EXSS155 - A&P Practice Exam #2 PDF

TOPIC 4A 1. Question: Refer to the diagram showing three types of joints (Fibrous, Cartilaginous, and Synovial) based on their structural classification. Which of the following statements is correct about Cartilaginous joints? Image: Diagram of the three types of joints labeled by structural class...

TOPIC 4A 1. Question: Refer to the diagram showing three types of joints (Fibrous, Cartilaginous, and Synovial) based on their structural classification. Which of the following statements is correct about Cartilaginous joints? Image: Diagram of the three types of joints labeled by structural classification. A) They are freely movable joints. B) They are held together by cartilage and have no joint cavity. C) They are found only in the skull. D) They have a synovial cavity. Answer: B) They are held together by cartilage and have no joint cavity. 2. Question: Look at the diagram of a synovial joint. Which part is responsible for reducing friction between articulating surfaces? Image: Labeled diagram of a synovial joint with joint cavity, articular cartilage, and synovial fluid. A) Joint cavity B) Articular capsule C) Articular cartilage D) Accessory ligaments Answer: C) Articular cartilage 3. Question: Observe the illustrations of different synovial joints: Hinge, Pivot, and Ball-and-Socket. Which joint type allows for rotation around a single axis? Image: Diagrams of a hinge joint, pivot joint, and ball-and-socket joint. A) Hinge joint B) Pivot joint C) Ball-and-socket joint D) Condyloid joint Answer: B) Pivot joint 4. Question: Refer to the image of the knee showing a torn meniscus. What type of injury is this an example of? Image: MRI image or illustration showing a torn meniscus. A) Sprain B) Strain C) Dislocation D) Cartilage damage Answer: D) Cartilage damage 5. Question: Look at the x-ray of a patient with osteoarthritis. Which of the following features is commonly associated with this condition? Image: X-ray of a knee with visible bone spurs and cartilage wear. A) Swelling in the joint due to inflammation B) Formation of bone spurs due to cartilage deterioration C) Softening of the joint capsule D) Increase in synovial fluid production Answer: B) Formation of bone spurs due to cartilage deterioration 6. Question: Observe the diagram of a ball-and-socket joint in the shoulder. Which of the following movements is primarily allowed by this type of joint? Image: Diagram of a shoulder joint highlighting the ball-and-socket structure. A) Flexion and extension only B) Rotation and circumduction C) Only gliding movements D) Hinge-like movements Answer: B) Rotation and circumduction 7. Question: Refer to the anatomical illustration showing bursae around the knee joint. What is the primary function of a bursa? Image: Labeled illustration of the knee joint with bursae. A) To connect bones together B) To allow blood supply to cartilage C) To reduce friction between moving structures D) To support ligaments in the joint Answer: C) To reduce friction between moving structures 8. Question: Based on the labeled diagram of the articular capsule in a synovial joint, which of the following supplies nutrients to the articular cartilage? Image: Close-up view of the articular capsule with synovial fluid indicated. A) Ligaments B) Blood vessels in the joint capsule C) Synovial fluid D) Tendons around the joint Answer: C) Synovial fluid 9. Question: View the illustration showing different joint classifications by function. Which functional classification best describes joints that are slightly movable? Image: Labeled illustration showing synarthrosis, amphiarthrosis, and diarthrosis joints. A) Synarthrosis B) Amphiarthrosis C) Diarthrosis D) Gomphosis Answer: B) Amphiarthrosis 10. Question: Observe the labeled MRI scan of a shoulder dislocation. What type of injury does a dislocation represent? Image: MRI scan showing a shoulder dislocation.  A) A ligament injury involving twisting B) A bone injury that involves cartilage tearing C) Bones forced out of normal position in the joint D) A tear in the tendon sheath Answer: C) Bones forced out of normal position in the joint TOPIC 4B 1. Which type of joint is the temporomandibular joint (TMJ)? A) Hinge/Planar B) Ball and socket C) Saddle D) Condyloid Answer: A) Hinge/Planar 2. What two structures define the temporomandibular joint? A) Condylar process of the mandible & Mandibular fossa of the temporal bone B) Head of the humerus & Glenoid cavity of the scapula C) Trochlea of the humerus & Trochlear notch of the ulna D) Carpals of the wrist & Radius Answer: A) Condylar process of the mandible & Mandibular fossa of the temporal bone 3. What movements occur at the TMJ? A) Flexion/Extension B) Protraction/Retraction and Depression/Elevation C) Circumduction D) Abduction/Adduction Answer: B) Protraction/Retraction and Depression/Elevation 4. Which ligament is associated with the TMJ? A) Coracohumeral ligament B) Radial collateral ligament  C) Lateral ligament D) Ulnar collateral ligament Answer: C) Lateral ligament 5. What type of joint is the shoulder (glenohumeral) joint? A) Hinge B) Ball and socket C) Planar D) Condyloid Answer: B) Ball and socket 6. Which of the following movements is NOT possible at the shoulder joint? A) Flexion/Extension B) Abduction/Adduction C) Lateral rotation D) Gliding Answer: D) Gliding 7. Which ligament stabilizes the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint? A) Acromioclavicular ligament