Final Exam Review PDF
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This document is a review of medical terminology and procedures, suitable for a final exam, likely in a health science program. The content covers topics like blood collection, safety, and quality assurance in healthcare settings.
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Chapter One 1. Another name for blood bank is Immunohematology 2. With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring? Pharmacy 3. Electrolyte Testing Sodium, potassium 4. Promoting good public relations is a part of the p...
Chapter One 1. Another name for blood bank is Immunohematology 2. With which other hospital department would the laboratory coordinate therapeutic drug monitoring? Pharmacy 3. Electrolyte Testing Sodium, potassium 4. Promoting good public relations is a part of the phlebotomist's role because A phlebotomist is a representative of the laboratory Good public relations promotes a harmonious relationship with visitors, staff, and patients The patient often equates blood-drawing experiences with the caliber of overall care received while in the hospital STUDY 5. Outpatient phlebotomy, such as in a physician's office or patient care service center, will be assigned a code for reimbursement using which national coding system? APC STUDY 6. Which department is responsible for administering oxygen therapy? Respiratory Therapy 7. The term used to describe sophisticated and highly complex medical care is Tertiary Care 8. The term "phlebotomy" is derived from Greek words that, literally translated, mean to Incise a vein 9. Which of the following is not a phlebotomist's duty? Starting intravenous (IV) lines 10. Early equipment used for bloodletting includes all of the following except the Hemostat Study 11. Proof of participation in workshops to upgrade skills required by some agencies to renew certification is called Continuing education units 12. Of the following laboratory personnel, which one is referred to as a clinical laboratory scientist? Medical technologist 13. Which of the following is an example of a barrier to effective communication with a patient? The patient Does not speak English Is a child Is emotionally upset 14. Which of the following is an example of a confirming response to a patient? I understand how you must be feeling 15. Which of the following is an example of negative kinesics? Frowning 16. Which of the following is not part of communicating a professional appearance? Wearing strong cologne 17. Which of the following is not proper telephone protocol? Hanging up on angry callers 18. Which duty is not performed by local public health agencies? Licensure of healthcare personnel STUDY 19. The principles of right and wrong conduct as the apply to professional problems are called Ethics 20. The law that established national standards for the electronic exchange of protected health information is HIPAA 21. State and federally funded insurance is called Medicaid 22. The specialty that treats disorders of old age is called Gerontology 23. The department in the hospital that records brain waves for diagnosis is Electroneurodiagnostics 24. The microbiology department in the laboratory performs Culture and sensitivity testing 25. The abbreviation for the routine hematology test that includes hemoglobin, hematocrit, red blood count, and white blood count determination is called CBC STUDY Chapter 2 1. Drawing a patient's blood without his or her permission can result in a charge of Assault and battery 2. Two phlebotomists are discussing a patient's condition in the elevator. They are overheard by the patient's daughter. This is an example of Invasion of privacy 3. Which of the following would not violate a patient's right to confidentiality? Sharing collection site information on a difficult patient STUDY 4. Malpractice is a claim of Improper treatment 5. If a phlebotomist ____________________, he or she is negligent. Fails to put the needle in the sharps container 6. A national organization that sets standards for phlebotomy procedures is the CLSI STUDY 7. A QA program monitors Outcomes STUDY 8. Which of the following is not a principle of quality management? Reduction in staff 9. Examples of quality control are all of the following except Filling your time sheet daily 10. Informed consent means that a Patient agrees to a procedure after being told of the consequences associated with it STUDY 11. When the threshold value of a clinical indicator of QA is exceeded and a problem is identified A corrective action plan is implemented STUDY 12. Deceitful practice or false portrayal of facts either by words or by conduct is the definition of Fraud 13. The agency that requires healthcare organizations to have