Field Technician 2-3 Test PDF

1.) What are some requirements of a wireless local area network WLAN in a hospital that make it an effective training ground for individuals who want to immerse themselves in WLAN technology? a. ) stationary clients a limited number of users on an access point due to mandated secu...

1.) What are some requirements of a wireless local area network WLAN in a hospital that make it an effective training ground for individuals who want to immerse themselves in WLAN technology? a. ) stationary clients a limited number of users on an access point due to mandated security and medical applications that are often connectionless between the client and server b.) open coverage areas, and unlimited number of users on an access point and medical applications that are often connection oriented between the client and server. c.) roaming across large distances, and unlimited number of users on an access point due to mandated security and medical applications that are often connectionless between the client and server d.) roaming across large distances, a limited number of users on an access point due to mandated security and medical applications that are often connection oriented between the client and server 2.) how would you use a laptop computer, tablet, or cell phone when performing a site survey for a wireless local area network open parentheses WLAN? a. ) By generating test signals that the supervisor can use to determine coverage area b. ) by creating the site survey report template that you give to the customer c.) by enabling the surveyor to remain in contact with the customer while gathering data d.) by checking for signal strength and coverage area while roaming around the facility 3.) What are some desired features of an access point used to perform wireless local area network site surveys? A.) variable output power and external antenna connectors B.) a variable direct current power supply and multiple integral antenna types C.) a long alternating current power cord and external antenna connectors D.) a variable direct current power supply and external antenna connectors 4.) What should you note in the wireless local area network site survey is a semidirectional antenna is required for adequate coverage? A.)The number of antenna elements needed to calculate the gain and directivity B.) the antenna manufacturer and model C.) the height of the antenna D.) the antenna orientation along with the antenna side and back lobes for coverage and security reasons  5.) ideally what should the next step after you complete the wireless local area network site survey and provide the survey results in a report to the customer A.) provide the customer with detailed diagrams and drawings that show how to implement the site survey recommendations B.) follow up with the customer detailing how each WLAN requirement listed in the RF site survey report will be met item by item C.) a wireless consulting firm should be given the site survey report so that it will then be able to provide effective information on equipment purchasing and Security Solutions D.) provide the customer with an estimate of the cost and time needed to implement the results of the site survey 6.) what are some of the access point AP facts that should be detailed in a wireless local area network WLAN site survey? A.) location within facility, antenna type to be used, power output settings, how power will be provided to unit, and the expected data throughput per unit B.) AP model to be used, AP channels, and AP antenna type to be used C.) AP manufacturer and model to be used, AP channels, and AP output power D.) How each AP will be mounted, AP manufacturer and model to be used, and AP antenna type to be used 7.) Why is it suggested that all data collected as part of a site survey for a wireless local area network WLAN be included in the survey report as an attachment appendix or separate set of documentation A.) to justify the customer payment for the site survey B.) the data could be needed in the future C.) to help the customer recognize the level of security needed in a wireless WLAN D.) to provide the customer with effective information on equipment including vendor selection and Security Solutions 8.) what test should be performed during the site survey to enable the design engineer to understand a control what the user's experience will be on the wireless local area network wlan? A.) A multi-path test B.) a carrier-to-noise (C/N) test C.) a signal velocity test D.) a data throughput test 9.) What information should be gathered during the wireless local area network WLAN site survey and a Convention Center For an upcoming trade show? A.) the location of the anticipated heaviest users of the network B.) the location of power panel and outlets in the ceiling C.) identify who will be installing access points and ceilings that could are 40 ft High D.) the current regulations for installing cables and Equipment inside a facility  10.) what is the most basic question you should ask a customer before visiting the customer facility to perform a site survey? A.) how old are the computers that connect to the network B.) what is your budget C.) what kind of facility is it D.) how many TV sets are there 11.) to prevent hacker access to passwords and IP addresses why should you want to place wireless access points on switches instead of hubs A.) switches allow for VPN connectivity B.) hubs enable hackers to localize packets to a specific Network segment by preventing the broadcast of all packets to all Network segments C.) switches prevent the broadcast of packets to all Network segments D.) switches Implement application layer protocol filters to control Network utilization 12.) for maximum security you should base your WLAN user authentication on which of the following? A.) Mac addresses B.) device independent schemes, such as usernames and password C.) security keys with ssids that relate to an organization D.) ssids and Mac addresses 13.) how might a wlan administrator ensure compliance with security audits? A.) restrict user network access to work hours only B.) perform daily audits of all network devices C.) make users responsible for performing self audits D.) document audit procedures in the security policy 14.) what type of WLAN attack could cost an employee their job because Network usage logs Point directly to the employee whenever a hacker gains access to the employees domain login information and causes havoc on the network? A.) a jamming attack B.) a passive attack C.) and active attack D.) A man in the middle attack  15.) what is a man in the middle attack on a wlan? A.) a situation that regularly occurs whenever many different devices across many different Industries share the 2.4 gigahertz ISM Radio band with wlan's B.) the situation in which a hacker uses an access point AP to effectively hijack mobile nodes clients by sending a stronger signal than the legitimate access point AP is sending C.) a situation in which a hacker does not have to actually connect to an AP to listen to packets traversing the wireless segment D.) situation in which a hacker enters a WLAN through a AP to make changes to the wireless LAN itself 16.) a piece must support what encryption