Microbiology Final Preclinical Module PDF

FINAL PRECLINICAL MODULE ____by Zaid… Microbiology 1. The main difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes: Presence of Nucleiod((( EUKARYOTES HAVE A TRUE NUCLEUS))) 2. Bacteria that look like corkscrew-shaped c...

FINAL PRECLINICAL MODULE ____by Zaid… Microbiology 1. The main difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes: Presence of Nucleiod((( EUKARYOTES HAVE A TRUE NUCLEUS))) 2. Bacteria that look like corkscrew-shaped convoluted cells with large 2 to 4 curls:Spirilla///treponema 3. Cocci, dividing in three mutually perpendicular planes and arranged in the form of bales or cubes: Sarcinae 4. The most important task of medical microbiology: Identification of microbe-causative agents that cause infectious diseases. 5. The smallest rod-shaped bacteria: Rickettsia 6. The basis for the classification of microorganisms is: degree of gentic retention///taxonomy,kinship degree,morphological basis. 7. The scientist who proposed the name “microbiology”:P Duclos 8. The predecessor of the microscope as a system of 2 lenses (objective and eyepiece) was created by: J and Z jansen(Hans Jansen and Zachary Jansen) 9. One or more families of bacteria make up: Order 10.Sticks with pointed ends: Fusobacteria 11.Localization location in the bacterial cell of sensitive receptors that recognize and process signals from the environment:Cytoplasmic membrane 12.Bacteria characterized by a curved shape:Vibrio. 13. Bacteria completely devoid of a cell wall under the influence of lysozyme:Protoplasts. 14.The structure of a bacterial cell, which is the center of metabolic activity: Cytoplasmic membrane 15.The composition of the inner layer of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacteria includes: Phospholipids/ Lipopolysaccharide 16.The toxicity of lipopolysaccharide of gram-negative bacteria depends on the presence of: lipid A (endotoxins) 17.The bacterial cell wall consists of: CELL WALL AND CYTOPLASMIC MEMBRANE 18.Time required for the formation of spores in bacteria: 18-20 hours. 19.Time required for germination of spores in bacteria:4-5 hours 20. The thermal stability of the bacterial spore is associated with the presence of:Dipicolinic acid 21. Spore formation by bacteria occurs in:Adverse environmental conditions. 22.Bacterial cell structures responsible for protein synthesis: Ribosomes 23.Properties of bacteria determined by microscopy of stained preparations:Tinctorial 24. Bacteria with flagella located all over the cell surface:Peritrichous 25. Microorganisms that do not perceive aniline dyes well:Treponema 26.A resting form of some gram-positive bacteria, resistant to adverse effects:Endospore 27. The main component forming the shell of the bacterial spore:Keratin-like protein. 28.The steps of preparing a micro preparation in order:SMEAR PREPARATION, DRYING, FIXATION, STAINING 29. The structural component of the bacterial cell, where the genetic information is embedded:Nucleoid. 30. Living organisms, including bacteria, consist of more than 98%:Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen. 29. Acid-resistant bacteria include:Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 30. Energy through redox reactions is obtained by:Chemotrophs 31.28. "Molecular clock" of evolution in bacteria: Ribosomal RNA(16sRNA ,23sRna) 32. The envelope in which the viral nucleic acid is packed is called:Capsid. 30.Respiration type of microbes that can reproduce only in without oxygen conditions:Anaerobic.  31.Bacteria with a bundle of flagella at one end: Lophotrichs 32.Method of staining spores, in which they are painted red, and vegetative cells are painted blue: by Ozheszko(Ziehl-Neelsen method) 33.Membrane proteins involved in the transport of substances into the bacterial cell: permeases 34.The cortex of a bacterial spore consists of: THICK LAYER OF PEPTIDOGLYCAN 35.The only representatives of eukaryotes that have sterols in the cytoplasmic membrane: Mycoplasma 36.40-90% of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria is: murein( Peptidoglycan\ \mucopeptide 37.A type of microscopy that converts phase changes of light waves passing through an object into amplitude and therefore unstained transparent microorganisms become visible:Phase contrast 29. Acid-fast bacteria include: Mycobacterium tuberculosis and leprae (LEPROSY 30. Type of respiration of microbes that can reproduce only in oxygen-free conditions: Obligate anaerobic//STRICT ANAEROBES) 31. Energy is obtained through redox reactions by: chemotrophs 32. The shell in which the viral nucleic acid is packaged is called a :capsid 33. Factor contributing to the spread of the pathogen in tissues: Hyaluronidase, 34. The first stage of bacterial spore germination : Activation 35. Medium for the cultivation of pathogenic anaerobes: Wilson Blair 36. Bacteria that are unable to grow on media with a salt concentration below 1% are called: Halophilic bacteria 37. Morphological and tinctorial properties of actinomycetes: branching, filamentous, rod-shaped gram-positive 38. Disinfectant with an oxidative mechanism of action :Hydrogen peroxide 39. Type of transfer of nutrients into a bacterial cell, in which the substance penetrates only along a concentration gradient : Passive transport//Inert 40. To study motility in bacteria, a micropreparation is prepared: “hanging” CRUSHED DROP 41. The selectivity of viruses to damage certain cells and tissues is called: Tropism 42. Heterotrophs: Use organic compounds containing carbon 43. Microorganisms that look like thin, corkscrew-twisted threads with 8-12 uniform small curls: Treponema 44. Chlamydia is not found in peptidoglycan: N-acetylmuramic acid 45. H-antigen is part of :Flagella 46. Microorganisms that form drusen in affected tissues: actinomycetes 47. The cytoplasmic membrane of these microorganisms contains sterols: mycoplasmas 48. Staining method for identifying acid-fast mycobacteria tuberculosis and