Final Exam Questions PDF

MCQ Questions 1- Regarding aspirin , one of the following statements is false : A) It has no effect on platelets aggression B) It has antipyretic effect C) It has anti-inflammatory effect D) It has analgesics effect 2- Morphine produces one of the following actions : A) Respiratory stimulation...

MCQ Questions 1- Regarding aspirin , one of the following statements is false : A) It has no effect on platelets aggression B) It has antipyretic effect C) It has anti-inflammatory effect D) It has analgesics effect 2- Morphine produces one of the following actions : A) Respiratory stimulation B) Cough C) Miosis D) Mydriasis 3- Morphine produces constipation due to : A) Decrease peristaltic movement B) Increase intestinal tone C) Spasm of sphincter D) All of above 4- Side effect and toxicity of morphine include all of the following EXCEPT A) Vomiting B) Constipation C) Diarrhea D)Res. Depression 5- Morphine is contraindicated in all the following EXCEPT : A) Post-operative severe pain B) Head injury as it elevates ICT c) During pregnancy D) Bronchial asthma 6- Corticosteroid may cause all of the following EXCEPT : A) Moon face on prolonged use B) Decrease immunity c) Osteoporosis after long period of administration D) Hypotension 7- Calcium channel blockers include all of the following drugs EXCEPT : A) Nifedipine B) Clonidine C) Verapamil D) Diltiazem 8- One of the following drugs is direct Vasodilator : A) Diazoxide B) Propranolol C) Sotalol D) Labetalol 9- Which one of the following drugs is Contraindicated in Hypertension : A) Hydrochlorothiazide B) furosemide C)Epinephrine D) Propranolol 10- one of the following penicillin preparations is broad spectrum : A) Benzthin penicillin G B) Amoxicillin C) Penicillin G D) Cloxacillin 11- The following antibiotics act by inhibition of protein synthesis : A) Gentamicin B) Ofloxacin C) Ampicillin D) Cephalocin 1 12- One of the following antibiotics is related to aminoglycosides : A) Vancomycin B) Gentamicin C) Ampicillin D) Cephalexin 13- Concerning Fluoroquinolone : A) It is folic acid antagonist B) It acts as DNA gyrase inhibitor c) It is protein synthesis inhibitor D) It is cell wall synthesis inhibitor 14- Antagonist drugs has which of the following pharmacological property : A) Bend to receptor and produce partial effect B) Bind to receptor and produce stimulatory effect C) Bind to receptor and produce inhibitory effect D) Produce its effect without binding to receptors 15- The tendency of a drug to bind to a receptor is called : A) Potency B) Affinity C) Efficacy D) Allergy 16- Which of the following is anti-emetics drug : A) Prostaglandin B) Omeprazole C) Metoclopramide d) cimetidine 17- Which of the following drugs is proton pump inhibitors : A) Prostaglandin B) Omeprazole C) Metoclopramide d) cimetidine 18- Gynecomastia is a common side effect of one of the following drugs A) Prostaglandin B) Omeprazole C) Metoclopramide d) cimetidine 19- Which of the following is H2 antagonist used in peptic ulcer : A) Aluminium hydroxide B) Ranitidine C) Bisthmus D)Omeprazole 20- Which of the following drugs is short acting B2 agonist : A) Salbutamol B) Salmeterol C) Theophylline D) Corticosteroid 21- All of the following are used therapeutic in bronchial asthma EXCEPT: A) Selective B2 agonist B) Cholinergic agonist drugs c) Theophylline D) Corticosteroid 22- Which of the following drugs used in bronchial asthma due to anti-inflammatory action : A) Salbutamol B) Salmeterol C) Theophylline D) Corticosteroid 23- Which of the following is a pharmacokinetics parameter : A) Tolerance B) Resistance C) Distribution D) Mechanism of action 2 24- First pass metabolism is largely expected with which of the following route : A) Oral B) Subcutaneous c) Sublingual D) Intravenous 25- Which of the following routes of administration achieves the fastest effect of the drug : A) Oral B) Subcutaneous c) Sublingual D) Intravenous 26- Prazosin is a selective alpha 1 blocker used in treatment of : A) Angina pectoris B) Bronchial asthma C) Hypertension D)stress ulcer 27- Therapeutic uses of epinephrine include the following conditions EXCEPT : A) Bronchial asthma B) Hypertension C) Anaphylactic shock D) C. arrest 28- All of the following are anti-anginal drugs EXCEPT : A) Organic nitrates B) Beta adrenergic blockers c) Calcium channel blockers D) Cholinergic antagonist 29- Which of the following insulin preparations you are used I.V In hyperglycemic coma : A) Isophane insulin suspension B) Lent insulin suspension c) Insulin detemir D) Regular insulin solution 30- Insulin indicated in : A) Type 2 diabetes during infection or surgery B) Type 1 diabetes C) Emergency treatment of DKA D) All of the above 31- Which of the following statements about oral contraceptives is TRUE: A) The combination pill contains both estrogen and progestin B) The monophasic pill contains progestin alone C) The mini pill contains the same amount of estrogen and progestin D) The triphasic pill contains estrogen , progestin and luteinizing (LH) 32- All of the following are side effects of estrogen EXCEPT : A) Edema B) Thrombosis C) Weight loss D) Hypertension 3 33- All of the following are contraindications of oral contraceptives EXCEPT : A) History of thromboembolism B) Pregnancy c) history of uncontrolled hypertension D) Anemia 34- All of the following are adverse effect of thyroid hormone EXCEPT : A) Angina pectoris B) Bradycardia C) Exophthalmoses D) Heat intolerance 35- Which of the following is used in treatment of