B) Radial annular ligament C) Lateral ligament D) Sphenomandibular ligament Answer: A) Acromioclavicular ligament 8. Which joint includes the acromioclavicular and sternoclavicular joints? A) Shoulder B) Elbow C) Wrist D) TMJ Answer: A) Shoulder 9. What type of joint is the elbow (humeroulnar) joint? A) Ball and socket B) Planar C) Hinge D) Condyloid Answer: C) Hinge 10. Which ligament holds the radius in place at the elbow joint? A) Radial collateral ligament B) Radial annular ligament C) Ulnar collateral ligament D) Coracoclavicular ligament Answer: B) Radial annular ligament 11. The hand joint that allows for "knuckle" movements is called the: A) Carpometacarpal (CMC) joint B) Interphalangeal (IP) joint C) Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint D) Radioulnar joint Answer: C) Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint 12. What type of movement is allowed at the interphalangeal (IP) joints of the fingers? A) Gliding B) Circumduction C) Flexion/Extension D) Abduction/Adduction Answer: C) Flexion/Extension 13. Which ligament forms the roof of the carpal tunnel? A) Extensor retinaculum B) Radial collateral ligament  C) Flexor retinaculum D) Acromioclavicular ligament Answer: C) Flexor retinaculum 14. The carpal tunnel is located on which surface of the wrist? A) Posterior B) Lateral C) Anterior D) Inferior Answer: C) Anterior 15. Which of the following is NOT contained within the carpal tunnel? A) Median nerve B) Finger flexors C) Flexor pollicis longus D) Radial collateral ligament Answer: D) Radial collateral ligament 16. The acromioclavicular ligament is found in which joint? A) Wrist B) Elbow C) Shoulder D) Hand Answer: C) Shoulder 17. Which joint structure allows for gliding movements in the hand? A) Interphalangeal (IP) joints B) Metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joints C) Carpometacarpal (CMC) joints D) Glenohumeral joint Answer: C) Carpometacarpal (CMC) joints 18. The head of the humerus articulates with which part of the scapula in the shoulder joint? A) Acromion B) Glenoid cavity C) Coracoid process D) Trochlea Answer: B) Glenoid cavity 19. Which ligament in the elbow joint is responsible for maintaining the joint’s stability? A) Lateral ligament B) Sphenomandibular ligament C) Ulnar collateral ligament D) Flexor retinaculum Answer: C) Ulnar collateral ligament 20. Which joint is unique for being the only movable joint in the skull? A) Glenohumeral joint B) Sternoclavicular joint C) Temporomandibular joint D) Acromioclavicular joint Answer: C) Temporomandibular joint TOPIC 5A How many bones are in the lower extremity, including both sides? A) 31 B) 44 C) 62 D) 48 Answer: C) 62 Which of the following bones is also known as the "coxal bone"? A) Femur B) Hip bone C) Patella  D) Fibula Answer: B) Hip bone How many tarsal bones are there in each foot? A) 5 B) 7 C) 10 D) 14 Answer: B) 7 The femur has which of the following landmarks? A) Medial and lateral condyles B) Head, neck, and shaft C) Greater and lesser trochanters D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above What is the name of the bone found between the femur and the tarsal bones? A) Tibia B) Fibula C) Patella D) Both A and B Answer: D) Both A and B The ischial tuberosity is a feature of which bone? A) Ilium B) Ischium C) Pubis D) Femur Answer: B) Ischium Which part of the hip bone features the acetabulum? A) Ilium B) Ischium C) Pubis D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above What is the function of the acetabulum? A) Connects to the tibia  B) Articulates with the head of the femur C) Provides attachment for muscles D) Supports the knee joint Answer: B) Articulates with the head of the femur Which bony landmark is located on the ilium? A) Medial malleolus B) Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) C) Linea aspera D) Tibial tuberosity Answer: B) Anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) Which bone forms the heel of the foot? A) Navicular B) Talus C) Calcaneus D) Cuboid Answer: C) Calcaneus Which structure is found on the lateral side of the ankle? A) Medial malleolus B) Lateral malleolus C) Popliteal surface D) Linea aspera Answer: B) Lateral malleolus Which of the following bones is the longest and strongest bone in the body? A) Tibia B) Fibula C) Femur D) Metatarsal Answer: C) Femur Where is the linea aspera located? A) Ilium B) Tibia C) Femur D) Pubis Answer: C) Femur Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula?  A) Calcaneus B) Talus C) Navicular D) Cuboid Answer: B) Talus How many phalanges are there in each foot? A) 10 B) 12 C) 14 D) 16 Answer: C) 14 What is the landmark at the proximal end of the tibia? A) Tibial tuberosity B) Medial malleolus C) Lateral malleolus D) Linea aspera Answer: A) Tibial tuberosity Which landmark is found on the posterior side of the femur? A) Tibial tuberosity B) Popliteal surface C) Greater trochanter D) Head Answer: B) Popliteal surface Which structure is part of the medial longitudinal arch of the foot? A) 5th metatarsal B) Calcaneus C) Lateral cuneiform D) Cuboid Answer: B) Calcaneus Which bony landmark is found on the fibula? A) Medial malleolus B) Head C) Linea aspera D) Tibial tuberosity Answer: B) Head The proximal part of each metatarsal bone is called the: A) Base B) Shaft C) Head D) Condyle Answer: A) Base What is the anatomical term for the big toe? A) Hallux B) Tarsus C) Pollex D) Digitorum Answer: A) Hallux Which bone has both medial and lateral condyles? A) Femur