేష్న్ ఉపగరహాలు & (ii ) ర్ిమోట్ సెన్నుాంగ్ ఉపగరహాలు ) b) 10 c) 5 d) 7 Ans : a 22) కమూయన్నకేష్న్ ఉపగరహాం వివర్్లు ఏవి ? a) ఇద స్ధనరణాం గ్ భ్ూ సిిర కక్షయ లో ఉాంటుాంద b) కమూయన్నకేష్న్ రాంగాం లో, టెలివిజన్ పిస్ర్్ల కోసాం ఉపయోగ పడుత ాంద c) , వ్తనవరణ అధయయనాం కోసాం, విపత్ వ్ర్ిిాంగ్ & న్నవ్రణ లోనస ఉపయోగ పడుత ాంద d) ప్ెవ ై నీి Ans : d 23) ర్ిమోట్ సెన్నుాంగ్ ఉపగరహాం వివర్్లేవీ ? a) ఇద సన్ సిాంకోరనస్ పో లార్ ఆర్ిబట్ / కక్షయ ( SSPO) లో పర్ిభ్ి మిసస్ాంద b) భ్ూమి సహజ వనరుల మాన్నటర్ిాంగ్ కోసాం ఉపయోగ పడుత ాంద c) సహజ వనరుల management కోసాం ఉపయోగ పడుత ాంద d) ప్ెవ ై నీి Ans : d 25 ) NNRMS లో R అక్షరాం విస్ ర్ిాంచాండి a) ర్వసెర్ే b) ర్్స్ స c) ర్ిసో ర్ు d) ర్ివర్ Ans : c (న్ేష్నల్ natural ర్ిసో ర్్ుస్ management సిసటాం ) 26) భారత దచశ్ తొలి ఉపగరహాం ఏద , ఎకకడ నసాండి పియోగిాంచ్నరు a) భాసకర b) : ఆరయభ్టట , దీన్ని ఏప్ిల్ ి 19, 1975 న్నడు ప్త soviet యూన్నయన్ (USSR)నసాండి పియోగిాంచ్నరు c) ఆప్ిల్ d) ఎడుయస్ట్ Ans : b (పాంప్ిన పిదశ్ చ ాం ప్ేరు : బైకనూర్ క్సొ మడరి o, కజకస్్న్ ) 27)భారత దచశ్ాం నసాండి పాంప్ిన అతి బరువన ై ఉపగరహాం ఏద ? a) : INSAT-4CR బరువప : 2130 కిలోగ్రములు. (సెప్ట ాంె బర్ 2, 2007 న్నడు పాంప్రు ) b) INSAT-1 B c) INSAT- 1 C d) INSAT-1 A Ans : a 28) మార్ే , 20 13 న్నటికస, ఇసో ి సాంసి ఇాండియా నసాండి ఎన్ని లాాంచ వహికల్ు పాంప్ిాంచిాంద ? a) : 38 b) 20 c) 30 d) 19 Ans : a 29) మార్ే 2013 న్నటికస భారత దచశ్ాం ఎన్ని ఉపగరహాలు పియోగిాంచిాంద ? a) 10 b) 68 + 35 (విదచశీ) ఉపగరహాలు c) 20 d) 40 Ans : b 30) ఇసో ి , భారత దచశ్ాం నసాండి పాంప్ిన తొలి ఆపర్ేష్నల్ లాాంచ వహికల్ ఏద ? a) PSLV. దీన్నత 3 developmental flights + 19 ఆపర్ేష్నల్ flights చ్చశ్రు. వీటిలో ో 21 వరుసగ్ విజయవాంతమైన flights ఉన్నియి. b) RH- 75 c) ASLV d) ఇవేవి క్వప Ans : a 30) చాందియాన్ – 1 ఏమిటి ? వివర్్లేవీ ? a) చాందసిన్న గుర్ిాంచి ఉపగరహాం దనీర వజ ై ా ఞ న్నక పర్ిశోధన చ్చయటాం b). చాందియాన్ అన్ే ప్ేరులో , చాంది అనగ్ చాందసిడు, యాన్ అనగ్ న్ౌక / పియాణాం అన్ే అర్్ిలు ఉన్నియి c). దీన్ని లూన్నర్ సేుస్ క్రఫ్టట అనవచసేనస. చాందియాన్ – 1 భారత దచశ్o చ్చసిన తొలి ప్ోన్ట ర్వ సెైనసు & ఎక్ష్్లొ ర్ేష్న్ మిష్న్ d) ప్ెై వన్ని Ans : d. 31) చాందియాన్ – 1 ఎపపుడు ఎకకడ నసాండి పియోగిాంచ్నరు? a) 2010 b) 2007 c) అకోటబర్ 22, 2008 , సతీష్ ధనవన్ సేుస్ సెాంటర్ , శీర హర్ి కోట (SHAR) , భారత దచశ్ాం d) 2005 Ans : c 32 ) చాంది యాన్ – 1 ఎన్ని ర్లజులు ఆపర్ేష్నల్ గ్ ఉాంద ? a) 365 b) 312 ర్లజులు ( ఆగష్ట 28, 2009 వరకు ) c) 300 d) 200 Ans : b 33) చాందసిడి మీద ఉష్ోో గరత ఎాంత ? a) 19 0 డిగరల వ సెలిుయస్ b) చాందసిడు విపర్వతమైన ఉష్ోో గరతలకు గుర్ౌతూ ఉాంటాడు. సూరయ క్ాంతి పడచ ఒక వప ై పన 130 డిగరల వ సెలిుయస్ ఉష్ోో గరత ఉాంటుాంద. ర్్తిి పూట గడా కటుటకు పో యియ చలి , అనగ్ మన ై స్ 180 డిగరవ ల సెలిుయస్ ఉాంటుాంద. c) 200 డిగరల వ సెలిుయస్ d) 280 డిగరల వ సెలిుయస్ Ans : b 34 ) చాందసిడి మీద జీవపలు, మొకకలు ఉన్నియా ? a) మొకకలున్నియి b) ఇాంతవరకు ఎలాాంటి జీవి కన్నప్ిాంచలేదస c) జాంత వపలున్నియి d) కుాందచలు ఉాంద Ans : b 35 ) చాందసిడి ఒక వప ై ప మాతిమే మనము చూడగలు ు త న్నిము ఎాందసకన్న ? a) బలో పరుపపగ్ ఉాండటాం చ్చత b) చాందసిడు భ్ూమి చసటూ ట తిరుగు త న్నిడు, ఒక వప ై ప మాతిమే కన్నప్ిాంచ్చటటు ో గ్. భ్ూమి గుతీ కరషణ శ్కి్ వలో , చాందసిడు తిరగటాం తగిు పో యి, కరమణ ే న భ్ూమి పర్ిభ్మ ి ణ వేగాం త దనదనపప సమానాం గ్ గల వేగాం త తిరుగు త న్నిడు. c) సిలిాండర్ ఆక్రాం లో ఉాండటాం చ్చత d) దీరఘ చత రసిాం గ్ ఉాండటాం చ్చత Ans : b 36) చాందియాన్ – 1 కి ఎాంత బడెజట్ కేటాయిాంచ్నరు ? ( కోటో రూప్యలలో ) a) 280 b) : Rs. 386 కోటు ో. c) 365 d) 400 Ans : b 40) Antrix ఏమిటి ? a) : ఇసో ి సాంసి వ్ణిజయ విభాగాం b) ఇద ఇసో ి యొకక అాంతర్ిక్ష మార్్కటిాంగ్ వయవహార్్లు చూసస్ాంద c) ఇసో ి ఉతుత్ లు , సేవలు అాంతర్వజయ మార్్కట్ లో మార్్కటిాంగ్ చ్చస్ సాంద d) ప్ెవ ై నీి Ans : d COMPUTER AWARENESS Praturi Potayya Sarma 1)Which is an operating system ? a)MS-DOS b)Windows 98 c)Windows 2000 d)Windows 95 & Windows 3.1 e) All the above Ans : e Explanation: All the options (given in the question) are examples of Microsoft operating systems, developed at different periods of time. 2) A function inside another function in Excel is called a)Double function b)Nested function c)Sum function d)Round function e) Text function Ans : b Explanation: A nested function in Excel refers to one or more functions being placed inside another 3)A web site is _______ a)the location from which a Web page originates b) an author of a Web page c) a collection of contributors d) the source of a Web page e)collection of related Web pages Ans : e Explanation: Website is a set of related web pages typically served from a single web domain. 