a QA program in place to be accredited is JCAHO 14. A national organization that develops guidelines and sets standards for laboratory procedures CLSI 15. A specimen was mislabeled on the floor. You are required to fill out an incident report form. What information would you not include? Suggestion for new guidelines STUDY 16. An example of a QA indicator is The contamination rate for blood cultures will not exceed the national contamination rate. STUDY 17. You are the only phlebotomist in an outpatient drawing center. A physician orders a test with which you are not familiar. What is the most appropriate action to take? Refer to the user manual for instruction 18. Failure to keep privileged medical information private is Breach of confidentiality 19. A young adult comes to an outpatient lab to have his blood drawn. What should the phlebotomist know before drawing this patient's blood? Age of majority in the state Name of the patient Date of Birth of the patient 20. Which one of the following is not a phase of the litigation process? Correction of the situation is begun using policies and procedures already in place 21. A delta check refers to Comparing current test results with previous ones 22. Which of the following contains a chronologic record of a patient's care Medical record 23. The Joint Commission Accredits healthcare organizations 24. What laboratory document describes in detail the steps to follow for specimen collection? Procedure Manual STUDY 25. The period within which an injured party may file a lawsuit is known as Statute of limitations STUDY Chapter 3 1. According to standard first aid procedures, severe external bleeding is best controlled by Applying direct pressure and elevating the extremity 2. A class C fire Involves electrical equipment 3. Vaccination against HBC involves A dose of vaccine, another 1 month later, and a final dose 6 months later 4. An example of employee screening for infection control is PPD Testing 5. The National Fire Protection Association (NFPA) system for fire response does not involve Postexposure testing 6. The purpose of "protective" isolation is to Protect susceptible patients from outside contamination 7. The OSHA HAZCOM Standard is also commonly called the "Right-to-know law" 8. What is the proper order for putting on protective clothing? Gown first, then mask, gloves last 9. Federal law requires that hepatitis B vaccination be made available to employees assigned to duties with occupational exposure risk Within 10 working days of initial assignment 10. What is the first thing the phlebotomist should do in the event of an accidental needlestick? patient dos no Decontaminate the site and fill out an incident report 11. The main principles involved in radiation exposure are Exposure time, distance, and shielding 12. Which of the following is an example of a nosocomial infection? When a catheter site of a patient in ICU becomes infected 13. Most exposures to HIV in healthcare settings are the results Accidental needle sticks 14. In what instance might a patient be placed in protective isolation? The patient has severe burns 15. Which of the following is an example of work practice control that reduces risk of exposure to bloodborne pathogens? Hand washing following glove removal 16. Which type of contact infection transmission involves transfer of an infective microbe to the mucous membranes of a susceptible individual by means of a cough or sneeze? Droplet 17. Normally the most effective means of controlling external hemmorrhage is Direct pressure to the wound 18. Occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens can occur if which of the following happens while the healthcare worker is performing his or her duties ? All of the answers are correct 19. An individual who has little resistance to an infectious microbe is referred to as a susceptible Host 20. MSDS information includes General and emergency information 21. The single most important means of preventing the spread of infection is Proper hand antisepsis 22. In the event of a body fluid splash in the eyes, the victim should Flus eyes with water for 10 minutes 23. Terms used to identify components of the chain of infection include all of the following except Means of survival 24. Safe working conditions are mandated by OSHA 25. Specimen collection and processing area surfaces should be cleaned with Soap a 1:10 bleach solution Chapter 4 1. What part of the term "osteochondritis" is the suffix? Itis 2. Which of the following word parts is a prefix? Aer 3. What does the suffix of the term "glycolysis" mean? Breakdown 4. The singular form of alveoli is Alveolus 5. Cystitis means Inflammation of the bladder 6. Which part of gastr/o/enter/o/logy is the suffix? Logy 7. To what