E-Business Extra Questions PDF

Week-1 1. What is one advantage of integrating brick and mortar business with e-business operations? A) Better access to customer market B) Higher initial costs C) Increased physical store size D) Less efficient service A 2. What is the primary objective of the e-business course mentioned in...

Week-1 1. What is one advantage of integrating brick and mortar business with e-business operations? A) Better access to customer market B) Higher initial costs C) Increased physical store size D) Less efficient service A 2. What is the primary objective of the e-business course mentioned in the document? A) To teach traditional business methods B) To introduce concepts and tools of electronic business C) To focus solely on marketing strategies D) To eliminate the need for physical stores B 3. Which business model is based on reaching buyers directly and compressing the distribution channel? A) Merchant model B) Manufacturer (Direct) model C) Affiliate model D) Community model B 4. What is one benefit of e-procurement solutions mentioned in the document? A) Higher costs for agricultural inputs B) Improved scheduling C) Less access to suppliers D) Decreased product quality B 5. According to Dr. Andy Grove, what will happen to companies that do not adapt to the Internet? A) They will thrive B) They will become Internet companies or die C) They will remain unchanged D) They will only focus on traditional markets B 6. What is one of the key features of the eChoupal website mentioned in the document? A) It provides weather information B) It sells agricultural machinery C) It focuses on urban farming D) It is only available in English A 7. What type of information can farmers access through the eChoupal portal? A) Weather, Best Practices, Crop Information B) Only market prices C) Local government regulations D) Personal finance tips A 8. What is a benefit of the Manufacturer (Direct) model? A) Increased distribution costs B) Better understanding of customer preferences C) Longer distribution channels D) Less efficient customer service B 9. What is one of the business models mentioned in the document? A) Franchise B) Utility C) Retail D) Consulting B 10. What has been the net result of using the e-portal for farmers? A) Increased total procurement at mandis B) Decreased total procurement at mandis C) Higher costs for seeds and fertilizers D) Less access to market information B Week 2 1. What does DMAIC and Information System provide? A) Data B) Marketing strategies C) Financial reports D) Customer feedback A 2. What is ERP described as in the document? A) A marketing tool B) A cross-functional enterprise system C) A financial management system D) A customer relationship management system B 3. What type of decisions are described as semi-structured? A) Decisions with clear-cut answers B) Decisions involving complex algorithms C) Decisions where not all procedures can be specified D) Decisions based on historical data C 4. What is the traditional form of providing information in reports? A) Ad-hoc reports B) Periodic Scheduled Reports C) Real-time reports D) Summary reports B 5. What is one method of knowledge representation in expert systems? A) Data mining B) Object-Based Knowledge C) Statistical analysis D) Machine learning B 6. What is the main purpose of Online Analytical Processing (OLAP)? A) Data warehousing B) Data entry C) Data storage D) Data retrieval A 7. What type of analysis involves observing how changes to selected variables affect other variables? A) What-if analysis B) Descriptive analysis C) Predictive analysis D) Prescriptive analysis A 8. What is an example of a semi-structured decision? A) Deciding on a new product line B) Choosing a supplier C) Setting a budget D) Hiring an employee A 9. What is a broad category of reports that are provided on a regular basis? A) Ad-hoc reports B) Periodic Scheduled Reports C) Real-time reports D) Summary reports B 10. What type of business processes are defined as workflows of material, information, and money? A) Intra-organizational B) Inter-organizational C) Functional D) All of the above D Week 3 1. What does Customer Relationship Management (CRM) focus on? A) Acquiring and retaining profitable customers B) Reducing procurement costs C) Increasing supplier diversity D) Enhancing product quality A 2. What is the purpose of Spend Analysis? A) To develop an aggregate view of procurement spend B) To create contracts for suppliers C) To negotiate prices with customers D) To manage supplier