EX. 3 PCL 252 Nervous System Exam Questions PDF

Exam Questions On EX. 3 PCL 252 NERVOUS SYSTEM Question 1: Which part of the nervous system is responsible for processing and interpreting sensory information? A: Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) B: Central Nervous System (CNS) C: Motor Nervous System (MNS) D: Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) Questio...

Exam Questions On EX. 3 PCL 252 NERVOUS SYSTEM Question 1: Which part of the nervous system is responsible for processing and interpreting sensory information? A: Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) B: Central Nervous System (CNS) C: Motor Nervous System (MNS) D: Autonomic Nervous System (ANS) Question 2: What role do sensory nerves play in the nervous system? A: They transmit motor impulses to muscles. B: They gather information from inside and outside the body. C: They connect sensory organs to the CNS. D: They deliver information from the CNS to glands and muscles. Question 3: Which statement best describes the motor function of the nervous system? A: Motor nerves gather sensory information from the environment. B: Motor functions interpret sensory data and make decisions. C: Motor nerves convey information from the CNS to muscles and glands. D: Motor nerves connect sensory organs to the brain. Question 4: The central nervous system includes which of the following? A: Sensory organs like the eyes and ears B: All the nerves of the body C: The brain and spinal cord D: Muscles and glands Question 5: Which part of the nervous system connects the CNS to the sensory organs? A: The central nervous system B: The autonomic nervous system C: The peripheral nervous system D: The motor nervous system Question 6: When the brain interprets and processes sensory information, what is the subsequent action called? A: Sensory output B: Motor output C: Interpretative action D: Emergency response Question 7: What does the PNS connect besides the CNS? A: Only the muscles B: The brain and spinal cord C: The sensory organs and other parts of the body D: The spinal cord only Question 8: How do motor nerves contribute to the functions of the nervous system? A: By carrying sensory data to the brain B: By sending impulses from CNS to sensory organs C: By conveying information from the CNS to muscles and glands D: By interpreting sensory data Question 9: Which function involves the sensory nerves carrying information to the CNS? A: Motor function B: Interpretative function C: Sensory function D: Peripheral function Question 10: The peripheral system consists of nerves that transmit messages. Which of the following is not transmitted? A: Messages to muscles B: Messages to sensory organs C: Messages to the CNS D: Messages to the spinal cord Question 11: What primary function does the central nervous system (CNS) serve? A: Regulating the digestive system B: Integrating sensory information and coordinating responses C: Controlling voluntary muscle movements exclusively D: Filtering blood and removing waste products Question 12: Which part of the CNS is involved in the regulation of the autonomic nervous system? A: Cerebellum B: Thalamus C: Hypothalamus D: Medulla Oblongata Question 13: Which structure is directly responsible for transmitting neural signals from the brain to the spinal cord? A: Cerebrum B: Cerebellum C: Brainstem D: Amygdala Question 14: The central nervous system is composed of which two main parts? A: Brain and peripheral nerves B: Spinal cord and sensory receptors C: Brain and spinal cord D: Cerebellum and medulla oblongata Question 15: In the context of CNS, what does 'integration' primarily refer to? A: Merging physical signals with chemical signals B: Combining and processing sensory information to produce responses C: Linking different parts of the body through nerves D: Separating sensory inputs from motor outputs Question 16: Which of the following does NOT fall under the functions of the central nervous system? A: Regulating endocrine functions B: Maintaining homeostasis C: Integrating sensory data D: Regenerating damaged tissues Question 17: The spinal cord primarily functions as: A: A center for intelligence and reasoning B: A passageway for sensory and motor information C: A regulator for blood pressure and respiration D: A storage site for calcium Question 18: What is the role of sensory information in the central nervous system? A: Initiate voluntary movements B: Provide data for integration and decision-making C: Regulate hormone levels D: Interpret auditory signals only Question 19: What structure is crucial for automatic survival functions in the CNS? A: Cerebellum B: Brainstem C: Limbic system D: Occipital lobe Question 20: Which CNS component is primarily responsible for higher cognitive functions? A: Medulla oblongata B: Spinal cord C: Cerebrum D: Brainstem Question 21: Which component of the neuron is primarily responsible for receiving incoming signals? A: Axon B: Dendrite C: Cell body D: Axon terminal Question 22: What is the primary function of the axon in a neuron? A: Receiving incoming signals B: Processing sensory information C: Transmitting nerve impulses away from the cell body D: Providing metabolic support to the neuron Question 23: What protects the brain within the skull? A: Vertebral column B: Cranial cavity C: Meninges D: Cerebrospinal fluid Question 24: Which of the following structures is responsible for cushioning the brain and spinal cord from injury? A: Meninges B: Neurons C: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) D: Peripheral nervous system (PNS) Question 25: What part of the neuron contains the nucleus and essential organelles? A: Axon B: Dendrite C: Axon terminal D: Cell body Question 26: How are neurons arranged in the brain in relation to gray and white matter? A: Gray matter inside, white matter outside B: White matter inside, gray matter outside C: Gray matter and white matter intermingled D: No specific arrangement Question 27: What role do myelinated nerve fibers play within neurons? A: Receiving sensory input B: Providing energy C: Insulating and speeding up nerve impulse transmission D: Connecting neurons to blood vessels Question 28: What is the primary purpose of the peripheral nervous system (PNS) in relation to the CNS? A: Protecting the CNS structures B: Processing incoming sensory information C: Transmitting information to and from the CNS D: Generating high-level cognitive functions Question 29: Which of the following statements is true regarding the structure of the spinal cord? A: It is protected by the cranial cavity B: It contains mostly gray matter on the outside C: It runs as a canal inside the vertebral column D: It lacks protective membranes Question 30: What part of the neuron is typically small compared to the rest of the neuron but contains essential organelles? A: Axon B: Dendrite C: Synapse D: Cell body (soma) Question 31: Which part of the neuron is primarily responsible for receiving incoming electrical signals from other neurons? A: Axon B: Cell body C: Axon terminal D: Dendrite Question 32: What primarily composes the outer region of the brain? A: White matter B: Gray matter C: Both white and gray matter equally D: Myelin sheaths Question 33: What is the primary function of the myelin sheath in neurons? A: Connects neurons within the CNS B: Carries nerve impulses away from the cell body C: Insulates axons and speeds up the transmission of nerve impulses D: Contains neurotransmitter chemicals Question 34: Which type of neuron is responsible for transmitting processed information from the central nervous system to effector organs? A: Interneuron B: Sensory/afferent neuron C: Motor/efferent neuron D: All types of neurons Question 35: Which structure is responsible for maintaining communication of impulses between neurons? A: Axon terminal B: Dendrites C: Synapse/synaptic cleft D: Cell body Question 36: In the brain, what is the term used to describe the arrangement of neurons where cell bodies dominate the outer part? A: Peripheral matter B: White matter C: Core matter D: Gray matter Question 37: Which type of neuron has long axons with short dendrites? A: Interneuron B: Sensory/afferent neuron C: Motor/efferent neuron D: Peripheral neuron Question 38: What is the primary function of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the central nervous system? A: Transmitting nerve impulses B: Processing sensory information C: Cushioning the brain and spinal cord from injury D: Connecting sensory and motor neurons Question 39: In the spinal cord, where is the white matter located? A: Center B: Periphery C: Throughout evenly D: Nowhere Question 40: What contains the neurotransmitter chemicals in the neuron? A: Dendrite B: Cell body C: Axon D: Axon terminal Question 41: Which type of synapse allows transmission of impulses in both directions? A: Chemical synapse B: Electrical synapse C: Neural synapse D: Axonal synapse Question 42: What type of neurotransmitter typically excites the next neuron at a chemical synapse? A: Nor epinephrine B: Glycine C: GABA D: Histamine Question 43: Which neurological structure is primarily responsible for transmitting information within the central nervous system? A: Sensory neurons B: Interneurons C: Motor neurons D: Peripheral nerves Question 44: In a chemical synapse, what role does the mitochondria in the axon terminal play? A: Store neurotransmitters B: Provide ATP for neurotransmitter synthesis C: Transmit impulses D: Release synaptic vesicles Question 45: Which part of the neuron releases neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft? A: Dendrites B: Axon terminal C: Cell body D: Nissl bodies Question 46: What ensures that impulses in chemical synapses are unidirectional? A: The structure of dendrites B: One-way conduction principle C: Presence of electrical synapses D: Type of neurotransmitter released Question 47: Which neuron type conveys information from sensory receptors to the CNS? A: Motor neurons B: Interneurons C: Afferent neurons D: Efferent neurons Question 48: Why do neurons in the brain release more inhibitory neurotransmitters than excitatory ones? A: To speed up impulse transmission B: To prevent over-excitation C: To enhance memory recall D: To support synaptic vesicle formation Question 49: Which neurotransmitter is known to be an excitatory neurotransmitter? A: GABA B: Dopamine C: Acetylcholine D: Serotonin Question 50: How can the impulses be blocked at a synapse? A: By releasing more mitochondria B: By applying electrical synapse C: By inhibiting the effect of neurotransmitters D: By expanding