B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Both A and B Answer: D) Both A and B The anterior border of the tibia is also known as the: A) Medial malleolus B) Tibial crest C) Lateral epicondyle D) Soleal line Answer: B) Tibial crest Which structure is found on the lateral aspect of the hip bone? A) Greater sciatic notch B) Pubic symphysis C) Lesser sciatic notch D) Obturator foramen Answer: A) Greater sciatic notch Which part of the femur is commonly fractured in elderly people? A) Head B) Shaft C) Neck  D) Linea aspera Answer: C) Neck Which bone has a prominent anterior crest? A) Femur B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Calcaneus Answer: B) Tibia What is the primary function of the patella? A) Protect the ankle joint B) Act as a knee cap C) Connect to the hip bone D) Stabilize the fibula Answer: B) Act as a knee cap The head of which bone articulates with the acetabulum? A) Femur B) Tibia C) Fibula D) Calcaneus Answer: A) Femur What bone is located just inferior to the talus? A) Calcaneus B) Navicular C) Cuboid D) Cuneiform Answer: A) Calcaneus Which of the following is NOT part of the tarsal bones? A) Cuboid B) Navicular C) Talus D) Patella Answer: D) Patella TOPIC 5B  Where does the Psoas major muscle originate? ○ A) Lesser trochanter of the femur ○ B) Transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae ○ C) Iliac fossa ○ D) Greater trochanter of the femur Answer: B) Transverse processes of lumbar vertebrae The Psoas major muscle is primarily involved in which action? ○ A) Extending the thigh ○ B) Flexing the thigh and trunk ○ C) Medially rotating the thigh ○ D) Abducting the thigh Answer: B) Flexing the thigh and trunk Which nerve innervates the Psoas major muscle? ○ A) Superior gluteal nerve ○ B) Femoral nerve ○ C) Inferior gluteal nerve ○ D) L2 and L3 branches of the lumbar plexus Answer: D) L2 and L3 branches of the lumbar plexus The Iliacus muscle inserts into the: ○ A) Greater trochanter ○ B) Intertrochanteric crest ○ C) Lesser trochanter with the tendon of Psoas major ○ D) Upper border of the iliac crest Answer: C) Lesser trochanter with the tendon of Psoas major Which muscle originates from the upper two-thirds of the iliac fossa? ○ A) Psoas major ○ B) Iliacus ○ C) Gluteus maximus ○ D) Tensor fascia latae Answer: B) Iliacus The action of the Iliacus muscle is to: ○ A) Flex the thigh ○ B) Abduct and medially rotate the thigh ○ C) Extend the thigh ○ D) Laterally rotate the thigh Answer: A) Flex the thigh Which nerve innervates the Iliacus muscle? ○ A) Superior gluteal nerve ○ B) Inferior gluteal nerve ○ C) Femoral nerve ○ D) Obturator nerve Answer: C) Femoral nerve The Gluteus maximus muscle inserts into which two structures? ○ A) Iliac crest and sacrum  ○ B) Iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity ○ C) Lesser trochanter and iliac fossa ○ D) Greater trochanter and iliotibial tract Answer: B) Iliotibial tract and gluteal tuberosity What is the primary action of the Gluteus maximus muscle? ○ A) Flex the thigh ○ B) Extend, abduct, and laterally rotate the thigh ○ C) Medially rotate the thigh ○ D) Adduct the thigh Answer: B) Extend, abduct, and laterally rotate the thigh The Gluteus medius muscle inserts into the: ○ A) Lesser trochanter ○ B) Gluteal tuberosity ○ C) Lateral surface of the greater trochanter ○ D) Intertrochanteric crest Answer: C) Lateral surface of the greater trochanter Which nerve innervates the Gluteus medius muscle? ○ A) Inferior gluteal nerve ○ B) Femoral nerve ○ C) Obturator nerve ○ D) Superior gluteal nerve Answer: D) Superior gluteal nerve What action does the Gluteus minimus muscle perform? ○ A) Laterally rotates the thigh ○ B) Flexes the thigh ○ C) Abducts and medially rotates the thigh ○ D) Extends the thigh Answer: C) Abducts and medially rotates the thigh The Tensor fascia latae muscle originates from the: ○ A) Ischial tuberosity ○ B) Outer lip of the iliac crest between ASIS and iliac tubercle ○ C) Upper border of the greater trochanter ○ D) Lesser trochanter Answer: B) Outer lip of the iliac crest between ASIS and iliac tubercle Which muscle group does the Piriformis belong to? ○ A) Iliac region muscles ○ B) Gluteal region muscles ○ C) Adductor muscles ○ D) Flexor muscles Answer: B) Gluteal region muscles The Piriformis muscle performs which actions? ○ A) Laterally rotates and abducts the thigh ○ B) Flexes the thigh ○ C) Medially rotates the thigh  ○ D) Extends the thigh Answer: A) Laterally rotates and abducts the thigh Which of the following muscles is innervated by the nerve to the obturator internus? ○ A) Gluteus medius ○ B) Piriformis ○ C) Obturator externus ○ D) Obturator internus Answer: D) Obturator internus What is the primary action of the Gemellus inferior muscle? ○ A) Abducts the thigh ○ B) Flexes the thigh ○ C) Laterally rotates the thigh ○ D) Medially rotates the thigh Answer: C) Laterally rotates the thigh The Quadratus femoris muscle inserts into which structure? ○ A) Intertrochanteric crest ○ B) Greater trochanter ○ C) Iliac crest ○ D) Lesser trochanter Answer: A) Intertrochanteric crest Which muscle originates on the pelvic surface of the obturator membrane and surrounding bones? ○ A) Obturator internus ○ B) Obturator externus ○ C) Gemellus superior ○ D) Gemellus inferior Answer: A) Obturator internus Which muscle is innervated by the femoral nerve and acts to flex the thigh? ○ A) Psoas major ○ B) Tensor fascia latae ○ C) Iliacus ○ D) Gluteus maximus Answer: C) Iliacus TOPIC 5B 1. Which of the following muscles is known as the longest muscle in the body? ○ A) Rectus femoris ○ B) Vastus lateralis ○ C) Sartorius ○ D) Gracilis Answer: C) Sartorius 2. Where does the Sartorius muscle originate?  ○ A) AIIS ○ B) ASIS ○ C) Pubic ramus ○ D) Intertrochanteric line Answer: B) ASIS 3. Which nerve innervates the Sartorius muscle? ○ A) Obturator nerve ○ B) Femoral nerve ○ C) Tibial nerve ○ D) Common peroneal nerve Answer: B) Femoral nerve 4. What is the primary action of the Rectus femoris muscle? ○ A) Flexes thigh and extends leg ○ B) Adducts thigh ○ C) Flexes knee ○ D) Medially rotates leg Answer: A) Flexes thigh and extends leg 5. The Rectus femoris muscle originates from the: ○ A) Intertrochanteric line ○ B) AIIS ○ C) ASIS ○ D) Ischial tuberosity Answer: B) AIIS 6. Which muscle inserts at the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon? ○ A) Gracilis ○ B) Vastus medialis ○ C) Sartorius ○ D) Pectineus Answer: B) Vastus medialis 7. What action is shared by the Vastus lateralis, Vastus medialis, and Vastus intermedius muscles? ○ A) Flexes thigh ○ B) Extends leg ○ C) Adducts thigh ○ D) Rotates leg externally Answer: B) Extends leg 8. Where does the Vastus intermedius muscle originate? ○ A) Upper medial shaft of tibia ○ B) ASIS ○ C) Intertrochanteric line ○ D) Anterior and lateral 2/3 of femur Answer: D) Anterior and lateral 2/3 of femur 9. Which muscle of the medial thigh is innervated by the femoral nerve? ○ A) Gracilis  ○ B) Pectineus ○ C) Adductor longus ○ D) Adductor magnus Answer: B) Pectineus 10. The Gracilis muscle inserts on the: ○ A) Linea aspera ○ B) Upper medial shaft of tibia ○ C) Lesser trochanter ○ D) Tibial tuberosity Answer: B) Upper medial shaft of tibia 11. What is the primary action of the Gracilis muscle? ○ A) Adducts thigh ○ B) Extends leg ○ C) Flexes thigh ○ D) Rotates thigh externally Answer: A) Adducts thigh 12. Which nerve innervates the Adductor longus muscle? ○ A) Femoral nerve ○ B) Obturator nerve ○ C) Tibial nerve ○ D) Common peroneal nerve Answer: B) Obturator nerve 13. Which muscle originates from the anterior pubis and inserts into the linea aspera? ○ A) Adductor magnus ○ B) Gracilis ○ C) Adductor brevis ○ D) Adductor longus Answer: D) Adductor longus 14. The Adductor magnus muscle performs which action? ○ A) Flexes and abducts thigh ○ B) Adducts and extends thigh ○ C) Flexes and rotates thigh externally ○ D) Flexes knee Answer: B) Adducts and extends thigh 15. Which of the following is a posterior thigh muscle? ○ A) Rectus femoris ○ B) Gracilis ○ C) Semitendinosus ○ D) Sartorius Answer: C) Semitendinosus 16. The Biceps femoris muscle inserts on the: ○ A) Tibial tuberosity ○ B) Linea aspera ○ C) Head of fibula  ○ D) Upper medial shaft of tibia Answer: C) Head of fibula 17. Which muscle originates from the ischial tuberosity and performs knee flexion and thigh extension? ○ A) Vastus intermedius ○ B) Adductor magnus ○ C) Semimembranosus ○ D) Gracilis Answer: C) Semimembranosus 18. The innervation of the long head of the Biceps femoris muscle is provided by the: ○ A) Common peroneal nerve ○ B) Tibial nerve ○ C) Femoral nerve ○ D) Obturator nerve Answer: B) Tibial nerve 19. Which muscle’s origin is the inferior ramus of the pubis and insertion is the linea aspera and adductor tubercle? ○ A) Adductor magnus ○ B) Adductor brevis ○ C) Adductor longus ○ D) Pectineus Answer: A) Adductor magnus 20. What action is performed by the Semimembranosus muscle? ○ A) Extends leg ○ B) Flexes knee and extends thigh ○ C) Adducts thigh ○ D) Flexes thigh and extends leg Answer: B) Flexes knee and extends thigh TOPIC 5C Which of the following muscles is known as the longest muscle in the body? A) Rectus femoris B) Vastus lateralis C) Sartorius D) Gracilis Answer: C) Sartorius Where does the Sartorius muscle originate? A) AIIS B) ASIS C) Pubic ramus  D) Intertrochanteric line Answer: B) ASIS Which nerve innervates the Sartorius muscle? A) Obturator nerve B) Femoral nerve C) Tibial nerve D) Common peroneal nerve Answer: B) Femoral nerve What is the primary action of the Rectus femoris muscle? A) Flexes thigh and extends leg B) Adducts thigh C) Flexes knee D) Medially rotates leg Answer: A) Flexes thigh and extends leg The Rectus femoris muscle originates from the: A) Intertrochanteric line B) AIIS C) ASIS D) Ischial tuberosity Answer: B) AIIS Which muscle inserts at the tibial tuberosity via the patellar tendon? A) Gracilis B) Vastus medialis C) Sartorius D) Pectineus Answer: B) Vastus medialis What action is shared by the Vastus lateralis, Vastus medialis, and Vastus intermedius muscles? A) Flexes thigh B) Extends leg C) Adducts thigh D) Rotates leg externally Answer: B) Extends leg Where does the Vastus intermedius muscle originate?  