relationships A 3. What does e-procurement facilitate? A) Corporate buying using the Internet B) Supplier relationship management C) Customer service improvement D) Inventory management A 4. What are RFx documents used for? A) Specifying purchase requirements from suppliers B) Creating marketing strategies C) Managing customer relationships D) Analyzing market trends A 5. What is included in a contract according to the document? A) Price of the item(s) and terms and conditions B) Supplier contact information C) Customer feedback D) Market analysis data A 6. What is an E-Procurement model? A) A model for traditional purchasing B) A technology solution for corporate buying C) A method for offline procurement D) A strategy for customer retention B 7. What does RFx stand for? A) Request for Exchange B) Request for Experience C) Request for Information, Quotation, and Proposal D) Request for External C 8. What is one benefit of an Enterprise portal? A) Increased employee surfing B) More specific information to business users C) Reduced access to company data D) Limited access to industry news B 9. What is the purpose of Internet purchasing consortia? A) To gather purchasing power for discounts B) To limit supplier options C) To enhance individual purchasing D) To create a single supplier marketplace A 10. What is a feature of a corporate website? A) A splash page as an entry point B) Limited access to company information C) No search engine capabilities D) A focus solely on product sales A 11. What is the role of RFx applications? A) To support paper-based purchasing B) To create and evaluate complex RFQs and bids C) To eliminate supplier negotiations D) To restrict purchasing data B 12. What does e-procurement facilitate? A) Corporate buying using the Internet B) Offline purchasing processes C) Supplier relationship management D) Customer service enhancement A 13. What is a characteristic of Internet B2B auctions? A) Limited supplier base B) Expanded base of potential suppliers C) Focus on retail customers D) No integration with information systems B 14. What is one of the core ingredients of Contract Pricing? A) Supplier selection B) Solicitation (RFx) C) Customer feedback D) Market research B Week 4 1. What is one of the typical functionalities of a Warehouse Management System (WMS)? A) Stock counting B) Customer service C) Marketing analysis D) Product design A 2. What does eSupply Chain facilitate? A) Real-time updates across the chain B) Increased shipping costs C) Reduced product variety D) Longer delivery times A 3. What is a key activity in Tactical transportation functionality? A) Capacity Management B) Product marketing C) Customer feedback D) Sales forecasting A 4. What is essential for the success of VMI processes? A) Monitoring and Measurement B) Increased inventory levels C) Higher shipping costs D) Less communication A 5. What happens when a retailer forgets to report using consignment stock in VMI? A) Replenishment cycle gets disrupted B) Sales increase C) Inventory levels decrease D) Supplier relationships improve A 6. What is one of the B-to-C model functionalities mentioned in the document? A) Interactive design B) Supply chain management C) Inventory forecasting D) Customer relationship management A 7. What is the purpose of stock counting in WMS? A) To manage customer orders B) To track employee performance C) To maintain inventory accuracy D) To increase sales C 8. What does the eSupply Chain provide a better understanding of? A) Supplier capabilities B) Customer needs C) Market trends D) Product pricing B 9. What is a key aspect of Capacity Management in transportation functionality? A) Managing transportation costs B) Ensuring enough capacity is available C) Increasing delivery speed D) Reducing vehicle maintenance B 10. What is the first step in the Supplier Side Activities for stock updating? A) Generate purchase order B) Check stock status C) Dispatch consignment stock D) Update stock status A Week 5 1\. What is the primary purpose of the ISO-OSI model? A. To provide specific application software for networks B. To create a single unified networking protocol C. To benchmark international standardization of computer networking protocols D. To ensure all network devices are the same Answer: C 2\. Which layer of the TCP/IP model provides end-to-end transport services between hosts? A. Application Layer B. Transport Layer C. Link Layer D. Network Layer Answer: B 3\. What function does the Network Layer serve in the TCP/IP model? A. Provides