Exam III Review PDF
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This document contains chemistry practice problems similar to past exam questions. The paper covers topics including gas laws, quantum mechanics, electron configurations, periodic trends, etc.
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PRACTICE PROBLEMS- Exam III 1. Which of the following statements about gases is false? A) Gases are highly compressible. B) Distances between molecules of gas are very large compared to bond distances within molecules. C) Non-reacting gas mixtures are homogeneous. D) Gases expand sponta...
PRACTICE PROBLEMS- Exam III 1. Which of the following statements about gases is false? A) Gases are highly compressible. B) Distances between molecules of gas are very large compared to bond distances within molecules. C) Non-reacting gas mixtures are homogeneous. D) Gases expand spontaneously to fill the container they are placed in. E) All gases are colorless and odorless at room temperature. 2. How many different values of ml are possible in the 3d sublevel? A) 2 B) 1 C) 3 D) 5 E) 7 3. An electron cannot have the quantum numbers n = , l = , ml =. A) 2, 0, 0 B) 2, 1, -1 C) 3, 1, -1 D) 1, 1, 1 E) 3, 2, 1 4. What volume of CO2 gas at 645 torr and 800 K could be produced by the reaction of 45 g of CaCO3 according to the equation CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) (R = 0.08206 L·atm·K-1·mol-1)? A) 0.449 L B) 22.4 L C) 25.0 L D) 34.8 L E) 45.7 mL 5. When filling degenerate orbitals, electrons fill them singly first, with parallel spins. What is this known as? A) Pauli exclusion principle B) Hund's rule C) aufbau principle D) Heisenberg uncertainty principle 6. A flask with a volume of 3.16 L contains 9.33 grams of an unknown gas at 32.0°C and 1.00 atm. What is the molar mass of the gas (R = 0.08206 L·atm·K-1·mol-1)? A) 7.76 g/mol B) 66.1 g/mol C) 74.0 g/mol D) 81.4 g/mol E) 144 g/mol 7. Of the following, is a valid statement of Charles' law. A) = constant B) = constant C) PV = constant D) V = constant × n E) V = constant × P 8. Hydrogen and oxygen gas are mixed in a 7.75 L flask at 65oC and contains 0.482 g of hydrogen and 4.98 g of oxygen. What is the partial pressure of oxygen in the flask? A) 0.557 atm B) 0.043 atm C) 1.11 atm D) 33.5 atm E) 67 atm 9. Which of the following quantum numbers describes the size and energy of an orbital? A) magnetic quantum number B) principal quantum number C) angular momentum quantum number D) spin quantum number E) Schrödinger quantum number 11. Sodium bicarbonate is reacted with concentrated hydrochloric acid at 37.0 °C and 1.00 atm. The reaction of 6.00 kg of bicarbonate with excess hydrochloric acid under these conditions will produce L of CO2. (NaHCO3 + HCl NaCl + CO2 +H2O) A) 1.09 × 102 B) 2.85 × 104 C) 1.82 × 104 D) 8.70 × 102 E) 1.82 × 103 12. The density of NO2 in a 4.50 L tank at 760.0 torr and 25.0 °C is g/L. A) 1.64 B) 9.30 C) 1.68 D) 1.88 E) 3.27 13. The pressure of a sample of CH4 gas (6.022 g) in a 30.0 L vessel at 402 K is atm. A) 2.42 B) 6.62 C) 0.413 D) 12.4 E) 22.4 14. A sample of gas occupies 24.5 L at a pressure of 1.57 atm, what is the pressure if the volume is increased to 48.3 L? A) 0.796 atm B) 1.26 atm C) 3.1 atm D) 5.3 × 10–4 atm E) 1858 atm 15. If 2.3 mol of a gas occupies 50.5 ml how many moles of the gas will occupy 85.5 mL at the same temperature and pressure? A) 1.4 moles B) 0.7 moles C) 3.9 moles D) 0.3 moles E) 2.3 moles 16. Calculate the density of carbon dioxide, CO2(g), at 100°C and 17.0 atm pressure (R = 0.08206 L·atm·K-1·mol-1). A) 1.44 g/L B) 134 g/L C) 24.4 g/L D) 53.6 g/L E) 14.4 g/L 17. How many molecules of N2 gas can be present in a 2.5 L flask at 250°C and 650 mmHg (R = 0.08206 L·atm·K-1·mol-1, 1 atm = 760 mmHg, 1 mole = 6.022 × 1023 molecules)? A) 2.1 × 10 –23 molecules D) 3.6 × 1025 molecules 22 B) 4.9 × 10 molecules E) 0.081 molecules 22 C) 3.0 × 10 molecules 18. Determine the molar mass of Freon–11 gas if a sample weighing 0.597 g occupies 100 cm3 at 95°C, and 1000 mmHg (R = 0.08206 L·atm·K-1·mol-1, 1 atm = 760 mmHg). A) 0.19 g/mol B) 35.3 g/mol C) 70.9 g/mol D) 137 g/mol E) 384 g/mol 19. The shape of an atomic orbital is associated with A) the principal quantum number (n). B) the angular momentum quantum number (l). C) the magnetic quantum number (ml). D) the spin quantum number (ms). E) the magnetic and spin quantum numbers, together. 