hypothyroidism : A) Verapamil B) Levothyroxine C) radioactive iodine D) Propanol 36- Which of the following statements about anticoagulants is TRUE : A) Warfarin has immediate onset B) heparin is Vit K antagonist c) Warfarin is ant thrombin activator D) warfarin can cross the placenta 37- Bactericidal is a drug which : A) Causes killing of bacteria B) Causes killing of cancer c) Inhibit bacteria growth D) inhibit cancer growth 38- which of the following is a third generation cephalosporsin : A) Cefazolin B) Ceftriaxone C) cefaclor D) cephalosporin 39- Which of the following is an adverse effect of insulin : A) Anemia B) Gall stone C) Weight loss D) Hypoglycemia 40- ONE of the following is an osmotic diuretics : A) Chlorothiazide B) Mannitol C) Furosemide D) spironolactone 41- Which of the following factors affecting drug absorption : A) Plasma protein binding B) Enzyme induction C ) First pass effect d) Enzyme inhibition 42- The fraction of the drug that reach the circulation is : A) Metabolism B) Bioavailability c) Clearance D) Half life 43- Which of the following is a pharmacokinetics : A) Tolerance B) Clearance C) Resistance D) Mechanism of action 44- Which of the following statements is TRUE about parenteral route : A) Not suitable if for drugs that are poor absorbed from GIT B) Not suitable in case of vomiting C) Suitable in emergency condition D) It is the safest route of drug administration 4 45- Drugs that bind to the receptor and produce stimulatory effect are defined as : A) Agonist B) Antagonist C) partial agonist D) Inverse agonist 46- The ability of a drug- receptor complex to produce pharmacological response is called : A) Allergy B) Efficacy C) Idiosyncrasy D) potency 47- One of the following drug is used for the treatment of organophosphorus compound : A) Parathion B) Atropine C) Isoproterol D) Neostigmine 48- Atropine or its substitute can be used for treatment of all the following EXCEPT : A) Peptic ulcer B) Parkinsonism C) Urinary retention D) B. Asthma 49- Epinephrine could not be used for management of ONE of the following cases : A) Epistaxis b) Hypertension c) Cardiac arrest D) bronchial asthma 50- ONE of the following is a sympathomimetic drug : A) NOR- Epinephrine B) Atenolol C) Carvedilol D) phenoxybenzamine 51- ONE of the following drugs is a selective Alpha α-1 adrenergic antagonist : A) Isoproterenol B) Propranolol C) Prazosin D) Phentolamine 52- One of the following is contraindications for non-selective β- adrenergic receptors blockers : A) Hyperthyroidism B) Bronchial asthma C) Glaucoma D) Hypertension 53- First dose phenomenon is a side effect of one of the following drugs A) Yohimbine B) Phentolamine C) Prazosin D) Pirenzepine 54- For direct vasodilators , One of the following statements is FALSE : A) Hydralazine is used orally in severe hypertension B) Diazoxide is used by rapid I.V bolus injection in hypertensive emergency C) Minoxedil is used in the form of lotion in male pattern baldness D) Sodium nitroprusside is used by slow I.V Infusion pump in mild Hypertension 5 55- Digoxin has all of the following effect EXCEPT : A) Negative inotropic effect B) Increase cardiac output C) Negative dromotropic effect D) Negative chronotropic effect 56- For Nitroglycerin , one of the following statements is FALSE : A) Transdermal patch is used for acute attack of angina pectoris B) Sublingual administration provide rapid onset of action C) Sustained release tablets are used for prophylaxis in angina D) Nitrates are used in the treatment of all types of angina 57- Antiarrhythmic used in tachy-arrhythmias include all the following EXCEPT : A) Lidocaine B) Atropine C) Verapamil D) propranolol 58- One of the following is atropine substitutes used in treatment of bronchial asthma : A) Ipratropium B) Pirenzipine C) benzotrpine D) Scopolamine 59- Regarding cromolyn sodium , one of the following statements is FALSE : A) It stabilizes mast cells B) Its effect needs long period until treatment c) used a nasal spray in allergic rhinitis D) Used in acute attack of B. asthma 60- One of the following is H2- antagonist : A) Omeprazole B) Ranitidine C) nedocromil D) Amoxicillin 61- Aluminium hydroxide is : A) H2-antagonist B) Antacid C)Antihypertensive D) Proton-pump inhibitor 62- Eradication of H. Pyloric in peptic ulcer includes all of the following EXCEPT : A) Metronidazole B) Amoxicillin C) Clarithromycin D) Magnesium trisilicate 6 63- All of the following are pharmacological action of morphine EXCEPT A) Analgesia B) Sedation c) Diarrhea D) Miosis 64- All of the following are intravenous anesthetics EXCEPT : A) Halothane B) Propofol C) Diazepam D) Thiopental 65- Benzodiazepine have all of the following effects EXCEPT : A) Sedation B) Anticonvulsant C) Hypnosis D) skeletal muscle contraction 66- Which of the following is general mechanism of action for erythromycin : A) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis B) Inhibition of a metabolic rate C) inhibition of protein synthesis D) Inhibition of nucleic acid transcription and replication 67- Which of the following statements is FALSE concerning tetracycline A) They act via inhibition of bacterial protein synthesis by binding to 30s B) They are the first drug of choice used against rickettsial infection C) Their absorption is impaired with dairy products and antacid D) They are indicated for children between 2 months and 5 years 68- The main side effect encountered with the use of isoniazide is : A) Hypersensitivity reaction B) Nephrotoxicity c) hepatotoxicity