access to the physical network B. Handles session management C. Manages application interfaces D. Forwards packets across the network Answer: D 4\. What is the role of layers in the ISO-OSI model? A. To create complex protocols without isolation B. To eliminate the need for different network devices C. To promote development and flexibility through well-defined interfaces D. To ensure all layers communicate directly with each other Answer: C 5\. Which organization is NOT involved in networking protocol standardization? A. ISO B. IAB C. NIST D. IEEE Answer: C 6\. What is the primary function of the Domain Name System (DNS)? A. To store email addresses B. To manage web hosting services C. To ensure security protocols on websites D. To convert IP addresses into human-readable domain names Answer: D 7\. Which protocol is foundational for webpage generation? A. SNMP B. SMTP C. HTTP D. FTP Answer: C 8\. How does a browser resolve a domain name into an IP address? A. By contacting the root server directly B. By consulting its own local cache C. By using a specialized application protocol D. By sending a request to the client\'s ISP Answer: D 9\. What characteristic allows a web server to handle multiple client requests simultaneously? A. HTTP Daemon B. Forking/Multithreading C. Throughput D. Dynamic Load Balancing Answer: B 10\. What method of dynamic load balancing maps to a cluster of servers during address translation? A. Packet-Based B. Dispatcher-Based C. DNS-Based D. Server-Based Answer: C 11\. Which of the following describes IPv4 addresses correctly? A. 32-bit addresses in dot decimal format B. 64-bit addresses in hexadecimal format C. 128-bit addresses to accommodate more devices D. 32-bit physical addresses used in routing Answer: A 12\. What is a key difference between TCP and UDP? A. UDP guarantees packet delivery, TCP does not B. TCP is connection-oriented, UDP is connectionless C. UDP uses handshaking, TCP does not D. TCP is faster than UDP Answer: B 13\. What happens to packets in a \'Best-effort\' delivery network during congestion? A. They are stored and sent later B. They are discarded C. They are queued until congestion clears D. They are duplicated to ensure delivery Answer: B 14\. What protocol is NOT typically used to connect to NAS? A. HTTP B. CIFS C. NFS D. Cisco Internetwork Operating System Answer: D 15\. What role does the Transport Layer play in network communication? A. Encapsulates application data into frames B. Routes datagrams between hosts C. Establishes connection-oriented communication with TCP D. Converts physical addresses into IP addresses Answer: C Week 7 1\. Which of the following is an essential goal of confidentiality? A. Protecting systems from environmental disruptions B. Preventing data from unauthorized access C. Ensuring data is accessible when needed D. Guaranteeing data integrity through encryption Answer: B \-\-- 2\. What does authentication confirm? A. The content of a message is protected B. The identity of the interacting party C. That no unauthorized packets are dropped D. All transmitted messages are encrypted Answer: B \-\-- 3\. What type of attack does sniffing represent? A. Active attack B. Denial of Service (DoS) attack C. Passive attack D. IP Spoofing Answer: C \-\-- 4\. Which of the following is an example of non-repudiation? A. Encrypting confidential data B. Preventing denial of service C. Preventing the sender from denying message transmission D. Modifying data during transit Answer: C \-\-- 5\. Which encryption algorithm uses different keys for encryption and decryption? A. RC4 B. DES C. RSA D. AES Answer: C \-\-- 6\. Which mechanism ensures the integrity of transmitted data? A. Non-repudiation B. Hash functions C. IP spoofing D. Firewall Answer: B \-\-- 7\. What is the primary function of a digital signature? A. Encrypting bulk data B. Authenticating the origin and integrity of a message C. Hiding the source IP address D. Masking transmitted data from sniffers Answer: B \-\-- 8\. Which protocol provides encryption and message integrity on the internet? A. HTTP B. SSL/TLS C. FTP D. SMTP Answer: B \-\-- 9\. What is a Trojan horse in security terminology? A. A firewall bypass mechanism B. Software that allows unauthorized remote control of a system C. A high-level encryption algorithm D. A network sniffer used for testing Answer: B \-\-- 10\. Which type of cryptographic algorithm is typically used for key exchange? A. Symmetric encryption B. Asymmetric encryption C. Stream cipher D. Block