part of the body does the wood root hepat refer? Liver 8. The letter "g" is pronounced like a "j" in Gestation 9. The abbreviation "ESR" means Erythrocyte sedimentation rate 10. Which part of the word pericarditis is the word root? Cardi 11. Which of the following terms means muscle pain? Myalgia 12. The word element establishes the basic meaning of a medical term Word root 13. What is the word root in the word "electrocardiogram"? Cardi 14. A prefix Adds information about a term Modifies the meaning of a term Precedes the word root 15. What is the suffix in the term "lipase"? Ase 16. The term "polycythemia" means Many-cell blood condition 17. The "c" sounds like an "s" in which of the following terms? Cellular 18. The JCAHO "Do Not Use" list applies to all of the following except Electronic laboratory reports 19. All of the following are included on the JCAHO "Do Not Use" list except CBC 20. JCAHO issued the "Do Not Use" list To reduce medical errors To eliminate dangerous abbreviations To prevent incorrect interpretation of terminology 21. The abbreviation RBC means Red blood cell 22. Which of the following word parts means "blood condition"? Emia 23. What is the meaning of the word root in the term "gyperglycemia"? Sugar 24. The lab abbreviation PT stands for Prothrombin time 25. The medical term for red blood cell is Erythrocyte Chapter 5 1. Which of the following structures in the skin gives rise to fingerprints? Papillae 2. Which body plane divides the body into equal portions? Midsagittal 3. Which of the following is a nervous system disorder? Multiple sclerosis 4. A major cause of respiratory distress in infants and young children is Respiratory syncytial virus 5. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system? To maintain electrolyte balance 6. Which of the following is a test of the urinary system? Creatinine clearance 7. The process by which the body maintains a state of equilibrium is Homeostasis 8. Which of the following types of muscle is under voluntary control? Skeletal 9. Which of the following is a test of the respiratory system? ABGs 10. The term "distal" means Farthest from the point of attachment 11. When you are facing someone in normal anatomic position, at which body plane are you looking Frontal 12. Which of the following is an accessory organ of the digestive system? Liver 13. Proximal is defined as Nearest to the point of attachment 14. The avascular layer of the skin is the Epidermis 15. Which one of the following basic tissue types covers and lines organs, vessels, and cavities? Epithelial 16. The spinal cord and brain are covered by protective membranes called Meninges 17. Most gas exchange between blood and tissue takes place in the Capillaries 18. The transverse plane divides the body Horizontally into upper and lower portions 19. A person who is supine is Lying face up 20. A patient has meningitis. What body system is associated with this diagnosis? Nervous 21. Which of the following are urinary system structures? Glomeruli 22. The heart and lungs are located in this body cavity Thoracic 23. Which of the following glands is an integumentary system structure? Sebaceous 24. Digestive system structures include the Esophagus and salivary glands 25. The result of all chemical and physical reactions in the body that are necessary to sustain life is called Metabolism Chapter 6 1. The function of the left ventricle is to deliver Oxygenated blood into the aorta 2. The receiving chambers of the heart are the Atria 3. The relaxing phase of the cardiac cycle is called Diastole 4. Which blood vessel is not part of the systemic circulation? Pulmonary artery 5. Which of the following represents the proper direction of blood flow? Arterioles, capillaries, venules 6. A blood clot circulating in the bloodstream is called a(n) Embolus 7. Which of the following is a vascular system test? DIC 8. Which blood cell has the ability to pass through the blood vessel walls? Leukocyte 9. An individual's blood type is determined by the presence or absence of a certain type of Antigen present on the red blood cells 10. How can you visually tell serum from plasma? You cannot visually tell serum from plasma 11. Hemostasis refers to The coagulation process 12. Lymphatic fluid originates from Excess tissue fluid 13. Which of the following veins is not an antecubital vein? Femoral 14. Which test must be performed on whole blood? CBC 15. A major difference between arteries and veins is that veins Have valves 16. The chamber of the heart that receives blood from the systemic circulation is the Right atrium 17. The thick muscle layer of the hear is called the Myocardium 18. When taking a blood pressure, the systolic pressure is the pressure reading when the First heart sounds are hear as the cuff is deflated 19. The internal space of a blood vessel is called the Lumen 20. The preferred vein for venipuncture in the "H" pattern is the Median cubital 21. The major difference between plasma and serum is that plasma Contains fibrinogen, serum does not 22. Lymph originates from Tissue fluid 23. A heart disorder characterized by fluid buildup in the lungs is called Congestive heart failure 24. Red blood cells are produced in the Bone marrow 25. The liquid portion of a clotted specimen is called Serum Chapter 7 1. Which is the best tube for collecting an ethanol speciment? Sodium fluoride 2. Which needle gauge has the largest lumen? 