techniques in order to comply with the IEEE 802.11i security standards? A.) tkip d e s and AES - ccmp B.) tkip, enhanced rc4 stream Cipher, and aes- ccmp C.) tkip, AES and aes-ccmp D.) tkip, AES and enhanced rc4 stream Cipher 17.) What basis does a WLAN use an IEEE 802.1x protocol to control network access A.) pmac B.) pnac C.) ldap D.)pssid 18.) which term describes a wireless system in which the AP removes the WLAN s SSID from the beacon frames A.) hidden system B.) closed system C.) Beacon less system D.) plant secured 19.) how can filtering augment some of the security limitations of WEP in a WLAN A.) by defining parameters to which client stations must adhere in order to gain access to the network B.) by placing encryption shells around the data before transmission and filtering it at the receiver to avoid detection by hackers C.) by removing unsolicited requests for connections to the network D.) by removing overhead from the data so it can inconspicuously travel through the network without detection by hackers 20.) What IV do most week implementation of the WEP use? A.) 64-bit B.) 24-bit C.) 8-bit D.) 128-bit  21.) what can be done to increase the coverage area of a wireless local area network WLAN? A.) increase the transmission Power replace the omnidirectional antenna with a parabolic antenna and use the 2.4 GHz Radio band instead of the 5 gigahertz radio band B.) increase the transmission power replace the omnidirectional antenna with a parabolic antenna and use the 5 GHz Radio band instead of the 2.4 GHz Radio Band C.) reduce the transmission power replace the omnidirectional antenna with a parabolic and use the 2.4 gigahertz radio band instead of the five gigahertz radio band D.) increase the transmission Power replace the parabolic antenna with an omnidirectional antenna and use the 2.4 gigahertz radio band instead of the 5 gigahertz radio band 22.) what are the three main conditions that influence the range of a wireless local area network? A.) transmission data rate antenna type and location and environment B.) transmission power antenna size and flexibility and environment C.) transmission power antenna type and location and environment D.) transmission power antenna type and location and Institute of electrical and electronic Engineers 802.11 WLAN version 23.) what causes co-Channel interference in a wireless local area network? A.) inadequate shielding of an access point from outside signals B.) The WLAN is operating on a TV channel instead of a channel in the 2.4 GHz industrial scientific and medical ISM Radio Band C.) the access point channels beat together with the channels from a different WLAN D.) an overlap in the signal ranges of access points or different wlan's operating in the same channels 24.) what test instrument is used to locate and measure interfering narrow band radio frequency signals in an Institute of electrical and electronic Engineers 802.11 Wireless local area network among other things? A.) a leakage detector B.) a portable radio C.) is Spectrum analyzer D.) a WLAN sniffer  25.) you wish to build a wireless network that provides significantly better throughput than a single Institute of electrical and electronic engineers IEEE 802.11b access point. which of the following is an acceptable solution? A.) use IEEE 802.11 compliant equipment operating in the 5 GHz unlicensed National information infrastructure U-NII bands allowing for more non overlapping channels B.) install two load balanced IEEE 802.11b access points in the area that operate on the same channel C.) install to IEEE 802.11b radio cards in a single access point transmitting on channels one and 11 D.) co-locate IEEE 802.11 frequency hotspread spectrum FHSS and 802.11 direct sequence spread Spectrum DSSS access points in the same area 26.) which one of the following task is the best choice for troubleshooting the near/far problem? A.) check the access points receiver gain B.) review the access points transmission power settings C.) check for antenna diversity on the wireless clients D.) review the location of the stations on the network 27.) Which of the following conditions occur when an access point receives a distant client signal at a lower power level than that of a nearer client? A.) multi-path B.) near/ far C.) degraded data throughput D.) hidden node 28.) how might you confirm the presence of a hidden node on the network? A.) turn off access point and observe the wireless client data throughput B.) use the search for hidden node capability built into the access point C.) turn on the request to send/clear to send rts/cts protocol and watch for increased network data throughput D.) turn off the request to send/clear to send rts/cts protocol and watch for increased network data throughput 29.) how do you troubleshoot a hidden node? A.) test for degraded data throughput at the client locations for this from the access point B.) test for degraded throughput at the client's location nearest the access point C.) test for degraded data throughput at all client locations D.) test for Accelerated data throughput at all client locations  30.) what causes the hidden node problem in a wireless local area network? A.) when a client or node is unable, due to an obstacle, to receive signals from an access point but is able to receive signals from the other clients that are connected to the network B.) when a client or node is configured without a service set identification ssid, effectively hiding it from other clients and the access point C.) when a client or node can receive signals from an access point but an obstacle prevents the client from receiving signals from the other clients that are connected to the network D.) when an access point can receive signals from a client or node but an obstacle prevents the access point from receiving signals from the other clients that are connected to the network 31.) what is the purpose of the distributed coordination function DCF in an Institute of electrical and electronics engineers IEEE 802.11 Wireless local area network? A.) to allow all stations/clients on a WLAN to contend for access on the shared radio frequency RF transmission medium using the carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance csma/ca protocol B.) to allow for the frame size of an IEEE 802.11 WLAN to be over 2,346 bytes to reduce errors C.) to allow for connection free frame transfers on a WLAN by making use of a polling mechanism D.) to enable Dynamic speed adjustment of the WLAN clients 32.) what modulation technique does Institute of electrical and electronics Engineers Wireless local area network standards 802.11a and 802.11ac used to achieve higher data throughput? A.) differential quadrature phase shift keying DQPSK B.)gaussian frequency shift keying GFSK C.) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing OFDM D.) differential binary phase shift keying DBPSK 33.) what does the “ on the threshold” setting of the request to send/clear to send rts/cts protocol allow the wireless local area network administrator to control? A.) to control how often the stations send an acknowledgment that the network is clear of traffic B.) to control the size of the rts/cts messages on the network C.) to control which frames over a certain size or announced and cleared to send by the stations D.) to control how often frames are announced and cleared to send by the stations 34.) when should you consider enabling request to send/clear to send rts/cts protocol on a wireless local area network wlan? A.) to enable wireless To transmit multiple frames without acknowledgment B.) when the data throughput is high C.) to improve throughput when Collision rates are low D.) when diagnosing network problems and when large frames experience High Collision rates across a congested wireless network  35.) what is the purpose of the Institute of electrical and electronics Engineers IEEE 802.11 Wireless local area network WLAN super frame? A.) to ensure quality of service QoS B.) to ensure that point coordination function PCF mode and distributed coordination function DCF mode clients are isolated within the same WLAN C.) to increase the throughput of all WLANs D.) to allow Fair coexistence between point coordination function PCF mode and distributed coordination function DCF mode clients on the network 36.) what is a slot time in an Institute of electrical and electronics engineers IEEE 802.11 Wireless local area network WLAN? A.) a standard period of time on a WLAN in which packets are inserted B.) the interval in which short fragmented packets are spaced when transmitted in a WLAN C.) a standard period of time which is pre-programmed into the radio and determined by the WLAN technology being utilized D.) as with a clock's second hand there are 60 slots per minute to insert inner frame spaces in a WLAN 37.) how are in a frame spaces used in an Institute of electrical and electronics Engineers IEEE 802.11 Wireless local area network wlan? A.) they are used to provide adequate space between fragmented packets allowing the receiver to process the packets as they are received B.) they are used to tell the receiver if short or long packet fragments are being delivered C.) they are used to insert error correction data between fragmented packets D.) they are used to defer a station's access to the medium and provide various levels of priority 38.) Which type of interframe space provides the highest level of priority Network function control over the medium for a short time period? A.) distributed interframe space DIFS B.) Extended interframe space EIFS C.) short interframe space SIFS D.) Point coordination function interframe space PIFS 39.) what is the trade-off between the fragmenting of packets into shorter fragments versus keeping longer packet fragments? A.) shorter fragments are preferred for short Wireless segments and longer packet fragments are preferred For longer Wireless segments B.) shorter packet fragments have lower probability of Errors from interference than longer packet fragments, but shorter packet fragments require more error correction C.) shorter packet fragments arrive faster than longer packet fragments but shorter packets have lower packet error rates because of less error correction overhead D.) shorter packet fragments take longer to reassemble into complete messages than longer packet fragments  40.) Which is the largest IEEE 802.11 data frame that can transfer a wireless local area network WLAN without fragmentation A.) 2034 bytes B.) 1,518 bytes C.) 1,500 bytes D.) 2346 bytes 41.) As a subscriber enters a hotspot area what signals their mobile wireless device of an available Wifi-network? A.) The generic advertisement service (GAS) in the access point (AP) advertises to the wireless device to enable connection B.) The access point (AP) advertises its access network query protocol ANQP containing information about the services available C.) the access point queries all wireless devices that come within range of their availability for connection D.) The access point advertises to the wireless device to enable connection 42.) Which one of the following power management modes pipulates a traffic indication map TIM in a basic service set BSS or extended service set ESS? A.) Continuous aware mode CAM B.)Power save polling PSP mode C.)power aware polling PAP mode D.) continuous power checking CPC mode 43.) In a segmented wireless local area network WLAN that has a different internet protocol IP address for each segment which solution allows mobile clients to maintain their connectivity when roaming into different segments. A.) deploying all roaming clients on a single local area network LAN using the same IP address so that no change of IP address occurs and all traffic goes through a central controller. B.)Deploying all access points AP on a single virtual local area network VLAN using a virtual IP address so that no change of IP address for roaming clients occurs and all traffic goes through a central controller C.) deploying all access points AP on a single local area network LAN using the same IP address so that no change of IP address for roaming clients occurs and all traffic goes through a central controller D.) 44.) which term describes the operation mode of a basic service set BSS? A.) infrastructure mode B.)ad hoc mode C.) client to client mode D.). peer-to-peer mode  45.) what does a basic service set BSS consist of? A.) a BSS consists of two access points AP and a client acting as a gateway B.) a BSS consists of one access point AP and one or more Wireless clients C.) a BSS consists of two access points AP operating in infrastructure mode D.) a BSS consists of one single cell and one service set identifier SSID 46.) and independent basic service set IBSS is also commonly referred to as which one of the following? A.) access point AP to client Network B.) infrastructure Network C.) multicell network D.) ad hoc network 47.) why is shared key authentication considered a security risk in a wireless local area network WLAN? A.) the wired equivalent privacy WEP keys are shared through broadcast with all Network nodes B.) the wired equivalency privacy WEP keys are exchanged to using plain text C.) the access point AP transmits the challenge text in the clear and receives the same challenge text encrypted with the wired equivalent privacy WEP key D.) a hacker can see the wired Equivalent privacy WEP keys with a sniffer 48.) why would a wireless local area network WLAN administrator rarely see the “ authenticated” step on the access point AP? A.) because clients passed the authentication stage and immediately proceed into the association stage B.) because the wireless client must be associated with an AP C.) because authenticated is a default, therefore assumed and unnecessary to show D.) because the authenticated stage has been replaced with the associated stage 49.) how does a client locate a wireless local area network WLAN when performing passive scanning? A.) the client sends a beacon containing the service set identifier SSID of the network it expects to join B.) the client sends a probe request frame containing the service set identifier SSID of the network it expects to join C.) the client listens for beacons until it hears a beacon listing the service set identifier SSID of the network it expects to join D.) the client listens for probe frames until it hears a frame containing the service set identifier SSID of the network it expects to join  50.) When