4)WAN is a network covering a broad area using leased telecommunication lines. What does the acronym WAN stand for ? a)Wider Area Network b)Wide Area Network c)Wild Area Network d)Wide Area Networking e)Widest Area Network Ans : b Explanation: In computer terminology WAN stands for Wide Area Network. 5)The process of writing computer instructions in a programming language is known as a) Testing b) Folder c) File d) Coding e) processing Ans : d Explanation: The process of writing the computer instructions in a programming language is called as coding. 6) What is a portion of memory that serves as a temporary repository for data as it waits for a given action a) Processor b) Memory pool c) Processor pool d)Data pool e) Cache Ans : e Explanation: In computing, a cache serves as a temporary repository for data. 7) VIRUS stands for a) Virus Information Recourse Under Siege b)Vital Information Resource Under Seizure c)Vital Information Recourse Under System d)Vital Information Resource Under Siege e) Vital Information Reason Under Siege Ans : d Explanation: In computing VIRUS stands for Vital Information Resource Under Siege 8) ALU is a part of CPU in many computers. What does the acronym ALU stand for ? a) Algorithmic Logic Unit b) Arithmetic Logical Unit c)Auxiliary Logic Unit d)Algorithmic Logical Unit e)Arithmetic Logic Unit Ans : e Explanation: ALU stands for Arithmetic Logic Unit. 9)’Bit’ stands for a) Built In tasks b) Binary Digit c)Before Instructed Task d)Before Interpreting task e) Before Initial Task Ans : b Explanation: The term bit is a portmanteau of binary digit. A bit is the basic unit of information in computing. 10) Java is a a) hardware device driver b) ordinary level language c)compiler d)low level language e) programming high/mid-level language Ans : e Explanation: Java is a high-level programming language developed by Sun Microsystems. Some scientists keep it under mid-level languages. 11) Specialized programs that assist users in location information on the web are called a) Data engines b)Information engines c)Web browsers d)Resource locators e) Search engines Ans : e Explanation: Search engines are specialized programs that assist us in locating information on the Web and the Internet. 12)Which one of the following is NOT a computer programming language? a) BASIC b)C++ c)JAVA d)COBOL e)MS-Excel Ans : e Explanation: The term programming language usually refers to high-level languages, such as BASIC, C, C++ , Java, COBOL, FORTAN etc. Each language has a unique set of keywords. MS Excel is a spread sheet application developed by Microsoft. 13) Workbook in MS-Excel is a collection of a) page Setup b) Charts c)Buttons d)Documents e)Worksheets Ans : e Explanation: A Microsoft Office Excel workbook is a file that contains one or more worksheets that a user can use to organize various kinds of related information. By default, a new workbook contains three worksheets, but one can change the number of worksheets as per need. 14) Single-word reference to viruses, worms etc., is a)harmware b)virus c)phish d)malware e)killerware Ans : d Explanation: Malware, short for malicious software, is any software used to disrupt computer operations, gather sensitive information, or gain access to private computer systems. 