leprosy: Ziehl-Neelsen 49. Types of bacterial nutrition depending on the carbon source: autotrophic and heterotrophic 50. The respiratory chain in bacteria is localized in: Cytoplasmic membrane And in intracellular membrane structures/mesosomes 51. Nutrient medium on which E. coli forms crimson colonies with a metallic sheen: : endo medium 52. The ability of a virus to adsorb on cell receptors is associated with the presence of: ATTACHMENT PROTEINS//fixed proteins 53. Determination of the minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC) of an antibiotic is carried out using the method: SERIAL DILUTION METHOD 54. Antibiotics that inhibit the growth and reproduction of bacteria are called: Bacteriostatic/MICROBIOSTATIC 55. Nutrient media that stimulate the growth of a certain type of microorganisms and suppress the growth of others: enrichment environments or Elective (selective) 56. The cultural properties of bacteria are: GROWTH PATTERN ON NUTRIENT MEDIA 57. Enzyme of bacterial aggression: Hyaluronidase 58. The saccharolytic properties of bacteria are studied on media: Hiss 59. The ability of pathogenic microbes to penetrate the cells of a macroorganism is called :by penetration //invasion/ /penetration  60. The growth phase of bacteria on a liquid nutrient medium in which bacteria divide at a constant maximum speed: Exponential (logarithmic) phase III. 61. The process of obtaining energy from bacteria, in which hydrogen separated from the substrate is transferred to organic compounds: Fermentation 62. In viruses, virulence is denoted by the word:infectivity 63. Bacterial adhesiveness is the ability to attach:attach to cell receptors on the surface membranes 64. Bacteria of the same species, differing in antigenic properties :serovar 65. Electron acceptor in bacteria with a fermentative type of metabolism: organic substances(CO2, H ions) 66. The molecular genetic method of microbiological diagnostics includes: the polymerase chain reaction(PCR)//// DETERMINATION OF PLASMID PROFILE 67. The phase of bacterial reproduction on a liquid nutrient medium, which is characterized by a constant maximum rate of cell division:logarithmic(exponential) 68. Antibiotics that interfere with cell wall synthesis: Penicillin, beta-lactams (these include penicillin), glycopeptides and lipopeptides 69. The permanent microflora of the human body is divided into; obligate and optional 70. A method that allows you to assess the virulence of microorganisms – biological method 71. Chemical nature of the O-antigen of bacteria: lipopolysaccharide 72. The micro preparation “ Hanging drop” is used to study bacteria : presence of flagella // MOBILITY (FLAGELLA) of bacteria 73. The virion is characterized by the presence of: NUCLEOCAPSID 74. Enzymatic activity of bacteria is detected on: Hiss media// DIFFERENTIAL DIAGNOSTIC media 75. Method for isolating a pure culture of microorganisms: bacteriological/ biological 76. The biochemical properties of bacteria are revealed by the decomposition of: CARBOHYDRATES, PROTEINS AND FATS 77. A mature viral particle is called: virion 78. Viruses that have a membrane double lipoprotein envelope are called: Complicated/complex/enveloped 79. Type of interaction between a virus and a cell, resulting in the reproduction of viral offspring:productive type 80. The integrative type of interaction between a virus and a cell begins with: : REVERSE TRANSCRIPTION MECHANISM (PROVIRUS) 81. Virological diagnostic method is: virus isolation and adaptation Identification/Enzyme-linked immunoassay (ELISA) method and polymerase chain reaction (PCR) method 82. Surface proteins of viruses that interact with cellular receptors are called: Fixed/ Attachment protein 83. Cytoplasmic inclusions in cells infected with variola virus are called:cytoplasmic inclusions (Guarnieri bodies/corpuscles) 84. Cell cultures that can be used both for the diagnosis of viral infections and for the production of vaccines:semi transgenic Semi-preferred cell cultures 85. Nonspecific detection of the fact of infection by viruses, based on identifying their biological properties and features of interaction with sensitive cells is:indication of viruses 86. Intracellular inclusions in the nucleus or cytoplasm of virus-infected cells are: cluster of viral components 87. For cultivating viruses, cell cultures are distinguished: single-layer, suspension and organ cultures 88. Method for indicating viruses on tissue cultures: cytopathogenic effect (CPE) 89. Method of indicating viruses on tissue cultures: control of each color/color test 90. Method for indicating viruses in a chicken embryo:By positive reaction Hemagglutination 91. Method of virus reproduction Disjunctive reproduction 92. Bacterial spores can withstand exposure ; boiling for 30 minutes 93. Complex virions differ from simple virions by the presence of: Outer shell/envelope 94. The sizes of virions are determined using : Ultrafiltration or ultrafiguration 95. Protozoa belong to the domain:Eukaryotes 96. The sizes of protozoa vary:From 2 to 100 97. Fungi whose hyphae are separated by septa are called: higher fungi 98. The sexual forms of fungi are called: Teleomorphs 99. Vegetative hyphae of fungi are responsible for:nutrition (REPRODUCTION WITH THE HELP OF CONDIA) 100. The phenomenon of bacteriophagy on liquid nutrient media manifests itself in the form of: enlightened environment//clarification of the medium 101. Phages used in genetic engineering as a vector: defective/ MODERATE BACTERIOPHAGES, DEFECTIVE PHAGES 102. For the cultivation of bacteriophages the following is used:Bacterial culture (tank culture). 