and peripheral neuritis D) myelosuppression 69- Which of the following anti-tuberculos agents is used effectively in the prophylaxis against meningococcal meningitis : A) Isoniazide B) Rifampin C) Ethambutol D) pyrazinamide 70- Which of the following is main adverse effect is of Amphotericin B : A) Allergic reaction B) Nephrotoxicity C) Hepatotoxicity D) photosensitivity 71- Which of the following is used to reduce vertical transmission of HIV from mother to fetus : A) Amantadine B) Zidovudine C) Gancyclovir D) Ribavirin 7 72- Which of the following insulin preparations you can administer by I,V routes in hyperglycemic coma : A) Isophane insulin suspension B) Lent insulin suspension c) insulin detemir d) Regular insulin solution 73- Insulin indicated in all the following EXCEPT : A) All cases of type I diabetes B) Type II Diabetes during stress periods as infection or surgery C) Emergency treatment of diabetic ketoacidosis D) Initial treatment of newly diagnosed type II diabetes 74- For metformin , one of the following statements is FALSE : A) Lactic acidosis is the main adverse of large doses B) Unlike sulphonylureas , it is not hypoglycemic C) Used alone or in combination with sulphonylureas in type II diabetes D) Cause weight gain 75- Adverse effect of systemic Glucocorticosteriod include all the following condition EXCEPT : A) Osteoporosis B) hypertension C) shock D) Diabetes.M 76- All the following are side effects of estrogen EXCEPT : A) Edema B) Thrombosis C) headache D) Hypotension 77- All of the following statements about oral contraceptives are TRUE , Except : A) The combination pill contains both estrogen and progestin B) The monophasic pill contains the same amount of estrogen and progestin C) The minipill contains progestin alone D) The triphasic pill contains estrogen , progestin , and luteinizing hormone (LH) 78- All of the following are contraindications of oral contraceptives EXCEPT : A) History of thromboembolism b) History of multiple pregnancy C)History of uncontrolled hypertension D) History of breast cancer 8 79- All the following are adverse effect of thyroid hormone EXCEPT: A) Angina pectoris B)Tachy cardia C) Hypotension D) heat intolerance 80- Which of the following is used in treatment of thyroid storm : A) Liotrix B) Levothyroxine C) Radioactive iodine D) propranolol 81- Which of the following factors affecting drug absorption : A) Route of administration B) Plasma protein binding C) Enzyme induction D) Enzyme inhibition 82- Which of the following statements is TRUE about I.V route : A) Avoid hepatic first pass metabolism B) Not suitable in severe vomiting C) Not suitable in for drugs that destroy by gastric fluid D) Faulty administration can be treated by rapid gastric lavage 83- Which of the following drugs obtained from animal source : A) Atropine B) Thyroxin C) Morphine D) Penicillin 84- Which of the following is a pharmacokinetic parameters : A) Tolerance B) resistance C) Metabolism D) Mechanism of action 85- All of the following statements regarding emulsion are TRUE Except A) It is liquid dosage form B) It can be used I.V C) It should be shaken well before its use D) It is mixtures of oil and water 86- Which of the following reactions is phase II metabolism : A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) Hydrolysis D) Conjugation 87- Drugs that bind to receptors without initiating functions are defined A) Agonist B) Antagonist C) partial agonist d) inverse agonist 88- Regarding idiosyncratic reactions , which of the following statements is FALSE : A) It is abnormal response in some individual B) It is due allergic reaction C) Its best example is succinylcholine apnea D) It is due genetic abnormalities 9 89- Which of the following statements about anticoagulant is TRUE : A) Warfarin has immediate onset B) Heparin is vitamin k antagonist C) Warfarin is anti- thrombin activator D) Warfarin can cross the placenta 90- Bactericidal is a drug which : A) Causes killing of bacteria B) Causes killing of cancer C) Inhibit bacterial growth D) Inhibit cancer growth 91- Which of the following is anti -estrogen used for induction of ovulation : A) Clomiphene B) Tamoxifen C) All of the above D) Non of the above 92- Which of the following drugs is intermediate acting insulin : A) Regular insulin B) Insulin lispro C) Isophane insulin D) Insulin aspart 93- All of the following are side effects of oral contraceptives EXCEPT : A) Anemia B) Thromboembolism C) Gall stone D) Hypertension 94- Which of the following statements regard oral contraceptives is FALSE : A) Minipills used in lactating mothers B) Minipills contains progestin only C) Hypotension is a common adverse effect D) It act by suppressing ovulation 95- Which of the following is an adverse effect of insulin : A) Anemia B) Gall stone C) weight loss D) Hypoglycemia 96- Which of the following drug is a third generation cephalosporsin : A) Cefazolin B) Ceftriaxone C) cefaclor D) Cefopime 97- Which of the following drugs is liver cytochrome enzymes inhibitor : A) Phenobarbital B) Cigarette smoking C) Cimetidine D) Oral contraceptives pills 10 98- Which of the following drugs is associated with bone and teeth deformity in children : A) Sulfonamide B) Chloramphenicol C) ciprofloxacin D) Tetracycline 99- Arthropathy in young patients is commonly occurs with ONE of the following drugs : A) Sulfonamide B) Chloramphenicol C) ciprofloxacin D) Tetracycline 100- Which one of the following drugs is folic acid antagonist : A) Sulfonamide B) Chloramphenicol