the synaptic cleft Question 51: What type of neurotransmitter is primarily associated with promoting wakefulness and excitement in the nervous system? A: Norepinephrine B: Acetylcholine C: Dopamine D: Serotonin Question 52: Which neurotransmitter system is involved in dreaming and rapid eye movement sleep (REM)? A: Norepinephrine system B: Acetylcholine system C: Dopamine system D: Serotonin system Question 53: What is the primary role of dopamine in the brain? A: Excitatory neurotransmitter for REM sleep B: Inhibitory neurotransmitter suppressing pain C: Inhibitory neurotransmitter preventing parkinsonism D: Excitatory neurotransmitter for wakefulness Question 54: What role does serotonin play in the spine and brain? A: Promotes dreaming and REM sleep B: Excites neurons in the basal ganglia C: Suppresses pain and plays an inhibitory role for normal sleep D: Encourages wakefulness and excited states Question 55: What is a primary characteristic of chemical synapses? A: Allow two-way transmission of impulses B: Use electrical signals for transmission C: Function mainly in the CNS through neurotransmitter secretion D: Direct ion movement between cells Question 56: What distinguishes electrical synapses from chemical synapses? A: Allow two-way transmission and involve gap junctions B: Used extensively in the CNS C: Secrete neurotransmitters D: Cause unidirectional transmission Question 57: Which ion is crucial for the release of neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft? A: Sodium (Na+) B: Calcium (Ca2+) C: Potassium (K+) D: Magnesium (Mg2+) Question 58: Which neurotransmitter is associated with the suppression of pain and normal sleep regulation? A: Norepinephrine B: Acetylcholine C: Dopamine D: Serotonin Question 59: Most transmission in the CNS occurs via which type of synapse? A: Chemical synapse B: Electrical synapse C: Mixed synapse D: Reflex arc Question 60: Which system is responsible for the excitatory activity increases in the brain and is linked to REM sleep? A: Serotonin system B: Dopamine system C: Norepinephrine system D: Acetylcholine system Question 61: What neurotransmitter is primarily responsible for causing REM sleep? A: Acetylcholine B: GABA C: Norepinephrine D: Serotonin Question 62: Which neurotransmitter is inhibitory and associated with the suppression of pain? A: Dopamine B: Serotonin C: Acetylcholine D: Norepinephrine Question 63: Destruction of which type of neurons is the primary cause of Parkinson's disease? A: Serotonergic neurons B: Cholinergic neurons C: Dopaminergic neurons D: Adrenergic neurons Question 64: The main excitatory neurotransmitter that leads to wakefulness is: A: Serotonin B: Dopamine C: Acetylcholine D: Norepinephrine Question 65: During postsynaptic transmission, which type of ion mainly passes through cationic channels? A: Cl- B: Ca2+ C: Na+ D: K+ Question 66: What is the primary role of the ionophore component in receptor proteins? A: Binding neurotransmitters B: Exciting the post-synaptic neuron C: Allowing passage of ions through the membrane D: Deactivating neurotransmitters Question 67: Which neurotransmitter system is involved in reducing pain and inducing normal sleep? A: Norepinephrine system B: Acetylcholine system C: Dopamine system D: Serotonin system Question 68: What happens when a neurotransmitter opens an anionic channel? A: Na+ enters, exciting the membrane B: Cl- enters, inhibiting the membrane C: K+ exits, exciting the membrane D: Ca2+ exits, inhibiting the membrane Question 69: What is the effect of activating second messenger systems in neurons? A: Initiates immediate synaptic response B: Prolongs action on the neurons C: Terminates neurotransmitter action quickly D: Inhibits calcium ion entry Question 70: Which component of the receptor protein binds with the neurotransmitter? A: Binding component B: Ion channel C: Ionophore component D: Second messenger activator Question 71: What happens when a neurotransmitter opens a cation channel in the postsynaptic neuron? A: The synaptic transmission is inhibited. B: Na+ ions enter the postsynaptic neuron, exciting the membrane. C: Cl- ions enter the postsynaptic neuron, exciting the membrane. D: The membrane potential becomes more negative. Question 72: Which neurotransmitter action results in the inhibition of the postsynaptic neuron? A: Opening of cationic channels B: Opening of anionic channels C: Activation of all ion channels D: Both excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters Question 73: What is the purpose of synaptic fatigue? A: To enhance synaptic transmission. B: To protect the nervous system from over-excitation. C: To increase neurotransmitter release. D: To speed up signal transmission. Question 74: Which of the following conditions can induce a coma in diabetic patients? A: A rise in arterial blood pH B: An increase in alkalosis C: A decrease in alkalosis D: An acidic pH Question 75: What does spatial summation require to cause an axon discharge? A: Repetitive rapid discharges from a single presynaptic neuron B: Several different synapses firing simultaneously C: Equalizing the effect of excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters D: Opening both cationic and anionic channels Question 76: How do second messengers prolong the actions of neurotransmitters? A: By quickly opening and closing ion channels. B: By remaining active longer in the postsynaptic neuron cytoplasm. C: By releasing more neurotransmitters. D: By depleting the neurotransmitters. Question 77: What characteristic of synaptic transmission ensures signals only travel in one direction? A: Efflux of neurotransmitters B: Action potential of neurons C: One-way conduction D: Summation effects Question 78: What triggers the fatigue in a synapse? A: Overproduction of acetylcholine B: Reduction of cholinesterase activity C: Depletion of acetylcholine due to rapid stimulation D: Increased synthesis of acetylcholine Question 79: What type of ion channels are activated by excitatory neurotransmitters? A: Anionic channels allowing Cl- ions to pass B: Cationic channels allowing K+ ions to pass exclusively C: Cationic channels allowing Na+ ions to enter D: Channels that do not allow ions to pass Question 80: How does alkalosis affect neuronal excitability? A: Increases neuronal excitability B: Decreases neuronal excitability C: Has no effect on excitability D: Always leads to seizures regardless of pH rise Question 81: What is the primary cause of synaptic fatigue? A: Depletion of neurotransmitters due to rapid stimulation B: Increased formation of synaptic vesicles C: Excessive production of neurotransmitters D: High levels of synaptic activity leading to over-excitement of neurons Question 82: Which pH change is likely to cause cerebral epilepsy? A: Decrease in arterial pH B: Increase in arterial pH C: Constant arterial pH D: Decrease in cerebrospinal fluid pH Question 83: During spatial summation, how are signals from different synapses integrated? A: By one synapse firing repeatedly B: By several different synapses firing simultaneously C: By inhibitory neurotransmitters alone D: By only excitatory neurotransmitters Question 84: Which brain part connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum? A: Longitudinal sulcus B: Corpus callosum C: Thalamus D: Cerebellum Question 85: What is the main characteristic of one-way-conduction in chemical synapses? A: It can transmit signals in both directions B: It only transmits signals from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron C: Only inhibitory neurotransmitters are involved D: It supports bidirectional transmission through chemical signals Question 86: Which type of nerve axons contain sensory and motor functions? A: Olfactory nerves B: Optic nerves C: Mixed cranial nerves D: Motor-only cranial nerves Question 87: Why is the reticular formation important for the cerebral cortex? A: It divides the cerebrum into hemispheres B: It controls all activities of the cerebral cortex C: It connects the brain stem with the spinal cord D: It is located in the cerebellum Question 88: What role does the cerebellum play in brain function? A: Thinking and feeling B: Regulation of homeostasis C: Coordination of body movements D: Sensory information processing Question 89: Which type of summation involves multiple synapses firing at the same time? A: Temporal summation B: Spatial summation C: Inhibitory summation D: Excitatory summation Question 90: What happens to the excitability of neurons during alkalosis? A: It decreases B: It remains the same C: It increases D: It fluctuates continuously Question 91: Which lobe of the brain is primarily responsible for processing tactile sensory information? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 92: What is the primary function of the reticular formation in the brain? A: Reasoning and problem-solving B: Integrating sensory information from the body C: Controlling activities of the cerebral cortex D: Receiving and processing visual information Question 93: What would likely happen if there is damage to the frontal lobe? A: Loss of vision B: Difficulty in processing tactile sensations C: Change in reasoning and increased risk-taking behavior D: Inability to process auditory information Question 94: Which structure connects the two hemispheres of the cerebrum? A: Longitudinal sulcus B: Reticular formation C: Somatosensory cortex D: Corpus callosum Question 95: Which of the following nerves are exclusively sensory? A: Optic and olfactory nerves B: Spinal nerves C: Cranial nerve III D: Mixed cranial nerves Question 96: What role does the somatosensory cortex play in the brain? A: Processing auditory information B: Processing tactile sensory information C: Controlling voluntary movements D: Reasoning and problem-solving Question 97: What function is associated with the motor cortex located in the frontal lobe? A: Processing auditory information B: Controlling voluntary movements C: Receiving visual information D: Processing tactile sensory information Question 98: Which area of the brain is responsible for higher level cognition such as reasoning and problem-solving? A: Parietal lobe B: Temporal lobe C: Frontal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 99: The longitudinal sulcus in the brain separates which of the following? A: Frontal lobe from the parietal lobe B: Occipital lobe from the temporal lobe C: Right cerebral hemisphere from the left D: Cerebrum from the cerebellum Question 100: Which brain structure is critical for coordinated movement and balance? A: Cerebrum B: Brain stem C: Cerebellum D: Thalamus Question 101: Which brain lobe is primarily responsible for the formation of memories? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 102: Damage to which lobe of the brain can lead to changes in reasoning and increased risk- taking? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 103: Which lobe of the brain is associated with the perception and processing of tactile sensory information? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 104: The auditory cortex is located in which lobe of the brain? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 105: Which brain lobe is responsible for visual perception? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 106: The ability to interpret sounds and language is primarily associated with which brain lobe? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 107: Which brain lobe is associated with reasoning, motor skills, higher-level cognition, and expressive language? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 108: The somatosensory cortex, responsible for receiving and processing information from body sense organs, is located in which lobe? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 109: Which lobe of the brain is affected if an individual has trouble recognizing objects and identifying colors? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 110: Speech production and movement control are primarily associated with which lobe of the brain? A: Frontal lobe B: Parietal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Occipital lobe Question 111: Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for visual perception? A: Temporal Lobe B: Parietal Lobe C: Occipital Lobe D: Frontal Lobe Question 112: If a person has difficulty recognizing colors, which part of the brain might be damaged? A: Temporal Lobe B: Parietal Lobe C: Occipital Lobe D: Frontal Lobe Question 113: Which area of the brain is primarily responsible for processing auditory stimuli? A: Temporal Lobe B: Parietal Lobe C: Occipital Lobe D: Frontal Lobe Question 114: Where is the primary motor area that controls voluntary muscles located? A: Frontal Lobe B: Parietal Lobe C: Occipital Lobe D: Temporal Lobe Question 115: What are some functions regulated by the brain stem? A: Memory formation and language skills B: Breathing and heart rate C: Problem-solving and behavior D: Speech perception and language Question 116: Which part of the brain is primarily associated with memory formation? A: Frontal Lobe B: Occipital Lobe C: Parietal Lobe D: Temporal Lobe Question 117: If a person is experiencing problems with speech perception, which part of their brain might be damaged? A: Frontal Lobe B: Temporal Lobe C: Occipital Lobe D: Parietal Lobe Question 118: The control of voluntary muscles is primarily handled by which area of the brain? A: Parietal Lobe B: Frontal Lobe C: Occipital Lobe D: Temporal Lobe Question 119: Where in the brain is the Wernicke's area, crucial for language comprehension, located? A: Frontal Lobe B: Parietal Lobe C: Temporal Lobe D: Occipital Lobe Question 120: Which of the following regions is critical for behavioral and personality traits? A: Frontal Lobe B: Occipital Lobe C: Parietal Lobe D: Temporal Lobe Question 121: Which part of the brain is responsible for coordinating body movements and maintaining balance? A: Cerebrum B: Brain stem C: Cerebellum D: Frontal lobe Question 122: Which structure of the brain acts as a relay station for sensory information coming from the eyes, ears, and touch receptors? A: Thalamus B: Pons C: Midbrain D: Medulla oblongata Question 123: What is the primary function of the limbic system? A: Regulating heart rate and blood pressure B: Coordinating voluntary movements C: Integrating emotions and forming memories D: Receiving and processing sensory information Question 124: Which part of the brain is involved in regulating breathing and the sleep cycle? A: Cerebellum B: Medulla oblongata C: Pons D: Thalamus Question 125: Where are nerve impulses that regulate heart rate generated? A: Midbrain B: Cerebellum C: Brain stem D: Medulla oblongata Question 126: Which structure of the brain relays auditory and visual information between the upper and lower brain regions? A: Thalamus B: Medulla oblongata C: Pons D: Midbrain Question 127: The thalamus is responsible for: A: sending processed information from the cerebrum to other brain parts. B: coordinating body movements. C: regulating the diameter of blood vessels. D: generating nerve impulses for heart rate regulation. Question 128: Which lobe of the cerebrum is primarily associated with speech control? A: Occipital lobe B: Frontal lobe C: Temporal lobe D: Parietal lobe Question 129: What is the main role of Broca's area in the brain? A: Processing sensory information B: Control of voluntary muscles C: Speech control D: Regulating emotions Question 130: The brainstem is mainly composed of: A: Neural tissue allowing nerve impulses to travel between the brain and cerebellum B: Neural tissue allowing nerve impulses to travel between the brain and the spinal cord C: Neural tissue responsible for coordinating body movements D: Neural tissue involved in the formation of memories Question 131: Which of the following structures is primarily responsible for coordinating muscular movement and posture? A: Cerebellum B: Amygdala C: Basal ganglia D: Thalamus Question 132: Which part of the brain is responsible for fine-tuning movement initiated by the cerebrum? A: Cerebellum B: Pons C: Hypothalamus D: Midbrain Question 133: Damage to which of the following structures would most likely result in the loss of recent memories but not old established memories? A: Amygdala B: Cerebellum C: Hippocampus D: Thalamus Question 134: Which structure is involved in the regulation of the endocrine system by controlling the pituitary gland? A: Pons B: Hypothalamus C: Thalamus D: Cerebellum Question 135: The structure responsible for relaying information to the cerebral cortex is the: A: Amygdala B: Cerebrum C: Thalamus D: Hypothalamus Question 136: Which part of the brain is referred to as the 'emotional nervous system'? A: Cerebellum B: Limbic system C: Basal ganglia D: Thalamus Question 137: The primary role of the pons in the brain is to: A: Control eye movements B: Coordinate body movements C: Serve as a relay station and regulate sleep cycles D: Produce hormones Question 138: Which part of the brain is involved in maintaining homeostasis by regulating water levels, sleep cycles, and body temperature? A: Thalamus B: Cerebellum C: Midbrain D: Hypothalamus Question 139: Which brain structure is specifically involved in the development of fear emotions? A: Cerebellum B: Amygdala C: Hippocampus D: Basal ganglia Question 140: Lesions in which structure of the brain can cause movement disorders such as tremor and rigidity of Parkinson's disease? A: Thalamus B: Basal ganglia C: Cerebellum D: Hippocampus Question 141: Which structure is responsible for regulating the endocrine system through the control of pituitary glands? A: Hippocampus B: Amygdala C: Hypothalamus D: Basal ganglia Question 142: What is the main function of the amygdala in the brain? A: Storing long-term memories B: Regulating body temperature C: Coordinating muscular movement D: Responding to stress and anxiety Question 143: Damage to which structure is likely to result in memory loss related to recent events such as seen in Alzheimer's disease? A: Hypothalamus B: Hippocampus C: Amygdala D: Basal ganglia Question 144: What role does the basal ganglia play in the brain? A: Regulates circadian rhythm B: Blocks unwanted muscular movement C: Maintains water balance D: Stores short-term memory Question 145: Which of the following regions is the lowest part of the spinal cord? A: Cervical B: Thoracic C: Lumbar D: Sacral Question 146: What is the primary function of the spinal cord? A: Controlling the endocrine system B: Coordinating pleasure and sexual arousal C: Serving as a message pathway between the brain and PNS D: Influencing circadian rhythm Question 147: What primary function does the reticular formation NOT perform? A: Influencing the sleep-wake cycle B: Regulating endocrine secretion C: Storing long-term memories D: Influencing emotional responses Question 148: Which brain structure plays a major role in the storage of short-term or recent memories? A: Hypothalamus B: Basal ganglia C: Hippocampus D: Amygdala Question 149: Which hormone-regulating function is attributed to the hypothalamus? A: Production of adrenaline B: Control of the pituitary glands C: Suppression of stress-related responses D: Regulation of muscular movement Question 150: What can result from lesions or damage to the amygdala? A: Loss of circadian rhythm B: Reduced responses to stress and anxiety C: Inability to store old memories D: Uncontrolled tremors Question 151: What is the main function of the spinal cord in the context of the nervous system? A: To act as a primary processing center for sensory information B: To transmit action potentials from sensory neurons to the brain exclusively C: To connect the peripheral nervous system to the brain and send signals between them D: To generate all reflex movements through the brain Question 152: Which of the following accurately describes the composition and location of gray and white matter in the spinal cord? A: Gray matter on the outside, white matter on the inside B: Gray matter on the inside, white matter on the outside C: Both gray and white matter are evenly distributed throughout D: Gray matter forms the outer layer, while white matter forms the core Question 153: Which section of the spinal cord is located at the topmost position? A: Cervical region B: Thoracic region C: Lumbar region D: Sacral region Question 154: How does the spinal cord facilitate the withdrawal reflex when touching a hot object? A: By sending the impulse to the brain for processing before withdrawing the hand B: By acting as the main coordinating center bypassing brain involvement C: By involving both the spinal cord and brain equally D: By transmitting impulses from motor areas of the brain directly to the muscles Question 155: What is the role of sensory neurons in the context of the spinal cord? A: To process sensory information within the spinal cord B: To transmit sensory information to the PNS exclusively C: To send sensory information to the spinal cord for transmission to the brain D: To collect motor information and relay it to the muscles Question 156: Which reflex is specifically involved in rapidly pulling your hand away upon touching a hot object? A: Stretch reflex B: Golgi tendon reflex C: Crossed extensor reflex D: Withdrawal reflex Question 157: What is one of the roles of motor neurons within the spinal cord? A: To transmit sensory information from the spinal cord to the brain B: To carry motor impulses from the brain down the spinal cord C: To collect sensory data from the PNS D: To act as a processing center for reflexes Question 158: Why are spinal reflexes considered 'automatic'? A: They involve conscious thought but occur very quickly B: They send impulses to the brain but these are not processed C: They do not involve the brain and are spontaneous, requiring no conscious thought D: They require communication between the spinal cord and brain simultaneously Question 159: Which neuron types are involved in the pathway of a stretch reflex? A: Only sensory neurons B: Only interneurons C: Sensory neurons, interneurons, and motor neurons D: Only motor neurons Question 160: What happens to signals from the motor areas of the brain as they travel through the spinal cord? A: They are immediately processed within the gray matter B: They bypass the spinal cord and directly enter the peripheral nervous system C: They travel down the cord through motor neurons and leave at specific points D: They are sent back to the brain for further processing Question 161: What is the primary role of spinal reflexes? A: To transmit sensory signals to the cerebral cortex B: To coordinate simple reflexes without involving the brain C: To process complex movements requiring higher brain functions D: To support and protect the neurons Question 162: Which of the following is NOT a type of spinal reflex? A: The stretch reflex B: The Golgi tendon reflex C: The crossed extensor reflex D: The cranial reflex Question 163: After sensory signals enter the spinal cord, where do they travel? A: Only to the grey matter of the cord B: Only to the brain stem C: To both the grey matter of the cord and higher levels of the nervous system D: To the cerebral cortex only Question 164: Which statement accurately describes the function of glia or neuroglia cells? A: They transmit nerve impulses B: They support and protect the nerve cells C: They are responsible for automatic reflex responses D: They terminate sensory signals in the gray matter Question 165: Which cells are directly involved in the transmission of nerve impulses? A: Astrocytes B: Ependymal cells C: Neurons D: Microglia Question 166: What occurs when the pain receptor is stimulated in the withdrawal reflex pathway? A: A signal is sent to the cerebral cortex for processing B: The effector muscle contracts immediately C: The sensory neuron sends a signal along the motor neuron D: The relay neuron processes the signal before it reaches the motor neuron Question 167: What is the role of the sensory neuron in a spinal reflex? A: To transmit impulses directly to the muscles B: To send signals to the spinal cord for immediate processing C: To support and protect the motor neurons D: To transmit signals to the cerebral cortex Question 168: Which reflex is initiated when someone quickly pulls their hand away after touching a hot object? A: The stretch reflex B: The Golgi tendon reflex C: The crossed extensor reflex D: The withdrawal reflex Question 169: Where do sensory signals entering the spinal cord through the posterior roots typically terminate? A: In the brain stem B: In the white matter C: In the gray matter of the spinal cord D: In the cerebral cortex Question 170: Which of the following correctly states the sequence in the pathway for a stretch reflex? A: Pain receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, effector muscle B: Stimulus, sensory neuron, relay neuron, effector muscle C: Sensory signal, gray matter termination, reflex response D: Stretch receptor, sensory neuron, motor neuron, muscle contraction Question 171: Which type of cell is responsible for forming the blood-brain barrier (BBB) by encircling blood vessels in the CNS? A: Oligodendrocytes B: Astrocytes C: Ependymal cells D: Microglial cells Question 172: What is the primary function of ependymal cells in the CNS? A: To form the myelin sheath in the CNS B: To create the blood-brain barrier C: To line the ventricles and produce cerebrospinal fluid D: To act as immune effector cells Question 173: Microglial cells are the CNS equivalent of which type of immune cells in the body? A: Astrocytes B: Macrophages C: Neurons D: Ependymal cells Question 174: Which layer of the meninges is closest to the skull? A: Pia mater B: Arachnoid mater C: Dura mater D: Csomelitis mater Question 175: What is the role of Schwann cells in the nervous system? A: To create the myelin sheath for axons in the CNS B: To provide structural support and nutrients to neurons C: To form the myelin sheath for axons in the PNS D: To act as immune cells during pathogen invasion Question 176: Which meninges layer is the most delicate and innermost one? A: Dura mater B: Arachnoid mater C: Pia mater D: Astrocytes Question 177: Which cells are referred to as macroglial cells in the CNS? A: Astrocytes and Schwann cells B: Oligodendrocytes and microglial cells C: Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells D: Ependymal cells and neurons Question 178: Which cell type has tiny hairs called cilia that circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A: Astrocytes B: Oligodendrocytes C: Microglial cells D: Ependymal cells Question 179: Which of the following statements is true regarding the withdrawal reflex? A: Sensory signals travel directly to the brain for processing. B: Only one branch of the sensory nerve terminates immediately in the gray matter of the spinal cord. C: The spinal reflex involves sensory signals that elicit local segmental cord reflexes. D: Motor neurons do not play a role in the withdrawal reflex. Question 180: Which type of neuron sends signals to effector muscles during a response to stimulus in a spinal reflex? A: Sensory neuron B: Relay neuron C: Motor neuron D: Oligodendrocytes Question 181: Which type of cells create the myelin sheath for neuronal axons in the central nervous system (CNS)? A: Astrocytes B: Schwann cells C: Microglial cells D: Oligodendrocytes Question 182: Which component of the meninges is closest to the skull? A: Pia mater B: Arachnoid mater C: Subarachnoid space D: Dura mater Question 183: What feature of ependymal cells helps circulate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A: Microvilli B: Cilia C: Pseudopodia D: Flagella Question 184: What proportion of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is produced by ependymal cells in the brain? A: 10-30% B: 30-50% C: 50-70% D: 70-90% Question 185: Which layer of the meninges adheres firmly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord? A: Dura mater B: Arachnoid mater C: Pia mater D: Subarachnoid space Question 186: Microglial cells accumulate at the site of injury or pathogen invasion in the CNS. What is their primary role? A: Providing structural support B: Releasing neurotransmitters C: Phagocytosing damaged cells and debris D: Forming the blood-brain barrier Question 187: Which of the following is NOT a component of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A: Water B: Glucose C: Lactic acid D: Blood cells Question 188: What is the primary consequence of abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A: Meningitis B: Encephalitis C: Hydroencephalus D: Aneurysm Question 189: Which cells are derived from macrophages and migrate to the CNS during development? A: Astrocytes B: Microglial cells C: Oligodendrocytes D: Ependymal cells Question 190: What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in regulating cerebral blood flow? A: Providing nutrients B: Immunological protection C: Autoregulation of blood flow D: Phagocytosing debris Question 191: What are the primary components of the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? A: Endothelial cells with tight junctions, a thick basement membrane, and astrocytic endfeet B: Neuronal membranes, ependymal cells, and a thin basement membrane C: Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia D: Schwann cells, myelin, and ependymal cells Question 192: Which of the following substances is NOT typically able to cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? A: Glucose B: Alcohol C: Oxygen D: Plasma proteins Question 193: Which condition is primarily characterized by an abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leading to head enlargement? A: Meningitis B: Hydroencephalous C: Encephalitis D: Subdural hematoma Question 194: Which cells produce the majority of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain? A: Neurons B: Astrocytes C: Ependymal cells D: Oligodendrocytes Question 195: Which of the following is TRUE about cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A: CSF is acidic in nature B: CSF contains blood cells and proteins C: CSF circulates within the subarachnoid space D: CSF does not contain any inorganic substances Question 196: What is the primary function of the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)? A: It supplies oxygen to the brain B: It provides mechanical and immunological protection to the brain C: It produces hormones D: It regulates body temperature Question 197: What effect can disruption of the blood-brain barrier (BBB) have on the brain? A: It allows more oxygen to enter the brain B: It causes swelling or oedema of the brain C: It improves glucose transport into the brain D: It enhances the action of neurotransmitters Question 198: Which of the following electrotypes is able to cross the blood-brain barrier (BBB)? A: Calcium B: Sodium C: Albumin D: Glucagon Question 199: What characteristic of the blood-brain barrier (BBB) prevents the passage of antibodies and antibiotics? A: High concentration of lipids B: Presence of astrocytic endfeet C: Tight junctions between endothelial cells D: High blood flow rate Question 200: Which of the following best explains why infections in the brain are rare? A: High density of neurons B: Continuous production of cerebrospinal fluid C: Effective functioning of the blood-brain barrier D: Frequent immune surveillance within the brain Question 201: What substances can pass through the Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB) most easily? A: Electrolytes like sodium and potassium B: Non-lipid soluble large organic molecules like penicillins C: Water and most lipid-soluble substances like alcohol D: Plasma proteins Question 202: Which disease is caused by spirochetes that can breach