Endoscopy Preparation and Procedures PDF

1\. Used to describe a state in which patients are able to tolerate unpleasant procedures while maintaining cardiorespiratory function and the ability to respond to verbal commands and tactile stimulation? 1. Minimal sedation 2. Moderate sedation 3. Deep sedation 4. General anaes...

1\. Used to describe a state in which patients are able to tolerate unpleasant procedures while maintaining cardiorespiratory function and the ability to respond to verbal commands and tactile stimulation? 1. Minimal sedation 2. Moderate sedation 3. Deep sedation 4. General anaesthesia 5. Regional anaesthesia 2\. Which type of drug-induced depression in the level of consciousness is used to put patients to sleep during a medical procedure and is administered intravenously or through inhaled gases? 1. Minimal sedation 2. Moderate sedation 3. Deep sedation 4. General anaesthesia 5. Regional anaesthesia 3\. Which one of the following are not the clinical objectives of administering sedation for GI endoscopy? 1. To relieve patient anxiety and discomfort, 2. To improve the outcome of the examination 3. To diminish the patient\'s memory of the event. 4. To increase the patient memory of the event. 4\. Which level of sedation Patients cannot be easily aroused but is still able to respond to noxious or insistent stimuli and Airway support may be required for? 1. Regional anaesthesia 2. Moderate sedation 3. Deep sedation 4. General anaesthesia 5. Minimal sedation 5\. Which level of sedation the patient cannot be aroused by painful stimuli, and cardiovascular function may be impaired? 1. Deep sedation 2. General anaesthesia 3. Minimal sedation 4. Regional anaesthesia 5. Moderate sedation 6\. Which of the following is Mallampati Classification is incorrect according to their class? 1. Class I: soft palate, fauces, uvula, pillars. 2. Class II: soft palate, fauces, portion of uvula. 3. Class III: soft palate, base of uvula. 4. Class IV: soft palate and hard palate. 7\. Which of the following is the moderate sedation agent is faster onset of action and better safely profile? 1. Diazepam 2. Pethidine 3. Midazolam Which of the following is incorrect about Patient Preparation and Monitoring of Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography? 1. The patient Informed consent should be taken after being assured that he/she understands well. 2. After the patient is dressed with the appropriate operation clothes, the prostheses and the jewelry must be removed in order not to interfere with the radiological image. 3. X-ray can be harmful, so the patient should be questioned whether she is pregnant or not. 4. It is important that the patient has not taken anything by mouth at least 2 hours before the procedure. 9. Which of the following is the most common complication of Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatographx procedure? 1. Liver 2. Gallbladder 3. Bile duct 4. Pancreatitis 10\. All of the following are nursing responsibilities before the procedure of bronchoscopy. Except? 1. Assess bleeding episodes 2. Secure informed consent 3. Obtain medical history 4. Check for NPO. 11\. Which of the following best describes the ASA classification of a patient with severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life and requires an anesthetic with a higher level of monitoring? 1. ASAI 2. ASA II 3. ASA III 4. ASA IV 5. ASA V 6. ASA VI 12 Which of the following best describes the ASA classification of a patient with mild systemic disease, such as hypertension or asthma, that is well controlled with medication? 1. ASAI 2. ASA II 3. ASA III 4. ASA IV 5. ASA V 6. ASA VI 13.Which of the following best describes the ASA classification of a patient with no known medical problems and is considered to be in good physical health? 1. ASA I 2. ASA II 3. ASA III 4. ASA IV 5. ASA V 6. ASA VI 14.Which of the following best describes the ASA classification of a patient who is brain-dead and whose organs are being removed for transplantation? 1. ASAI 2. ASA II 3. ASA IlI 4. ASA IV 5. ASA V 6. ASA VI 15.Which of the following best describes the ASA classification of a patient who is moribund, or whose condition is such that death is imminent, regardless of the planned surgical procedure? 1. ASA I 2. ASA II 3. ASA III 4. ASA IV 5. ASA V 6. ASA VI 16\. Which of the following best describes the ASA classification of a patient with severe systemic disease that is not fully controlled, or a patient with mild to moderate systemic disease that is not well controlled? 