CompTIA N10-009 Past Paper PDF

CompTIA.N10-009.v2024-11-06.q49 Exam Code: N10-009 Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Certification Provider: CompTIA Free Question Number: 49 Version: v2024-11-06 https://www.freecram.net/torrent/CompTIA.N10-009.v2024-11-06.q49.html Q1 Which of the following steps of the trou...

CompTIA.N10-009.v2024-11-06.q49 Exam Code: N10-009 Exam Name: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Certification Provider: CompTIA Free Question Number: 49 Version: v2024-11-06 https://www.freecram.net/torrent/CompTIA.N10-009.v2024-11-06.q49.html Q1 Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology should a technician take to confirm a theory? A. Duplicate the problem. B. Identify the symptoms. C. Gather information. D. Determine any changes. Answer: A (LEAVE A REPLY) Troubleshooting Methodology: Troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to diagnosing and resolving issues. It typically includes steps such as identifying symptoms, gathering information, formulating and testing theories, and implementing solutions. Confirming a Theory: Duplicate the Problem: To confirm a theory, the technician should reproduce the problem in a controlled environment. This helps verify that the identified cause actually leads to the observed issue. Verification: By duplicating the problem, the technician can observe the issue firsthand, validate the hypothesis, and rule out other potential causes. Comparison with Other Steps: Identify the Symptoms: Initial step to understand what the problem is, not specifically for confirming a theory. Gather Information: Involves collecting data and details about the issue, usually done before formulating a theory. Determine Any Changes: Involves checking for recent changes that could have caused the issue, a part of the information-gathering phase. Implementation: Use similar equipment or software in a test environment to recreate the issue. Observe the results to see if they match the original problem, thereby confirming the theory. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on troubleshooting methodologies and best practices. Q2 A VoIP phone is plugged in to a port but cannot receive calls. Which of the following needs to be done on the port to address the issue? A. Trunk all VLANs on the port. B. Configure the native VLAN. C. Tag the traffic to voice VLAN. D. Disable VLANs. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Understanding VoIP and VLANs: VoIP (Voice over IP) phones often use VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) to separate voice traffic from data traffic for improved performance and security. Tagging Traffic to Voice VLAN: Voice VLAN Configuration: The port on the switch needs to be configured to tag traffic for the specific voice VLAN. This ensures that voice packets are prioritized and handled correctly. VLAN Tagging: VLAN tagging allows the switch to identify and separate voice traffic from other types of traffic on the network, reducing latency and jitter for VoIP communications. Comparison with Other Options: Trunk all VLANs on the port: Trunking all VLANs is typically used for links between switches, not for individual device ports. Configure the native VLAN: The native VLAN is for untagged traffic and does not address the need for separating and prioritizing voice traffic. Disable VLANs: Disabling VLANs would mix voice and data traffic, leading to potential performance issues and lack of traffic separation. Implementation: Configure the switch port connected to the VoIP phone to tag the traffic for the designated voice VLAN, ensuring proper network segmentation and quality of service. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on VLAN configuration and VoIP implementation. Q3 Which of the following panels would be best to facilitate a central termination point for all network cables on the floor of a company building? A. Patch B. UPS C. MDF D. Rack Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) A patch panel is the best choice to facilitate a central termination point for all network cables on the floor of a company building. Patch panels are used to manage and organize multiple network cables, providing a central point where all cables converge. This setup allows for easy management, troubleshooting, and reconfiguration of network connections. The other options, such as UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply), MDF (Main Distribution Frame), and rack, serve different purposes and are not specifically designed for the central termination of network cables. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Installation section. Q4 Which of the following is a cost-effective advantage of a split-tunnel VPN? A. Web traffic is filtered through a web filter. B. More bandwidth is required on the company's internet connection. C. Monitoring detects insecure machines on the company's network. D. Cloud-based traffic flows outside of the company's network. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) A split-tunnel VPN allows certain traffic (e.g., cloud-based services) to bypass the VPN and go directly to the Internet. This reduces the amount of traffic that needs to traverse the company's VPN and Internet connection, conserving bandwidth and reducing costs. It also means that not all traffic is subject to the same level of inspection or filtering, which can improve performance for cloud-based services. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q5 SIMULATION Users are unable to access files on their department share located on file server 2. The network administrator has been tasked with validating routing between networks hosting workstation A and file server 2. INSTRUCTIONS Click on each router to review output, identify any issues, and configure the appropriate solution. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button. Answer: See the solution in Explanation Explanation: To validate routing between networks hosting Workstation A and File Server 2, follow these steps: Step-by-Step Solution Review Routing Tables: Check the routing tables of Router A, Router B, and Router C to identify any missing routes. Identify Missing Routes: Ensure that each router has routes to the networks on which Workstation A and File Server 2 are located. Add Static Routes: If a route is missing, add a static route to the relevant destination network via the correct interface. Detailed Analysis and Configuration Router A: Routing Table: Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks C 10.0.4.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2 C 10.0.6.0/24 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2 L 10.0.6.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2 172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3 L 172.16.27.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet3 Router B: Routing Table: Gateway of last resort is 0.0.0.0 to network 0.0.0.0 S* 0.0.0.0/0 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks C 10.0.0.0/22 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1 L 10.0.0.1/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1 172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1 L 172.16.27.5/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1 Router C: Routing Table: 10.0.0.0/8 is variably subnetted, 4 subnets, 2 masks S 10.0.0.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet1 S 10.0.4.0/22 [1/0] via GigabitEthernet2 172.16.0.0/16 is variably subnetted, 2 subnets, 2 masks C 172.16.27.0/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2 L 172.16.27.2/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet2 C 172.16.27.4/30 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1 L 172.16.27.6/32 is directly connected, GigabitEthernet1 Configuration Steps: Router A: Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.1): Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0 Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0 Interface: GigabitEthernet3 Router B: Install Static Route to 10.0.4.0/22 via 172.16.27.5 (assuming Router C's IP is 172.16.27.5): Destination Prefix: 10.0.4.0 Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0 Interface: GigabitEthernet1 Router C: Install Static Route to 10.0.6.0/24 via 172.16.27.2 (assuming Router A's IP is 172.16.27.2): Destination Prefix: 10.0.6.0 Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.255.0 Interface: GigabitEthernet2 Install Static Route to 10.0.0.0/22 via 172.16.27.1 (assuming Router B's IP is 172.16.27.1): Destination Prefix: 10.0.0.0 Destination Prefix Mask: 255.255.252.0 Interface: GigabitEthernet1 Summary of Static Routes: Router A: ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet3 Router B: ip route 10.0.4.