the Blood-Brain Barrier? A: Meningitis B: Polio C: Lyme disease and Syphilis D: Alzheimer's Question 203: What is the main protective function of the Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)? A: Preventing physical trauma to the brain B: Regulating passage of molecules in and out of the CNS C: Suspending the brain in cerebrospinal fluid D: Protecting the brain against high blood pressure Question 204: Why can infections of the brain be particularly serious and difficult to treat? A: Because the BBB breaks during infection B: Because antibodies and antibiotics cannot cross the BBB effectively C: Because infections of the brain are rare D: Because the brain swells up causing raised intracranial pressure Question 205: What can cause the breakdown of the Blood-Brain Barrier (BBB)? A: High levels of CO2 and O2 B: Consumption of alcohol and anesthetics C: Trauma, inflammation, infection, irradiation, neoplasm, hypertensive crisis D: Elevated levels of plasma proteins Question 206: What is a potential consequence of the blood-brain barrier breaking down allowing solutes inappropriately into the brain? A: An increase in brain temperature B: Oedema/swelling of the brain C: Decreased blood flow to the brain D: Increased electrical activity in the brain Question 207: Why are diseases like meningitis and encephalitis classified under CNS infections? A: They are caused by genetic mutations B: They involve inflammation of the central nervous system C: They result in degenerated neurons D: They cause premature aging of the brain Question 208: What is the primary neurological effect of Huntington's disease? A: Loss of ACH secreting neurons in the hippocampus B: Inflammation of the grey matter in the spinal cord C: Degeneration of GABA secreting neurons in the brain D: Shrinkage of the cerebral cortex Question 209: What is the initial clinical symptom of Alzheimer's disease? A: Loss of GABA secreting neurons B: Uncontrollable jerks of the arms C: Loss of short-term or recent memory D: Paralysis of the lower limb Question 210: Which CNS disease might lead to paralysis of the lower limb? A: Alzheimer's B: Encephalitis C: Polio D: Huntington's disease Question 211: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of encephalitis? A: A) Headache B: B) Drowsiness C: C) Muscle rigidity D: D) Nausea Question 212: Which disease is often characterized by extreme loss of mental powers and affects 5-10% of people over 65 years old? A: A) Parkinson's disease B: B) Multiple sclerosis C: C) Alzheimer's disease D: D) Schizophrenia Question 213: Which of the following drugs is NOT used in the treatment of Parkinson's disease? A: A) Levodopa B: B) Bromocriptine C: C) Imipramine D: D) Amantadine Question 214: Which neurotransmitter deficiency is primarily associated with the onset of depression? A: A) Dopamine B: B) Serotonin C: C) GABA D: D) Acetylcholine Question 215: Which symptom is least likely to be associated with Multiple sclerosis? A: A) Visual problems B: B) Muscle weakness C: C) Fever D: D) Depression Question 216: Which of the following accurately describes the causal factor of Huntington's disease? A: A) Degeneration of dopaminergic neurons B: B) Inflammation of the grey matter of the SC C: C) Degeneration of GABA secreting neurons D: D) Lack of oxygen during birth Question 217: Which of the following is a primary treatment option for schizophrenia? A: A) Sodium valproate B: B) Bromocriptine C: C) Chlorpromazine D: D) Amitriptyline Question 218: Which disorder is known to be congenital and caused by lack of oxygen during birth? A: A) Multiple sclerosis B: B) Cerebral palsy C: C) Polio D: D) Alzheimer's disease Question 219: Which disorder is primarily treated with GABA-enhancing drugs? A: A) Parkinson's disease B: B) Huntington's disease C: C) Schizophrenia D: D) Depression Question 220: Which condition is characterized by tremors of the limbs, especially at rest? A: A) Multiple sclerosis B: B) Huntington's disease C: C) Parkinson's disease D: D) Shaken baby syndrome Answers Answer 1: B Explanation: The CNS, consisting of the brain and spinal cord, is primarily responsible for processing and interpreting sensory information. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Function Answer 2: B Explanation: Sensory nerves gather data from both inside the body and the outside environment, then carry that information to the CNS. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Function Answer 3: C Explanation: Motor nerves are responsible for conveying information from the CNS to muscles and glands, facilitating motor output. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Function Answer 4: C Explanation: The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Structure Answer 5: C Explanation: The peripheral nervous system connects the central nervous system to the sensory organs, muscles, blood vessels, and glands. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Structure Answer 6: B Explanation: After the brain processes and interprets the information, impulses are conducted from the brain through the spinal cord to muscles and glands, known as motor output. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Function Answer 7: C Explanation: The PNS connects the central nervous system (CNS) to the sensory organs, other organs of the body, muscles, blood vessels, and glands. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Structure Answer 8: C Explanation: Motor nerves convey information from the CNS to muscles and glands, resulting in motor output. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Function Answer 9: C Explanation: Sensory function involves the sensory nerves gathering data from inside and outside the body, then carrying it to the CNS. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Function Answer 10: B Explanation: The peripheral system connects the CNS to sensory organs, other body organs, muscles, and glands but does not solely transmit messages to sensory organs. Reference: Ex-3 The nervous system, Structure Answer 11: B Explanation: The CNS integrates sensory information and coordinates responses to maintain homeostasis. Reference: Brain Spinalcord The central nervous system primarily integrates sensory information. Answer 12: C Explanation: The hypothalamus plays a critical role in regulating the autonomic nervous system. Reference: CNS regulates autonomic functions such as heart rate and digestion. Answer 13: C Explanation: The brainstem is responsible for transmitting neural signals between the brain and the spinal cord. Reference: Brainstem is an important communication pathway between the brain and spinal cord. Answer 14: C Explanation: The CNS is composed of the brain and spinal cord. Reference: The central nervous system consists of the brain and spinal cord. Answer 15: B Explanation: Integration in the CNS refers to combining and processing sensory information to produce appropriate responses. Reference: Central nervous system integrating sensory information. Answer 16: D Explanation: The CNS does not typically regenerate damaged tissues; it is mainly responsible for integrating and processing information. Reference: CNS integrates sensory information and regulates bodily functions. Answer 17: B Explanation: The spinal cord acts as a passageway for sensory and motor information between the body and brain. Reference: Spinal cord transmits sensory and motor information. Answer 18: B Explanation: Sensory information provides data for the CNS to integrate and make decisions. Reference: Sensory information is used by the CNS for decision-making. Answer 19: B Explanation: The brainstem controls automatic survival functions like heart rate and breathing. Reference: Brainstem is vital for survival functions such as heart rate. Answer 20: C Explanation: The cerebrum is responsible for higher cognitive functions such as thinking, memory, and reasoning. Reference: Cerebrum involves higher cognitive functions. Answer 21: B Explanation: Dendrites are cellular extensions with many branches that receive incoming electrical signals from other neurons. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 22: C Explanation: The axon is a finer, cable-like projection that extends from the cell body and carries nerve impulses away from the cell body. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 23: B Explanation: The brain is protected by the cranial cavity of the skull. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 24: C Explanation: The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) cushions the brain and spinal cord from injury. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 25: D Explanation: The cell body is the central part of the neuron and contains the nucleus and other organelles essential for the survival of the neuron. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 26: B Explanation: In the brain, the outer part comprises mainly cell bodies called gray matter, while the center is dominated by myelinated nerve fibres referred to as white matter. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 27: C Explanation: Myelinated nerve fibers are responsible for insulating and speeding up the transmission of nerve impulses. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 28: C Explanation: The PNS transmits information to and from the CNS, playing a fundamental role in the control of our behavior. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 29: C Explanation: The spinal cord runs as a canal inside the vertebral column and is protected by protective membranes called meninges. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 30: D Explanation: The cell body (soma) is usually small compared to the rest of the neuron and contains the nucleus and other organelles essential for the survival of the neuron. Reference: The central nervous system Answer 31: D Explanation: Dendrites are cellular extensions where the majority of the sensory input to the neuron occurs. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Neurons Answer 32: B Explanation: The outer part of the brain comprises mainly of the cell bodies called the gray matter. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Neurons Answer 33: C Explanation: Myelin sheaths insulate axons and speed up the transmission of nerve impulses. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Neurons Answer 34: C Explanation: Efferent/motor neurons transmit processed information from the CNS to effector organs. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Types/functions of neurons Answer 35: C Explanation: A synapse or synaptic cleft is responsible for maintaining communication between neurons. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Types/functions of neurons Answer 36: D Explanation: In the brain, the cell bodies dominate the outer part called the gray matter. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Neurons Answer 37: C Explanation: Efferent/motor neurons have longer axons and short dendrites. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Types/functions of neurons Answer 38: C Explanation: CSF cushions the brain and spinal cord from injury. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS) Answer 39: B Explanation: In the spinal cord, the white matter is located at the periphery. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Spinal cord Answer 40: D Explanation: The axon terminal contains neurotransmitter chemicals which either excites or inhibits the post-synaptic neuron. Reference: The Central Nervous System (CNS); Axon terminal Answer 41: B Explanation: Electrical synapses allow transmission in both forward and backward directions unlike chemical synapses which are unidirectional. Reference: currentPage Answer 42: A Explanation: Nor epinephrine is an example of an excitatory neurotransmitter, unlike Glycine and GABA which are inhibitory. Reference: currentPage Answer 43: B Explanation: Interneurons connect different neurons within the CNS, facilitating internal communication. Reference: previousPage Answer 44: B Explanation: Mitochondria provide ATP needed for making more neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft. Reference: currentPage Answer 45: B Explanation: Neurotransmitters are released into the synaptic cleft from the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron. Reference: previousPage Answer 46: B Explanation: The one-way conduction principle in chemical synapses ensures that impulses are directed towards a specific target. Reference: currentPage Answer 47: C Explanation: Afferent neurons have long dendrites and axons to convey information from tissues and organs to the CNS. Reference: previousPage Answer 48: B Explanation: Releasing more inhibitory neurotransmitters helps prevent over-excitation, ensuring that we do not become aware of all memories and sensory stimuli simultaneously. Reference: currentPage Answer 49: C Explanation: Acetylcholine is known to be an excitatory neurotransmitter, unlike GABA and serotonin which are typically inhibitory. Reference: currentPage Answer 50: C Explanation: Impulses can be blocked at a synapse by the inhibitory effects of neurotransmitters on the receptors of the post-synaptic neuron. Reference: currentPage Answer 51: B Explanation: Acetylcholine is associated with promoting wakefulness and excitement in the nervous system, especially in the excitatory areas of the pons and mid-brain. Reference: currentPage Answer 52: A Explanation: The norepinephrine system excites the brain to increase its activity and is involved in causing dreaming, leading to REM sleep. Reference: currentPage Answer 53: C Explanation: Dopamine is an inhibitory transmitter, and the destruction of dopaminergic neurons in basal ganglia is the main cause of parkinsonism. Reference: currentPage Answer 54: C Explanation: Serotonin suppresses pain at the spinal cord and plays an inhibitory role that leads to normal sleep when released at the thalamus and cerebrum. Reference: currentPage Answer 55: C Explanation: Chemical synapses function mainly in the CNS by secreting neurotransmitters, allowing unidirectional transmission of impulses. Reference: previousPage Answer 56: A Explanation: Electrical synapses allow transmission in both directions through gap junctions that enable free movement of ions from one cell to another. Reference: previousPage Answer 57: B Explanation: Calcium ions (Ca2+) enter the pre-synaptic terminal upon depolarization, causing the release of neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. Reference: currentPage Answer 58: D Explanation: Serotonin suppresses pain when released at the spinal cord and plays an inhibitory role leading to normal sleep at the thalamus and cerebrum. Reference: currentPage Answer 59: A Explanation: Most transmission in the CNS occurs via chemical synapses, which secrete neurotransmitters at the synaptic cleft to excite or inhibit subsequent neurons. Reference: previousPage Answer 60: C Explanation: The norepinephrine system excites the brain, increasing its activity and is responsible for the sleep phase known as rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. Reference: currentPage Answer 61: C Explanation: The norepinephrine system is responsible for dreaming which leads to a type of sleep called rapid eye movement (REM) sleep. Reference: Norepinephrine system Answer 62: B Explanation: Serotonin released at the cord fiber ending suppresses pain, while those secreted at the thalamus and cerebrum play an inhibitory role. Reference: Serotonin system Answer 63: C Explanation: Destruction of dopaminergic neurons in the basal ganglia is the main cause of parkinsonism. Reference: Dopamine system Answer 64: C Explanation: Nerve fibers at the excitatory areas of the pons and mid-brain secrete acetylcholine, leading to wakefulness and excited nervous system. Reference: Acetylcholine system Answer 65: C Explanation: Opening of cationic channels allows Na+ to pass, which excites the membrane. Reference: Mechanisms of Postsynaptic Transmission Answer 66: C Explanation: The ionophore component passes all the way through the postsynaptic membrane, allowing the passage of specified types of ions. Reference: Receptor Proteins Answer 67: D Explanation: Serotonin system includes neurons that reduce pain when serotonin is released at the cord fiber ending, and play an inhibitory role for normal sleep when released in the thalamus and cerebrum. Reference: Serotonin system Answer 68: B Explanation: Opening of anionic channels mainly allows Cl- to enter, which inhibits the membrane. Reference: Mechanisms of Postsynaptic Transmission Answer 69: B Explanation: Second messengers provide prolonged action on the neurons when activated. Reference: Mechanisms of Postsynaptic Transmission Answer 70: A Explanation: The binding component protrudes outward from the membrane and binds with the neurotransmitter. Reference: Receptor Proteins Answer 71: B Explanation: Opening cation channels allows Na+ ions to enter the postsynaptic neuron, which excites the membrane. Reference: previousPage Answer 72: B Explanation: Opening anionic channels allows Cl- ions to enter, inhibiting the membrane. Reference: previousPage Answer 73: B Explanation: Synaptic fatigue is a protective mechanism that prevents excessive excitability of the brain, particularly during seizures. Reference: currentPage Answer 74: D Explanation: Acidic pH leads to coma in diabetic patients. Reference: currentPage Answer 75: B Explanation: Spatial summation requires several different synapses firing simultaneously and summing up to cause an axon discharge. Reference: currentPage Answer 76: B Explanation: Second messengers provide prolonged actions by remaining active longer in the postsynaptic neuron cytoplasm. Reference: previousPage Answer 77: C Explanation: One-way conduction ensures signals travel only from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron. Reference: currentPage Answer 78: C Explanation: Fatigue occurs due to the depletion of acetylcholine caused by rapid, repetitive stimulation. Reference: currentPage Answer 79: C Explanation: Excitatory neurotransmitters open cationic channels that primarily allow Na+ ions to enter. Reference: previousPage Answer 80: A Explanation: Alkalosis, which is a raise in arterial blood pH, increases neuronal excitability. Reference: currentPage Answer 81: A Explanation: Synaptic fatigue occurs due to the depletion of neurotransmitters, such as acetylcholine, from repetitive stimulation, leading to reduced firing rates over time. Reference: nerv Th 2 Characteristics of synaptic transmission Answer 82: B Explanation: A small rise in arterial blood pH can increase neuronal excitability, potentially leading to cerebral epilepsy. Reference: nerv Th 2 Characteristics of synaptic transmission Answer 83: B Explanation: Spatial summation involves several different synapses firing at the same time, and their combined effects cause an axon discharge. Reference: nerv Th 2 Characteristics of synaptic transmission Answer 84: B Explanation: The corpus callosum is a bundle of myelinated nerve fibers connecting the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum. Reference: currentPage Answer 85: B Explanation: Chemical synapses exhibit one-way-conduction, transmitting signals only from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron. Reference: nerv Th 2 Characteristics of synaptic transmission Answer 86: C Explanation: Mixed cranial nerves contain both sensory and motor axons, serving multiple functions. Reference: currentPage Answer 87: B Explanation: The reticular formation controls all activities of the cerebral cortex by stimulating the thalamus, thus keeping the cortex active. Reference: currentPage Answer 88: D Explanation: The cerebellum is primarily responsible for coordinating body movements. Reference: currentPage Answer 89: B Explanation: Spatial summation requires several different synapses firing simultaneously to cause an axon discharge. Reference: nerv Th 2 Characteristics of synaptic transmission Answer 90: C Explanation: Alkalosis causes an increase in neuronal excitability, which can lead to conditions like cerebral epilepsy. Reference: nerv Th 2 Characteristics of synaptic transmission Answer 91: B Explanation: The parietal lobe is associated with processing tactile sensory information. Reference: Parietal lobe section Answer 92: C Explanation: The reticular formation controls all activities of the cerebral cortex by stimulating the thalamus. Reference: Cerebrum section Answer 93: C Explanation: Damage to the frontal lobe can affect reasoning, attention, socialization, and increase risk-taking behavior. Reference: Frontal lobe section Answer 94: D Explanation: The corpus callosum connects the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum. Reference: Cerebrum section Answer 95: A Explanation: Optic and olfactory nerves contain sensory axons only. Reference: Cranial nerves section Answer 96: B Explanation: The somatosensory cortex processes information from body sense organs, including touch and temperature. Reference: Parietal lobe section Answer 97: B Explanation: The motor cortex