1. ASA I 2. ASA II 3. ASA III 4. ASA IV 5. ASA V 6. ASA VI 17\. Which of the following medical conditions may increase the risk of complications during an EGD procedure? 1. Valvular heart disease 2. Diabetes 3. Liver disease 4. Depression 5. All of them 18\. Which of the following statement is incorrect about complication of upper gastrointestinal endoscopy as general consideration? 1. Improper preparation for esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD) begins with a lack of thorough history and physical examination. 2. Flexible upper gastrointestinal endoscopy is a safe procedure with a complication rate well below 2% and a mortality rate of 0.004%. 3. The incidence of complications increases when biopsy, polypectomy, or other invasive diagnostic or therapeutic aneuvers are performed. 4. Both physician and patient should understand the indications for the procedure and possible Complications 19\. Which of the following are potential complications that may arise during an EGD procedure in a patient with valvular heart disease? 1. Bacterial endocarditis 2. Hypoglycemia 3. Oyersedation 4. Hypertensive crisis 20.Which of the following are potential complications that may arise during an EGD procedure in a patient with diabetes? 1. Bacterial endocarditis 2. Hypoglycemia 3. Oxcusedatien 4. Hypertensive crisis 21\. Which of the following medications may cause bleeding problems during an EGD procedure? 1. Aspirin 2. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) 3. Both A and B 4. None of the above 5. 22\. Which of the following options is the best management for an antiseagulated patient undergoing therapeutic EGD, considering the risk-benefit ratio? 1. Stop the warfarin with no parenteral anticoagulation coverage 1. Stop the warfarin with parenteral 2. Continue warfarin at the usual dose 3. Continue at a reduced dose 4. All of them 23\. Which of the following is an acceptable prophylactic regimen for high-risk patients who need antibiotics prior to endoscopic procedures? 1. 2g of parenteral ampicillin and 1.5mg/kg gentamicin (up to 80mg) 30 minutes before the procedure, followed by a single 1.5-g dose of oral amoxicillin 6 hours after the procedure 2. 2g of parenteral vancomycin 30 minutes before the procedure, with no post-procedure antibiotics needed 1. 1.5mg/kg gentamicin (up to 80mg) 30 minutes before the procedure, followed by a single 2g dose of oral amoxicillin 6 hours after the procedure 2. 2g of parenteral ampicillin and 1.5mg/kg gentamicin (up to 80mg) 24 hours before the procedure, followed by a single 1.5-g dose of oral amoxicillin 12 hours after the procedure 24\. Which of the following is a potential infection that could be transmitted through contaminated endoscopes or water bottles? 1. Pseudomonas acrusioosa 2. Salmonella 3. Helicobacter 4. Mycobacterium 5. All of the above 25\. Which of the following factors increase the risk of aspiration during EGD? 1. Topical anesthesia 2. Gastric distention 3. Sedation 4. All of the above 5. None of the above 26\. Which of the following is more likely to produce cardiopulmonary complications during conscious sedation for EGD? 1. Narcotics and benzodiazepines in combination 2. Narcotics alone 3. Benzodiazepines alone 4. None of the above 27\. What are the risk factors for esopbageal perforation during diagnostic EGD? 1. Anterior cervical osteophytes 2. Zeuker\'s diverticulum 3. Esentagsal, stricture or web 4. Cervical rib ) All of the above 28\. Which of the following is a potential complication of therapeutic EGD for nonvaciceal, bleeding? 1. Precipitation of bleeding from a verbleeding ulcer 2. Asymptomatic hypertension and ventricular tachycardia 3. Full-thickness necrosis 4. Damage to the endoscope from inadvertent application in the working channel B\) All of them F None of the above 29\. Which of the following is a potential complication of therapeutic EGD for variceal bleeding? 1. . Stricture 2. Perforation 3. Bleeding 4. Chest pain 5. all of them 30\. What are the early symptoms of colonic perforation during colonoscopy? 1. Persistent abdominal pain and abdominal distention 2. Nausea and vomiting 3. Fever and chills 4. Constipation and diarrhea 31\. Which of the following circumstances may require the presence of an anesthesiologist or full anesthesia during an upper endoscopy procedure? 