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1 Router C: ip route 10.0.6.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet2 ip route 10.0.0.0 255.255.252.0 GigabitEthernet1 These configurations ensure that each router knows the correct paths to reach Workstation A and File Server 2, resolving the connectivity issue. Q6 A company's marketing team created a new application and would like to create a DNS record for newapplication.comptia.org that always resolves to the same address as www.comptia.org. Which of the following records should the administrator use? A. SOA B. MX C. CNAME D. NS Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) A CNAME (Canonical Name) record is used in DNS to alias one domain name to another. This means that newapplication.comptia.org can be made to resolve to the same IP address as www.comptia.org by creating a CNAME record pointing newapplication.comptia.org to www.comptia.org. SOA (Start of Authority) is used for DNS zone information, MX (Mail Exchange) is for mail server records, and NS (Name Server) is for specifying authoritative DNS servers. Reference: The DNS section of the CompTIA Network+ materials describes the use of CNAME records for creating domain aliases. Q7 Which of the following can support a jumbo frame? A. Access point B. Bridge C. Hub D. Switch Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Definition of Jumbo Frames: Jumbo frames are Ethernet frames with more than 1500 bytes of payload, typically up to 9000 bytes. They are used to improve network performance by reducing the overhead caused by smaller frames. Why Switches Support Jumbo Frames: Switches are network devices designed to manage data packets and can be configured to support jumbo frames. This capability enhances throughput and efficiency, particularly in highperformance networks and data centers. Incompatibility of Other Devices: Access Point: Primarily handles wireless communications and does not typically support jumbo frames. Bridge: Connects different network segments but usually operates at standard Ethernet frame sizes. Hub: A simple network device that transmits packets to all ports without distinguishing between devices, incapable of handling jumbo frames. Practical Application: Enabling jumbo frames on switches helps in environments where large data transfers are common, such as in storage area networks (SANs) or large-scale virtualized environments. Reference: CompTIA Network+ course materials and networking hardware documentation. Q8 Which of the following cloud service models most likely requires the greatest up-front expense by the customer when migrating a data center to the cloud? A. Infrastructure as a service B. Software as a service C. Platform as a service D. Network as a service Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) typically requires the greatest up-front expense by the customer when migrating a data center to the cloud. IaaS provides virtualized computing resources over the internet, where customers rent virtual machines, storage, and networks. The customer is responsible for managing the operating systems, applications, and data. This model often necessitates significant initial investment in planning, migration, and configuring the infrastructure. In contrast, Software as a Service (SaaS) and Platform as a Service (PaaS) models usually involve lower up-front costs because they offer more managed services. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section. Q9 Which of the following is the most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account? A. Network security group B. laaS C. VPC D. Hybrid cloud Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) A Virtual Private Cloud (VPC) is most closely associated with segmenting compute resources within a single cloud account. A VPC allows you to define a virtual network that closely resembles a traditional network, complete with subnets, route tables, and gateways. This segmentation enables the isolation of different parts of a network within a cloud environment, ensuring security and efficient resource management. VPCs are a key component in many cloud infrastructures, providing the flexibility to manage and control network settings and resources. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Cloud Models section. Q10 A. traceroute B. netstat C. tcpdump D. arp Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) The netstat command provides information about network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, masquerade connections, and multicast memberships. Running netstat on the server can help the administrator verify that the web server process is listening on the expected port (e.g., port 80 for HTTP or port 443 for HTTPS) and that there are no issues with network connections. This is a crucial first step in diagnosing why the web server is not accessible via a browser. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q11 A network administrator notices interference with industrial equipment in the 2.4GHz range. Which of the following technologies would most likely mitigate this issue? (Select two). A. Mesh network B. 5GHz frequency C. Omnidirectional antenna D. Non-overlapping channel E. Captive portal F. Ad hoc network Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Understanding 2.4GHz Interference: The 2.4GHz frequency range is commonly used by many devices, including Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and various industrial equipment. This can lead to interference and degraded performance. Mitigation Strategies: 5GHz Frequency: The 5GHz frequency band offers more channels and less interference compared to the 2.4GHz band. Devices operating on 5GHz are less likely to encounter interference from other devices, including industrial equipment. Non-overlapping Channels: In the 2.4GHz band, using non-overlapping channels (such as channels 1, 6, and 11) can help reduce interference. Non-overlapping channels do not interfere with each other, providing clearer communication paths for Wi-Fi signals. Why Other Options are Less Effective: Mesh Network: While useful for extending network coverage, a mesh network does not inherently address interference issues. Omnidirectional Antenna: This type of antenna broadcasts signals in all directions but does not mitigate interference. Captive Portal: A web page that users must view and interact with before accessing a network, unrelated to frequency interference. Ad Hoc Network: A decentralized wireless network that does not address interference issues directly. Implementation: Switch Wi-Fi devices to the 5GHz band if supported by the network infrastructure and client devices. Configure Wi-Fi access points to use non-overlapping channels within the 2.4GHz band to minimize interference. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on wireless networking and interference mitigation. Q12 A network administrator needs to set up a multicast network for audio and video broadcasting. Which of the following networks would be the most appropriate for this application? A. 172.16.0.0/24 B. 192.168.0.0/24 C. 224.0.0.0/24 D. 240.0.0.0/24 Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) The address range 224.0.0.0/24 falls within the Class D IP address range (224.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255), which is reserved for multicast traffic. Multicast addresses are used for the delivery of information to multiple destinations simultaneously, making them ideal for applications like audio and video broadcasting. The other options (172.16.0.0/24, 192.168.0.0/24, and 240.0.0.0/24) are not suitable for multicast as they are within different IP ranges used for other purposes (private addressing and future use, respectively). Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - IP Addressing section. Q13 SIMULATION A network administrator has been tasked with configuring a network for a new corporate office. The office consists of two buildings, separated by 50 feet with no physical connectivity. The configuration must meet the following requirements:. Devices in both buildings should be able to access the Internet.. Security insists that all Internet traffic be inspected before entering the network.. Desktops should not see traffic destined for other devices. INSTRUCTIONS Select the appropriate network device for each location. If applicable, click on the magnifying glass next to any device which may require configuration updates and make any necessary changes. Not all devices will be used, but all locations should be filled. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button. Answer: See the answer and solution below Explanation: Devices in both buildings should be able to access the Internet. Security insists that all Internet traffic be inspected before entering the network. Desktops should not see traffic destined for other devices. Here is the corrected layout with explanation: Building A: Switch: Correctly placed to connect all desktops. Firewall: Correctly placed to inspect all incoming and outgoing traffic. Building B: Switch: Not needed. Instead, place a Wireless Access Point (WAP) to provide wireless connectivity for laptops and mobile devices. Between Buildings: Wireless Range Extender: Correctly placed to provide connectivity between the buildings wirelessly. Connection to the Internet: Router: Correctly placed to connect to the Internet and route traffic between the buildings and the Internet. Firewall: The firewall should be placed between the router and the internal network to inspect all traffic before it enters the network. Corrected Setup: Top-left (Building A): Switch Bottom-left (Building A): Firewall (inspect traffic before it enters the network) Top-middle (Internet connection): Router Bottom-middle (between buildings): Wireless Range Extender Top-right (Building B): Wireless Access Point (WAP) In this corrected setup, the WAP in Building B will connect wirelessly to the Wireless Range Extender, which is connected to the Router. The Router is connected to the Firewall to ensure all traffic is inspected before it enters the network. Configuration for Wireless Range Extender: SSID: CORP Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase] Mode: [Set based on your network plan] Channel: [Set based on your network plan] Speed: Auto Duplex: Auto With these settings, both buildings will have secure access to the Internet, and all traffic will be inspected by the firewall before entering the network. Desktops and other devices will not see traffic intended for others, maintaining the required security and privacy. To configure the wireless range extender for security, follow these steps: SSID (Service Set Identifier): Ensure the SSID is set to "CORP" as shown in the exhibit. Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise: Choose one of these options for stronger security. WPA2-Enterprise provides more robust security with centralized authentication, which is ideal for a corporate environment. Key or Passphrase: If you select WPA2, enter a strong passphrase in the "Key or Passphrase" field. If you select WPA2 - Enterprise, you will need to configure additional settings for authentication servers, such as RADIUS, which is not shown in the exhibit. Wireless Mode and Channel: Set the appropriate mode and channel based on your network design and the environment to avoid interference. These settings are not specified in the exhibit, so set them according to your network plan. Wired Speed and Duplex: Set the speed to "Auto" unless you have specific requirements for 100 or 1000 Mbps. Set the duplex to "Auto" unless you need to specify half or full duplex based on your network equipment. Save Configuration: After making the necessary changes, click the "Save" button to apply the settings. Here is how the configuration should look after adjustments: SSID: CORP Security Settings: WPA2 or WPA2 - Enterprise Key or Passphrase: [Enter a strong passphrase] Mode: [Set based on your network plan] Channel: [Set based on your network plan] Speed: Auto Duplex: Auto Once these settings are configured, your wireless range extender will provide secure connectivity for devices in both buildings. Firewall setting to to ensure complete compliance with the requirements and best security practices, consider the following adjustments and additions: DNS Rule: This rule allows DNS traffic from the internal network to any destination, which is fine. HTTPS Outbound: This rule allows HTTPS traffic from the internal network (assuming 192.169.0.1/24 is a typo and should be 192.168.0.1/24) to any destination, which is also good for secure web browsing. Management: This rule allows SSH access to the firewall for management purposes, which is necessary for administrative tasks. HTTPS Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTPS traffic to the internal network, which is good unless you have a web server that needs to be accessible from the internet. HTTP Inbound: This rule denies inbound HTTP traffic to the internal network, which is correct for security purposes. Suggested Additional Settings: Permit General Outbound Traffic: Allow general outbound traffic for web access, email, etc. Block All Other Traffic: Ensure that all other traffic is blocked to prevent unauthorized access. Firewall Configuration Adjustments: Correct the Network Typo: Ensure that the subnet 192.169.0.1/24 is corrected to 192.168.0.1/24. Permit General Outbound Traffic: Rule Name: General Outbound Source: 192.168.0.1/24 Destination: ANY Service: ANY Action: PERMIT Deny All Other Traffic: Rule Name: Block All Source: ANY Destination: ANY Service: ANY Action: DENY Here is how your updated firewall settings should look: Rule Name Source Destination Service Action DNS Rule 192.168.0.1/24 ANY DNS PERMIT HTTPS Outbound 192.168.0.1/24 ANY HTTPS PERMIT Management ANY 192.168.0.1/24 SSH PERMIT HTTPS Inbound ANY 192.168.0.1/24 HTTPS DENY HTTP Inbound ANY 192.168.0.1/24 HTTP DENY General Outbound 192.168.0.1/24 ANY ANY PERMIT Block All ANY ANY ANY DENY These settings ensure that: Internal devices can access DNS and HTTPS services externally. Management access via SSH is permitted. Inbound HTTP and HTTPS traffic is denied unless otherwise specified. General outbound traffic is allowed. All other traffic is blocked by default, ensuring a secure environment. Make sure to save the settings after making these adjustments. Q14 Which of the following connectors provides console access to a switch? A. ST B. RJ45 C. BNC D. SFP Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Console Access: Purpose: Console access to a switch allows administrators to configure and manage the device directly. This is typically done using a terminal emulator program on a computer. RJ45 Connector: Common Use: The RJ45 connector is widely used for Ethernet cables and also for console connections to network devices like switches and routers. Console Cables: Console cables often have an RJ45 connector on one end (for the switch) and a DB9 serial connector on the other end (for the computer). Comparison with Other Connectors: ST (Straight Tip): A fiber optic connector used for networking, not for console access. BNC (Bayonet Neill-Concelman): A connector used for coaxial cable, typically in older network setups and not for console access. SFP (Small Form-factor Pluggable): A modular transceiver used for network interfaces, not for console access. Practical Application: Connection Process: Connect the RJ45 end of the console cable to the console port of the switch. Connect the DB9 end (or USB via adapter) to the computer. Use a terminal emulator (e.g., PuTTY, Tera Term) to access the switch's command-line interface (CLI). Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network devices and connectors. Q15 SIMULATION A network technician was recently onboarded to a company. A manager has tasked the technician with documenting the network and has provided the technician With partial information from previous documentation. Instructions: Click on each switch to perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal. Fill in the missing information using drop-down menus provided. Answer: See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation Explanation: (Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To perform a network discovery by entering commands into the terminal, you can use the following steps: Click on each switch to open its terminal window. Enter the command show ip interface brief to display the IP addresses and statuses of the switch interfaces. Enter the command show vlan brief to display the VLAN configurations and assignments of the switch interfaces. Enter the command show cdp neighbors to display the information about the neighboring devices that are connected to the switch. Fill in the missing information in the diagram using the drop-down menus provided. Here is an example of how to fill in the missing information for Core Switch 1: The IP address of Core Switch 1 is 192.168.1.1. The VLAN configuration of Core Switch 1 is VLAN 1: 192.168.1.0/24, VLAN 2: 192.168.2.0/24, VLAN 3: 192.168.3.0/24. The neighboring devices of Core Switch 1 are Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2. The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 1 are GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/2. The interfaces