18 3. The tests performed in the following department are collected in a tube with a light blue stopper: Coagulation 4. A tube with a green stopper normally contains Heparin 5. What is the purpose of an antiglycolytic agent? To preserve glucose 6. The solution normally used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is 70% isopropyl alcohol 7. When disposable latex tourniquets become soiled with blood, it is best to Throw them away 8. What is the most important factor in choosing which gauge needle to use for venipuncture? Size and condition of the patient's vein 9. Which additive is usually present in a tube with a lavender stopper? EDTA 10. Glass particles present in serum separator tubes Accelerate coagulation 11. Heparin prevents blood from clotting by Inhibiting thrombin 12. Which one of the following is not an antiseptic? Sodium hypochlorite 13. The slanted tip of the needle that enters the vein is called the Bevel 14. Which tube is filled last when using a syringe? Heparin 15. Which government agency regulates teh quality of gloves worn when performing phlebotomy procedures? FDA 16. A tourniquet is used in venipuncture to Make a vein easier to find and enter 17. What causes evacuated tubes to fill with blood automatically? Tube vacuum 18. A butterfly is typically used for Difficult and hand veins 19. Needles are color-coded according to Gauge 20. Occupational Safety and Health Administratin (OSHA) regulations require that after use the Tube holder with needle attached be disposed of as a unit 21. The part of a syringe that show measurements in cc or mL is called the Barrel 22. Why are gauze pads a better choice than cotton balls for covering the site and holding pressure following venipuncture? Cotton ball fibers can stick to the site 23. What is a venoscope? Transillumination devise for locating veins 24. After a blood spill, a disinfectant is applied and must have at least ____________ minutes of contact time for cleanup to be effective 10 minutes 25. During venipuncture the tourniquet should not be left on longer than 1 minute Chapter 8 1. You have a request to draw a specimen on an inpatient by the name of John Doe. How do you proceed to identify (ID) your patient once you have identified yourself? Look at his ID band and ask the patient to please state his name 2. The following tests have all been ordered at the same time on different inpatients. There is only one phlebotomist on duty. Which test would the phlebotomist collect first? STAT electrolytes in the ER 3. Which of the following should not be used to enhance the vein selection process? Having the patient vigorously pump his or her first 4. Before obtaining a blood specimen from a child, you must do all of the following except Tell the child it won't hurt 5. You arrive to draw a "fasting specimen." The patient is just finishing a big breakfast. What do you do? Check with the patient's nurse first; if the specimen is collected, write "nonfasting" on the laboratory slip 6. What may happen if you mix tubes too vigorously? Hemolysis 7. Never leave a tourniquet on for more than 1 minute 8. How can you tell that you are in a vein when using a needle and a syringe? You should see blood appear in the hub of the needle 9. What is the most critical error a phlebotomist can make? Misidentifying a patient specimen 10. The best way to collect specimens from a dorsal hand vein is To use a butterfly and small, pediatric ETS tubes 11. What would be the system of choice to identify laboratory specimens from an unconscious, unidentified woman in the emergency room? Use a three-part identification band and labels 12. Blood collection tubes are labeled Immediately after specimen is collected 13. You arrive to draw a specimen from an inpatient. The patient's door is closed. What do you do? Knock softly and open the door slowly, checking to see if it is all right to enter 14. The patient asks if the specimen you are about to draw is for a diabetes test. How do you answer? Tell the patient that it's best to discuss the test with his or her physician 15. An unconscious patient does not have an ID band. The name and room number on the door agree with the requisition. What should you do? Do not draw the blood until the nurse has applied an ID bracelet 16. Which of the following is the job of a student phlebotomist? Letting the patient know that you are a student phlebotomist 17. What is the purpose of waiting 30 seconds for the alcohol to dry before needle insertion? All of the options are correct 18. NPO means Nothing by mouth 19. Which type of patient is most likely to have an arteriovenous fistula or graft? Dialysis 20. Where is the best place to apply the tourniquet? 