103. The phenomenon of bacteriophagy on solid nutrient media manifests itself in the form of: Sterile Spores/// NEGATIVE COLONIES/PLAQUES 104. Nucleic acid, which is part of most bacteriophages: Double-stranded DNA 105. Phage conversion is: CHANGE (ACQUISITION OF NEW) PROPERTIES OF MICROORGANISMS UNDER THE INFLUENCE OF PROPHAGE 106. Phage typing is used for the purpose of: Identification source of infection 107. Phages were identified in: Bacteria & fungi 108. Chemical composition of phages:Proteins and nucleic acids 109. According to the type of interaction with the cell, phages are divided into: VIRULENT AND MODERATE // productive, abortive and integrative type 110. The morphology of bacteriophages is studied using: ELECTRON MICROSCOPY 111. Bacterial receptors for the adsorption of bacteriophages by chemical nature: Lipoproteins/// PROTEINS (LIPOPOLYSACCHARIDE AND LIPOPROTEIN NATURE) 112. Phages that interact with individual variants within a bacterial species are called: type phages 113. The lytic cycle from the adsorption of bacteriophage on bacteria to the release of phage progeny takes: cytolytic cycle (20-40 min) 114. The process of prophage leaving the bacterial chromosome and transitioning to a vegetative state is called: PROPHAGE INDUCTION 115. Chemotherapeutic antimicrobial drugs include: antibiotics,antifungal and antiprotozoal 116. Antibiotics are effective against: Bacteria 117. Antibiotic inhibitors of bacterial cell wall synthesis include: : BETA-LACTAMS, GLYCOPEPTIDES, LIPOPEPTIDES 118. Qualitative method for determining the sensitivity of bacteria to antibiotics: disc diffusion method/disc method 119. Based on the type of action on the cellular targets of sensitive microorganisms, chemotherapy drugs are distinguished: microbicidal (bacteriocidal, bacteriostatic etc.) and microbostatic 120. To combat the inactivating effect of beta-lactamases, use: CLAVULANIC ACID AND SULBACTAMS ((BETA-LACTAM RING)) 121. To prevent the development of antibiotic resistance in bacteria it is necessary: Serial breeding/ serial dilution/ use of antimicrobial drugs/ (ANTIBIOTICOGRAM)  122. Natural resistance of bacteria to antibiotics is ensured due to: the absence of a target for a specific antibiotic or its inaccessibility// presence of object 123. To study the genome of microbes in order to detect resistance genes, the following is used:Genetic factor/polymerase chain reaction 124. Methods for determining the minimum inhibitory and bactericidal concentration of antibiotics allow: Bacteriostatic/ In vitro method 125. Antibiotics that bind to the 50S subunit of bacterial ribosomes and inhibit the process of elongation of polypeptide chains:Bacteriostatic, name macrolide antibiotics, chloramphenicol, lincosamides and streptogramins (quinupristin) 126. The number of types of pathogens on which an antibiotic has a bacteriostatic or bactericidal effect is: the spectrum of their activity or action 127. Scientist – Nobel Prize winner for the discovery of streptomycin, the first effective anti- tuberculosis drug: Z. WAKSMAN 128. The disk diffusion method is used to determine:Antibiotic sensitivity 129. Antibiotics that lyse cells of gram-negative bacteria due to damage to phospholipids of cell membranes: polymyxins ( E,coil). 130. The most important function of human microflora: the creation of colonization resistance// MAINTAINING HEALTH AT AN OPTIMAL LEVEL 131. Gram-negative, non-spore-forming, obligate anaerobic bacteria – representatives of the microflora of the large intestine: BIFIDUM (BACTEROID) 132. The main representative of the skin microflora: coryneform bacteria 133. Clinical and laboratory syndrome, characterized by a change in the qualitative and quantitative composition of the normal flora of a certain biotope: dysbacteriosis,Intestinal dysbiosis 134. Stage of dysbacteriosis, at which there is a decrease in the number or elimination of individual representatives of indigenous microflora and an increase in the content of transient opportunistic microflora: stage 2 – subcompensated form 135. Natural antibiotics are: FUNGI,mushrooms, ACTINOMYCETES AND BACTERIA/MICROORGANISMS WHICH, IN THEIR NATURAL ENVIRONMENT, SYNTHESIZE ANTIBIOTICS AS A MEANS OF FIGHTING FOR SURVIVAL 136. The bulk of the microflora of the large intestine (more than 90%) consists of: obligate spore- forming anaerobes (bifidobacteria, lactobacilli, eubacteria, bacteroides, etc.)/ 137. Physiological functions of normal microflora of the human body: synthesis of the vitamin group/creation of colonization resistance; regulation of gas composition, intestinal redox potential; 138. Colonization resistance means: resistance to colonization by foreign microflora/mechanism that provides resistance to autoflora/ PREVENTS ADHESION AND REPRODUCTION 139. Correction of dysbiosis is carried out: using probiotics 140. Mark the bacteria that determine colonization resistance of the intestine: bifidobacteria, lactobacilli, streptococci and enterococci 141. Cytopathic action in cell culture is used to indicate: specific cell degeneration/ in the Kaz. Group here the answer is for “indication”. VIRUSES 142. The role of normal microflora: antagonistic / maintaining health at an optimal level, colonization resistance 143. Representatives of the obligate anaerobic microflora of the large intestine: bifidobacteria 144. A set of measures aimed at preventing pathogenic microorganisms from entering the human body is: asepsis// prevention of infectious diseases 145. The following are used as antiseptics: Ethanol/ 70- 75% ethyl alcohol 146. When treating dysbiosis, the following is used: Probiotics, prebiotics, synbiotics (bificol) 147. The pasteurization method is: Heating to 70c for 15 mints in rapid cooling. 