1. Heavy drinkers 2. Young children 3. Patients who are difficult to sedate 4. Patients with high-risk cardiopulmonary status B\) All of the above 32\. Which of the following statements about propofol is NOT true? 1. It has a short half-life, which enhances its safety profile 2. It is associated with good cognitive function in the recovery period 3. It is associated with rapid recovery of driving and psychomotor skills 4. It has been shown to have high procedural success rates and low complication rates 5. It has a reversal agent 33\. Which of the following is NOT an advantage of propofol compared to MF (midazolam-fentanyl)? 1. It expeditiously induced deeper sedation 2. It had high patient satisfaction 3. It had faster and more predictable recovery times 4. It was associated with longer recovery and discharge times 5. It had higher post-sedation recovery scores 34\. Which of the following is NOT a criterion for discharge after an endoscopy procedure? 1. The patient is fully awake 2. The patient has been counseled about the findings and further care 3. The patient has been given a drink 1. The patient has been dressed 2. The patient is in the presence of an accompanying person 35\. Which of the following medications may cause bleeding problems during an EGD procedure? 1. Aspirin 2. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NS 3. Warfarin 4. Ticlopidiva 5. Slopidassal F\) All of them 36\. Which of the following statements is NOT a recommendation for minimizing the risk of complications from conscious sedation? 1. Take a careful history with attention to patient allergies, medications, and comorbidities. 2. Use the smallest amount of sedation that will provide the desired effect. 3. Narcotics and benzodiazepines in combination are less likely to produce cardiopulmonary complications than either drug given alone. 4. Elyazepiland Valaxone should be readily accessible before the start of the procedure. 5. A patient who is awake and responsive after receiving Nalaxana or torazenil may again become unresponsive when the drug wears off. 37\. Which of the following best describes the use of Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC) in GI procedures? 1. It is the least common method of sedation 2. It is typically used for minor procedures 3. It is one of the most common methods of sedation 4. It is typically used for major surgeries 38.Which of the following best describes Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)? 1. The administration of propofol by avestbesia professionals to induce deep sedation in intubated patients 2. The administration of propofol by apestbesia professionals to induce deep sedation in wintebated patients 1. The administration of opioids or benzodiazepines by anesthesia professionals to induce deep sedation in unintubated patients 2. The administration of propofol by surgeons to induce deep sedation in intubated patients. 39\. Which one of following is the most common sedation methods for GI procedure? A) Minimal sedation B) Moderate sedation C) Deep sedation D) Monitored anaesthesia care E) General anesthesia The targeted level of sedation during endoscopy may vary depending on: 1. The patient\'s medical condition and the procedure 2. Patient\'s income level 3. Hospital\'s infrastructure 4. Patient\'s level of education 5. All of above 2\) Minimal patient monitoring requirements for sedated endoscopic gastrointestinal procedures include all of the following EXCEPT: 1. Assessment of blood pressure 2. Heart rate C.\ Pulse oximetry 1. Hemoglobin level 2. Visual assessment of ventilatory activity 3\) Typically, moderate sedation is induced by combination of a : 1. Antibiotic and a non-steroidal analgesic 2. Antiacid and an antipyretic C.\ Benzodiazepine sedative and an opioid analgesic 1. Opioid analgesic and a non-steroidal analgesic 2. Antiepileptic and a benzodiazepine sedative 4\) During ERCP, which of the following is WRONG for restraining devices: 1. Must be applied by properly trained personnel 2. Must not interfere with observation of the child for over-distention of the abdomen 3. Extremities must be visible in order to assess peripheral circulation 4. Must not interfere with monitoring devices 5. None of above 5\) Which of the following is NOT a contraindication for bronchoscopy? 1. Patients who are uncooperative 2. Patients with uncorrectable coagulopathy 3. Patients with mycotic infections 4. Patients with severe acute respiratory failure who cannot tolerate high flow oxygen interruption e. Patients with severe tracheal obstruction which makes it difficult to pass the scope