that connect Core Switch 1 to Access Switch 2 are GigabitEthernet0/3 and GigabitEthernet0/4. You can use the same steps to fill in the missing information for Access Switch 1 and Access Switch 2. Q16 Which of the following is most closely associated with a dedicated link to a cloud environment and may not include encryption? A. Direct Connect B. Internet gateway C. Captive portal D. VPN Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Direct Connect refers to a dedicated network connection between an on-premises network and a cloud service provider (such as AWS Direct Connect). This link bypasses the public internet, providing a more reliable and higher-bandwidth connection. It may not inherently include encryption because it relies on the security measures of the dedicated physical connection itself. In contrast, other options like VPN typically involve encryption as they traverse the public internet. Reference: CompTIA Network+ full course material indicates that Direct Connect type services offer dedicated, private connections which might not include encryption due to the dedicated and secure nature of the link itself. Valid N10-009 Dumps shared by ExamDiscuss.com for Helping Passing N10-009 Exam! ExamDiscuss.com now offer the newest N10-009 exam dumps, the ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 exam questions have been updated and answers have been corrected get the newest ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 dumps with Test Engine here: https://www.examdiscuss.com/CompTIA/exam/N10-009/premium/ (155 Q&As Dumps, 35%OFF Special Discount Code: freecram) Q17 A company wants to implement data loss prevention by restricting user access to social media platforms and personal cloud storage on workstations. Which of the following types of filtering should the company deploy to achieve these goals? A. Port B. DNS C. MAC D. Content Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) To implement data loss prevention (DLP) and restrict user access to social media platforms and personal cloud storage, the company should deploy content filtering. Content filtering examines the data being transmitted over the network and can block specific types of content or websites based on predefined policies. This type of filtering is effective in preventing access to specific web services and ensuring that sensitive information does not leave the network through unauthorized channels. Port, DNS, and MAC filtering serve different purposes and are not as effective for DLP in this context. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section. Q18 SIMULATION A network technician needs to resolve some issues with a customer's SOHO network. The customer reports that some of the devices are not connecting to the network, while others appear to work as intended. INSTRUCTIONS Troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results by Clicking on each device and cable. Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem. Cable Test Results: Cable 1: Cable 2: Cable 3: Cable 4: Answer: See the Explanation for detailed information on this simulation Explanation: (Note: Ips will be change on each simulation task, so we have given example answer for the understanding) To troubleshoot all the network components and review the cable test results, you can use the following steps: Click on each device and cable to open its information window. Review the information and identify any problems or errors that may affect the network connectivity or performance. Diagnose the appropriate component(s) by identifying any components with a problem and recommend a solution to correct each problem. Fill in the remediation form using the drop-down menus provided. Here is an example of how to fill in the remediation form for PC1: The component with a problem is PC1. The problem is Incorrect IP address. The solution is Change the IP address to 192.168.1.10. You can use the same steps to fill in the remediation form for other components. To enter commands in each device, you can use the following steps: Click on the device to open its terminal window. Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of the device, including its IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers. Enter the command ping to test the connectivity and reachability to another device on the network by sending and receiving echo packets. Replace with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1. Enter the command tracert to trace the route and measure the latency of packets from the device to another device on the network by sending and receiving packets with increasing TTL values. Replace with the IP address of the destination device, such as 192.168.1.1 for Core Switch 1. Here is an example of how to enter commands in PC1: Click on PC1 to open its terminal window. Enter the command ipconfig /all to display the IP configuration of PC1. You should see that PC1 has an incorrect IP address of 192.168.2.10, which belongs to VLAN 2 instead of VLAN 1. Enter the command ping 192.168.1.1 to test the connectivity to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to ping Core Switch 1 because they are on different subnets. Enter the command tracert 192.168.1.1 to trace the route to Core Switch 1. You should see that PC1 is unable to reach Core Switch 1 because there is no route between them. You can use the same steps to enter commands in other devices, such as PC3, PC4, PC5, and Server 1. Q19 A network architect needs to create a wireless field network to provide reliable service to public safety vehicles. Which of the following types of networks is the best solution? A. Mesh B. Ad hoc C. Point-to-point D. Infrastructure Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) A mesh network is the best solution for providing reliable wireless service to public safety vehicles. In a mesh network, each node (vehicle) can connect to multiple other nodes, providing multiple paths for data to travel. This enhances reliability and redundancy, ensuring continuous connectivity even if one or more nodes fail. Mesh networks are highly resilient and are well-suited for dynamic and mobile environments such as public safety operations. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q20 A. 11MHz B. 20MHz C. 40MHz D. 80MHz E. 160MHz Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) In the 2.4GHz spectrum, channels are spaced 5MHz apart but have a bandwidth of 20MHz, resulting in overlapping channels. To minimize interference, especially in a dense environment where access point coverage overlaps, a narrower channel width of 20MHz should be used. Using wider channel widths like 40MHz, 80MHz, or 160MHz in the 2.4GHz band will increase the overlap and interference. The 20MHz channel width provides a good balance between performance and minimal interference. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Wireless Networks section. Q21 Which of the following IP transmission types encrypts all of the transmitted data? A. ESP B. AH C. GRE D. UDP E. TC Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) P Explanation: Definition of ESP (Encapsulating Security Payload): ESP is a part of the IPsec protocol suite used to provide confidentiality, integrity, and authenticity of data. ESP encrypts the payload and optional ESP trailer, providing data confidentiality. ESP Functionality: ESP can encrypt the entire IP packet, ensuring that the data within the packet is secure from interception or eavesdropping. It also provides options for data integrity and authentication. ESP operates in two modes: transport mode (encrypts only the payload of the IP packet) and tunnel mode (encrypts the entire IP packet). Comparison with Other Protocols: AH (Authentication Header): Provides data integrity and authentication but does not encrypt the payload. GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation): A tunneling protocol that does not provide encryption. UDP (User Datagram Protocol) and TCP (Transmission Control Protocol): These are transport layer protocols that do not inherently provide encryption. Encryption must be provided by additional protocols like TLS/SSL. Use Cases: ESP is widely used in VPNs (Virtual Private Networks) to ensure secure communication over untrusted networks like the internet. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on IPsec and encryption. Q22 To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization? A. Public B. Hybrid C. SaaS D. Private Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) A hybrid cloud deployment model is the best choice for the CTO's requirements. It allows the organization to run key services from the on-site data center while leveraging the cloud for enterprise services. This approach provides flexibility, scalability, and cost savings, while also minimizing disruptions to users by keeping critical services local. The hybrid model integrates both private and public cloud environments, offering the benefits of both. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and cloud computing principles. Q23 After running a Cat 8 cable using passthrough plugs, an electrician notices that connected cables are experiencing a lot of cross talk. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the electrician take first? A. Inspect the connectors for any wires that are touching or exposed. B. Restore default settings on the connected devices. C. Terminate the connections again. D. Check for radio frequency interference in the area. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Cross talk can often be caused by improper termination of cables. The first step in troubleshooting should be to inspect the connectors for any wires that might be touching or exposed. Ensuring that all wires are correctly seated and that no conductors are exposed can help reduce or eliminate cross talk. This step should be taken before attempting to re-terminate the connections or check for other sources of interference. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q24 Which of the following devices can operate in multiple layers of the OSI model? A. Hub B. Switch C. Transceiver D. Modem Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Understanding Switches: Layer 2 (Data Link Layer): Traditional switches operate primarily at Layer 2, where they use MAC addresses to forward frames within a local network. Layer 3 (Network Layer): Layer 3 switches, also known as multilayer switches, can perform routing functions using IP addresses to forward packets between different networks. Capabilities of Multilayer Switches: VLANs and Inter-VLAN Routing: Multilayer switches can handle VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) configurations and perform inter-VLAN routing, enabling communication between different VLANs. Routing Protocols: They can run routing protocols like OSPF (Open Shortest Path First) and EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) to manage traffic between networks. Comparison with Other Devices: Hub: Operates only at Layer 1 (Physical Layer) and simply repeats incoming signals to all ports. Transceiver: Also operates at Layer 1, converting electrical signals to optical signals and vice versa. Modem: Primarily operates at Layer 1 and Layer 2, modulating and demodulating signals for transmission over different types of media. Practical Application: Multilayer switches are commonly used in enterprise networks to optimize performance and manage complex routing and switching requirements within a single device. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network devices and the OSI model. Q25 While troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, a technician's laptop is able to successfully connect to network resources using the same port. The technician needs to identify the port on the switch. Which of the following should the technician use to determine the switch and port? A. LLDP B. IKE C. VLAN D. netstat Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a network protocol used for discovering devices and their capabilities on a local area network, primarily at the data link layer (Layer 2). It helps in identifying the connected switch and the specific port to which a device is connected. When troubleshooting a VoIP handset connection, the technician can use LLDP to determine the exact switch and port where the handset is connected. This protocol is widely used in network management to facilitate the discovery of network topology and simplify troubleshooting. Other options such as IKE (Internet Key Exchange), VLAN (Virtual LAN), and netstat (network statistics) are not suitable for identifying the switch and port information. IKE is used in setting up secure IPsec connections, VLAN is used for segmenting networks, and netstat provides information about active connections and listening ports on a host but not for discovering switch port details. Q26 A research facility is expecting to see an exponential increase in global network traffic in the near future. The offices are equipped with 2.5Gbps fiber connections from the ISP, but the facility is currently only utilizing 1Gbps connections. Which of the following would need to be configured in order to use the ISP's connection speed? A. 802.1Qtagging B. Network address translation C. Port duplex D. Link aggregation Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Understanding Link Aggregation: Definition: Link aggregation combines multiple network connections into a single logical link to increase bandwidth and provide redundancy. Usage in High-Bandwidth Scenarios: Combining Links: By aggregating multiple 1Gbps connections, the facility can utilize the full 2.5Gbps bandwidth provided by the ISP. Benefits: Enhanced throughput, load balancing, and redundancy, ensuring better utilization of available bandwidth. Comparison with Other Options: 802.1QTagging: Used for VLAN tagging, which does not affect the physical bandwidth utilization. Network Address Translation (NAT): Used for IP address translation, not related to link speed or bandwidth aggregation. Port Duplex: Refers to the mode of communication (full or half duplex) on a port, not the aggregation of bandwidth. Implementation: Configure link aggregation (often referred to as LACP - Link Aggregation Control Protocol) on network devices to combine multiple physical links into one logical link. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network configuration and link aggregation. Q27 Users cannot connect to an internal website with an IP address 10.249.3.76. A network administrator runs a command and receives the following output: 1 3ms 2ms 3ms 192.168.25.234 2 2ms 3ms 1ms 192.168.3.100 3 4ms 5ms 2ms 10.249.3.1 4* 5' 6* 7* Which of the following command-line tools is the network administrator using? A. tracert B. netstat C. tcpdump D. nmap Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Understanding Tracert: tracert (Traceroute in Windows) is a command-line tool used to trace the path that packets take from the source to the destination. It records the route (the specific gateways at each hop) and measures transit delays of packets across an IP network. Output Analysis: The output shows a series of IP addresses with corresponding round-trip times (RTTs) in milliseconds. The asterisks (*) indicate that no response was received from those hops, which is typical for routers or firewalls that block ICMP packets used by tracert. Comparison with Other Tools: netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace packet routes. tcpdump: Captures network packets for analysis, used for detailed network traffic inspection. nmap: A network scanning tool used to discover hosts and services on a network, not for tracing packet routes. Usage: tracert helps identify the path to a destination and locate points of failure or congestion in the network. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network troubleshooting and diagnostic tools. Q28 Early in the morning, an administrator installs a new DHCP server. In the afternoon, some users report they are experiencing network outages. Which of the following is the most likely issue? A. The administrator did not provision enough IP addresses. B. The administrator configured an incorrect default gateway. C. The administrator did not provision enough routes. D. The administrator did not provision enough MAC addresses. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) When a DHCP server is installed and not enough IP addresses are provisioned, users may start experiencing network outages once the available IP addresses are exhausted. DHCP servers assign IP addresses to devices on the network, and if the pool of addresses is too small, new devices or those renewing their lease may fail to obtain an IP address, resulting in network connectivity issues. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q29 Which of the following protocols has a default administrative distance value of 90? A. RIP B. EIGRP C. OSPF D. BGP Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol) has a default administrative distance (AD) value of 90 for internal routes. The administrative distance is used to rate the trustworthiness of routing information received from different routing protocols. EIGRP, developed by Cisco, has an AD of 90, which is lower than that of RIP (120) and OSPF (110), making it more preferred if multiple protocols provide a route to the same destination. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q30 A. The switch failed. B. The default gateway is wrong. C. The port Is shut down. D. The VLAN assignment is incorrect. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) When a network interface's indicator lights are not blinking on either the computer or the switch, it suggests a physical layer issue. Here is the detailed reasoning: Ethernet Properly Connected: The Ethernet cable is correctly connected, eliminating issues related to a loose or faulty cable. No Indicator Lights: The absence of blinking indicator lights on both the computer and the switch typically points to the port being administratively shut down. Switch Port Shut Down: In networking, a switch port can be administratively shut down, disabling it from passing any traffic. This state is configured by network administrators and can be verified and changed using the command-line interface (CLI) of the switch. Command to Check and Enable Port: bash Copy code Switch> enable Switch# configure terminal Switch(config)# interface [interface id] Switch(config-if)# no shutdown The command no shutdown re-enables the interface if it was previously disabled. This will restore the link and the indicator lights should start blinking, showing activity. Q31 Which of the following is most likely responsible for the security and handling of personal data in Europe? A. GDPR B. SCADA C. SAML D. PCI DSS Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Definition of GDPR: General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the transfer of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas. Scope and Objectives: GDPR aims to give individuals control over their personal data and to simplify the regulatory environment for international business by unifying the regulation within the EU. It enforces rules about data protection, requiring companies to protect the personal data and privacy of EU citizens for transactions that occur within EU member states. Comparison with Other Options: SCADA (Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition): Refers to control systems used in industrial and infrastructure processes, not related to personal data protection. SAML (Security Assertion Markup Language): A standard for exchanging authentication and authorization data between parties, not specifically for personal data protection. PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard): A set of security standards designed to ensure that all companies that accept, process, store or transmit credit card information maintain a secure environment, not specific to personal data protection in Europe. Key Provisions: GDPR includes provisions for data processing, data subject rights, obligations of data controllers and processors, and penalties for non-compliance. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on regulatory and compliance standards. Valid N10-009 Dumps shared by ExamDiscuss.com for Helping Passing N10-009 Exam! ExamDiscuss.com now offer the newest N10-009 exam dumps, the ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 exam questions have been updated and answers have been corrected get the newest ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 dumps with Test Engine here: https://www.examdiscuss.com/CompTIA/exam/N10-009/premium/ (155 Q&As Dumps, 35%OFF Special Discount Code: freecram) Q32 SIMULATION You have been tasked with implementing an ACL on the router that will: 1. Permit the most commonly used secure remote access technologies from the management network to all other local network segments 2. Ensure the user subnet cannot use the most commonly used remote access technologies in the Linux and Windows Server segments. 3. Prohibit any traffic that has not been specifically allowed. INSTRUCTIONS Use the drop-downs to complete the ACL If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button. Answer: See the answer and solution below Explanation: Q33 A technician is troubleshooting a user's laptop that is unable to connect to a corporate server. The technician thinks the issue pertains to routing. Which of the following commands should the technician use to identify the issue? A. tcpdump B. dig C. tracert D. arp Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) The tracert (Traceroute) command is used to determine the path packets take from the source to the destination. It helps in identifying routing issues by showing each hop the packets pass through, along with the time taken for each hop. This command can pinpoint where the connection is failing or experiencing delays, making it an essential tool for troubleshooting routing issues. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and common network troubleshooting commands. Q34 Which of the following is a characteristic of the application layer? A. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery. OB. It checks independently for packet loss. B. It encrypts data in transit. C. It performs address translation. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Introduction to OSI Model: The OSI model is a conceptual framework used to understand network interactions in seven layers: Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, and Application. Application Layer: The application layer (Layer 7) is the topmost layer in the OSI model. It provides network services directly to end-user applications. This layer facilitates communication between software applications and lower layers of the network protocol stack. Reliance on Other Layers: The application layer relies on the transport layer (Layer 4) for data transfer across the network. The transport layer ensures reliable data delivery through protocols like TCP and UDP. The network layer (Layer 3) is responsible for routing packets to their destination. The data link layer (Layer 2) handles node-to-node data transfer and error detection. The physical layer (Layer 1) deals with the physical connection between devices. Explanation of the Options: A. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery: This is correct. The application layer depends on the lower layers (transport, network, data link, and physical) for the actual delivery of data packets. B. It checks independently for packet loss: This is incorrect. Packet loss detection is typically handled by the transport layer (e.g., TCP). C. It encrypts data in transit: This is incorrect. Encryption is typically handled by the presentation layer or at the transport layer (e.g., TLS/SSL). D. It performs address translation: This is incorrect. Address translation is performed by the network layer (e.g., NAT). Conclusion: The application layer's primary role is to interface with the end-user applications and ensure that data is correctly presented to the user. It relies on the underlying layers to manage the actual data transport and delivery processes. Reference: CompTIA Network+ guide covering the OSI model and the specific roles and functions of each layer (see page Ref 10fHow to Use Cisco Packet Tracer). Q35 SIMULATION After a recent power outage, users are reporting performance issues accessing the application servers. Wireless users are also reporting intermittent Internet issues. INSTRUCTIONS Click on each tab at the top of the screen. Select a widget to view information, then use the dropdown menus to answer the associated questions. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button. Answer: See the answer and solution below Explanation: Network Health: WAN 2 appears to have a lower average latency and loss percentage, which would make it the preferred WAN station for VoIP traffic. VoIP traffic requires low latency and packet loss to ensure good voice quality and reliability. WAN 1 seems to have higher RAM and processor usage, which could also affect the performance of VoIP traffic. Here's the summary of the key metrics for WAN 1 and WAN 2 from the image provided: WAN 1: Uplink Speed: 10G Total Usage: 26.969GB Up / 1.748GB Down Average Throughput: 353MBps Up / 23.42MBps Down Loss: 2.51% Average Latency: 24ms Jitter: 9.5ms WAN 2: Uplink Speed: 1G Total Usage: 930GB Up / 138GB Down Average Throughput: 12.21MBps Up / 1.82MBps Down Loss: 0.01% Average Latency: 11ms Jitter: 3.9ms For VoIP traffic, low latency and jitter are particularly important to ensure voice quality. While WAN 1 has higher bandwidth and throughput, it also has higher latency and jitter compared to WAN 2. However, WAN 2 has much lower loss, lower latency, and lower jitter, which are more favorable for VoIP traffic that is sensitive to delays and variation in packet arrival times. Given this information, WAN 2 would generally be preferred for VoIP traffic