148. To destroy carriers of infectious disease pathogens, the following is carried out: Disinfection 149. Purpose of filtering: Mechanical delay 150. Apparatus in which sterilization is carried out with steam under pressure: autoclave 151. Antiseptic from the group of oxidizing agents: H2O2(hydrogen peroxide) 152. Disinfectant from the aldehyde group: Formalin 153. Filtration through membrane filters refers to:Mechanical sterilization,, disinfection 154. For sterilization of disposable instruments and linen, medications, the following is used: Radiation sterilization using Gamma radiation 155. The mechanism of the antimicrobial action of UV rays:Cause damage to nucleic acids,genome/ DNA destruction 156. The mechanism of the antimicrobial action of heavy metal salts: PROTEIN COAGULATION 157. Indicate the name of the scientist who introduced asepsis into surgical practice:Ernst von Bergmann 158. Indicate which of the following processes are not included in the amplification stages: DNA denaturation, hybridization, elongation 159. Indicate the method used for intraspecific identification of a pure bacterial culture:Restriction method, genetic analysis RHIBOTYPING, PLASMID PROFILE DETERMINATION 160. Specify the method for bacterial identification and epidemiological marking: Determination of plasmid profile, 161. Currently, ribotyping is performed: in automatic mode 162. A genetic method that allows you to identify the degree of similarity of different DNAs: Molecular hybridization 163. A necessary condition for the conjugation of bacteria is the presence in the donor cell: transmission plasmid(F-plasmid) 164. Label the reaction belonging to the molecular genetic method used in microbiological diagnostics: polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 165. To carry out intraspecific identification of bacteria (epidemic marking) use: TEMPERATE PHAGES //determination of the plasmid profile 166. To carry out molecular hybridization, DNA isolated from the test material is unraveled: Restriction enzyme// thermal effect 167. For ribotyping, the DNA molecule is processed by: restriction enzymes 168. The formation of additional copies of chromosomal DNA sections is called: Amplification 169. A glass plate with 100 to 1000 molecular DNA probes associated with it is called: MICROCHIP 170. Using molecular hybridization, determines:Used for genetic mapping and nucleic acid production// TAXONOMIC POSITION 171. A labeled single-stranded nucleic acid molecule for the molecular hybridization method is called:DNA Probe 172. Indicate the localization of hereditary information in a bacterial cell: Plasmid/BACTEIAL CHROMOSOME 173. Translocation: Transfer of a section of a chromosome to another section/ Movement of chromosomes fragment 174. During transduction the following occurs: Integration into the phage genome/Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another using phages 175. Genetic mechanisms of primary bacterial resistance to antibiotics No target/ Lack of objects //MUTATIONS, R-PLASMIDS, TRANSPOSONS AND INTEGRONS 176. Indicate the localization of hereditary information in a bacterial cell: Plasmid 177. Plasmids responsible for drug resistance of bacteria: plasmids(R- Plasmid) 178. The process of bacteria transitioning from S to R-form and back is called: dissociation 179. Genes that carry information about protein synthesis are called: regulatory, structural Gene  180. In the experiment of specific transduction the following are used: weak moderate or temperate phages(Defective phage) 181. Modifications of microorganisms are characterized by: change in phenotype within the genotype 182. Mutation causing a return to the original phenotype: reverse (suppressor) mutation 183. Specify mutations that are not phenotypically manifested by any changes in characteristics: Neutral/ silent mutation 184. Mutations that lead to a change, but not to a loss of the functional activity of the enzyme, are called: Conditionally lethal 185. The process of restoring the cellular genome (DNA): Repair/Recombination 186. A gene is: a fragment of a DNA molecule 187. A vital genetic structure is: the bacterial chromosome 188. Phenotypic trait imparted to a bacterial cell by plasmids: To mobile genetic elements in bacteria/Production of pathogenicity factors 189. Mobile genetic elements in bacteria include: Transposons, plasmid, IS elements (insertion sequences) 190. Transfer of genetic material from a donor cell to a recipient cell through direct cell contact is called: Conjugation 191. Transfer of genetic material from one bacterium to another using phages: transduction 192. Mutations in microorganisms occur under the influence of: ENVIRONMENTAL FACTORS (MUTAGENS) / effect of X-rays 193. Modification is a ;phenotypic change in trait 194. Select the definition of the transformation process in bacteria: the process of absorption of a DNA molecule from the external environment by a bacterial cell 195. Cause of spontaneous mutations in bacteria: Random errors during DNA replication (DNA polymerase)/ Error in DNA transcription //copying\incorrect addition of nucleotides 196. Basic properties of F-plasmids – participation in: conjugation 197. Types of recombination: CONJUGATION TRANSDUCTION AND TRANSFORMATION 198. Manifestation of phenotypic variability: polymorphism 199. Plasmid controlling the synthesis of sex villi: F-plasmid 200. Invasive properties of bacteria: ability to penetrate tissue cells. PHYSIOLOGY 1.It is known that the work of ion channels of excitable cell membrane regulates the value of membrane potentials. Experimentally found that the poison tetrodotoxin blocks the sodium channels of the excitable cell membrane. How will this change the membrane potential of the excitable cell? A) disappear completely B) remains unchanged C) slightly decreases D) slightly increase E) will increase significantly 2.Which mechanism ensures that the asymmetric concentration of ions on either side of the membrane is maintained at rest? A) the presence of an electromotive force B) constant metabolism of the cell and the presence of an electroactive force C) release of ions during life activity D) sodium-potassium pump E) non-selective membrane permeability 3.In an experiment, the concentration of chlorine ions is increased inside a cell. Explain what will happen to the value of the membrane potential? A) the membrane potential will not change B) increase to a critical level of depolarization C) decrease to the critical level of depolarization D) increase