20. Atomic orbitals developed using quantum mechanics A) describe regions of space in which one is most likely to find an electron. B) describe exact paths for electron motion. C) give a description of the atomic structure which is essentially the same as the Bohr model. D) allow scientists to calculate an exact volume for the hydrogen atom. E) are in conflict with the Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle. 21. Which of the following is a correct set of quantum numbers for an electron in a 3d orbital? A) n = 3, l = 0, ml = –1 B) n = 3, l = 1, ml = +3 D) n = 3, l = 3, ml = +2 C) n = 3, l = 2, ml = 3 E) n = 3, l = 2, ml = –2 22. In the quantum mechanical treatment of the hydrogen atom, which one of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowed? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e 23. Which one of the following sets of quantum numbers is not possible? A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e 24. A possible set of quantum numbers for the last electron added to complete an atom of gallium Ga in its ground state is A) a B) b C) c D) d E) e 25. How many electrons are there in the third principal energy level (n = 3) of a phosphorus atom? A) 3 B) 5 C) 6 D) 8 E) 10 1. What is the electron configuration for bromine? A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s14d104p6 B. 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p5 C. 1s22s22p63s23p64s13d104p6 D. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p4 E. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p5 2. What is the electron configuration for silicon? A. 1s22s22p63s13p3 B. 1s22s22p63s23p2 C. 1s22s22p63s4 D. 1s22s22p63p4 E. 1s22s22p63s23p3 3. What element is represented by the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s14d10? A. Ag B. Rb C. Cd D. Sr E. Cu 4. How many electrons are in the 4p orbitals of vanadium? A. 0 B. 2 C. 4 D. 5 E. 6 5. What is the correct electron configuration for a germanium (Ge) atom? A. 1s22s22p63s23p64s24p2 B. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p2 C. 1s22s22p63s23p2 D. 1s22s23s23p5 E. None of the answers is correct. 6. Select the correct electron configuration for Cu (Z = 29). A. [Ar]4s23d9 B. [Ar]4s13d10 C. [Ar]4s24p63d3 D. [Ar]4s24d9 E. [Ar]5s24d9 7. The electron configuration of a ground-state Co atom is A. [Ar]4s23d7. B. 1s22s22p63s23d9. C. [Ne]3s23d7. D. [Ar]4s13d5. E. [Ar]4s24d7. 8. Which ground-state atom has an electron configuration described by the following orbital diagram? [Ne] ↿⇂ ↿ ↿ ↿ 3s 3p A. phosphorus B. nitrogen C. arsenic D. vanadium E. sulfur 9. The orbital diagram for a ground-state carbon atom is 1s 2s 2p A ↿⇂ ↿⇂ ↿⇂ B ↿⇂ ↿ ↿ ↿ ↿ C ↿⇂ ↿⇂ ↿ ↿ ↿ D ↿⇂ ↿⇂ ↿ ↿ E ↿⇂ ↿⇂ ↿⇂ ↿⇂ ↿ A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E 10. The most stable arrangement of electrons in orbitals of equal energy is the one in which the number of electrons with the same spin is maximized is A. the Pauli exclusion principle. B. Bohr's equation. C. Hund's rule. D. de Broglie's relation. E. Dalton's atomic theory. 11. Which two electron configurations represent elements that would have similar chemical properties? (1) 1s22s22p4, (2) 1s22s22p5, (3) [Ar]4s23d104p3, (4) [Ar]4s23d104p4 A. (1) and (2) B. (1) and (3) C. (1) and (4) D. (2) and (4) E. (2) and (3) 12. Which element would be expected to have properties similar to antimony? A. Se B. Sn C. P D. As E. Pb 13. What elements and groups have properties that are most similar to those of chlorine? A. F, Br, I, and nonmetals in Group 7A B. Cl, K, C, and metals in Group 1B C. N, P, As, and lanthanides D. He, Ne, Xe, and nonmetals in Group 7A E. O, S, and P 14. Which one of these elements is a transition element? A. Sr B. Pb C. As D. Fe E. H 15. What is the electron configuration for Fr? A. [Xe]6s1 B. [Rn]7s1 C. [Rn]7s2 D. [Xe]6s2 E. [Kr]6s1 16. Which of these choices is the general electron configuration for the outermost electrons of elements in the alkaline earth group? A. ns1 B. ns2 C. ns2np4 D. ns2np E. ns2np6 (n – 1)d6 17. The general electron configuration for noble gas atoms is A. ns2np6. B. ns2np5. C. ns2np4. D. ns2np3. E. ns2. 18. An element with the electron configuration [noble gas]ns2(n – 1)d8 has valence electrons. A. 2 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10 E. None of these choices is correct. 