A) Upper medial shaft of tibia B) ASIS C) Intertrochanteric line D) Anterior and lateral 2/3 of femur Answer: D) Anterior and lateral 2/3 of femur Which muscle of the medial thigh is innervated by the femoral nerve? A) Gracilis B) Pectineus C) Adductor longus D) Adductor magnus Answer: B) Pectineus The Gracilis muscle inserts on the: A) Linea aspera B) Upper medial shaft of tibia C) Lesser trochanter D) Tibial tuberosity Answer: B) Upper medial shaft of tibia What is the primary action of the Gracilis muscle? A) Adducts thigh B) Extends leg C) Flexes thigh D) Rotates thigh externally Answer: A) Adducts thigh Which nerve innervates the Adductor longus muscle? A) Femoral nerve B) Obturator nerve C) Tibial nerve D) Common peroneal nerve Answer: B) Obturator nerve Which muscle originates from the anterior pubis and inserts into the linea aspera? A) Adductor magnus B) Gracilis C) Adductor brevis D) Adductor longus Answer: D) Adductor longus The Adductor magnus muscle performs which action? A) Flexes and abducts thigh B) Adducts and extends thigh C) Flexes and rotates thigh externally D) Flexes knee Answer: B) Adducts and extends thigh Which of the following is a posterior thigh muscle? A) Rectus femoris B) Gracilis C) Semitendinosus D) Sartorius Answer: C) Semitendinosus The Biceps femoris muscle inserts on the: A) Tibial tuberosity B) Linea aspera C) Head of fibula D) Upper medial shaft of tibia Answer: C) Head of fibula Which muscle originates from the ischial tuberosity and performs knee flexion and thigh extension? A) Vastus intermedius B) Adductor magnus C) Semimembranosus D) Gracilis Answer: C) Semimembranosus The innervation of the long head of the Biceps femoris muscle is provided by the: A) Common peroneal nerve B) Tibial nerve C) Femoral nerve D) Obturator nerve Answer: B) Tibial nerve Which muscle’s origin is the inferior ramus of the pubis and insertion is the linea aspera and adductor tubercle? A) Adductor magnus B) Adductor brevis  C) Adductor longus D) Pectineus Answer: A) Adductor magnus What action is performed by the Semimembranosus muscle? A) Extends leg B) Flexes knee and extends thigh C) Adducts thigh D) Flexes thigh and extends leg Answer: B) Flexes knee and extends thigh TOPIC 5D Which compartment of the lower leg contains the tibialis anterior muscle? A) Lateral compartment B) Anterior compartment C) Superficial posterior compartment D) Deep posterior compartment Answer: B) Anterior compartment What action does the tibialis anterior muscle primarily perform? A) Plantarflexion of the foot B) Eversion of the foot C) Dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot D) Flexion of the great toe Answer: C) Dorsiflexion and inversion of the foot Which muscle extends and hyperextends the great toe? A) Extensor digitorum longus B) Tibialis posterior C) Flexor hallucis longus D) Extensor hallucis longus Answer: D) Extensor hallucis longus The extensor digitorum longus is primarily involved in which action? A) Flexion of the toes B) Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot C) Plantarflexion of the foot D) Adduction of the toes Answer: B) Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot What nerve innervates the muscles in the anterior compartment of the lower leg? A) Deep peroneal nerve B) Superficial peroneal nerve C) Tibial nerve D) Femoral nerve Answer: A) Deep peroneal nerve The gastrocnemius muscle performs which action? A) Dorsiflexion of the foot B) Plantarflexion of the foot and flexion of the knee  C) Extension of the toes D) Inversion of the foot Answer: B) Plantarflexion of the foot and flexion of the knee Which muscle inserts on the posterior surface of the calcaneus via the Achilles tendon? A) Tibialis posterior B) Soleus C) Flexor hallucis longus D) Popliteus Answer: B) Soleus Which muscle originates from the lateral supracondylar ridge of the femur? A) Gastrocnemius B) Plantaris C) Soleus D) Peroneus brevis Answer: B) Plantaris The popliteus muscle is primarily involved in which movement? A) Flexion and medial rotation of the leg B) Dorsiflexion and eversion of the foot C) Extension of the great toe D) Flexion and lateral rotation of the leg Answer: A) Flexion and medial rotation of the leg Which nerve innervates the muscles in the deep posterior compartment of the leg? A) Deep peroneal nerve B) Superficial peroneal nerve C) Tibial nerve D) Femoral nerve Answer: C) Tibial nerve The flexor hallucis longus is primarily responsible for flexing which part of the body? A) Second to fifth toes B) Great toe C) Ankle joint D) Knee joint Answer: B) Great toe Where does the flexor digitorum longus insert?  A) Base of the first distal phalanx B) Base of the distal phalanges of toes 2–5 C) Calcaneus D) Head of the first metatarsal Answer: B) Base of the distal phalanges of toes 2–5 Which muscle’s primary action includes plantarflexion and eversion of the foot? A) Peroneus longus B) Soleus C) Tibialis posterior D) Extensor digitorum longus Answer: A) Peroneus longus The peroneus brevis muscle inserts on which bone? A) Calcaneus B) Lateral side of the base of the 5th metatarsal C) First proximal phalanx D) Medial cuneiform Answer: B) Lateral side of the base of the 5th metatarsal The deep posterior compartment contains all of the following muscles except: A) Tibialis posterior B) Popliteus C) Soleus D) Flexor digitorum longus Answer: C) Soleus Which muscle stabilizes the great toe? A) Extensor hallucis brevis B) Abductor hallucis C) Adductor hallucis D) Flexor digiti minimi brevis Answer: B) Abductor hallucis The flexor digitorum brevis is primarily responsible for flexion of which toes? A) Great toe B) Second to fifth toes C) All toes D) Fourth and fifth toes only Answer: B) Second to fifth toes Which muscle abducts the fifth toe? A) Abductor hallucis B) Flexor hallucis brevis C) Abductor digiti minimi D) Flexor digiti minimi brevis Answer: C) Abductor digiti minimi Which muscle flexes the proximal phalanx of the great toe? A) Flexor digitorum longus B) Extensor digitorum longus C) Flexor hallucis brevis D) Abductor digiti minimi Answer: C) Flexor hallucis brevis The plantar interossei are primarily responsible for which action? A) Abducting the toes B) Adducting the toes C) Extending