cipher Answer: B \-\-- 11\. What is a rootkit? A. A basic antivirus program B. A malicious program that hides itself deeply in the OS C. An encryption tool for databases D. A secure backup software Answer: B \-\-- 12\. What is the role of a firewall in network security? A. Blocking unauthorized access to a network B. Detecting phishing attempts C. Encrypting transmitted data D. Generating public and private keys Answer: A \-\-- 13\. What does IP spoofing involve? A. Encrypting IP packets B. Modifying IP addresses to impersonate another host C. Changing the encryption key mid-transmission D. Redirecting encrypted packets to another server Answer: B \-\-- 14\. Which of the following algorithms is faster but less secure than RSA? A. AES B. MD5 C. RC4 D. DES Answer: C \-\-- 15\. What is the impact of using TLS on server throughput? A. Increases throughput by 50% B. Causes latency and reduces throughput C. Reduces the need for encryption algorithms D. Prevents bottlenecks on the network Answer: B Week-12\-\-\-\-\-\-\-\-\-\-- What type of auction is discussed in the section on page 28? A) Single-unit auction B) Multiunit reverse auction C) Sealed-bid auction D) English auction Answer: B) Multiunit reverse auction 2\. In a multiunit auction with divisible bids, what do bidders submit? A) Price only B) Quantity only C) Price-quantity pairs D) Sealed bids Answer: C) Price-quantity pairs 3\. What is the total quantity to sell in the divisible bids example? A) 50 units B) 80 units C) 100 units D) 20 units Answer: C) 100 units 4\. What algorithm can be used to solve the winner determination problem in indivisible bids? A) Linear programming B) Branch and Bound Algorithm C) Simplex method D) Genetic algorithm Answer: B) Branch and Bound Algorithm 5\. What is the main goal of the winner determination problem in a double auction? A) Minimize costs B) Maximize market surplus C) Equal distribution of goods D) Maximize the number of bids Answer: B) Maximize market surplus 6\. What does market surplus represent in a double auction? A) Total bids B) Difference between bids and asks C) Total quantity sold D) Total revenue Answer: B) Difference between bids and asks 7\. Which of the following is NOT a constraint type mentioned in complex auction formats? A) Divisible bid B) Indivisible bid C) Time constraint D) Price schedule Answer: C) Time constraint 8\. What is a key characteristic of a multi-attribute auction? A) Single item auction B) Multiple items with different attributes C) Only price-based bids D) No constraints Answer: B) Multiple items with different attributes 9\. In the context of auctions, what does \"aggregation\" refer to? A) Combining bids from multiple bidders B) Disassembling and reassembling bundles of items C) Increasing the total quantity sold D) Reducing the number of bidders Answer: B) Disassembling and reassembling bundles of items 10\. What is the role of a market maker in a double auction? A) To set the prices B) To disassemble and reassemble bundles of items C) To determine the winner D) To collect bids Answer: B) To disassemble and reassemble bundles of items 11\. What type of auction allows for the sale of both homogeneous and heterogeneous goods? A) Single-item auction B) Double auction C) Sealed-bid auction D) English auction Answer: B) Double auction 12\. Which of the following is a key entity in a multiunit auction with indivisible bids? A) Total revenue B) Bidders C) Price-quantity pairs D) All of the above Answer: D) All of the above 13\. What is the total revenue calculated based on in a multiunit auction? A) Total quantity sold B) Total bids received C) Accepted bids D) Total demand Answer: C) Accepted bids 14\. Which algorithm is mentioned as a possible solution for the knapsack problem in auctions? A) Dynamic programming B) Greedy algorithm C) Branch and Bound Algorithm D) Both B and C Answer: D) Both B and C 15\. What is the primary focus of the auction design problem? A) Maximizing bids B) Ensuring efficiency and optimality C) Reducing costs D) Increasing the number of participants Answer: B) Ensuring efficiency and optimality 16\. In a multiunit auction, what happens to the last chosen bid? A) It is rejected B) It receives a partial allocation C) It is automatically accepted D) It is ignored Answer: B) It receives a partial allocation 17\. What is a characteristic of indivisible bids in auctions? A) They can be split into smaller units B) They must be accepted in full C) They are always lower than divisible bids D) They are not allowed