receives information from various lobes and utilizes it to carry out body movements. Reference: Frontal lobe section Answer 98: C Explanation: The frontal lobe is associated with higher level cognition like reasoning and problem-solving. Reference: Frontal lobe section Answer 99: C Explanation: The longitudinal sulcus separates the right and left hemispheres of the cerebrum. Reference: Cerebrum section Answer 100: C Explanation: The cerebellum is responsible for coordination, balance, and fine motor skills. Reference: Broad brain structure overview Answer 101: C Explanation: The temporal lobe houses the hippocampus, which is associated with the formation of memories. Reference: Temporal lobe Answer 102: A Explanation: Damage to the frontal lobe can lead to changes in reasoning, socialization, and increased risk-taking. Reference: Frontal lobe Answer 103: B Explanation: The parietal lobe is associated with processing tactile sensory information such as pressure, touch, temperature, and pain. Reference: Parietal lobe Answer 104: C Explanation: The auditory cortex is located in the temporal lobe and is responsible for perceiving and processing auditory stimuli. Reference: Temporal lobe Answer 105: D Explanation: The occipital lobe houses the primary visual cortex which is responsible for visual perception. Reference: Occipital lobe Answer 106: C Explanation: The temporal lobe is primarily responsible for interpreting sounds and the language we hear. Reference: Temporal lobe Answer 107: A Explanation: The frontal lobe is associated with reasoning, motor skills, higher-level cognition, and expressive language. Reference: Frontal lobe Answer 108: B Explanation: The somatosensory cortex is located in the parietal lobe and processes information from body sense organs. Reference: Parietal lobe Answer 109: D Explanation: Damage to the occipital lobe can cause problems such as difficulty in recognizing objects and identifying colors. Reference: Occipital lobe Answer 110: A Explanation: The frontal lobe is responsible for speech production and voluntary movement control. Reference: Frontal lobe Answer 111: C Explanation: The occipital lobe is located at the back portion of the brain and houses the primary visual cortex, which receives and interprets information from the retinas of the eyes. Reference: Page 11 Answer 112: C Explanation: Damage to the occipital lobe can cause problems like difficulty recognizing objects, inability to identify colors, and trouble recognizing words. Reference: Page 11 Answer 113: A Explanation: The temporal lobe houses the auditory cortex and is the primary center for perceiving and processing auditory stimuli. Reference: Previous Page 11 Answer 114: A Explanation: The primary motor area is located in the frontal lobe and is responsible for the control of voluntary muscles. Reference: Current Page 12 Answer 115: B Explanation: The brain stem, which includes the midbrain, pons, and medulla oblongata, regulates vital functions such as breathing and heart rate. Reference: Current Page 12 Answer 116: D Explanation: The hippocampus, located in the temporal lobe, is primarily associated with the formation of memories. Reference: Previous Page 11 Answer 117: B Explanation: Damage to the temporal lobe can cause problems with memory, speech perception, and language skills. Reference: Previous Page 11 Answer 118: B Explanation: The primary motor area for the control of voluntary muscles is located in the frontal lobe. Reference: Current Page 12 Answer 119: C Explanation: Wernicke's area, which is essential for language comprehension, is located in the temporal lobe. Reference: Current Page 12 Answer 120: A Explanation: The frontal lobe is responsible for problem-solving, behavior, and personality traits. Reference: Current Page 12 Answer 121: C Explanation: The cerebellum is responsible for coordinating body movements and maintaining balance. Reference: currentPage Answer 122: B Explanation: The pons acts as a relay station for sensory information coming from the eyes, ears, and touch receptors. Reference: currentPage Answer 123: C Explanation: The primary function of the limbic system is to integrate emotions and form memories. Reference: currentPage Answer 124: C Explanation: The pons regulates breathing and the sleep cycle. Reference: currentPage Answer 125: D Explanation: Nerve impulses that regulate heart rate are generated in the medulla oblongata. Reference: currentPage Answer 126: D Explanation: The midbrain relays auditory and visual information between the upper and lower brain regions. Reference: currentPage Answer 127: A Explanation: The thalamus is responsible for sending processed information from the cerebrum to other brain parts. Reference: previousPage Answer 128: C Explanation: The temporal lobe is associated with speech control. Reference: previousPage Answer 129: C Explanation: Broca's area is primarily involved in speech control. Reference: previousPage Answer 130: B Explanation: The brainstem is mainly composed of neural tissue that allows nerve impulses to travel between the brain and the spinal cord. Reference: currentPage Answer 131: C Explanation: The basal ganglia are responsible for coordinating muscular movement and posture. Any damage here can cause movement disorders. Reference: page 13 Answer 132: A Explanation: The cerebellum fine-tunes movement initiated by the cerebrum and helps maintain balance and posture. Reference: page 13 Answer 133: C Explanation: Lesions to the hippocampus cause the loss of recent memories without affecting old established memories. This is observed in Alzheimer's disease. Reference: page 13 Answer 134: B Explanation: The hypothalamus regulates the endocrine system by controlling the pituitary gland, thus influencing hormone production. Reference: page 13 Answer 135: C Explanation: The thalamus is responsible for relaying information to the cerebral cortex and for processing and integration. Reference: page 13 Answer 136: B Explanation: The limbic system is referred to as the 'emotional nervous system' and is responsible for emotions and higher mental functions. Reference: page 13 Answer 137: C Explanation: The pons acts as a relay station carrying signals from various parts of the cerebral cortex to the cerebellum and regulates sleep cycles. Reference: page 13 Answer 138: D Explanation: The hypothalamus maintains homeostasis by regulating water levels, sleep cycles, and body temperature. Reference: page 13 Answer 139: B Explanation: The amygdala is specifically involved in the development of fear emotions and can cause extreme expressions of fear. Reference: page 13 Answer 140: B Explanation: Lesions in the basal ganglia can cause movement disorders such as tremor and rigidity of Parkinson's disease. Reference: page 13 Answer 141: C Explanation: The hypothalamus is responsible for regulating the endocrine system by controlling the pituitary glands. Reference: Ret 2. Hypothalamus Answer 142: D Explanation: The amygdala coordinates responses to stress and anxiety, and is involved in the development of fear emotion. Reference: Ret 3. The amygdala Answer 143: B Explanation: Lesions to the hippocampus affect recent memories but not long- established memory, as seen in Alzheimer's disease. Reference: Ret 4. The hippocampus Answer 144: B Explanation: The basal ganglia are responsible for coordinating muscular movement and posture by blocking unwanted movements. Reference: Ret 5. The basal ganglia Answer 145: D Explanation: The sacral region is the lowest part of the spinal cord. Reference: currentPage: spinal cord Answer 146: C Explanation: The spinal cord's primary function is to act as a message pathway between the brain and the peripheral nervous system (PNS). Reference: currentPage: spinal cord Answer 147: C Explanation: The reticular formation does not store long-term memories; it influences sleep-wake cycles, endocrine secretion, and emotional responses. Reference: currentPage: Reticular formation Answer 148: C Explanation: The hippocampus plays a major role in short-term or recent memory storage. Reference: Ret 4. The hippocampus Answer 149: B Explanation: The hypothalamus controls the pituitary glands and thus regulates the endocrine system. Reference: Ret 2. Hypothalamus Answer 150: B Explanation: Lesions or damage to the amygdala can reduce responses to stress and anxiety. Reference: Ret 3. The amygdala Answer 151: C Explanation: The spinal cord connects the peripheral nervous system to the brain and transmits signals between them, as well as collecting signals from sensory neurons for processing. Reference: The function of the SC is to receive electrical signals from the PNS and send the signals to the brain and vice versa. Answer 152: B Explanation: In the spinal cord, gray matter is found on the inside while white matter is on the outside, opposite to the brain. Reference: In the spinal cord unlike the brain, the gray matter is found on the inside while the white matter is on the outside. Answer 153: A Explanation: The cervical region is the topmost section of the spinal cord. Reference: Spinal cord is divided into four sections- the cervical region (topmost), the thoracic, the lumbar and sacral regions. Answer 154: B Explanation: The spinal cord acts as a minor coordinating center responsible for some simple reflexes, enabling the withdrawal reflex without involving the brain. Reference: The spinal cord acts as a minor coordinating center responsible for some simple reflexes called SPINAL REFLEXES. Answer 155: C Explanation: Sensory neurons send information to the spinal cord where it is transmitted up to the brain for further processing and integration. Reference: Information (nerve impulses/action potential) reaching the spinal cord through sensory neurons is transmitted up into the brain for integration and processing. Answer 156: D Explanation: The withdrawal reflex is activated when touching a hot object, causing the hand to be pulled away quickly without involving the brain. Reference: The withdrawal reflex as seen when someone touches a hot object, he quickly pulls his hand away using the withdrawal reflex. Answer 157: B Explanation: Motor neurons transmit signals from the brain down the spinal cord to the appropriate muscles and glands. Reference: Signals (nerve impulse) arising from the motor areas of the brain travel down the cord through the motor neurons and leave the spinal cord through the spinal nerves. Answer 158: C Explanation: Spinal reflexes are automatic because they do not require information to be sent to the brain for processing; the spinal cord gives