C) ciprofloxacin D) Tetracycline 101- Therapeutic uses of epinephrine include the following conditions except : A) Bronchial asthma B) Hypertension C) Anaphylactic shock D) Sudden cardiac arrest 102- The use of epinephrine as anti-allergic drug in anaphylactic shock is due to : A) Physiological antagonist to histamine B) Vasodilation C) Skeletal muscle relaxation D) CNS stimulation 103- ONE of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of glaucoma : A) Ipratropium B) Propranolol C) salbutamol D) pilocarpine 104- ONE of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of myasthenia gravis : A) Pilocarpine B) Atropine C) Neostigmine D) Edrophonium 105- ONE of the atropine substitutes can be used in treatment of peptic ulcer : A) Pirenzipoine B) Benzotropine C) Ipratropium D) Homatropine 106- Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding to propranolol : A) It is selective β1 – blocker B) It is selective β2 – blocker C) It is non- selective β blocker 11 107- Concerning the autonomic nervous system receptors , which of the following receptor is in correct : A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor B) Nicotinic cholinergic receptors C) The alpha , beta adrenergic receptors D) Angiotensin receptors 108- ONE of the following drugs is a non-selective α antagonist : A) Amphetamine B) Dobutamine C) Phenylephrine D) Phentolamine 109- ONE of the following is an osmotic diuretics : A) Chlorothiazide B) Mannitol C) Furosemide D) Spironolactone 110- All of the following drug group are antihypertensive agents EXCEPT A) Antihistamine agent B) ACE Inhibitors C) Beta – adrenergic blocker D) Calcium channel blockers 111- One of the following is a high –ceiling ( Loop ) diuretics : A) Chlorothiazide B) Mannitol C) Furosemide D) Spironolactone 112- ONE of the following drugs is an antihypertensive direct vasodilator agent : A) Captopril B) Propranolol C) Verapamil D) Hydralazine 113- ONE of the following drugs can be used in treatment of angina pectoris : A) Theophylline B) Phenytoin c) Glyceryltrinitrate D) Quinidine 114- ONE of the following drugs is used to treat digitalis – induced ventricular arrhythmias : A) Phenytoin B) Procainamide C) Quinidine sulphate D) Nifedipine 115- Which ONE of the following anti-asthmatic drugs is a bronchodilator agent : A) Zileuton B) Cromolyn sodium c) Salbutamol D) corticosteroid 116- ONE of The following is a defensive factor in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer : A) Acid and pepsin B) prostaglandins C)helicobacter pyloric D) Smoking 12 117- ONE of the following is an aggressive factor in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer : A) Acid and pepsin B) Bicarbonates C)Mucous D) Blood flow 118- Treatment of peptic ulcer include the following drug groups EXCEPT : A) Gastric anti secretory agents B) Mucosal protective agents C) Calcium channel blockers D) Acid neutralizing drugs 119- Treatment of bronchial asthma include the following drugs group EXCEPT : A) Acid neutralizing drugs B) Anti-inflammatory drugs C) Bronchodilators D) Anti-allergic and mast cell stabilizer 120- All of the following conditions are contraindicated of systemic glucocorticoids EXCEPT : A) Osteoporosis B) Peptic ulcer C) Bronchial asthma D) Diabetes.M 121- Which of the following factors affect drug metabolism : A) Route of administration B) Plasma protein binding C) Presence of food in the stomach D) Enzyme inhibtion 122- Which of the following statements is false about oral route : A) Avoid hepatic first pass metabolism B) Not suitable in severe vomiting C) Not suitable in for drugs that destroy by gastric fluids D) Faulty administration can be treated by rapid gastric lavage 123- Liver cytochrome enzymes are induced by : A) Cimetidine B) rifampin C) Malnutrition D) Liver disease 13 124- Decrease response after repeated administration of drugs , particularly in case of agonists is considered : A) Tolerance B) Resistence C) pharmacodynamics interaction D)pharmacokinetic interaction 125- All the following are liquids dosage forms EXCEPT : A) Suppositories B) solution C) Emulsion D) Suspension 126- Which of the following reactions is phase II metabolism : A) Oxidation B) Reduction C) hydration D) conjugation 127- Drugs that bind to the receptors without initiating functions but block the function of endogenous agonists are defined : A) Agonists b) antagonist c) partial agonist d) inverse agonist 128- Which of the following statements about warfarin is TRUE : A) Warfarin has immediate onset B) Warfarin is vitamin K antagonist C) Warfarin has short duration (3-5 ) hrs D) Warfarin does not cross the placenta 129- Which of the following long acting insulin preparation : A) Insulin glargine B) Isophane insulin C) Regular insulin D) Insulin lispro 130- Which of the following is insulin sensitizer : A) Acarbose B ) Tolbutamide C) glyburide d) metformin 131- Which of the following is anti-estrogen used for induction of ovulation and in infertility in females : A) Clomiphene b) Progestin c) Ethinyloestradiol d) Tamoxifen 132- All of the following statements regarding mini pill are TRUE EXCEPT: A) It is used in lacting mother B) It contains progesterone only C) It is the most effective contraceptives pills D) It needs to be taken every single day 14 133- Which of the following is not contraindication of oral contraceptives: A) History of thromboembolic disorder B) History of anemia C) Women with severe hypertension D) Women with liver function impairment 134- All of the following statements