in auctions Answer: B) They must be accepted in full 18\. What is the significance of volume discounts in auctions? A) They increase the total quantity sold B) They provide incentives for larger bids C) They reduce the number of bidders D) They are irrelevant in auctions Answer: B) They provide incentives for larger bids 19\. Which of the following is a challenge in winner determination problems? A) Identifying the highest bid B) Allocating resources optimally C) Ensuring all bids are accepted D) None of the above Answer: B) Allocating resources optimally 20\. What is the main topic of the section on page 21? A) Multiunit auctions B) Winner determination problem C) Auction design D) E-business Answer: B) Winner determination problem Week-11 21\. What is the Weighted Average method used for in recommendation generation? A) To calculate the mean preference score B) To calculate preference scores as a weighted average of scores with correlation as the weight C) To find the most popular item D) To determine user demographics Answer: B 22\. In the Deviation from the mean method, what is calculated? A) The average score of all items B) The deviation of a user\'s preference score from the mean preference score C) The total number of items purchased D) The correlation between items Answer: B 23\. What does the Top-N items method focus on? A) Finding the least popular items B) Reasoning over all category preference models for a single user C) Estimating the total sales D) Analyzing user demographics Answer: B 24\. What is the primary focus of counting-based methods in recommendation generation? A) The average price of items B) The frequency of a user\'s favorite preferences on items C) The total number of users D) The correlation between different categories Answer: B 25\. What is the purpose of generating association rules in recommendation generation? A) To find the average user preference B) To create top-N recommendations based on transaction data C) To analyze user demographics D) To calculate the total sales of items Answer: B 26\. What does the confidence score indicate in association rule-based recommendations? A) The total number of items sold B) The likelihood that an item appears in the recommendations C) The average price of items D) The number of users in a category Answer: B 27\. In collaborative filtering, what does the matrix represent? A) User demographics B) Buyer transactions and their preference scores C) Item prices D) Sales data Answer: B 28\. What is the Pearson correlation coefficient used for? A) To measure the average sales B) To measure similarity between users based on their preferences C) To calculate the total number of items D) To analyze user demographics Answer: B 29\. What is the first step in generating recommendations based on demographic data? A) Building category preference models B) Data transformation to create training examples C) Analyzing user preferences D) Calculating sales data Answer: B 30\. What is the significance of support values in itemset analysis? A) They determine the average price of items B) They help identify frequent itemsets C) They measure user demographics D) They calculate the total sales Answer: B 31\. What does the term \"Top-M users\" refer to? A) The least active users B) The most accurate recommendations for a single category over all users C) The total number of users in a category D) The average sales per user Answer: B 32\. What is the main goal of using category preference models? A) To analyze user demographics B) To generate recommendations based on user preferences C) To calculate total sales D) To find the least popular items Answer: B 33\. What is the role of demographic data in recommendation generation? A) It is not relevant B) It helps in generating training examples for preference models C) It calculates the average sales D) It determines the total number of items Answer: B 34\. What does the term \"frequent itemsets\" refer to? A) Items that are rarely purchased B) Combinations of items that appear together frequently in transactions C) The total number of items sold D) The average price of items Answer: B 35\. What is the purpose of using ANN or decision trees in recommendation generation? A) To calculate total sales B) To induce category preference models C) To analyze user demographics D) To find the least popular items Answer: B 36\. What is the main focus of the association rule generation process? A) To find the average user preference B) To sort recommended items based on confidence