commands directly to the muscles. Reference: The response is usually automatic, spontaneous and short-lived. It does not require thinking (sending info to the brain for processing) before it is carried out. Answer 159: C Explanation: A stretch reflex involves sensory neurons that detect stretch, interneurons that process the information, and motor neurons that execute the response. Reference: Pathway for a stretch reflex (1 - 6). Answer 160: C Explanation: Signals from the motor areas of the brain travel down the spinal cord through motor neurons and exit the spinal cord at appropriate points to reach muscles and glands. Reference: Signals (nerve impulse) arising from the motor areas of the brain travel down the cord through the motor neurons and leave the spinal cord through the spinal nerves. Answer 161: B Explanation: Spinal reflexes are responsible for coordinating simple reflexes without involving the brain. They are automatic, spontaneous, and do not require processing in the brain. Reference: previousPage Answer 162: D Explanation: The cranial reflex involves the brain, unlike the spinal reflexes which are coordinated by the spinal cord. Reference: previousPage Answer 163: C Explanation: Sensory signals travel to both the grey matter of the cord to elicit local reflexes and to higher levels of the nervous system for further processing. Reference: currentPage Answer 164: B Explanation: Glia or neuroglia cells serve to protect and support nerve cells but do not transmit impulses. Reference: currentPage Answer 165: C Explanation: Neurons are the primary cells involved in the transmission of nerve impulses, whereas astrocytes, ependymal cells, and microglia are all types of glia which support neurons. Reference: currentPage Answer 166: D Explanation: The pathway of a withdrawal reflex includes the sensory neuron which sends the signal to the spinal cord, where a relay neuron processes it before passing it to the motor neuron. Reference: currentPage Answer 167: B Explanation: The sensory neuron transmits sensory signals to the spinal cord, where they are processed locally for a rapid response. Reference: currentPage Answer 168: D Explanation: The withdrawal reflex is an automatic response to a harmful stimulus, such as touching a hot object, leading to a quick withdrawal of the affected part. Reference: previousPage Answer 169: C Explanation: Sensory signals entering through the posterior roots typically terminate in the gray matter of the spinal cord, where local segmental reflexes can be elicited. Reference: currentPage Answer 170: D Explanation: The sequence is: stretch receptor detects stimulus, sensory neuron transmits signal to the spinal cord, motor neuron sends command to the muscle, resulting in contraction. Reference: previousPage Answer 171: B Explanation: Astrocytes have foot processes that encircle blood vessels, forming a crucial part of the BBB. Reference: currentPage Answer 172: C Explanation: Ependymal cells line the ventricles and central canal, forming the choroid plexus which produces and circulates cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Reference: currentPage Answer 173: B Explanation: Microglial cells are derived from macrophages and act as the immune effector cells of the CNS. Reference: currentPage Answer 174: C Explanation: The dura mater is the outermost, thick, fibrous layer of the meninges, situated right next to the skull. Reference: currentPage Answer 175: C Explanation: Schwann cells are responsible for forming the myelin sheath around neuronal axons in the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS). Reference: currentPage Answer 176: C Explanation: The pia mater is the innermost and most delicate layer of the meninges. Reference: currentPage Answer 177: C Explanation: Astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and ependymal cells are collectively referred to as macroglial cells. Reference: currentPage Answer 178: D Explanation: Ependymal cells have cilia that help circulate the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) within the brain and spinal cord. Reference: currentPage Answer 179: C Explanation: The withdrawal reflex involves sensory signals that terminate in the gray matter to prompt local segmental cord reflexes. Reference: previousPage Answer 180: C Explanation: Motor neurons send signals to effector muscles during a response to stimulus in a spinal reflex pathway. Reference: previousPage Answer 181: D Explanation: Oligodendrocytes are responsible for forming the myelin sheath around neuronal axons in the CNS. Reference: previousPage Answer 182: D Explanation: The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges and is closest to the skull. Reference: previousPage Answer 183: B Explanation: Ependymal cells have tiny hairs called cilia that wave back and forth to help circulate the CSF. Reference: previousPage Answer 184: C Explanation: Approximately 50% to 70% of cerebrospinal fluid is produced by ependymal cells in the brain. Reference: currentPage Answer 185: C Explanation: The pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges and adheres firmly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord. Reference: previousPage Answer 186: C Explanation: Microglial cells accumulate at the site of injury or pathogen invasion to phagocytose damaged cells and debris. Reference: previousPage Answer 187: D Explanation: Blood cells are normally absent in cerebrospinal fluid (CSF), except for occasional lymphocytes. Reference: currentPage Answer 188: C Explanation: Abnormal accumulation of CSF causes hydroencephalus, characterized by the enlargement of the head. Reference: currentPage Answer 189: B Explanation: Microglial cells are derived from macrophages and migrate to the CNS during development. Reference: previousPage Answer 190: C Explanation: Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) serves a vital function in the autoregulation of cerebral blood flow. Reference: currentPage Answer 191: A Explanation: The blood-brain barrier is composed of endothelial cells with tight junctions, a thick basement membrane, and astrocytic endfeet. Reference: currentPage Answer 192: D Explanation: The BBB is impermeable to plasma proteins and non-lipid soluble large organic molecules. Reference: currentPage Answer 193: B Explanation: Hydroencephalous is characterized by the abnormal accumulation of CSF causing enlargement of the head. Reference: previousPage Answer 194: C Explanation: Approximately 50% to 70% of CSF is produced in the brain by ependymal cells. Reference: previousPage Answer 195: C Explanation: CSF circulates within the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater layers of the meninges. Reference: previousPage Answer 196: B Explanation: The CSF acts as a cushion or buffer for the cortex, providing basic mechanical and immunological protection to the brain. Reference: previousPage Answer 197: B Explanation: Disruption of the BBB can allow solutes and water to enter the brain inappropriately, causing swelling or oedema. Reference: currentPage Answer 198: B Explanation: The BBB is permeable to electrolytes like sodium, potassium, and chloride. Reference: currentPage Answer 199: D Explanation: The tight junctions between endothelial cells of the BBB limit the passage of antibodies and antibiotics. Reference: currentPage Answer 200: C Explanation: The BBB acts very effectively to protect the brain from toxins and many common bacterial infections. Reference: currentPage Answer 201: C Explanation: The BBB is highly permeable to water and most lipid soluble substances like alcohol. Reference: previousPage Answer 202: C Explanation: Spirochetes such as Borrelia (Lyme disease) and Treponema pallidum (syphilis) can breach the BBB. Reference: previousPage Answer 203: B Explanation: The BBB allows tight regulation of passage of molecules in and out of the CNS. Reference: previousPage Answer 204: B Explanation: Infections of the brain are serious and difficult to treat because antibodies and antibiotics are too large to cross the BBB effectively. Reference: previousPage Answer 205: C Explanation: Pathologically, the BBB may be broken in multiple places by trauma, inflammation, infection, irradiation, neoplasm, and hypertensive crisis. Reference: previousPage Answer 206: B Explanation: The breakdown of the BBB can cause solutes, including water, to enter the brain leading to oedema/swelling, which can be life-threatening. Reference: previousPage Answer 207: B Explanation: Meningitis and encephalitis are classified under CNS infections because they involve inflammation of essential components of the central nervous system. Reference: currentPage Answer 208: C Explanation: Huntington's disease is characterized by the degeneration of GABA secreting neurons throughout the brain. Reference: currentPage Answer 209: C Explanation: The first clinical symptom of Alzheimer's disease is the loss of short-term or recent memory. Reference: currentPage Answer 210: C Explanation: Polio is an infection of the CNS characterized by the inflammation of the grey matter of the spinal cord which may lead to paralysis of the lower limb. Reference: currentPage Answer 211: Explanation: Muscle rigidity is a symptom associated with Parkinson's disease, not encephalitis. Reference: previousPage Answer 212: Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative disease causing extreme loss of mental powers, predominantly in people over the age of 65. Reference: previousPage Answer 213: Explanation: Imipramine is used in the treatment of depression, not Parkinson's disease. Reference: currentPage Answer 214: Explanation: Depression is primarily associated with a lack of serotonin and/or norepinephrine. Reference: currentPage Answer 215: Explanation: Fever is not typically associated with Multiple sclerosis; this condition involves visual problems, muscle weakness, and depression. Reference: currentPage Answer 216: Explanation: Huntington's disease is caused by the degeneration of GABA-secreting neurons. Reference: previousPage Answer 217: Explanation: Chlorpromazine is effective in decreasing the secretion of dopamine, making it a treatment for schizophrenia. Reference: currentPage Answer 218: Explanation: Cerebral palsy is a congenital disorder caused by lack of oxygen during birth. Reference: currentPage Answer 219: Explanation: Huntington's disease is treated with GABA-enhancing drugs like sodium valproate. Reference: previousPage Answer 220: Explanation: Parkinson's disease is characterized by tremors of the limbs, particularly at rest. Reference: currentPage