the toes D) Flexing the toes Answer: B) Adducting the toes What innervates the flexor digitorum brevis muscle? A) Deep peroneal nerve B) Lateral plantar nerve C) Medial plantar nerve D) Tibial nerve Answer: C) Medial plantar nerve The dorsal interossei are responsible for which action? A) Flexion of the toes B) Adduction of the toes C) Abduction of the toes D) Extension of the great toe Answer: C) Abduction of the toes Which muscle inserts on the medial side of the first proximal phalanx? A) Abductor hallucis B) Flexor digiti minimi brevis C) Adductor hallucis D) Dorsal interossei  Answer: A) Abductor hallucis Which nerve innervates the peroneus longus muscle? A) Deep peroneal nerve B) Superficial peroneal nerve C) Tibial nerve D) Medial plantar nerve Answer: B) Superficial peroneal nerve The lumbricales assist in flexing which joints? A) Ankle joints B) Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joints C) Interphalangeal joints D) Calcaneal joints Answer: B) Metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joints Which muscle originates on the lateral condyle of the femur? A) Soleus B) Popliteus C) Plantaris D) Gastrocnemius Answer: D) Gastrocnemius The tibialis posterior assists in which actions? A) Eversion and dorsiflexion of the foot B) Inversion and plantarflexion of the foot C) Extension and abduction of the toes D) Flexion of the knee Answer: B) Inversion and plantarflexion of the foot The medial plantar nerve innervates all of the following muscles except: A) Abductor hallucis B) Flexor digitorum brevis C) Flexor hallucis brevis D) Dorsal interossei Answer: D) Dorsal interossei What is the primary action of the extensor digitorum brevis? A) Extension of the MTP joints of toes 2–4 B) Flexion of the MTP joints of toes 2–4  C) Adduction of the MTP joints D) Plantarflexion of the foot Answer: A) Extension of the MTP joints of toes 2–4 Which nerve innervates the abductor digiti minimi muscle? A) Medial plantar nerve B) Lateral plantar nerve C) Deep peroneal nerve D) Superficial peroneal nerve Answer: B) Lateral plantar nerve TOPIC 5E What type of joint is the hip joint? A) Ball-and-socket B) Hinge C) Pivot D) Saddle Answer: A) Ball-and-socket Which ligament primarily prevents hyperextension of the hip joint? A) Ischiofemoral ligament B) Iliofemoral ligament C) Sacrospinous ligament D) Pubofemoral ligament Answer: B) Iliofemoral ligament The sacroiliac (SI) joint is classified as what type of joint? A) Synovial hinge joint B) Ball-and-socket joint C) Plane synovial joint D) Condyloid joint Answer: C) Plane synovial joint Which ligament connects the ischium to the femur in the hip joint? A) Iliofemoral ligament B) Sacrospinous ligament C) Ischiofemoral ligament D) Sacrotuberous ligament Answer: C) Ischiofemoral ligament The knee joint consists of which two primary articulations? A) Tibiofibular and patellofemoral B) Tibiofemoral and patellofemoral C) Patellofemoral and sacroiliac D) Coxal and tibiofemoral Answer: B) Tibiofemoral and patellofemoral What is the main function of the anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)? A) Prevents anterior displacement of the femur B) Prevents posterior displacement of the tibia C) Prevents anterior displacement of the tibia D) Prevents lateral displacement of the patella Answer: C) Prevents anterior displacement of the tibia Which ligament stabilizes the lateral side of the knee? A) Anterior cruciate ligament B) Medial collateral ligament C) Lateral collateral ligament D) Patellar ligament Answer: C) Lateral collateral ligament The deltoid ligament is located in which joint? A) Knee B) Ankle C) Hip D) Sacroiliac Answer: B) Ankle Which ligament connects the femur to the tibia at the knee joint? A) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) B) Patellar ligament C) Iliofemoral ligament D) Sacrotuberous ligament Answer: A) Anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) Which part of the ankle joint is stabilized by the calcaneofibular ligament? A) Medial side B) Lateral side C) Posterior side D) Anterior side  Answer: B) Lateral side The hip joint includes all the following ligaments EXCEPT: A) Iliofemoral ligament B) Pubofemoral ligament C) Patellar ligament D) Ischiofemoral ligament Answer: C) Patellar ligament What is the function of the posterior cruciate ligament (PCL)? A) Prevents anterior displacement of the tibia B) Prevents posterior displacement of the tibia C) Supports medial rotation of the knee D) Prevents lateral displacement of the femur Answer: B) Prevents posterior displacement of the tibia The superior extensor retinaculum is found in which joint? A) Knee B) Hip C) Ankle D) Sacroiliac Answer: C) Ankle Which ligament is part of the sacroiliac (SI) joint complex? A) Iliofemoral ligament B) Posterior sacroiliac ligament C) Medial collateral ligament D) Anterior cruciate ligament Answer: B) Posterior sacroiliac ligament Which ligament is NOT found in the knee joint? A) Patellar ligament B) Medial collateral ligament C) Iliofemoral ligament D) Posterior cruciate ligament Answer: C) Iliofemoral ligament The anterior talofibular (ATF) ligament helps prevent excessive movement of which bone? A) Tibia  B) Fibula C) Talus D) Femur Answer: C) Talus Which knee ligament is most commonly injured in sports? A) Posterior cruciate ligament B) Lateral collateral ligament C) Anterior cruciate ligament D) Patellar ligament Answer: C) Anterior cruciate ligament The pubic symphysis is classified as what