are adverse effect of long term use of corticoids EXCEPT : A) Cushing syndrome B) Glaucoma C) Osteoporosis D) Hypotension 135- Which of the following is a second generation cephalosporin : A) Cefazolin B) ceftriaxone C) Cefaclor D) Cefepime 136- Concerning the autonomic nervous system receptors , which of the following receptors is INCORRECT : A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor B) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor C) The alpha , beta adrenergic receptor D) Histamine receptor 137- One of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of glaucoma : A) Atropine B) Carbacol c) [pilocarpine d) Salbutamol 138- Epinephrine is used as anti-allergic drug in anaphylactic shock because it acts as : A) Vasodilator agent B) CNS depressant C) Skeletal muscle relaxant D) Physiological antagonist to histamine 139- One of the following atropine substitute is used in treatment of parkinsonism : A) Pirenzepine B) Benzotropine C) Ipratropium D) Homatropine 15 140- Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding to propranolol A) It is selective beta 1 – blocker B) It is selective beta 2- blocker C) It is non-selective beta blocker D) It is used in treatment of peptic ulcer 141- One of the following is a selective alpha 1 agonist : A) Amphetamine b) Dobutamine C) Phenylephrine D) terbutaline 142- ONE of the following is an osmotic diuretic : A) Chlorothiazide b) Mannitol c) Furosemide D) Spironolactone 143- All of the following drug groups are antihypertensive agents EXCEPT A) Vasoconstrictor agent B) ACE inhibitor C) Direct vasodilator D) Calcium channel blocker 144- One of the following drugs is an antihypertensive direct vasodilator agent : A) Captopril b) Atenolol c) Nifedipine D) hydralazine 145- What is the drug can be used in the treatment of angina pectoris : A) Valsartan b) Phenytoin c) Glyceryltrinitrate d) Quinidine sulphate 146- One of the following drugs is used to treat digitalis – induced ventricular arrhythmias : A) Phenytoin B) procainamide C) Quinidine sulphate d) Nifedipine 147- Which of the following anti-asthmatic drugs is an anti-inflammatory agent : A) Zileuton b) Cromolyn sodium c) Salmeterol d) Theophylline 148- One of the following is a defensive factor in the pathogenesis of peptic ulcer : A) Acid and pepsin B) Prostaglandins C) H. pyloric 149- Systemic glucocorticoids are contraindicated in all of the following conditions EXCEPT : a) Osteoporosis b ) Peptic ulcer c) Bronchial asthma d) d. Mellitus 16 150- One of the following drugs is useful in the treatment of myasthenia gravis : A) Pilocarpine B) Atropine C) Neostigmine D) Scopolamine AMR. A. FOLi Ali M. Soltan 17  TRUE OR FALSE Questions 1- Sulfonamides are folic acid antagonist T 2- Intravenous injection of heparin is contraindicated because it can cause painful hematoma F 3- Corticosteroids are safe drugs for long-term use F 4- Atropine is Para sympatholytic drugs T 5- Furosemide is the diuretics of choice in hypertensive emergency T 6- Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist interferes with hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors T 7- When the drug is irritant , it is better to give it orally F 8- Both nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity are serious adverse effects of penicillin F 9- Potency measure drug’s efficacy F 10- Hydrochlorothiazide is not useful in the treatment of mild hypertension F 11- Idiosyncraticy occur in some individuals due to genetic deficiency of some enzymes T 12- Parasympathomimitics lead to bronchoconstriction T 13- Glycerin is a stimulant laxatives F 14- Beta adrenergic blocker ( Propranolol ) is safety used in patients with bronchial asthma F 15- Abdominal cramps and diarrhea are common adverse effect of adrenergic agonist F 16- Digoxin improves cardiac contractility through inhibition of sodium – potassium ATP ase enzyme F 17- Nitroglycerin is given by sublingual administration T 18- Spironolactone causes hypokalemia F 19- Captopril is used in treatment of hypertension T 20- Atropine is considering an antagonist drug to acetylcholine T 21- Pharm kinetics involve the effect of the body on drugs T 22- Absorption is the passage of drugs from blood to brain F 18 23- Plasma protein binding affect drug metabolism F 24- The more steep the dose response curve of a drug , the less the safety of the drugs T 25- The tendency of a drug to bind to a receptor is called affinity T 26- Potency measures drug efficacy F 27- Antagonist is a drug that bind to the receptors and produce partial effect F 28- Muscarinic cholinergic receptors are examples of ion channel linked receptors F 29- Hormone receptors are intracellular receptors T 30- Epinephrine is used as a vasodilator agent with local anesthetics F 31- Phenylephrine is a selective alpha 1 blocker and used in mild to moderate hypertension F 32- Atropine or its substitutes is contraindicated in glaucoma T 33- I.V injection of heparin is contraindicated because it can cause painful hematoma F 34- Warfarin is vitamin K antagonist interferes with hepatic synthesis of coagulation factors T 35- Protamine sulfate is an antidote of warfarin F 36- Heparin can cross placenta barrier leading to birth defect and abortion F 37- Alpha methyldopa is a central alpha 2 agonist used in hypertension with pregnancy T 38- Sodium nitroprusside ( slow I.V infusion ) is the drug of first choice in hypertensive emergency T 39- Digoxin is eliminated mainly by the liver metabolism F 40- Salbutamol and terbutaline