by an amount proportional to concentration E) decrease by an amount proportional to concentration 4.What feature of nerves ensures that energy expenditure in the nerve during excitation is insignificant and recovery processes are rapid? A) isolated conduction B) relative fatigability of nerves C) unilateral conduction D) short refractory period E) high excitability 5.When a tooth was extracted, the patient was anesthetized beforehand. After some time, the patient responded to touching the tooth with weak stimuli and did not respond to strong stimuli. What is this phase of parabiosis called? A) initial B) provisory C) inhibitory D) paradoxical E) ultraparadoxal 6.Which law is violated in conduction nerve blockade? A) isolated conduction B) unilateral conduction C) physiologic integrity D) bilateral conduction E) force-time. 7.Increase in membrane potential: A) Repolarization B) Hyperpolarization C) Exaltation D) Polarization E) Depolarization 8.What will happen to the resting potential (RP) if the concentration of potassium ions on either side of the cell membrane is the same? A) decrease slightly; B) decrease to zero; C) increase significantly; D) will not change; E) increase insignificantly 9.Excitable tissue includes: // bone tissue// +muscle tissue// connective tissue// tendons// cartilage tissue *** 10.How excitability changes during the ascending spike /commissure phase: // +absolute refractoriness // secondary relative refractoriness // significantly increases (exaltation) // primary relative refractoriness // slightly increases *** 11.Excitable tissues include... tissues. A) nerve, cartilage, connective tissue B) muscular, epithelial, glial. C) glandular, bone, collagen fibers. D) nerve, muscle, glandular. E) tendon, muscle, bone. 12.Chronaxia is the shortest time during which a current.... A) at a voltage of one rheobase causes excitation B) threshold force causes excitation C) subthreshold force causes a decrease in membrane potential D) two rheobase voltage causes excitation E) three rheobase voltage causes an action potential 13.The repolarization phase is ensured by.... A) activation of sodium permeability B) inactivation of sodium permeability C) inactivation of potassium permeability D) increase in sodium content inside the cell E) increase in chlorine content inside the cell 14.The threshold of irritation is.... A) the maximum force of an irritant that causes excitation B) the strength of a stimulus that does not cause excitation C) the minimum stimulus force that causes excitation D) subthreshold stimulus strength that causes excitation with repeated stimulation E) the occurrence of excitation to a stimulus of any strength at a minimum stimulus time 15.Tissue lability is higher and refractoriness is less in.... A) nerve center B) synapse C) skeletal muscle D) smooth muscle E) nerve fiber 16.The object of study of physiology is: A) The structure of cells, organs, tissues, and the organism as a whole. B) The microscopic organization of cells. C) The function of cells, tissues, organs, systems, and the organism as a whole. D) Peculiarities of activity of cells, tissues, organs, systems in the conditions of pathology. conditions of pathology. E) Biochemical reactions going on in cells, organs, tissues. 17.Does not have excitability: A) Secretory tissue. B) Transverse striated skeletal muscle. C) Transverse striated cardiac muscle. D) Bone tissue. E) Smooth muscle. 18.The ability of excitable tissue to assume its former length after stretching is called: A) Conduction. B) Contractility. C) Elasticity. D) Plasticity. E) Excitability. 19. The minimum stimulus strength capable of eliciting the arousal process: A) Useful time. B) Chronaxis. C) Accomodation. D) Threshold of excitation. E) Lability. 20. The law of conduction of excitation along a nerve fiber is: A) Unilateral conduction. B) Summation of excitation. C) Transition of excitation from one nerve fiber to another. D) Transformation of the rhythm and strength of the stimulus. E) Morphological and physiological integrity of a nerve fiber. 21.When a muscle is indirectly irritated with a current of a certain frequency, the muscle contracts, but after switching to direct irritation no response is observed. Why after nerve inactivation the muscle is unable to contract to a given rhythm of stimulation? // the muscle has a lower threshold of excitation compared to the nerve// the muscle has a higher threshold of excitation compared to the nerve// muscle tissue is more labile than nerve tissue// +muscle tissue is less labile than nerve tissue// in this case there is a phenomenon of rhythm learning. *** 22.A microelectrode is applied to the membrane surface of a muscle fiber of a relaxed muscle, a second microelectrode is pierced through the membrane and the oscilloscope arrow is deflected. Cause of oscilloscope arrow deviation: // Trace potentials// Fiber excitation// +Potential difference between the inner and outer surfaces of the fiber membrane//. Biphasic electron current// Local response *** 23.The membrane of an excitable tissue cell is in a state of depolarization. Is it possible to get a response by applying an additional stimulus: // It is possible that the response will be maximal// The response will be minimal // Possibly, but only for a suprathreshold stimulus// +A response under these conditions is impossible// Even a subthreshold stimulus will elicit a response. *** 24.It is known that the excitation of a nerve or muscle can be induced by applying various stimuli - electrical, chemical, mechanical, etc. What is the reason for this fact? // Thermo-chemical transformations initiated by the stimuli//. +Each of these stimuli, regardless of its nature, is capable of depolarizing the cell membrane//. Electrical activity of stimuli// The high energy content of stimuli 25.Excitable tissues include... tissues. F) nerve, cartilage, connective tissue G) muscle, epithelial, glial. H) glandular, bone, collagen