type of joint? A) Synovial hinge joint B) Cartilaginous joint C) Ball-and-socket joint D) Pivot joint Answer: B) Cartilaginous joint Which ankle ligament primarily prevents inversion of the foot? A) Deltoid ligament B) Anterior talofibular ligament C) Calcaneofibular ligament D) Tibionavicular ligament Answer: C) Calcaneofibular ligament The sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments are primarily responsible for stabilizing which area? A) Knee joint B) Hip joint C) Sacroiliac joint D) Ankle joint Answer: C) Sacroiliac joint TOPIC 6A What is the total number of bones in the human skeleton? A) 206 B) 210  C) 198 D) 200 Answer: A) 206 Which of the following bones is NOT part of the axial skeleton? A) Skull B) Sternum C) Humerus D) Vertebrae Answer: C) Humerus How many cranial bones are there in the skull? A) 10 B) 14 C) 8 D) 12 Answer: C) 8 Which of the following is the only movable bone of the skull? A) Maxilla B) Mandible C) Zygomatic D) Nasal Answer: B) Mandible What type of joint are sutures in the skull? A) Synovial B) Immovable C) Ball-and-socket D) Hinge Answer: B) Immovable Which cranial bone contains the foramen magnum? A) Sphenoid B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Parietal Answer: C) Occipital The zygomatic process is found on which bone?  A) Frontal B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Maxilla Answer: B) Temporal Which suture unites the frontal bone with the parietal bones? A) Sagittal B) Lambdoid C) Coronal D) Squamous Answer: C) Coronal What is the function of paranasal sinuses? A) Provide structural support B) Lighten the skull and resonate speech C) Protect the brain D) Assist in vision Answer: B) Lighten the skull and resonate speech Which bones contain the paranasal sinuses? A) Maxillae and zygomatic B) Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillae C) Temporal and parietal D) Mandible and nasal Answer: B) Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, and maxillae Which bony landmark is located on the mandible? A) Styloid process B) Zygomatic arch C) Alveolar processes D) Foramen magnum Answer: C) Alveolar processes What is the main role of the optic foramen? A) Allow passage of the mandibular nerve B) Connect the brain to the spinal cord C) Allow passage of the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery D) Support the temporomandibular joint Answer: C) Allow passage of the optic nerve and ophthalmic artery The inferior nasal conchae is classified as which type of bone? A) Cranial bone B) Facial bone C) Limb bone D) Irregular bone Answer: B) Facial bone Which suture unites the two parietal bones? A) Coronal B) Sagittal C) Lambdoid D) Squamous Answer: B) Sagittal What is the primary function of the mandible? A) Protect the brain B) Support the teeth C) Facilitate breathing D) Connect the skull to the spine Answer: B) Support the teeth Which of the following bones forms part of the lateral wall of the orbit? A) Maxilla B) Ethmoid C) Zygomatic D) Lacrimal Answer: C) Zygomatic The mastoid process is a feature of which bone? A) Sphenoid B) Temporal C) Occipital D) Frontal Answer: B) Temporal What is the superior and inferior nuchal lines a feature of? A) Frontal bone B) Occipital bone C) Parietal bone  D) Temporal bone Answer: B) Occipital bone Which bone is primarily involved in the formation of the nasal cavity? A) Mandible B) Ethmoid C) Maxilla D) Lacrimal Answer: B) Ethmoid What condition is associated with inflammation of the paranasal sinuses? A) Osteoporosis B) Sinusitis C) Arthritis D) Scoliosis Answer: B) Sinusitis TOPIC 7A 1. How many total vertebrae are in the vertebral column? ○ A) 24 ○ B) 30 ○ C) 26 ○ D) 32 Answer: C) 26 2. Which vertebral region has the largest number of vertebrae? ○ A) Cervical ○ B) Thoracic ○ C) Lumbar ○ D) Sacrum Answer: B) Thoracic 3. What is the number of cervical vertebrae in the human body? ○ A) 5 ○ B) 7 ○ C) 12 ○ D) 4 Answer: B) 7 4. Which vertebrae are known as the “meal times”? ○ A) Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar ○ B) Sacrum, Coccyx, Lumbar ○ C) Thoracic, Lumbar, Coccyx  ○ D) None of the above Answer: A) Cervical, Thoracic, Lumbar 5. What is the role of the vertebral body in a typical vertebra? ○ A) Allows head movement ○ B) Provides protection ○ C) Weight-bearing ○ D) Houses the spinal cord Answer: C) Weight-bearing 6. Which process is singular on a typical vertebra? ○ A) Transverse process ○ B) Spinous process ○ C) Articular process ○ D) Vertebral process Answer: B) Spinous process 7. Intervertebral discs are primarily responsible for which function? ○ A) Supporting the ribs ○ B) Allowing head rotation ○ C) Absorbing vertical shock ○ D) Protecting the sternum Answer: C) Absorbing vertical shock 8. The atlas and axis are specialized vertebrae located in which region? ○ A) Thoracic ○ B) Cervical ○ C) Lumbar ○ D) Sacral Answer: B) Cervical 9. Which movement does the atlanto-occipital joint (C1) primarily allow? ○ A) Nodding "no" ○ B) Flexion of the spine ○ C) Nodding "yes" ○ D) Twisting the torso Answer: C) Nodding "yes" 10. What is the dens, and on which vertebra is it located? ○ A) A rib articulation, located on T1 ○ B) A landmark of C1 ○ C) A projection for head rotation, on C2 ○ D) A part of the sacrum Answer: C) A projection for head rotation, on C2 11. Which spinal curves are anteriorly convex? ○ A) Cervical and thoracic ○ B) Lumbar and sacral ○ C) Thoracic and lumbar ○ D) Cervical and lumbar Answer: D) Cervical and lumbar 