stimulate B2 adrenergic receptors in the bronchi causing bronchdilitation T 41- Salmeterol is a short acting B2 adrenergic agonist used in bronchial asthma F 42- Omeprazole irreversibly inactivates Na \ K ATP ase enzyme in stomach parietal cells T 43- Cimetidine causes galactorrhea and infertility T 19 44- Acute morphine toxicity is diagnosed by coma , respiratory depression and mydriasis F 45- Aspirin in higher dose > 5 mg\ day decrease plasma uric acid ( uricosuric effect ) T 46- Ethosuxamide is effective in treatment of absence ( petite mal ) seizure T 47- Aminoglycosides exert their antibacterial activity mostly against gram positive bacteria F 48- Metronidazole is effective against anaerobic infection T 49- Vitamin B6 supplementation is mandatory during treatment with isoniazid 50- Isoniazid is effective as a monotherapy in the treatment of tuberculosis 51- Hepatotoxicity and orange discoloration of body fluid are the main side effect of rifampin 52- Miconazole is a systemic antifungal belonging to the azole group 53- Chloramphenicol is no longer the first drug of choice in the treatment of typhoid fever 54- Type 1 diabetes.M can be treated by sulphonylureas drugs F 55- Metformin is insulin sensitizer T 56- Decrease physical exercise is one of the non-pharmacological approaches used in management of diabetes.M F 57- Glucocorticoid have immunosuppressive effect T 58- Glucocorticoid is used in treatment of viral keratitis F 59- Levothyroxine is used in treatment of hypothyroidism T 60- The main mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptives pills is inhibition of ovulation F 61- Retard tablets is design to avoid destruction of drug by gastric acid fluid 62- Generic name is the name given to a drug by official agency as FDA or WHO 63- Glucocorticoids flare up inflammation F 64- Pharmacodynamics means the effect of the body on the drug F 20 65- Vials are parenteral dosage form intended for multiple uses T 66- Elimination convert fat soluble drug into water soluble metabolites T 67- Nephrotoxicity is a common adverse effect of aminoglycosides T 68- Cephalosporsin interfere with synthesis of the bacterial nucleic acid F 69- Probenecid stimulate the renal secretion of penicillin thus can decrease its blood level 70- Allergic reaction is a common adverse effect of cephalosporsin T 71- Acarbose is an alpha glycosidase inhibitors used in treatment of diabetes 72- Ciprofloxacin inhibit bacterial DNA gyrase thus interfere in DNA function 73- Heparin has in vitro anti-coagulant effect 74- Drug molecules bound to plasma protiens are pharmacological active 75- Adult dose = child dose X age of adult in years \ age of adult in years +150 76- Topical corticoid is used in treatment of herpes simplex of eye 77- Metformin is insulin secretagogues used for newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes 78- Warfarin is used parentally for treatment deep venous thrombosis 79- Development of a resistance is common in case of chemotherapy 80- Levothyroxine is used in treatment of hyperthyroidism 81- Epinephrine is used as vasoconstrictor agent with local anesthetic 82- Phenylephrine is a selective alpha 1- blockers and used in mild to moderate hypertension 83- Captopril is used in hypertension and produce persistent dry cough as a side effect 84- Digoxin has high therapeutic index and the patient should be watched for any signs of overdose 85- Propranolol (β – Blocker ) is used only to control atrial arrhythmia 86- Amylnitrit is used sublingual in the treatment of angina pectoris 87- Atropine or its substitutes is contraindicated in glaucoma 88- Digoxin and digitoxin are positive inotropic drugs 89- Bronchial asthma is an allergic , inflammatory respiratory disease 21 90- Salbutamol and terbutaline are used by inhalation for acute attacks of bronchial asthma 91- Ipratropium is a muscarinic blocker and administered orally for bronchial asthma 92- Or pharyngeal candidiasis is a common side effect from continued inhalation of cromolyn sodium 93- Aminophylline is used parentally in status asthmatics 94- Verapamil is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor used in hypertension 95- Omeprazole is a h2-histamine receptor antagonist used in treatment of peptic ulcer 96- Antacids as aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide diminish gastric acidity 97- Combination of aluminum hydroxide and magnesium hydroxide can normalize bowel function ( Diarrhea and constipation ) 98- Nonsterodial anti-inflammatory drugs are used in acute rheumatic fever and rheumatoid arthritis 99- Opioid antagonist as naloxone are used in treatment of acute opioid overdose 100- Ziluton is a potent selective inhibitor of leucotriens synsthesis 101- Trade name is the name the manufacture uses to market the drug 102- Plasma protein binding affect drug absorption 103- Steroid receptors are located on the cell membrane of the target tissue 104- Idiosyncratic reaction is abnormal response that occurs in some individuals due to genetic abnormalities 105- Body surface area is essential in calculating dose of toxic drugs as cytotoxic agents 106- Heat or message decreases absorption after injection due to decrease blood flow 107- Suspension should be shaken immediately just prior to administration 22 108- Failure of oral contraceptives pills in women who smoke is an example of pharmacodynamics interaction 109- Metabolism converts fat-soluble drugs into water soluble metabolites 110- Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity are common