fibers. I) nervous, muscular, glandular. J) tendon, muscular, bone. 26.Chronaxia is the shortest time for which a current.... F) of a voltage of one rheobase causes excitation G) of threshold force causes excitation H) subthreshold force causes a decrease in membrane potential I) two rheobase voltage causes excitation J) three rheobase voltage causes an action potential 27.The repolarization phase is ensured by. F) activation of sodium permeability G) inactivation of sodium permeability H) inactivation of potassium permeability I) increase in sodium content inside the cell J) increase in chlorine content inside the cell 28.The threshold of irritation is.... F) the maximum force of a stimulus that causes excitation G) the strength of a stimulus that does not cause excitation H) the minimum force of a stimulus that causes excitation I) subthreshold stimulus strength causing excitation on repeated stimulation J) the occurrence of excitation to a stimulus of any strength at a minimum stimulus time 21.When a muscle is indirectly irritated with a current of a certain frequency, the muscle contracts, but after switching to direct irritation no response is observed. Why after nerve inactivation the muscle is unable to contract to a given rhythm of stimulation? the muscle has a lower threshold of excitation compared to the nerve// the muscle has a higher threshold of excitation compared to the nerve// muscle tissue is more labile than nerve tissue// +muscle tissue is less labile than nerve tissue// in this case there is a phenomenon of rhythm learning. *** 22.A microelectrode is applied to the membrane surface of a muscle fiber of a relaxed muscle, a second microelectrode is pierced through the membrane and the oscilloscope arrow is deflected. Cause of oscilloscope arrow deviation: // Trace potentials// Fiber excitation// +Potential difference between the inner and outer surfaces of the fiber membrane//. Biphasic electron current// Local response *** 23.The membrane of an excitable tissue cell is in a state of depolarization. Is it possible to get a response by applying an additional stimulus: // It is possible that the response will be maximal// The response will be minimal // Possibly, but only for a suprathreshold stimulus// +A response under these conditions is impossible// Even a subthreshold stimulus will elicit a response. *** 24.It is known that the excitation of a nerve or muscle can be induced by applying various stimuli - electrical, chemical, mechanical, etc. What is the reason for this fact? // Thermo-chemical transformations initiated by the stimuli//. +Each of these stimuli, regardless of its nature, is capable of depolarizing the cell membrane//. Electrical activity of stimuli// The high energy content of stimuli 25.Excitable tissues include... tissues. F) nerve, cartilage, connective tissue G) muscle, epithelial, glial. H) glandular, bone, collagen fibers. I) nervous, muscular, glandular. J) tendon, muscular, bone. 26.Chronaxia is the shortest time for which a current.... F) of a voltage of one rheobase causes excitation G) of threshold force causes excitation H) subthreshold force causes a decrease in membrane potential I) two rheobase voltage causes excitation J) three rheobase voltage causes an action potential 27.The repolarization phase is ensured by.... F) activation of sodium permeability G) inactivation of sodium permeability H) inactivation of potassium permeability I) increase in sodium content inside the cell J) increase in chlorine content inside the cell 29.Tissue lability is higher and refractoriness is less in.... F) nerve center G) synapse H) skeletal muscle I) smooth muscle J) nerve fiber 30.Which phenomena play a particularly important role in excitation: a) functional changes in the membrane; b) structural changes of the membrane; c) +electrical; d) chemical; e) thermal 31.Useful time is the shortest amount of time for which a current must act that is equal to: a)two rheobases; b)+ one reobase; c) three reobases; d) five reobases; e) four reobases. 32.Lability of nervous tissue ( impulses/sec): а) 50 - 75; б) +500- 1000; в) 200-300; г) 75-150; д) 5-10 33.Rheobase is: a) the minimum strength of a chemical stimulus that elicits a visible response; b) the minimum strength of a thermal stimulus that elicits a visible response; c)+ the minimum direct current (DC) force that elicits a visible response; d) maximum alternating current force that elicits a strong response; e) the minimum strength of a biological stimulus that elicits a visible response. 34.Accommodation is the adaptation of excitable tissue to the action of......... stimulus : a) rapidly increasing; b) slowly decreasing; c) +slowly increasing; d) rapidly decreasing; e) constant in strength. 35.Stimuli/Irritants by strength are divided into : a) remote and contact; b) adequate and inadequate; c) physical, chemical, biological, social; d) + threshold, subthreshold, suprathreshold; e) conditional and unconditional. 36.The all-or-nothing law states: or Tugel’s law (a) subthreshold stimuli elicit a maximal response and suprathreshold stimuli do not elicit arousal; b) subthreshold stimuli elicit a maximal response and suprathreshold stimuli do not elicit arousal; c) subthreshold stimuli do not elicit arousal, and suprathreshold stimuli elicit a maximal response; d)+ subthreshold stimuli do not elicit arousal, and suprathreshold stimuli elicit a maximal response; e) subthreshold and threshold stimuli elicit a maximal response and suprathreshold stimuli do not elicit an arousal. 37.The specific response of glandular tissue when it is excited is manifested by: a) contraction; b) generation of nerve impulse; c) ++production of secretion; d) metabolic changes; e) conduction of excitation. 38.The property of a tissue to conduct the greatest frequency of action potentials per unit time is called: a)chronaxia; b) ++ lability; c) accommodation; d) rheobase; e) threshold of irritation. 