19. How many valence electrons does a tin (Sn) atom have? A. 2 B. 4 C. 14 D. 36 E. 50 1. The effective nuclear charge for an atom is less than the actual nuclear charge due to A. shielding. B. penetration. C. paramagnetism. D. electron-pair repulsion. E. relativity. 2. How does atomic radius change as you move across the periodic table? A. Atomic radius decreases moving from left to right across a period and increases from top to bottom. B. Atomic radius increases moving left to right across a period and decreases from top to bottom. C. Smaller nuclear charge lowers energy; more electrons in an orbital lowers energy. D. Atomic radius increases diagonally across the periodic table. E. None of the answers is correct. 3. Which of these atoms has the largest radius? A. B B. Ga C. Br D. Si E. Cl 4. Which one of these ions has the smallest radius? A. Cl– B. K+ C. S2– D. Na+ E. O2– 5. Arrange these ions in order of increasing ionic radius: K+ , P3– , S2– , Cl–. A. K+ < Cl– < S2– < P3– B. K+ < P3– < S2– < Cl– C. P3– < S2– < Cl– < K+ D. Cl– < S2– < P3– < K+ E. Cl– < S2– < K+ < P3– 6. Arrange P, S, and O in order of increasing atomic radius. A. S < O < P B. P < S < O C. O < S < P D. O < P < S E. The answer cannot be determined from the data given. 7. Which of these elements has the smallest first ionization energy? A. Cl B. Na C. Be D. K E. As 8. Which of the following elements has the largest first ionization energy? A. Na B. Cl C. Ca D. Te E. Br 9. Which one of the following equations correctly represents the process involved in the electron affinity of X? A. X(g) → X+(g) + e– B. X+(g) → X+(aq) C. X+(g) + e– → X(g) D. X(g) + e– → X–(g) E. X+(g) + Y–(g) → XY(s) 10. A magnesium ion, Mg2+, has A. 12 protons and 13 electrons. B. 24 protons and 26 electrons. C. 12 protons and 10 electrons. D. 24 protons and 22 electrons. E. 12 protons and 14 electrons. 11. Which of these species make an isoelectronic pair: Cl–, O2–, F, Ca2+, Fe3+? A. Ca2+ and Fe3+ B. O2– and F C. F and Cl– D. Cl– and Ca2+ E. None of the species are part of an isoelectronic series. 12. Which ion is isoelectronic with Ar? A. Fe2+ B. F– C. Br– D. Ga3+ E. Ca2+ 13. Which of these choices is the electron configuration for the chloride ion? A. [Ne]3s23p4 B. [Ne]3s23p7 C. [Ar] D. [Ar]4s1 E. [Ne]3s23p5 14. The electron configuration of a cobalt(III) ion is A. [Ar]3d5. B. [Ar]4s13d5. C. [Ar]4s23d4. D. [Ar]3d6. E. [Ar]4s23d9. 15. What is the correct order of decreasing size of the following ions? A. P3– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ B. Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > P3– C. K+ > Cl– > Ca2+ > P3– D. K+ > Cl– > P3– > Ca2+ E. None of these relative size statements is correct. 16. Which one of these atoms has the largest effective nuclear charge, Zeff? A. Na B. K C. Al D. Ar E. F 17. Rank the following elements in order of decreasing atomic radii: Br, Fr, Ca, Ba and As. A. Fr > Ba > Ca > As > Br B. Br > As > Ca > Ba > Fr C. Fr > As > Br > Ba > Ca D. Fr > Ba > As > Br > Ca E. Ca > Ba > Fr > Br > As 18. Of the choices below, which gives the order for first ionization energies? A) Cl > S > Al > Ar > Si B) Ar > Cl > S > Si > Al C) Al > Si > S > Cl > Ar D) Cl > S > Al > Si > Ar E) S > Si > Cl > Al > Ar 19. Of the choices below, which gives the order for first ionization energies? A) Kr > Se > Br > Ga > Ge B) Kr > Br > Se > Ge > Ga C) Ga > Br > Ge > Kr > Se D) Ga > Ge > Se > Br > Kr E) Br > Se > Ga > Kr > Ge 20. Which of the following correctly represents the second ionization of aluminum? A) Al+ (g) + e- → Al (g) B) Al (g) → (g) + e- C) Al- (g) + e- → Al2- (g) D) Al+ (g) + e- → Al2+ (g) E) Al+ (g) → Al2+ (g) + e- 21. The ion with the smallest diameter is. A) Li+ B) Na+ C) K+ D) Rb+ E) Cs+ 22. Which of the following has the largest second ionization energy? A) Si B) Mg C) Al D) Na E) P 23. The second shell in the ground state of atomic argon contains electrons. A) 2 B) 6 C) 8 D) 18 E) 36 KEY 1. E 2. D 3. D 4. D 5. OMIT 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. B 10. No question 11. E 12. D 13. C 14. A 15. C 16. C 17. C 18. D 19. B 20. A 21. E 22. E 23. B 24. OMIT 25. B KEY 1) E 2) B 3) A 4) A 5) B 6) B 7) A 8) A 9) D 10) C 11) C 12) D 13) A 14) D 15) B 16) B 17) A 18) D 19) B 1. A 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. A 6. C 7. D 8. B 9. D 10. C 11. D 12. E 13. C 14. D 15. A 16. D 17. A 18. B 19. B 20. E 21. A 22. E 23. C