3 to 4 inches above the venipuncture site 21. Misidentification of a specimen for this test is most likely to have fatal consequences Type & screen 22. An example of a test that is commonly ordered fasting is Glucose 23. To examine by touch or feel is to Palpate 24. Going without food or drink except water for 8 - 12 hours is defined as Fasting 25. Which of the following individuals has legal authority to authorize patient testing? Patient's physician 26. After inserting butterfly needle, the phlebotomist needs to "seat" it, meaning Slightly thread the needle within the lumen of the vein 27. DNR means Do not resuscitate 28. Your patient is cranky and rude to you? What do you do? Be as professional as you can and collect the specimen in a normal way 29. An inpatient vehemently refuses to allow you to collect a blood specimen. What should you do? Notify the patient's nurse and document the patient's refusal 30. A member of the clergy is with the patient when you arrive to collect a routine specimen. What should you do? Come back later after the clergy member has gone 31. What is the best angle to use for needle insertion during routine venipuncture? 15 degree to 30 degree 32. When performing venipuncture, the needle is inserted Bevel facing up 33. Which liquid is acceptable to drink when fasting? Plain water 34. How can you tell when the needle is in the vein as you insert it into the patient's arm? You will feel a slight "give" 35. Labeling of routine inpatient blood specimens should take place At the bedside immediately after collection 36. Where is the tourniquet applied when drawing a hand vein? Proximal to the wrist bone 37.The patient's identification number is included on the specimen tube label to Avoid confusing specimens from patients with the same name 38. You have just made two unsuccessful attempts to collect a fasting blood specimen from an outpatient. the patient rotates his arm, and you note a large vein that you had not seen before. How do you proceed? Ask another phlebotomist to collect the fasting specimen 39. Which type of test requisition ha been shown to decrease laboratory errors? Bar Coded 40. When is the best time to release the tourniquet during venipuncture? As soon as blood begins to flow into the tube Chapter 9 1. Which instance most closely resembles basal state? A patient who has Just awakened at 0600 after fasting all night 2. you must draw a protime specimen from a patient with IVs in both arms. Which of the following is the best thing to do? Draw the specimen Below an IV 3. It is not a good idea to collect a CBC specimen from a screaming infant because the White blood count may be falsely elevated 4. You have no choice but to draw a specimen from a site with a hematoma. Where should you obtain the specimen? Distal to the hematoma 5. Prolonged tourniquet application may cause a change in blood composition primarily because of Hemoconcentration 6. Which is the best way to avoid reflux? Make certain that tubes fill from the bottom up 7. A phlebotomist has attempted twice to draw a partial thromboplastin time (PTT) specimen from a patient with difficult veins. Both times the phlebotomist has been able to draw only a partial tube. What should the phlebotomist do? Have another phlebotomist attempt to draw the specimen 8. Why do pregnant patients have lower reference ranges for red blood cell counts? Blood fluid increases in pregnancy, having a diluting effect on red blood cells 9. Which of the following tests is most often a timed test? Therapeutic drug monitoring 10. Which instance may lead you to suspect that you have accidentally punctured an artery? The blood pulses into the tube 11. If blood is drawn too quickly from a small vein, the vein will have a tendency to Collapse 12. How long before obtaining blood for testing should drugs known to interfere with blood tests be discontinued? 