39.Glandular tissue lability ( pulses/sec): а) 50 - 75; б) 500- 1000; в) 200-300; г) +75-150; д) 5-10. 40.Useful time is: a) the minimum time for which a direct current equal to two reobasms is in effect; b) the maximum time during which a direct current equal to two reobases is in effect; c) +minimum time during which a direct current equal to one reobase is in effect; d) the maximum time during which a direct current equal to three reobases is in effect; e) the minimum time during which a direct current equal to half a reobase is in effect. 41.The measure (index) of lability is: a) the minimum number of impulses that an excitable substrate is capable of reproducing in 1 second; b) the minimum number of impulses that an excitable substrate is able to reproduce in 1 minute; c) +maximum number of pulses that the excitable substrate is capable of reproducing in 1 minute; d) the maximum number of pulses that the excitable substrate is capable of reproducing in 1 second; e) the average number of pulses that the excitable substrate is capable of reproducing in 1 minute. 42.I Galvani's experiment is called : a) experiment without metal ; b) secondary tetanus experiment; c) +experiment with metal; d) experience of central inhibition; e) experience of mutual inhibition of spinal reflexes. 43.How are the outer and inner surfaces of the cell membrane charged at rest? (a) the outer is negative, the inner is positive; b) both surfaces are negatively charged; c) ++internal negatively, external positively; d) both surfaces have a positive charge; e) are not charged. 44. At rest, the membrane is more permeable to ions: a)++ K+; b) Cl -; c) Na+; d) Ca2+ ; e) H+. 45.The moment of avalanche-like entry of Na ions into the cell corresponds to: a) localized response; b) action potential peak; c) trace depolarization; d) trace hyperpolarization; e) ++ critical level of depolarization. 46.Useful time is: a) the minimum time for which a direct current equal to two rheobases is applied; b) the maximum time during which a direct current equal to two rheobases acts; c) ++ the minimum time during which a direct current equal to one reobase is in effect; d) the maximum time during which a direct current equal to three reobases is in effect; e) the minimum time during which a direct current equal to half a reobase acts. 47.Action potential magnitude (in mv): a) +100 - 120 mv; b) 60 - 90 mv; c) 30 - 60 mv; d) 130 - 150 mv; e) 90 - 110 mv. 48.The magnitude of the membrane potential (in mv) is: a) -30 - - 60 mv; b) -110 - - 140 mv; c) -150 - - 180 mv; d) + -60 - - 90 mv; e) -90 - - 110 mv. 49.The main method of cognition of mechanisms and regularities of organism functioning in physiology is... a) - denervation b) - observation c) - transplantation d) + experiment e) - extirpation 50.Which ions play a major role in the creation of membrane potential? a) - sodium b) - chlorine c) - calcium d) + potassium e) - hydrogen 1. Which ionic shifts are responsible for the repolarization phase of nerve and muscle AP? K channels open, potassium ions exit to the outside 2. The minimum amount of time for which a stimulus with a force of 2 reobase causes a tissue excitation is called: Chronaxie 3. Which ionic movement explains the period of AP depolarization in nerves and muscles? The membrane permeability for Na+ ions increases. 4. Observed during depolarization of the cell membrane: absolute refractory 5. The increase in excitability threshold as a result of slow membrane depolarization is called: exaltation/accommodation 6. The occurrence of AP in tissues is associated with: a change in membrane permeability for ions 7. Excitability - criteria for its evaluation: : irritation threshold, rheobase, useful time, chronaxie, accommodation, lability 8. What is the main reason for the presence of RP and what is its magnitude in the indicated cells? Reason: Unequal distribution of ions across the cell membrane due to the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump and selective permeability of the membrane. Magnitude: -70 mV in neurons and -90 mV in skeletal muscle cells. 9. When nerve and muscle cells are excited, there is a rapid shift of RP in the positive direction - action potential (AP), positive direction - action potential (AP). What is the cause of the AP and what is its magnitude in these cells? an increase in membrane permeability for Na+ ions, 90-120 mV 10. Lability of nervous tissue ( impulses/se): 11. Conductivity - evaluated by: the speed of excitation conduction 12. Which ions play a major role in the creation of membrane potential:K+ 13. Lability or functional mobility - assessed by:the maximum number of excitation impulses in 1 sec 14. Ionic mechanism of membrane potential (MP) and its mean value: presence of channels for Na+, K+, Cl-, Ca+2(in small quantities), (-60)-(-90) mV Below are some additional questions which were not provided by the teacher >>>Would be better to remember these questions also,JUST TO BE ON THE SAFE SIDE. 15. Conductivity is assessed by: the speed of excitation conduction 16. Biological membranes, preventing free diffusion and participating in the creation of concentration gradients, perform a: barrier function. 17. Biological membranes, participating in the transformation of external stimuli of a nonelectrical nature into electrical signals, perform a :receptor function 18.. A protein molecule built into the cell membrane that ensures the selective transfer of ions through the membrane with the expenditure of ATP energy is a :selective ion pump. 19. The period of increased excitability during the development of prepotential is called :latent addition (primary exaltation) 20. The change in membrane potential during excitation, when the cytoplasm acquires a positive charge relative to the external solution, is called: reversion. 