15)A computer program that converts assembly language into machine language is ____ a)Complicate b)Comparator c)Intersection d)Converter e)Assembler Ans : e Explanation: Assembly language is converted into executable machine code by a utility program referred to as an assembler. The conversion process is referred to as assembly or assembling the code. 16)Which access method is used for obtaining a record from a cassette tape? a)Direct b)Sequential c)Random d)Matrix e)None of these Ans : b Explanation: Sequential access method is used for obtaining a record from a cassette tape. Sequential access files are similar to cassette tapes in that each line in the file, like each song on a cassette tape , is both stored and retrieved in consecutive order (sequentially). 17)HTTP refers to a)Hyper Text Transmission Protocol b) Hyper Text Transfer Protocol c)Home Text Transaction Protol d)Hyper Text Tie Protocol e) Home Text Transmission Protocol Ans : b Explanation: HTTP stands for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol. It is an application protocol for distributed, collaborative, hypermedia information systems. 18) To move to the bottom of a document, press _____ a)Home Key b)Insert Key c) Ctrl + End d) End Key e) Shift Key Ans : c Explanation: The command Ctrl + End should be pressed to move to the end of the document. 19) Which of the following uniquely identifies a web site? a) ERL b)Domain name c) Computer d)Network e)URL Ans : e Explanation: URL ( Uniform Resource Location) is a reference to a resource that specifies the location of the resource on a computer network and a mechanism for retrieving it. 20) A directory within a directory is called a)Mini Directory b)Junior Directory c) Part Directory d) Sub Directory e) None of these Ans: d Explanation: A subdirectory is a directory that is located within another directory. Every directory except the root directory is a subdirectory. 21) How to specify cell range from A9 to A99 in Excel ? a) (A9:A99) b) (A9-A99) c) (A9 to A99) d) (A9.A99) e) (A9 = A99) Ans : a Explanation: To select a range with the Name box, a user needs to type in the first and last cell address of the range, he wants to select, with a colon between them, then hit ‘enter’ key. 22) What is Linux ? a) Input Device b) Operating System c)Processor d)Storage Device e)Output device Ans : b Explanation: Linux is a computer operating system (OS) assembled under the model of free and open resource software development and distribution. 23) Microsoft Word is an example of ______ a) an input device b) a processing device c) system software d)an operating system e)application software Ans : e Explanation: Application software is the group of computer software that is created to help users do their required tasks. 24) A MODEM is connected to a) processor b) mother board c) phone line d)printer e) monitor Ans : c Explanation: A modem (modulator-de-modulator) is a device that modulates signals to encode digital information and demodules signals to decode the transmitted information. It is connected to a telephone line. 25) The sharing of a medium and its path by two or more devices is called a) modulation b)demodulation c)multiplexing d)demultiplexing e)connecting Ans : c Explanation: The sharing of a medium and its link by two or more devices is called Multiplexing. A common type of multiplexing combines several low speed signals for transmission over a high speed connection. Multiplexing is used to enable many users to share the system. 26) Information on the computer is stored as ____ a) analog data b) digital data c) modem data d) watts data e) back-up data Ans : b Explantion: Computer data storage is a technology consisting of computer components and recording media used to retain digital data. Computers store information in the form 1 and 0 in different types of storages such as memory, hard disk etc. The most common digital data storage unit is byte which is 8 bits. 27) Which of the following is most commonly used input device ? a) printer b) monitor c) speaker d) mouse e) modem Ans : d Explanation: The most