connecting to a wireless local area network WLAN what is the most important fact about the service that identifier SSID? A.) that the SSID is the final security barrier into the local area network LAN B.) for the best security the SSID should contain at least eight characters and use both Alpha and numeric characters C.) that the clients and all access points AP must be configured with matching SSIDs D.) that the SSID must be easy for users to remember 51.) How wide is each of the three Wireless local area network WLAN unlicensed National information infrastructure U-NII bands? A.) 100 MHz B.) 22 MHz C.) 150 megahertz D.) 26 megahertz 52.) what does the Institute of electrical and electronics Engineers IEEE specify as the maximum allowable power output into the intentional radiator for IEEE 802.11a, 802.11n, and 802.11 AC compliant devices operating on the lower unlicensed National information infrastructure U-NII Radio Band? A.) 40 milliwatts B.) 50 Milliwatts C.) 1000 milliwatts D.) 100 milliwatts 53.) what technologies does the Institute of electrical and electronics engineers IEEE 802.11n wireless standard used to achieve data rates as high as 600 megabits per second Mbps? A.) multiple input, multiple output MIMO technology and orthogonal frequency division multiplexing OFDM B.) multiple input multiple output MIMO technology and spatial multiplexing C.) adaptive antenna technology and orthogonal frequency division multiplexing OFDM D.) adaptive antenna technology and spatial multiplexing 54.) Bluetooth is a short-range wireless personal area network WPAN technology that is covered under which Institute of electrical and electronics engineers IEEE standard? A.) IEEE 802.11b B.) IEEE 802.18 C.) IEEE 802.15 D.) IEEE 802.11p  55.) Bluetooth uses which spread Spectrum technology? A.) digital spread Spectrum DSS B.) frequency hopping spread Spectrum FHSS C.) personal communication spread Spectrum PCSS D.) direct sequence spread Spectrum DSSS 56.) What is the maximum range of Class 2 2.5 milliwatts Bluetooth devices? A.) 10 m or 33 ft B.) 15 m or 48.3 ft C.) 1 m or 3.3 ft D.) 100 m or 330 ft 57.) which of the following statements is true concerning Bluetooth technology? A.) to Institute of electrical and electronics Engineers IEEE 802.11 networks operating in the 2.4 industrial, scientific, and medical ISM radio bands, Bluetooth Transmissions appear as all band noise B.) the short dwell time in Bluetooth technology creates less overhead than it does on Institute of electrical and electronics Engineers IEEE 802.11 Networks C.) The Hop rate of Bluetooth devices is about 3,600 hops per second D.) Bluetooth is typically used for long range, high speed applications 58.) operation as an Institute of electrical and electronics Engineers IEEE 802.11ac device occurs only in the 5 GHz unlicensed National information infrastructure U-NII Radio Band, so how are 802.11ac devices able to maintain compatibility with earlier standards that operate in the 2.4 GHz industrial, scientific, and medical ISM radio bands? A.) IEEE 802.11 AC have a very wide bandwidth that extends from 2.4 GHz to about 6 GHz B.) IEEE 802.11ac devices also operate in the 2.4 GHz ISM band C.) IEEE 802.11ac requires frequency conversion in the network from 2.4 GHz to 5 GHz D.) IEEE 802.11ac devices convert 2.4 GHz signals to 5 GHz signals 59.) what is the Federal Communications Commission the FCC's regulation for the maximum Equivalent isotropically radiated power EIRP from a point to multi-point P2MP wireless local area network WLAN antenna? A.) six decibels isotropic B.) 1 watt C.) 4 Watts D.) 30 decibel milliwatts  60.) I have 900 MHz industrial, scientific, and medical ISM band wireless local area networks WLAN lost favor in comparison to 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz frequency systems? A.) 900 MHz devices are more expensive and provide slower data throughput B.) 900 MHz systems are difficult to license with the Federal Communications Commission FCC C.) 900 MHz systems only support point-to-point P2P wireless links D.) 900 MHz devices are incapable of interoperating with each other 61.) what antenna type is ideal for making a point-to-point P2P network connection between two office buildings that are across the street from one another? A.) a high gain omnidirectional antenna B.) a dipole antenna C.) and omnidirectional antenna D.) a semi-directional antenna 62.) what is the typical coverage pattern of a semi-directional antenna? A.) a hemispherical or cylindrical pattern B.) a rotating elliptical pattern C.) a figure 8 pattern D.) a circular pattern 63.) polarization is defined as which of the following? A.) the direction of the radio frequency RF antenna in relation to the North and South Poles B.) the power sources of an antenna that cause it to transmit signals in more than one direction C.) the orientation of the magnetic field emitted from an antenna in relation to the Earth's plane D.) the orientation of an electromagnetic waves electric field in relationship to the Earth's surface or plane 64.) what device would a wireless local area network administrator install between the access point AP orth bridge and the network to give indoor local area network LAN users as much bandwidth as possible? A.) a bandwidth Administration unit BAU B.) A bandwidth regulator BR C.) a bandwidth control unit BCU D.) a bandwidth management unit BMU 65.) what power over ethernet PoE device picks off the direct current DC voltage that has been injected into The Cat5e cable by the injector and makes it available to the equipment through the regular DC power jack? A.) a DC power supply B.) a DC extractor C.) a DC regulator D.) a DC picker or tap 66.) which statement describes a passive injector? A.) it provides overcurrent protection B.) it turns off direct current DC power on incorrectly wired Cat5e cabling C.) it detects short circuits D.) it places direct current DC voltage onto a Cat5e cable 67.) what happens when an active ethernet switch fails to sense a power over ethernet PoE device on a port? A.) it disables support to which the line is attached B.) it rejects data traffic destined for the port C.) it keeps trying to sense the PoE device D.) it switches off the direct current DC voltage on that port 68.) as a general rule how does an increase in effective isotropic radiated power EIRP relate to the link budget rate? A.) each six decibels dB increase in EIRP equates to a doubling of range B.) each 12 decibels dB increase in EIRP equates to a doubling of range C.) each three decibels dB increase in EIRP equates to a doubling of range D.) each nine decibels dB increases in EIRP equates to a doubling of range 69.) what is Consideration when mounting a high gain omnidirectional antenna indoors on the ceiling? A.) the users that are parallel to the antenna are in antennas no Zone and outside the coverage area B.) if the ceiling is too high, the coverage area might not reach the floor where the users are located C.) the coverage area could extend to the floor above the antenna D.) the users that are closest to the antenna might be out of the antennas coverage area because they are overshot 70.) and what direction does an omnidirectional antenna radiate radio frequency RF energy? A.) in One Direction only B.) equally in all directions around its a C.) only in downward Direction D.) More in One Direction than the other 71.) why should a wireless network administrator consider installing an Enterprise wireless gateway in their network? A.) the Enterprise wireless gateway enables the wireless network administrator to manage a large wireless network using only a few Central devices instead of a very large number of access points. B.) the Enterprise wireless gateway can also function as a network switch or router, saving space and money. C.) the Enterprise wireless gateway enables decentralized management of the wireless network using the SNMP. D.) the Enterprise wireless gateway can be configured through a console port instead of using proprietary software such as telnet/ssh or internal HTTP servers. 