21. In the cytoplasm of nerve and muscle cells, :the concentration of potassium ions is higher  than in the external solution 22. The protein molecular mechanism that ensures the removal of sodium ions from the cytoplasm and the introduction of potassium ions into the cytoplasm is the :sodium-potassium pump 23. Maintaining the difference in concentration of sodium and potassium ions between the cytoplasm and the environment is :the function of the sodium potassium pump. 24. 61. The period of increased excitability in the phase of after-depolarization is called: secondary exaltation; 25. The greatest contribution to the resting membrane potential of a nerve cell is made by the release of potassium from the cytoplasm to the outside through potassium leakage channels (K2P); 26. The level of membrane depolarization at which an action potential occurs is called the: critical level of depolarization 27. Sodium channels have :fast activation gates and slow inactivation gates; 28. The ascending phase of the action potential is associated with an increase in permeability for: sodium ions Channels 29.The descending phase of the action potential is associated with an increase in permeability for potassium ions C.. The system of movement of ions through a membrane along a concentration gradient, which does not require energy expenditure, is called passive transport... The system of movement of ions through a membrane against a concentration gradient, which requires energy expenditure, is called active transport. 29. The period of decreased excitability during the repolarization phase of the action potential is called relative refractoriness. 30. The ratio of permeability of the nerve cell membrane for potassium and sodium ions at rest is 1:0.04 31. The ratio of permeability of the nerve cell membrane for potassium and sodium ions in the depolarization phase of the action potential is 1:20 32. Sodium channels, the opening of which ensures depolarization of the membrane of an excitable structure, are referred to as potential-dependent 33. Potassium channels, the opening of which ensures rapid repolarization of the membrane, are voltage- dependent K 34. The value of the resting potential is close to the value of the equilibrium potential for the potassium ion 35. The potential difference between the electrodes is observed if they are located in relation to the excitable cell: one electrode on the outer side of the membrane, the other on the cytoplasm 36. When a neuron is stimulated at subthreshold, a local response is observed. 37. An increase in potassium current during the development of an action potential causes rapid repolarization of the membrane 38. When potassium channels of a neuron are blocked, a slowdown in the repolarization phase of the action potential is observed. 39. With complete blockade of sodium channels of a neuron, cell non-excitability is observed. 40. Increased excitability of the cell in the phase of after-depolarization is determined by the reactivation of sodium channels and the proximity of the membrane potential to the KUD 41. Reversal of the membrane potential occurs when it reaches the OhmV value 42. The potential that arises during subthreshold stimulation and obeys the law of force is called local potential. 43. The potential that arises during threshold stimulation and obeys the “all or nothing” law is called an action potential. 44. The phase of the action potential during which the cell membrane becomes completely non- excitable is called rapid depolarization. 45.. The phase of the action potential during which the cell membrane has reduced excitability (relative refractoriness) is called rapid repolarization. 46. the phase of the action potential during which the cell membrane has subnormal excitability is called afterhyperpolarization 47. The minimum DC current that causes excitation during unlimited action is called the rheobase. 48. The structure of the entire skeletal muscle obeys the law of force. 49. The structure of the heart muscle obeys the “all or nothing” law. 50. A change in the excitability of cells or tissues under the influence of a negative pole of direct current is called 51. A change in the excitability of cells or tissues under the action of the positive pole of direct current is called anelectron 52. The law according to which, when the strength of the stimulus increases, the response of the excitable structure increases until it reaches a maximum is called the law of force. 53. The law according to which an excitable structure responds to threshold and suprathreshold stimuli with the maximum possible response is called the all-or-nothing law. 54. When a direct current circuit is closed on the membrane section under the cathode, the membrane potential changes (depolarization increases)  55. When a DC circuit is closed on the membrane section under the anode, the membrane potential changes (hyperpolarization decreases) 56. The ability of living tissue to respond to any type of influence by changing metabolism is called irritability. 57. The ability of cells to respond to stimuli with a specific reaction, characterized by temporary depolarization of the membrane and changes in metabolism, is called excitation. 58. 102 The ability of all living cells, under the influence of certain factors of the external or internal environment, to move from a state of physiological rest to a state of activity is called irritability. 59. Tissues that are capable of entering a state of excitation in response to a stimulus are called excitaBLE 60. The process of exposure of a living cell to an irritant is called irritation. 61. A stimulus for the perception of which a given cell has specialized in the process of evolution and which causes excitation at minimal levels of stimulation is called adequate. 62. The minimum strength of a stimulus necessary and sufficient to cause a response is called the EXCITATION THRESHOLD+ 63. 107. The law according to which the threshold value of the stimulating current is determined by the time of its action on the tissue is called the law of time-force (duration). Peace out