12. What type of curvature is associated with scoliosis? ○ A) Lateral curvature ○ B) Exaggerated lumbar curve ○ C) Exaggerated thoracic curve ○ D) Concave curvature Answer: A) Lateral curvature 13. Kyphosis is characterized by an exaggerated curvature in which region? ○ A) Lumbar ○ B) Sacral ○ C) Cervical ○ D) Thoracic Answer: D) Thoracic 14. Which part of the thorax encloses and protects organs in the chest? ○ A) Vertebrae ○ B) Rib cage ○ C) Pelvic girdle ○ D) Pectoral girdle Answer: B) Rib cage 15. True ribs attach directly to the sternum by which structure? ○ A) Transverse process ○ B) Articular cartilage ○ C) Costal cartilage ○ D) Xiphoid process Answer: C) Costal cartilage 16. Which ribs are classified as "floating ribs"? ○ A) 1-7 ○ B) 8-10 ○ C) 11-12 ○ D) 5-8 Answer: C) 11-12 17. Which part of the rib articulates with the vertebral bodies? ○ A) Head ○ B) Tubercle ○ C) Shaft ○ D) Costal cartilage Answer: A) Head 18. The xiphoid process is found on which bone? ○ A) Vertebrae ○ B) Rib ○ C) Sternum ○ D) Clavicle Answer: C) Sternum 19. Where are the superior facets of the atlas located? ○ A) On the occipital bone  ○ B) On the ribs ○ C) On the sacrum ○ D) For articulation with the occipital condyles Answer: D) For articulation with the occipital condyles 20. Lordosis is an exaggerated curvature in which region of the spine? ○ A) Thoracic ○ B) Lumbar ○ C) Cervical ○ D) Sacral Answer: B) Lumbar TOPIC 7B Which muscle group does the Iliocostalis muscle belong to? A) Transversospinalis B) Erector Spinae C) Multifidus D) Rotatores Answer: B) Erector Spinae What is the action of the Iliocostalis muscle when it works together bilaterally? A) Rotate the head B) Extend and maintain erect posture of the spine C) Depress the mandible D) Flex the neck Answer: B) Extend and maintain erect posture of the spine The Longissimus muscle inserts into which structure for its Capitis part? A) Occipital bone B) Mastoid process C) Spinous process of the axis D) Transverse process of thoracic vertebrae Answer: B) Mastoid process What action does the Longissimus muscle perform when contracting unilaterally? A) Laterally flex the vertebral column B) Extend the neck C) Rotate the spine  D) Depress the first rib Answer: A) Laterally flex the vertebral column Which part of the Erector Spinae muscle group has its origin on the iliac crest? A) Iliocostalis Lumborum B) Longissimus Thoracis C) Spinalis Thoracis D) Multifidus Answer: A) Iliocostalis Lumborum Where does the Spinalis Cervicis muscle insert? A) Mastoid process B) Spinous process of the axis C) Occipital bone D) First rib Answer: B) Spinous process of the axis Which muscle has its origin on the transverse processes of T1-T6 for its Cervicis part? A) Iliocostalis B) Longissimus C) Semispinalis D) Spinalis Answer: C) Semispinalis The Semispinalis Capitis muscle is responsible for which of the following actions when contracting unilaterally? A) Flex the neck B) Rotate the head to the opposite side C) Rotate the head to the same side D) Depress the second rib Answer: B) Rotate the head to the opposite side What is the primary action of the Multifidus muscle group when contracting bilaterally? A) Flex the neck B) Extend the vertebral column C) Rotate the vertebral column to the same side D) Elevate the sternum Answer: B) Extend the vertebral column Where do the Rotatores muscles insert?  A) Spinous process of the vertebra superior to the one of origin B) Mastoid process C) Superior ribs D) Occipital bone Answer: A) Spinous process of the vertebra superior to the one of origin Which muscle group includes the Scalenes muscles? A) Deep back muscles B) Neck muscles C) Thoracic muscles D) Abdominal muscles Answer: B) Neck muscles Where does the Scalenes Anterior muscle insert? A) Second rib B) First rib C) Clavicle D) Mandible Answer: B) First rib Which of the following actions is performed by the Scalenes Posterior muscle? A) Rotate neck to the opposite side B) Flex the neck bilaterally C) Depress the mandible D) Elevate the first rib Answer: A) Rotate neck to the opposite side What is the action of the Sternocleidomastoid muscle when it contracts unilaterally? A) Extend the neck B) Rotate the neck to the opposite side C) Rotate the neck to the same side D) Depress the mandible Answer: B) Rotate the neck to the opposite side Which of the following muscles has an insertion at the mastoid process? A) Longissimus Capitis B) Platysma C) Rotatores D) Scalenes Anterior Answer: A) Longissimus Capitis What is the primary action of the Platysma muscle? A) Flex the neck B) Depress the mandible and lower lip C) Rotate the neck to the opposite side D) Extend the vertebral column Answer: B) Depress the mandible and lower lip The innervation of the Sternocleidomastoid muscle is provided by which nerve? A) Cervical nerves B) Facial nerve C) Spinal accessory nerve D) Phrenic nerve Answer: C) Spinal accessory nerve Which deep back muscle has origins on the transverse processes of all vertebrae? A) Semispinalis B) Longissimus C) Rotatores D) Multifidus Answer: C) Rotatores The Scalenes Middle muscle originates from which vertebrae? A) C1-C3 B) C2-C7 C) C4-C6 D) T1-T5 Answer: B) C2-C7 What action does the Multifidus muscle perform when acting unilaterally? A) Rotate the vertebral column to the same side B) Laterally flex and rotate the vertebral column to the opposite side C) Extend the head D) Elevate the first rib Answer: B) Laterally flex and rotate the vertebral column to the opposite side