due to its lower latency, lower jitter, and significantly lower loss percentage, despite its lower bandwidth compared to WAN 1. The high bandwidth of WAN 1 may be more suitable for other types of traffic that are less sensitive to latency and jitter, such as bulk data transfers. Device Monitoring: the device that is experiencing connectivity issues is the APP Server or Router 1, which has a status of Down. This means that the server is not responding to network requests or sending any dat a. You may want to check the physical connection, power supply, and configuration of the APP Server to troubleshoot the problem. Q36 Which of the following should a network administrator configure when adding OT devices to an organization's architecture? A. Honeynet B. Data-at-rest encryption C. Time-based authentication D. Network segmentation Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Network segmentation involves dividing a network into smaller segments or subnets. This is particularly important when integrating OT (Operational Technology) devices to ensure that these devices are isolated from other parts of the network. Segmentation helps protect the OT devices from potential threats and minimizes the impact of any security incidents. It also helps manage traffic and improves overall network performance. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q37 SIMULATION You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security. Requirements: Datacenter Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic Building A Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users Add an additional mobile user Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic INSTRUCTIONS Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled. Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag & Drop menu. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button. Answer: See explanation below Explanation: Screened Subnet devices - Web server, FTP server Building A devices - SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left DataCenter devices - DNS server. Q38 Which of the following are environmental factors that should be considered when installing equipment in a building? (Select two). A. Fire suppression system B. UPS location C. Humidity control D. Power load E. Floor construction type F. Proximity to nearest MDF Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) When installing equipment in a building, environmental factors are critical to ensure the safety and longevity of the equipment. A fire suppression system is essential to protect the equipment from fire hazards. Humidity control is crucial to prevent moisture-related damage, such as corrosion and short circuits, which can adversely affect electronic components. Both factors are vital for maintaining an optimal environment for networking equipment. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q39 A network administrator is deploying a new switch and wants to make sure that the default priority value was set for a spanning tree. Which of the following values would the network administrator expect to see? A. 4096 B. 8192 C. 32768 D. 36684 Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Understanding Spanning Tree Protocol (STP): STP is used to prevent network loops in Ethernet networks by creating a spanning tree that selectively blocks some redundant paths. Default Priority Value: Bridge Priority: STP uses bridge priority to determine which switch becomes the root bridge. The default bridge priority value for most switches is 32768. Priority Range: The bridge priority can be set in increments of 4096, ranging from 0 to 61440. Configuration and Verification: When deploying a new switch, the network administrator can verify the bridge priority using commands such as show spanning-tree to ensure it is set to the default value of 32768. Comparison with Other Values: 4096 and 8192: Lower than the default priority, indicating these would be manually configured for higher preference. 36684: A non-standard value, likely a result of specific configuration changes. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on Spanning Tree Protocol and network configuration. Q40 A. SSO B. SAML C. MFA D. RADIUS Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) is a networking protocol that provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) management for users who connect and use a network service. RADIUS is often used to manage access to wireless networks, enabling users to authenticate with their company credentials, ensuring secure access to the network. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q41 A network technician is troubleshooting a web application's poor performance. The office has two internet links that share the traffic load. Which of the following tools should the technician use to determine which link is being used for the web application? A. netstat B. nslookup C. ping D. tracert Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Understanding Tracert: Traceroute Tool: tracert (Windows) or traceroute (Linux) is a network diagnostic tool used to trace the path that packets take from a source to a destination. It lists all the intermediate routers the packets traverse. Determining Traffic Path: Path Identification: By running tracert to the web application's destination IP address, the technician can identify which route the traffic is taking and thereby determine which internet link is being used. Load Balancing Insight: If the office uses load balancing for its internet links, tracert can help verify which link is currently handling the traffic for the web application. Comparison with Other Tools: netstat: Displays network connections, routing tables, interface statistics, and more, but does not trace the path of packets. nslookup: Used for querying DNS to obtain domain name or IP address mapping, not for tracing packet routes. ping: Tests connectivity and measures round-trip time but does not provide path information. Implementation: Open a command prompt or terminal. Execute tracert [destination IP] to trace the route. Analyze the output to determine the path and the link being used. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network troubleshooting and diagnostic tools. Q42 A network administrator needs to connect two routers in a point-to-point configuration and conserve IP space. Which of the following subnets should the administrator use? A. 724 B. /26 C. /28 D. /30 Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Using a /30 subnet mask is the most efficient way to conserve IP space for a point-to-point connection between two routers. A /30 subnet provides four IP addresses, two of which can be assigned to the router interfaces, one for the network address, and one for the broadcast address. This makes it ideal for point-to-point links where only two usable IP addresses are needed. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials and subnetting principles. Q43 A network administrator wants to implement security zones in the corporate network to control access to only individuals inside of the corporation. Which of the following security zones is the best solution? A. Extranet B. Trusted C. VPN D. Public Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Introduction to Security Zones: Security zones are logical segments within a network designed to enforce security policies and control access. They help in segregating and securing different parts of the network. Types of Security Zones: Trusted Zone: This is the most secure zone, typically used for internal corporate networks where only trusted users have access. Extranet: This zone allows controlled access to external partners, vendors, or customers. VPN (Virtual Private Network): While VPNs are used to create secure connections over the internet, they are not a security zone themselves. Public Zone: This zone is the least secure and is typically used for public-facing services accessible by anyone. Trusted Zone Implementation: The trusted zone is configured to include internal corporate users and resources. Access controls, firewalls, and other security measures ensure that only authorized personnel can access this zone. Internal network segments, such as the finance department, HR, and other critical functions, are usually placed in the trusted zone. Example Configuration: Firewall Rules: Set up rules to allow traffic only from internal IP addresses. Access Control Lists (ACLs): Implement ACLs on routers and switches to restrict access based on IP addresses and other criteria. Segmentation: Use VLANs and subnetting to segment and isolate the trusted zone from other zones. Explanation of the Options: A. Extranet: Suitable for external partners, not for internal-only access. B. Trusted: The correct answer, as it provides controlled access to internal corporate users. C. VPN: A method for secure remote access, not a security zone itself. D. Public: Suitable for public access, not for internal corporate users. Implementing Conclusion: a trusted zone is the best solution for controlling access within a corporate network. It ensures that only trusted internal users can access sensitive resources, enhancing network security. Reference: CompTIA Network+ guide detailing security zones and their implementation in a corporate network (see page Ref 9fBasic Configuration Commands). Q44 SIMULATION You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters: The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t! The wireless signals should not interfere with each other The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed INSTRUCTONS Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button. Answer: See explanation below Explanation: On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows Exhibit 2 as follows Access Point Name AP2 Exhibit 3 as follows Access Point Name AP3 Q45 A network engineer wants to implement a new IDS between the switch and a router connected to the LAN. The engineer does not want to introduce any latency by placing the IDS in line with the gateway. The engineer does want to ensure that the IDS sees all packets without any loss. Which of the following is the best way for the engineer to implement the IDS? A. Use a network tap. B. Use Nmap software. C. Use a protocol analyzer. D. Use a port mirror. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) To ensure that an IDS sees all packets without any loss and without introducing latency, the best approach is to use a port mirror, also known as a SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer) port. Port mirroring copies network packets seen on one switch port (or an entire VLAN) to another port where the IDS is connected. This method allows the IDS to monitor traffic passively without being in the direct path of network traffic, thus avoiding any additional latency. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section. Q46 Which of the following steps of the troubleshooting methodology would most likely include checking through each level of the OSI model after the problem has been identified? A. Establish a theory. B. Implement the solution. C. Create a plan of action. D. Verify functionality. Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Introduction to Troubleshooting Methodology: Network troubleshooting involves a systematic approach to identifying and resolving network issues. The CompTIA Network+ certification emphasizes a structured troubleshooting methodology. Troubleshooting Steps: Identify the problem: Gather information, identify symptoms, and question users. Establish a theory of probable cause: Consider possible reasons for the issue. Test the theory to determine cause: Validate the theory with tests. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution: Create and execute a resolution plan. Verify functionality and implement preventive measures: Ensure the solution works and prevent recurrence. Verifying Functionality: After implementing a solution, verifying functionality ensures that the problem is fully resolved. This involves testing the network to confirm that it operates correctly. Checking through each level of the OSI model helps to ensure that all potential issues at different layers (physical, data link, network, transport, session, presentation, and application) are addressed. Explanation of the Options: A. Establish a theory: This step involves hypothesizing possible causes, not verifying functionality. B. Implement the solution: This step involves executing the resolution plan. C. Create a plan of action: This step involves planning the resolution, not verification. D. Verify functionality: This step involves comprehensive checks, including OSI model layers, to ensure the issue is fully resolved. Conclusion: Verifying functionality is a critical step in the troubleshooting process, ensuring that the network operates correctly after a solution is implemented. It involves thorough testing across all OSI model layers. Reference: CompTIA Network+ guide explaining the troubleshooting methodology and the importance of verifying functionality (see page Ref 9fBasic Configuration Commands). Valid N10-009 Dumps shared by ExamDiscuss.com for Helping Passing N10-009 Exam! ExamDiscuss.com now offer the newest N10-009 exam dumps, the ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 exam questions have been updated and answers have been corrected get the newest ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 dumps with Test Engine here: https://www.examdiscuss.com/CompTIA/exam/N10-009/premium/ (155 Q&As Dumps, 35%OFF Special Discount Code: freecram) Q47 A network engineer is now in charge of all SNMP management in the organization. The engineer must use a SNMP version that does not utilize plaintext dat a. Which of the following is the minimum version of SNMP that supports this requirement? A. v1 B. v2c C. v2u D. v3 Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) SNMPv3 is the version of the Simple Network Management Protocol that introduces security enhancements, including message integrity, authentication, and encryption. Unlike previous versions (v1 and v2c), SNMPv3 supports encrypted communication, ensuring that data is not transmitted in plaintext. This provides confidentiality and protects against eavesdropping and unauthorized access. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials. Q48 A company wants to implement data loss prevention by restricting user access to social media platforms and personal cloud storage on workstations. Which of the following types of filtering should the company deploy to achieve these goals? A. Port B. MAC C. Content D. DNS Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) To implement data loss prevention (DLP) and restrict user access to social media platforms and personal cloud storage, the company should deploy content filtering. Content filtering examines the data being transmitted over the network and can block specific types of content or websites based on predefined policies. This type of filtering is effective in preventing access to specific web services and ensuring that sensitive information does not leave the network through unauthorized channels. Port, DNS, and MAC filtering serve different purposes and are not as effective for DLP in this context. Reference: CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives - Network Security section. Q49 A network manager wants to implement a SIEM system to correlate system events. Which of the following protocols should the network manager verify? A. NTP B. DNS C. LDAP D. DHCP Answer: (SHOW ANSWER) Role of NTP (Network Time Protocol): NTP is used to synchronize the clocks of network devices to a reference time source. Accurate time synchronization is critical for correlating events and logs from different systems. Importance for SIEM Systems: Event Correlation: SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) systems collect and analyze log data from various sources. Accurate timestamps are essential for correlating events across multiple systems. Time Consistency: Without synchronized time, it is challenging to piece together the sequence of events during an incident, making forensic analysis difficult. Comparison with Other Protocols: DNS (Domain Name System): Translates domain names to IP addresses but is not related to time synchronization. LDAP (Lightweight Directory Access Protocol): Used for directory services, such as user authentication and authorization. DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol): Assigns IP addresses to devices on a network but does not handle time synchronization. Implementation: Ensure that all network devices, servers, and endpoints are synchronized using NTP. This can be achieved by configuring devices to use an NTP server, which could be a local server or an external time source. Reference: CompTIA Network+ study materials on network protocols and SIEM systems. Valid N10-009 Dumps shared by ExamDiscuss.com for Helping Passing N10-009 Exam! ExamDiscuss.com now offer the newest N10-009 exam dumps, the ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 exam questions have been updated and answers have been corrected get the newest ExamDiscuss.com N10-009 dumps with Test Engine here: https://www.examdiscuss.com/CompTIA/exam/N10-009/premium/ (155 Q&As Dumps, 35%OFF Special Discount Code: freecram)