4 to 24 hours 13. A fistula is a(n): Permanent fusion of an artery and a vein 14. When a test requires a fasting specimen, but the serum is _______________, it is a clue that the patient was not fasting. Lipemic 15. Tests influenced by diurnal variation are often ordered as _______________ tests, and it is important to collect them as a close as possible to the time ordered. Timed 16. Veins that feel hard and cordlike when palpated may be Thrombosed 17. Which of the following is most likely to cause reflux during venipuncture? Allowing the tubes to fill from the stopper end first 18. You are in the process of collecting a specimen by venipuncture. Yo hear a hissing sound, there is a spurt of blood into the tube, and blood flow stops. What has most likely happened. The tube has lost its vacuum 19. Which of the following is the medical term for fainting? Syncope 20. You are collecting a blood specimen. The needle is inserted but the blood is filling the tube very slowly. You see a hematoma forming very rapidly. What has most likely happened is the Needle is only partly in the vein 21. When a vein rolls, the needle typically Slips beside instead of in the vein 22. A patient has had a mastectomy on the left arm and has an IV midway down the right arm. Where is the best place to perform a venipuncture? Below the IV on the right arm 23. While in the middle of drawing a blood specimen, your patient starts to faint. The first thing you should do is Release the tourniquet and remove the needle 24. Which of the following specimen conditions would lead you to suspect that the patient was not fasting when it was collected? Cloudy serum 25. A patient has several short length of IV style tubing protruding from his chest. This is most likely a/an CVC Chapter 10 1. A blood smear made from an EDTA specimen should be made Within 1 hour of collection 2. Why are capillary blood gases less desirable than arterial blood gases (ABGs)? All of the options are correct 3. What is the Clinical and Laboratory Standards Institute (CLSI) recommended maximum depth of heel puncture? 2.0 mm 4. Why are EDTA specimens obtained before other specimens when collected by skin puncture? To minimize effects of platelet clumping 5. Why should a laboratory report form indicate the fact that a specimen has been collected by skin puncture? Because test results may vary depending on the method of collection 6. Which of the following is the safest area for infant heel puncture? The lateral plantar surface 7. A skin puncture should be done rather than a venipuncture in all of the following situations except When a light blue stopper tube is needed 8. The purpose of wiping away the first drop of blood during skin puncture is To eliminate tissue fluid contamination 9. Skin puncture blood most closely resembles Arterial blood 10. What does the term "calcaneus" mean? Heel bone 11. Skin puncture blood reference values (normals) are higher for Glucose 12. Which micro collection container would be used to collect a specimen for a CBC? Lavender 13. What is PKU? A hereditary inability to metabolize phenylalanine 14. it is necessary to control depth of lancet insertion during skin puncture to avoid Bone injury 15. What is the purpose of warming the site before skin puncture? It increases blood flow up to seven times 16. Which of the following is a proper skin puncture procedure? Wipe away the first drop of blood 17. This is a sharp-pointed device used t make a capillary puncture Lancet 18. This is a term of the bottom surface of the heel Plantar 19. A microcollection container is sometimes called a Bullet 20 Adult capillary puncture may be performed when All of the above 21. Which of the following can result in a blood smear that is too long Blood drop is too large 22. Which test cannot be collected by capillary puncture? Blood culture 23. Jaundice in a newborn is associated wit high levels of Bilirubin 24. Lancets with permanently retractable blades are disposed of in the Sharps container 25. Which of the following is normally a proper site for finger puncture on an adult? Distal segment of the middle finger Chapter 11 1. Of the following tests, which is most likely to result in fatal consequences for the patient if the specimen is misidentified? Type and crossmatch 2. Which test requires strict skin antisepsis procedures before specimen collection? Blood culture 3. Autologous donation is performed to Avoid transfusion reaction 4. What type of additive is recommended for collecting an ethanol test specimen? Sodium fluoride 5. When performing a GTT, the timing should begin When the patient finishes the glucose drink 6. Which test is used to monitor heparin therapy? ACT 7. At what intervals is the blood blotted during a bleeding time rest? 30 seconds 8. Which of the following test specimens is collected from patients with fever of unknown origin (FUO) to rule out septicemia? Blood culture 9. Which of the following should be avoided during a glucose tolerance test (GTT)? Chewing sugarless gum Drinking sugar-free tea Smoking low-tar