72.) what security service in an Enterprise wireless gateway enables the wireless network administrator to assign levels of service to a particular user? A.)RBAC B.)CoS C.)HDAP D.)LDAP 73.) you are designing a wireless network to which several functional work groups are connected. you want to configure your Enterprise wireless gateway to allow you to quickly assign identical network access rights to persons within the same work group. which Enterprise wireless gateway feature provides this capability? A.)LDAP B.)EAP C.)HDAP D.)RBAC 74.) Residential gateways have been around for quite some time, but what capability was added to connect IEEE 802.11b, 802.11g, 802.11n, and 802.11 AC compliant devices? A.) a DHCP server and client B.) Network address translation C.) wireless capability D.) ethernet switching 75.) which Wireless client devices require drivers to be installed on the client node? A.) USB wireless client devices with PnP software B.) compact flash card radios installed and wireless client devices C.) Wireless client devices on PC cards that are to be installed in PCI or industry standard architecture ISA adapters D.) Wireless client devices in and wireless ethernet cards 76.) which statement best describes a network application for which a wireless workgroup bridge is best suited? A.) when mobile buildings house large groups of mobile clients needing access to the wireless network. B.) when remote buildings house a large group of Wireless clients needing access to the wired network. C.) when remote buildings house small groups of wired clients needing wireless access to the main network. D.) when remote buildings house small groups of malware infected Wireless clients needing Network access. 77.) considering antenna diversity what is the point of sampling to antennas? A.) the radio uses multiple receivers and chooses the one with the best reception. B.) to measure the background noise of the receivers environment. C.) to pick the input signal of whatever antenna has the best reception. D.) the radio can receive multiple radio signals simultaneously. 78.) what is a half duplex device that is only capable of OSI reference model layer 2 data link layer connectivity? A.) a repeater B.) a wireless hub C.) a gateway D.) a wireless bridge 79.) what are some common methods used to configure and manage APs? A.) tell net / SSH secure shell, USB and a built-in web server for browser access. B.) telnet/ssh Secure shell, uca, and a built-in web server for browser access. C.) tcp, Java code applets, and a built-in web server for browser access. D.) tcp, usb, and a built-in web server for browser access. 80.) what WLAN device can be described as a half duplex device with intelligence equivalent to that of a sophisticated ethernet switch? A.) a wireless repeater B.) a radius server C.) a wireless NIC D.) an AP 81.) what is the width of DSSS channels and how far apart are there Center frequency space? A.) five megahertz wide and 2.5 MHz apart B.) 11 megahertz wide and 5.5 MHz C.) 22 megahertz wide and 5 MHz D.) 72 MHz wide and 11 megahertz apart 82.) why is DSSS the most widely known and the most used of the spread Spectrum types? A.) it is the most resistant of all the spread Spectrum Technologies to narrow band interference. B.) it's ease of implementation and high data rates. C.) it requires the least amount of power and frequency spectrum. D.) it is the most secure spread Spectrum technology 83.) although there are many different implementations of spread Spectrum technology what are the only types specified by the FCC in the CFR volume 47 part 15? A.)DASS and FHSS B.)DSSS and FHSS C.)DASS and FASS D.)DSSS and FASS 84.) how does spread Spectrum technology reduce the probability of signal jamming? A.) by spreading the signal over a Range of narrow frequency bands. B.) by increasing the power level during jamming C.) by transmitting an anti-jamming signal along with the intelligence D.) by transmitting over a wide frequency spectrum 85.) which component of FHSS system creates more overhead than any similar component in a DSSS system? A.) the frame size B.) co-location C.) the noise floor D.) the inner frame spacing 86.) the ratio of the chipping code to data bits for a DSSS signal is called which of the following? A.) data Integrity threshold B.) compression algorithm C.) processing gain D.) overhead 87.) the FCC rules regarding power output for FHSS state that a maximum output to the IR with 5 MHz of carrier frequency bandwidth must be which of the following? A.) 100 mW B.) 150 mW C.) 1 watt w D.) 125 mW 88.) in a FHSS system that uses 10 frequencies across a 12 megahertz frequency band, what happens if a narrow band interference occurs at only one of the 10 frequencies? A.) the spread Spectrum signal remains intact, but to compensate, the system automatically extends the dwell time for the remaining nine frequencies, thus sending more data on each. B.) the spread Spectrum signal remains intact, but approximately 10% of the transmitted data is lost. C.) the spread Spectrum signal remains intact instead of being lost, the data on the interfered frequency is retransmitted on one of the other nine frequencies. D.) the spread Spectrum signal remains intact, but the system abandons the frequency with narrow band interference and automatically switches to an open and available frequency for transmission. 89.) why is spread Spectrum technology used in applications such as Bluetooth WPAN. A.) spread Spectrum technology since data in short bursts, allowing multiple users to share the network by transmitting at different times. B.) spread Spectrum technology allows Wireless networking to create a short range, personal communication network. C.) spread Spectrum technology makes efficient use of precious frequency spectrum. D.) Spread Spectrum technology can be used without paying royalty fees to the patent owners. 90.) which of the following networks or products use spread Spectrum Technologies? A.) wlan, dsl, and digital cellular telephone CDMA B.) WLAN DSL and GPS C.) WLAN PCS and satellite radio D.) WLAN Bluetooth and GPS 91.) given the AP with the 100 MW output power connected through a cable of three decibels of loss to the antenna with a 10 decibel isotropic gain what is the approximate EIRP level from the antenna in milliwatts A.)250 mW B.) 1,000 mW C.) 100 mW D.) 500 mW 92.) what unit of measurement is used to express the gain of an antenna? A.) decibels B.) decibels over or under 1 milliwatt C.)dBi D.)PmW 93.) what is EIRP? A.) the power delivered to the antenna element of the IR. B.) the power delivered to the IR from the antenna element. C.) the power actually radiated by the antenna element. D.) the power radiated in the vertical plane by an antenna. 