adverse effect of aminoglycosides 111- Penicillin is a cell wall inhibitor 112- Glucocorticoid decreased utilization of glucose and this causes hypoglycemia 113- Glucocorticoid has anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressive effect 114- Grey- baby syndrome in neonate is common adverse effect occurs with tetracycline 115- Propylthiouracil is used in treatment of hypothyroidism 116- Epinephrine is used as vasoconstrictor agent with local anesthetic 117- Phenylephrine is a selective alpha 1- blocker and used in mild to moderate hypertension 118- Captopril is used in hypertension and produce persistent dry cough as a side effect 119- Digoxin has high therapeutic index , the patient should be watched for any sign of overdose 120- Propranolol (β – blocker ) is used to control atrial as well as certain ventricular arrthymia 121- Amylnitrit is used sublingual in the treatment of angina pectoris 122- Atropine or its substitutes is contraindicated in glaucoma 123- Digoxin and digitoxin are positive inotropic drugs 124- Bronchial asthma is an allergic , inflammatory respiratory disease 125- Salbutamol is used by inhalation mainly for acute attacks of bronchial asthma AMR. A. FOLI Ali M. Soltan 23  Matching Question Colum A COLUM B 1- Pharmacokinetics a- Is an oral anticoagulant 2- Pharmacodynamics b- Is obtained from animal source 3- insulin c- drug which is folic acid antagonist 4- Atropine d- Is a parenteral anticoagulant 5- Heparin e- Is common side effect is arthropathy in young patients 6- Warfarin f- Drug which cause killing of bacteria 7- Quinolones g- Drug which inhibit bacterial growth 8- Sulfonamides h- Study the effect of drug on the body 9- Bacteriostatic i- Study the effect of body on the drug 10- Bactericidal j- is obtained from plant source The Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 i H B J D A E C G F 24  Colum A Colum B 1- Theophylline a- Are non-selective alpha blockers used only In hypertensive due to penochromocytoma 2- Aspirin b- Is a local anesthetic used mainly in the control of ventricular arrhythmias 3- Ranitidine c- Is an angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitor used in hypertension 4- Verapamil d- Is used in treatment of glaucoma 5- Procainamide e- Is h2 – blocker , inhibit gastric acid secretion and used in the treatment of peptic ulcer 6- Omeprazole f- Is an analgesics , antipyretics and anti-inflammatory agent 7- Captopril g- Is a potent inhibitor of leukotriens (LTs ) synthesis 8- Pilocarpine h- Has a narrow therapeutic range and used in the 25  treatment of bronchial asthma 9- Zileuton i- Is a proton pump inhibitor suppress the secretion of hydrogen ions into the gastric asthma 10- Phentolamine , j- Is a calcium channel blocker phenoxybenzamine used to control supraventricular tachycardia , atrial flutter and fibrillation The Answer 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 H F E J B i C D G A MCQ and T or F Questions ( Specific Question ) 1- Pharmacokinetics includes the effect of the body on the drug ( T ) 2- Absorption is the passage of drug from blood to brain ( F ) 3- Oral route is the safest way to give drugs ( T ) 4- When a drug is irritant , it is better to give it orally ( F ) 5- Hormone receptors are intracellular receptors ( T ) 6- I.v Route is the best way to give drugs in unconscious patient ( T ) 7- Pharmacodynamics involve the effect of drug on the body ( T ) 8- Agonist is a drug binds to some of the receptors and produce partial effect ( F ) 9- Potency measures drug efficacy ( F ) 10- The more steeps the dose response curve of a drug , the less the safety of the drug ( T ) 11- The tendency of the drug to bind to a receptor is called affinity ( T ) 12- Muscarinic receptors are examples of ion-channel linked receptors ( F ) 13- Acetylcholine is the transmitter of parasympathetic system ( T ) 26 14- Muscarinic effect of acetylcholine include tachycardia ( F ) 15- Parasympathomimetics lead to bronchoconstriction ( T ) 16- Atropine is a Para sympatholytic drug ( T ) 17- Atropine lead to dry mouth and dry skin ( T ) 18- B-adrenergic blockers propranolol is used in hypertension ( T ) 19- B-adrenergic blocker propranolol is safely used in patients with bronchial asthma ( F ) 20- Diarrhea and abdominal cramps are common adverse effects of adrenergic agonist ( F ) 21- Atropine is a safe cholinergic antagonist in patients with glaucoma ( F ) 22- Dry mouth and dry skin are common side effect of neostigmine ( F ) 23- Vit K acts as antagonist to warfarin ( T ) 24- Heparin is safe as an anticoagulant in pregnancy ( T ) 25- Thiazide diuretics cause hyperkalemia ( F ) 26- Spironolactone cause hypokalemia ( F ) 27- B-adrenergic blocker propranolol is used in hypertension ( T ) 28- Nitroglycerine is given by sublingual administration ( T ) 29- Nitroglycerine reduce cGMP concentration in vascular smooth muscle cell ( F ) 30- Hypocalcaemia is a side effect of furosemide ( T ) 31- Captopril controls hypertension through direct inhibitory effect on angiotensin II receptor ( F ) 32- Constipation and bradycardia are common side effect of verapamil , Diltiazem ( T ) 33- Digoxin improve cardiac contractility through stimulation of sodium – potassium ATP pase enzyme ( F ) 34- Digoxin – induced ventricular fibrillation is treated by Lidocaine ( T) 27 35- First pass metabolism with oral administration of nitriglycerine in patients with angina pectoris ( F ) 36- Verapamil is a good choice of drugs in patients with vasospatic angina ( T ) 37- The dose of