cigarettes ✓ All of the answers are correct 10. When collecting a blood culture specimen directly from a butterfly into blood culture bottles, which should be filled first? Aerobic 11. Which of the following tests may require special "chain of custody" documentation when collected? Drug screen 12. Identify the condition in which a unit of blood is withdrawn from a patient as treatment Hemochromatosis 13. Which of the following tubes can be used to collect blood for a type and crossmatch? Nonadditive red top 14. An autologous blood transfusion is a transfusion of blood Donated by a patient for his or her own use 15. The most critical aspect of blood culture collection is Skin antisepsis 16. The test requires a specimen with a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant., Prothrombin time 17. The hormone detected in positive urine pregnancy tests is HCG 18. Tests that can be performed using special POCT instruments or test kits include Arterial Blood Gasses Glucose Occult Blood ✓ All the answers are correct 19. TDM is used by physicians to Determine a beneficial drug dosage for a patient 20. A 2-hour postprandial specimen should be drawn 2 hours after the patient has had a meal 21. When performing a glucose tolerance test, the fasting specimen is drawn at 0815 and the patient finishes the glucose beverage at 0820. When should the 1-hour specimen be collected? 0920 22. Which type of test is performed to determine the probability that a specific individual was the father of a particular child? Paternity 23. Which specimen tubes must contain a 9:1 ratio of blood to anticoagulant to be accepted for testing? Coagulation 24. Increased blood glucose is called Hyperglycemia 25. This test is used to evaluate long-term effectiveness of diabetes therapy Hemoglobin A1c Chapter 12 1. The process of entering a password and gaining access to a computer is called Logging on 2. Functions of a CPU include all of the following except Displaying the processed information on a screen 3. To process input data, a computer user must Press the Enter key 4. Which of the following is used by the laboratory to identify a specimen throughout the testing process? Accession number 5. A bidirectional computer interface Allows data to go back and forth between systems 6. Which of the following is an example of a computer peripheral? Keyboard 7. Applications software Refers to programs from software companies 8. Which of the following actions can lead to inaccurate test results? Inadequate mixing of an EDTA tube 9. You have a requisition for a test with which you are unfamiliar. How do you determine what tube to use and how to collect and handle the specimen? Refer to the user manual 10. Transporting tubes with the stopper up Aids clot formation Minimizes aerosol formation upon stopper removal Reduces agitation of tube contents ✓ All of the above 11. Which of the following would not be considered a preanalytical error? Misreporting patient results 12. Which of the following tests cannot be performed on a hemolyzed specimen? All of the above 13. Which of the following specimens needs to be chilled? Ammonia 14. Which of the following conditions would cause a specimen to be rejected for testing? Potassium specimen on ice 15. A glucose specimen drawn in a sodium fluoride tube is stable at room temperature for 24 hours 16. Which type of transportation is acceptable for a cryoglobulin specimen? in a 37 degree celsius heat block 17. Which statement describes proper centrifuge operation? Place tubes of equal size and volume opposite one another 18. Which type of specimens may take longer to clot? Chilled specimens Specimens from patients taking heparin Specimens from patients with high WBC counts ✓ All of the above 19 An aliquot is a Portion of a specimen being tested 20. Which of the following does not represent proper aliquot preparation? Carefully pouring the contents into the aliquot tube 21. The machine used to separate the serum or plasma from blood cells in the sample is called a/an Centrifuge 22. Which of the following specimens should be protected from light? Bilirubin 23. According to CLSI guidelines, serum for most test should be removed from the cells within 120 minutes 24. Which specimen has priority over all other specimens during processing and testing? STAT 25. Tests performed on plasma samples are Drawn in anticoagulant tubes Chapter 13 1. What is the recommended procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine sample? Void the first morning specimen, start the timing, and collect all of the following specimens including the next morning's specimen. 