94.) why is the fresnel zone important to the Integrity of the RF link or path? A.) The fresnel Zone contains the information modulated onto an RF signal. B.) The fresnel Zone defines an area of coverage in a typical RF cell C.) The fresnel Zone defines an area around the RF LOS that can introduce RF signal interference if blocked D.) the fresnel Zone determines that directivity of an antenna. 95.) how does RF LOS differ from visual LOS? A.) RF LOS distances substantially less than visual LOS distance. B.) RF LOS extends through physical obstacles such as trees and mountains, which block visual LOS. C.) RF LOS is accompanied by a fresnel zone, a series of concentric ellipsoid shaped areas around the visual LOS path. D.) RF LOS is concentrated into a narrow beam of energy that allows it to use longer distances than visual LOS. 96.) what are some measures that can be taken to prevent High VSWR in transmitters and receivers A.) use MPSs At every connection to ensure an impedance match throughout. B.) keep all the cables short and straight as possible and use appropriate connectors throughout. C.) Titan connections between cables and connectors to use impedance matched Hardware throughout. D.) use large diameter cable inappropriate connectors throughout. 97.) which of the provided VSWR shown here is the best for transferring radio frequency RF energy between connections? A.) 2:1 B.)1.2:1 C.)1.5:1 D.)1.4:1 98.) Which one of the following RF behaviors is defined as quotation “the bending of a wave as it passes through a medium of different density”? A.) refraction B.) reflection C.) absorption D.) diffraction 99.) in what Manner do radio waves propagate move away from the source antenna? A.) in rays going in an upward direction from the antenna B.) in spherical, concentric circles in the antennas horizontal plane C.) up and down across the area of coverage D.) in a straight line in all directions at once 100.) what challenges do WISPs have to overcome in order to provide “ Last Mile data delivery” to customers? A.) the lack of frequency spectrum allocated for outdoor WLANs B.) distance to APs, Rooftop access, lightning, trees, mountains, Tower access, and other physical obstacles to connectivity C.) the size of the antenna requires special mounting procedures and in many cases requires approval from the local homeowners association and building Regulators to install D.) competition from the incumbent telephone company and Broadband cable operator operating network connectivity with higher data rates at lower prices 101.) what specific problem does WLAN resolve for corporations and home users? A.) the need to contract with an ISP for internet service B.) unreliable connectivity to the internet C.) insecure, Anonymous connectivity to the internet D.) excessive data cabling 102.) in which of the following applications might a WLAN be deployed in the distribution layer role? A.) when the network requires speed, flexibility, and reliability B.)when the distribution layer must handle large amounts of network traffic C.)as a building-to-building bridge used to link corporate network segments D.)as a replacement for a 100 Mbps wired network backbone 103.) What type of connectivity is needed to connect networks between two buildings located across the street from each other? A.) PTP B.)network extension C.)P2P D.)P2MP 104.) In which OSI reference model layer do WLANs operate? A.) The physical layer B.)the data link layer C.)the transport layer D.)the network layer 105.) Why are WLANs usually deployed in an access capacity instead of as the networks core layer? A.)WLANs are generally too expensive to operate at the network core layer, which is funded by the internet advertising revenue B.)WLANs are generally too sophisticated to operate at the network core layer, which provides very basic support for network traffic C.) WLANs are generally incapable of meeting the requirements of the network core layer which needs to be very fast and stable able to handle a tremendous amount of traffic with little difficulty and must experience no down time D.)WLANs are generally too expensive to operate at the network core layer, which publicly funded by user donation 106.) Which one of the IEEE wireless standards utilizes the 5 GHz frequency band for its signal transmission? A.)802.11b B.)802.11g C.)802.11f D.)802.11n 107.) Why has it become cost-effective for enterprise companies to integrate WLAN segments into their networks A.) The cost of wireless technology has decreased and the quality has increased. B.) Installing UTP cable has become cost prohibitive due to labor expenses and the cost of copper C.) The data throughput of wireless technology has surpassed the capabilities of UTP cable D.)it is easier to ensure the network security of a wireless network than a network built using twisted pair cable 108.) Which of the following IEEE 802.11 WLAN standards specifies both spread spectrum RF and IR transmission technology? A.)802.11 B.)802.11n C.)802.11g D.)802.11a 109.) Which organization regulates the use of WLAN devices in the united states? A.)FCC B.)WECA C.)FAA D.)IEEE 110.) What uses the 2.4-GHz band and runs at 54Mbps? A.)802.11a B.)802.11b C.)802.11g D.)802.11n 111.) All 802.11 standards use one of the two frequency bands. What are these frequency bands? A.)2.4GHz and 5 GHz bands B.)4.2 GHz and 6 GHz bands C.)4GHz and 8.5 GHz bands D.)1.2 GHz and 3 GHz bands 112.) What is the last step of the basic wireless access point WAP setup? A.)change the SSID B.)change the channel C.)apply security D.)set the channel 113.) How many channels are available with IEEE 802.11g? A.)11 B.)10 C.)12 D.)9 114.) Which encryption method is the most secure for a wireless network? A.)WPA B.)WEP C.)WPA2 D.)WPE 115.) In regard to WI-FI networks, what is WPS used for? A.)authentication B.)security C.)encryption D.)to enable connection to a WI-FI network without a windows interface 116.) Which mode uses a wireless access point WAP connected to a wired network? A.)ad hoc B.)WLAN C.)PAN D.)infrastructure 117.) When configuring a wireless router, why is changing the service set identifier SSID from the device default recommended? A.) To help client devices identify the network B.)it creates an opportunity to personalize the network for the customer C.)to avoid the appearance of endorsing one device over others D.)to avoid telling hackers exactly what the device is 118.) What is the standard encryption method used with WPA2? A.)CSMA-CD B.)WPS C.)AES D.)WEP 119.) What is it called when several computers are sharing files without a WAP? A.)private mode B.)infrastructure mode C.)ad hoc mode D.)PAN mode 120.) How should the digital multimeter DMM be used to troubleshoot problems in the telephone wiring? A.)use the ohmeter function; neither the network interface device NID nor the embedded multimedia terminal adapter EMTA provide a steady on-hook voltage B.)use the voltmeter function; both