digoxin should be reduced in patients with renal failure ( T ) 38- Cromolyn sodium is the drug of choice in treatment of acute attack of bronchial asthma ( F ) 39- Theophylline is a phosphodiestrease enzyme that acts as bronchodilator ( T ) 40- Corticosteroids are indicated in severe form of bronchial asthma ( T ) 41- Salbutamol is suitable for immediate bronchodilator effect in acute attack of bronchial asthma ( F ) 42- Lactulose is an example of irritant laxatives ( T ) 43- Metoclopramide is used in treatment of gastroesophygal reflux ( T ) 44- Omeprazole inhibit Na\ K \ ATPase enzyme in the gastric parietal cell reduce gastric secretion ( T ) 45- Antacids reduce gastric secretion by a nautralizing effect ( T ) 46- Diphenoxylate is indicated in patients with diarrhea ( T ) 47- Castor oil is a safe laxatives in pregnant women ( T ) 28 1- Agonist drug has which of the following pharmacological property : A) Binds to receptors and produce no effect B) Bind to receptor and produce stimulatory effect C) Binds to receptor and produce an inhibitory effect D) Produces its effect without binding to receptors 2- Bioavailability of a drug is defined as which of the following : A) Rate of elimination of the drug B) Fraction of the drug that reach to circulation C) A ratio between drug concentration in blood to dose given D) The time required to reach half drug concentration in blood 3- Which one of the following routes of administration achieves the fastest effect of the drug : A) Oral B) Intramuscular C) Intravenous D) Subcutaneous 4- First pass metabolism is largely expected with which of the following routes of drug administration : 29  A) Oral B) Sublingual C) Subcutaneous D) Intravenous 5- The ability of a drug receptor complex to produce a pharmacological response is called : A) Potency B) Idiosyncrasy C) Efficacy D) Allergy 6- All of the following are sumoathomimetics EXCEPT : A) Epinephrine B) Nor-epinephrine C) Atropine D) Dopamine 7- Ritodrinc is a selective B2 agonist used in which of the following : A) Uterine relaxation B) Anti-hypertensive C) Bronchial asthma D) Severe pain 8- Sympathomimetics are used In the following EXCEPT : A) Heart failure B) Cardiogenic shock C) Hypertension D) Cardiac arrest 9- Palpitation ( increase Heart rate ) is a side effect of which of the following : A) Acetylcholine B) Epinephrine C) Corticosteroid D) Ranitidine 30 10- Prazosin is a selective alpha 1 blocker used in the treatment of : A) Hypertension B) Angina pectoris C) Bronchial asthma D) Stress ulcer 11- Propranolol adrenergic B-Blocker is contraindicated in : A) Hypertension B) Angina C) Migraine D) Bronchial asthma 12- Atropine us considered an antagonist drug to which of the following A) Epinephrine B) Nor-epinephrine C) Acetylcholine D) Dopamine 13- Ipratropium used in bronchial asthma belongs to : A) Cholinergic agonist B) B2- agonist C) Cholinergic antagonist D) Membrane stabilizer 14- Epinephrine is life saving drug in which of the following : A) Heart failure B) Tachycardia C) Intestinal colic D) Anaphylactic shock 15- Calcium channel blocker verapamil is used in the following EXCEPT A) Angina pectoris B) Hypertension C) Supraventricular arrhythmia D) Edema 16- All the following are antianginal drug except : A) Organic nitrates B) B-adrenergic blocker 31  C) Calcium channel blocker D) Atropine 17- Digoxin is used In which of the following : A) Heart failure B) Hypertension C) Angina D) Anemia 18- Angiotensine converting enzyme inhibitor captopril is used in which of the following A) Hypertension B) Bronchial asthma C) Bleeding D) Thrombosis 19- Thiazide diuretics is used in one of the following : A) Bradycardia B) Edema C) D,M D) Glaucoma 20- Which of the following drugs is indicated in acute attack of angina pectoris : A) Propranolol B) Nitroglycerin orally C) Verapamil D) Nitroglycerin sublingual 21- In a patients with hypertension assiociated with heart failure , which of the following antihypertensive drugs is useful for treatment of both disease : A) Eosartan B) Aldomet C) Verapamil D) Propranolol 32 22- Hypokalemia acceleration the toxicity of which of the following drugs : A) Digoxin B) Hydralazine C) Captopril D) Prazosin 23- Foot edema may happen as an adverse effect with which of the following drugs : A) Spironolactone B) Salbutamol C) Nifedipine D) Dopamine 24- Pulmonary fibrosis is an adverse effect of which of the following : A) Propafenons B) Lidocaine C) Amiodarone D) Quinidine 25- Which of the following is a membrane stabilizer used in bronchial asthma : A) Salmeterol B) Cromolyn sodium C) Corticosteroid D) Ipratropium 26- Corticosteroid used in bronchial asthma is based on which of its following effects : A) Anti-inflammatory B) Bronchodilator C) Reduce bronchial secretion D) Anticough 33 27- Which of the following is long-acting bronchodilator : A) Aminophylline B) Salmeterol C) Salbutamol D) Epinephrine 28- Which of the following is the most important drug in status asthmatics : A) Salmeterol B) Epinephrine C) Corticosteroid D) Ipratropium 29- Triple therapy of peptic ulcer includes all of the following EXCEPT : A) Omeprazole B) Metroniadazole C) Clarithromycin D) Metoclopramide 30- Which of the following is h2-antagonist agent : A) Aluminium hydroxide B) Rantidine C) Bismuth D) Omeprazole 31- Which of the following is an irritant laxatives : A) Castor oil B) Senna C) Mineral oil D) Glycerin 32- Gynecomastia is a side effect of which of the following : A) Omeprazole B) Metoclopramide C) Cimetidine D) Ranitidine 34 35