2. Which fluid is obtained by lumbar puncture ? Cerebrospinal 3. Which fluid is aspirated from the peritoneal cavity? Ascites 4. What additional information is typically required when labeling a nonblood specimen? Specimen type and source 5. This test involves intravenous administration of histamine or pentagastrin. Gastric analysis 6. Which test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis? Sweat chloride 7. Which of the following tests requires a 24-hour urine specimen? Creatinine clearance 8. A refrigerated stool sample would not be suitable for this test. Ova and parasites (O & P) 9. A urine C & S is typically ordered to detect Presence of UTI 10. An NP culture swab is collected to detect the presence of organisms that cause Whooping cough 11. A first morning specimen is preferred for HCG testing because it is Usually more concentrated 12. Drugs of abuse can be detected in Hair Saliva Urine ✓ All are correct 13. Which type of specimen must be protected from light? Amniotic fluid 14. Sputum samples are typically collected to diagnose Tuberculosis 15. This type of urine specimen is aspirated directly through the wall of the bladder using a sterile needle and syringe. Suprapubic 16. Which nonblood specimen is most frequently analyzed in the lab? Urine 17. Which of the following fluids is associated with the lungs? Pleural 18. A procedure called iontophoresis is used in the collection of what specimen ? Sweat 19. Which type of urine specimen is used to detect UTI? Clean catch 20. Additional information typically required on a nonblood specimen label includes the Specimen type 21. A urine pregnancy test detects the presence of HCG 22. Which urine specimen is normally the most concentrated? First morning 23. CSF analysis is used in the diagnosis of Meningitis 24. Fluid from joint cavities is called Synovial fluid 25. This fluid comes from the male reproductive system Seminal Chapter 14 1. Which artery is typically the easiest to access during low cardiac output? Femoral 2. the artery of choice for ABC collection is Radial 3. When performing the Allen test, which artery is released first? Ulnar 4. What happens to an ABG specimen left at room temperature for a prolonged period? Blood cells continue to consume oxygen Continued metabolism produces acids Levels of carbon dioxide increase ✓ All of the answers are correct 5. After performing arterial puncture, check the pulse Distal to the puncture site 6. Which of the following is the most common arterial puncture complication even when proper technique is used? Arteriospasm 7. The most common needle size for routine radial ABG specimen collection is 22 gauge 8. To maintain the integrity of an ABG specimen collected in a plastic syringe, it should be Analyzed within 30 minutes of collection 9. Which of the following abbreviations represents a test that is typically part of ABG evaluation? PO2 10. Heparin is used in ABG specimen collected to Prevent clotting of the specimen 11. Which of the following patients would be considered to be in a "steady state" for ABG specimen collection? A patient who has been asleep for 30 minutes while breathing room air 12. Which of the following is the proper needle insertion angle for radial artery puncture? 45 degrees 13. Which of the following is the best way to tell that a specimen is arterial? As the specimen is collected, the blood should Pump into the syringe 14. A proper cleaning solution for preparing an arterial puncture site is Povidone-iodine 15 A phlebotomist has a request to collect an ABG specimen while the patient is breathing room air. When the phlebotomist arrives to collect the specimen the patient is still on a ventilator. What should the phlebotomist do? Consult with the patient's nurse 16. The primary reason for performing arterial puncture is to Evaluate blood gases 17. What would cause you to suspect that a thrombus formed in the radial artery while you were collecting an ABG specimen from it? The pulse distal to the site is weak or absent 18. the purpose of performing the modified Allen test prior to arterial specimen collection is to Determine collateral circulation 19. Which of the following personnel may be required to perform arterial puncture? MTs EMTs Phlebotomists ✓ All of the above 20. Which of the following is a disadvantage of using the radial artery for ABG collection? It is small and difficult to feel 21. Prior to collection of arterial blood gases, a patient should have been in a steady state for at least 20 to 30 minutes 22. Heparin is used in arterial sample collection to Prevent clotting of the specimen 23. As soon as the needle is withdrawn following arterial blood gas specimen collection, the Phlebotomist should apply site pressure for 3 to 5 minutes 24. After performing arterial puncture check the pulse Distal to the puncture site 25. the radial artery is located in the Thumb side of the wrist