the network interface device NID and the embedded multimedia terminal adapter EMTA provide a steady on-hook voltage C.)use the voltmeter function; neither the network interface device NID nor the embedded multimedia terminal adapter EMTA provide a steady on-hook voltage D.)use the ohmmeter function; both the network interface device NID and the embedded multimedia terminal adapter EMTA provide a steady on-hook voltage 121.) If the telephone wiring is in the bus topology and the twisted pair cable tester is connected at the embedded multimedia terminal adapter EMTA with the remote unit connected to the last outlet in the loop, what is the quickest way to locate the incorrectly wired outlet if the tester indicates a wiring error? A.)beginning at the EMTA end, rewire each outlet in sequence going toward the end of the loop B.)beginning at the end of the loop, rewire each outlet in sequence going back to the EMTA C.)keeping the loop intact, move the tester remote unit to an outlet in the middle of the loop and retest. The tester will indicate if the wiring error is back toward the EMTA, or toward the end of the loop. D.)break the loop into smaller sections and retest the two sections to identify which one has the wiring error. Continue to divide the section with the error into smaller sections until the wiring error is identified. 122.) After resolving the problem with the premises wiring issue, which of the following is the next step in the six step process that the technician should take? A.)pack up and clean the work area of all debris B.)verify that the problem has been resolved and that the phone service is running perfectly on all phones C.)verify that the problem has been resolved and that the service is running perfectly on their telephone test set D.) complete the paperwork to document that the problem has been resolved 123.) In unshield twisted pair UTP cable, what is the term that describes when an information-carrying conductor makes contact with a grounded conductor? A.)a short B.)a transposition C.)ground fault D.)a cross 124.) How is silver satin able used to connect telephone equipment to wall outlets typically pinned? A.)reversed at opposite ends, or straight-through B.)identical at opposite ends, or cross-pinned C.)reversed at opposite ends, or cross-pinned D.)identical at opposite ends, or straight-through 125.) What is the difference between the wiring configuration for residential, 8 position, eight contact 8p8c modular plug and Jack in the Universal service order codes usoc and ansi/tia/eia 570-b? A.) the placement of pairs number two and four B.) the placement of pairs 1 and 3 C.) the placement of pairs three and four D.) the placement of pears numbers one and two 126.) what should be checked as a possible cause of hum on a customer's telephone line? A.) shorts in the station wiring, poor terminations, or poor grounding and bonding connections B.) opens in the station wiring, poor terminations, or poor grounding and bonding connections C.) shielding problems in the station wiring, poor terminations, or poor grounding and bonding connections D.) reverse polarities of the tip and ring wires in the station wiring, poor terminations, or poor grounding and bonding connections 127.) in the customer premises what could cause some dual tone multi-frequency DTMF touch-tone telephone to have continuous dial tone caused by polarity reversal, but not other DTMF telephones?l A.) the customer premises is wired with UTP cable instead of quad station wiring, and the customer has only newer models of DTMF Touch Tone telephones B.) the telephone wiring polarity is incorrect, and the customer has only older models of DTMF Touch Tone telephones C.) the customer premises is wired with a mix of unshielded twisted pair UTP cable and quad station wire and the customer has a mix of older and newer DTMF Touch Tone telephones D.) the telephone wiring polarity is incorrect and the customer has a mix of older and newer DTMF Touch Tone telephones 128.) what is the likely problem when there is style tone on one phone connected to an outlet, but not on two other phones connected to two Different outlets? A.) reverse polarity of the tip and ring wire caused by a break in the conductor, poor contact in a modular connector, or an incorrect wire connection B.) and open circuit caused by a break in the conductor, poor contact in a modular connector, or incorrect wire connection C.) a ground fault caused by a break in the conductor, poor contact in a modular connector, or an incorrect wire correction D.) or short caused by a break in a conductor, poor contact in a modular connector, or an incorrect wire connection 129.) a customer reports a problem of no dial tone in NDT. upon inspection, the technician notices that the new carpeting has been installed. what should the technician do next? A.) use a telephone test set to test for dial tone at each outlet B.) use a twisted pair cable tester to test for dial tone at each outlet C.) look for a cable that runs under the carpet it is likely that the cable has a short from the carpeting tack strip D.) use a digital multimeter DMM to test each circuit in the premises 130.) What layers of the open system interconnection OSI reference model are specific to cable network and a are present only between data over cable service interface specifications DOCSIS modems and the cable modem termination system CMTS? A.)Layers 1 through 4 physical layer, data link layer, Network layer and transport layer are applied between the DOCSIS and the CMTS B.) C.) D.) 131.) when using a digital signal analyzer to troubleshoot data throughput in the data over cable service interface specification DOCSIS network, what is the minimum modulation error ratio MER into the cable modem for a 256 quadrature amplitude modulation QAM carrier? A.)32 dB or greater B.) C.) D.)  132.) when analyzing a problem what can the technician learn by asking the customer to show or demonstrate the problem? A.) the symptoms of the problem can be viewed and any unusual screens or customer entries can be identified B.) C.) D.) 133.) which step of the troubleshooting process requires a discussion with the customer to gather more detail about the problem? A.) step one identify the problem B.) C.) D.) 134.) how does the internal protocol IP multicast differ from IP broadcast A.) IP multicast traffic is only sent to specific modem addresses on the network; IP broadcast traffic is sent to All modems on the network B.) C.) D.) 135.) what are two features that were added in the data over cable service interface specification DOCSIS 3.1 to extend the viability of hybrid fiber/coax hfc networks into the next decade A.) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing ofdm and low density parity check ldcp B.) C.) D.) 136.) what would be the downstream throughput if two quadrature amplitude modulation QAM Channels with a throughput of 38 megabits per second we're bonded? A.) 76 Mbps B.) C.) D.) 137.) In a data over cable service interface specification DOCSIS network, why is the data throughput over the return or Upstream path typically less than the throughput of a data over the forward or Downstream path? A.) compared to the downstream path, the narrower bandwidths and lower orders of modulation used to transport data over the return path cause the downstream and Upstream data throughput to be unequal or asymmetrical. B.) C.) D.) 138.) what was introduced in the data over cable service interface specification DOCSIS 3.0 to allow enough bandwidth for Upstream carriers from previous DOCSIS versions? A.) the option to increase the top frequency of the Upstream to 85 megahertz B.) C.) D.) 139.) which data over cable service interface specification DOCSIS layer is used by the cable modem termination system cmts to differentiate between the cable modems A.) the DOCSIS media access control Mac layer B.) C.) D.) 140.) what does a set-top box stb diagnostic page of a quadrature amplitude modulation QAM Channel showing signal to noise ratio SNR near or below 30 decibel indicate? A.) the qualm Channel quality is on the edge for Reliable reception, and the source of the problem is likely in the distribution Network where customer premises. B.) C.) D.) 141.) because the spectral density of the quadrature amplitude modulation QAM channel is much higher than that of an analog TV channel, what is done to ensure equal power in all channels in a network with analog and digital modulation channels? A.) operate the analog TV channels at the higher amplitude levels and the QAM channels B.) C.) D.) 142.) which type of set top box stb operates more like DOCSIS data over cable service interface specification cable modems with return channels on the same frequencies used for cable modems? A.) stb with DOCSIS set top Gateway DSG client software and embedded DOCSIS modems B.) C.) D.) 143.) when troubleshooting a digital TV DTV authorization issue what can be verified using the set top box stb diagnostic page? A.) stb reception of authorization message B.) C.) D.) 144.) which of the following digital TV DTV trouble calls could have been avoided with customer education about the product? A.) the digital set-top box stb overheats B.) C.) D.) 145.) when replacing a splitter To resolve a digital TV DTV service problem what does confirming the splitter output levels before attaching the output connectors do? A.) confirmation reinforces the technician's confidence that the problem will be resolved by the replacing the splitter B.) C.) D.) 146.) during which step of the six step troubleshooting process for a digital TV DTV service problem are quadrature amplitude modulation QAM Channel measurements typically taken? A.) diagnosing symptoms B.) C.) D.) 147.) after a digital TV DTV service problem has been analyzed and possible causes considered, what is accomplished by isolating the various Network elements? A.) it Narrows the scope of the likely problem sources B.) C.) D.) 148.) what must a technician be aware of when analyzing a DTV problem? A.) there is frequently more than one contributor to a specific DTV service problem B.) C.) D.) 149.) which of the following characterizes the successful troubleshooter? A.) someone with an inquisitive and Relentless desire to solve and fix problems B.) C.) D.) 150.) by taking control of the expectations you have, you are A.) more likely to improve your motivation and be a better problem solver. B.) C.) D.) 151.) to break the habit of negative self-talk cycle A.) tell yourself not now and move on to a positive thought whenever negative thoughts occur B.) C.) D.) 152.) you are at a customer's home and you believe you have solved the problem. when you check to be sure the resolution did not introduce any new problems, which Step are you using from the six-step troubleshooting process? A.) verifying the solution B.) C.) D.) 153.) why should you take the time to take notes and accurately record data at each job location? A.) notes and recorded data are tools that can help you accurately remember events at a site that can help you determine a plan of action or evaluate the decisions you made. B.) C.) D.) 154.) you are at a customer's house and you are asking the customer whether the problem is intermittent or constant. which Step are you using from the six step troubleshooting process? A.) identifying the problem B.) C.) D.) 155.) it is essential to pay attention to warning signs of stress overload. poor attitude is one of the behaviors that may indicate that you are overstressed. what are the symptoms of poor attitude behavior? A.) a significant change in attitude with a noticeable movement toward negative, hostile, cynical or paranoid thoughts B.) C.) D.) 156.) what kind of reasoning is described as applying a general statement that you know to be true to a new situation? A.)Deductive. B.) C.) D.) 157.) the attribute of being active as a critical thinker means? A.) You observe and take notes relevant to the issue B.) C.) D.) 158.) which of the following best describes stereotyped thinking? A.) presuming that all members of a group have certain characteristics B.) C.) D.) 159.) which of the following is a method for controlling expectations? A.) identify the source of emotional overload. B.) C.) D.) 160.) which of the following are statements of true axiomes? A.) when a = c and b = c, then a equals B because both are equal to C, which supports the Axiom quantities equal to the same quantity are equal to each other B.) C.) D.) 161.) he shrink tubing is installed over the fusion splice to strengthen and protect it when should the heat shrink be installed on the fiber? A.) before stripping the plastic coating from the fiber B.) C.) D.) 162.) which of the following describes a fiber pigtail? A.) fiber optic cable with preconnectorized ends B.) C.) D.) 163.) how are Optical Splitters used in the forward path? A.) in the Ford path, Optical Splitters are used as a passive branching device that divide and Optical signal across multiple output fibers. B.) C.) D.) 164.) what is it about radio frequency over glass rfog that made Broadband cable operators and vision using it to make a seamless transition from the Legacy hybrid fiber/coax hfc architecture over to a gigabit capable passive Optical Network gpon or ethernet passive Optical Network epon? A.) rfog can operate in parallel with gpon or epon, which eliminates the need for any downtime during the transition B.) C.) D.) 165.) which element of a passive Optical Network p o n uses patch panels? A.) Optical distribution Network odn B.) C.) D.) 166.) which element of a passive Optical Network Pon uses a brag grading filter? A.) Optical line terminal OLT B.) C.) D.) 167.) which type of star topology used in a passive Optical Network Pon places the PO in Splitters into fiber access terminal FAT located deep in the network and closer to the customer premises than the centralized split? A.) distributed star B.) C.) D.) 168.) which of these components is used in passive Optical Network PON? A.) Optical splitters B.) C.) D.) 169.) what is the difference between fiber to the node fttn and fiber to the curb fttc topologies? A.) an fttc is allowed a smaller number of RF amplifiers between the optical fiber and the customer premises B.) C.) D.) 170.) what is one reason why Broadband cable operators install fiber optic cable in stages instead of changing the infrastructure all at once? A.) changing the infrastructure all at once would cause too many service disruptions. B.) C.) D.)