scores C) To analyze user demographics D) To calculate the total sales of items Answer: B 37\. What does the term \"active user\" refer to in the context of recommendations? A) A user who has not made any purchases B) A user currently engaged in a transaction C) A user who has made multiple purchases D) A user who is inactive Answer: B 38\. What is the significance of the minimum support threshold in itemset analysis? A) It determines the average price of items B) It helps identify which itemsets are considered frequent C) It measures user demographics D) It calculates total sales Answer: B 39\. What is the main challenge in multiple sourcing problems? A) It is a simple sorting problem B) It is a combinatorial problem C) It has no relevance to procurement D) It only involves a single item Answer: B 40\. What is the outcome of reasoning on category preference models? A) It generates training examples B) It provides recommendations for active users C) It calculates total sales D) It analyzes user demographics Answer: B Week-9 Here are ten multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the provided document on customer behavior modeling in e-business: 1\. What does CBMG stand for in the context of customer behavior modeling? o A) Customer-Based Market Group o B) Customer Behavior Modeling Graph o C) Comprehensive Behavior Monitoring Guide o D) Consumer Behavior Modeling Graph o Answer: B) Customer Behavior Modeling Graph 2\. In a CBMG, the entry state transition probability is represented as: o A) p1n = 0 o B) pnn = 1 o C) pi1 = 1 o D) pnj = 0 o Answer: A) p1n = 0 3\. The average time a visitor spends in a particular state in the CBMG model is called: o A) Session length o B) Holding time o C) Transition time o D) Visit duration o Answer: B) Holding time 4\. Which metric in CBMG indicates the number of sessions resulting in a purchase? o A) Entry-to-exit ratio o B) Buy-to-visit ratio o C) Exit transition frequency o D) State probability o Answer: B) Buy-to-visit ratio 5\. What algorithm is commonly used for clustering sessions in customer behavior analysis? o A) Linear Regression o B) Decision Tree o C) K-means Clustering o D) Neural Networks o Answer: C) K-means Clustering 6\. Which type of recommendation system uses features of items and user preferences to suggest items? o A) Collaborative Filtering o B) Popularity-based o C) Content-based o D) Demographics-based o Answer: C) Content-based 7\. In a performance model for e-business capacity planning, which metric defines the probability of a zero-request state? o A) Server utilization o B) Throughput o C) Idle time o D) p0 o Answer: D) p0 8\. What is the main purpose of capacity planning in e-business? o A) To optimize marketing o B) To predict system load and plan cost-effectively o C) To enhance customer loyalty o D) To classify customer segments o Answer: B) To predict system load and plan cost-effectively 9\. What is the primary objective of a queuing network model in performance analysis? o A) Monitor customer preferences o B) Manage data storage o C) Model resource usage o D) Create product clusters o Answer: C) Model resource usage 10\. In content-based recommendation systems, which phase involves learning the user\'s profile? o A) Feature extraction o B) User profile learning o C) Recommendation generation o D) Decision-making o Answer: B) User profile learning Week-8 What is the primary purpose of a Decision Support System (DSS)? A) Automate routine tasks B) Support non-routine decision making C) Process payroll D) Improve marketing strategies Answer: B) Support non-routine decision making Which of the following is NOT typically found in a web server log entry? A) Client IP address B) Protocol used C) User\'s physical location D) Status code of the request Answer: C) User\'s physical location What technique is used to identify individual user sessions in web logs? A) Data transformation B) Caching C) Sessionization D) Clustering Answer: C) Sessionization In web analytics, a \'hit\' refers to: A) A page view by a user B) A request for a file from the web server C) A user purchase D) An IP address access Answer: B) A request for a file from the web server What does OLAP stand for in data analysis? A) Online Analysis Protocol B) On-Line Analytical Processing C) Operational Load and Analytics Platform D) Offline Analysis and Processing Answer: B) On-Line Analytical Processing Which data mining model is primarily used for predicting user behavior in e-commerce? A) Clustering B) Regression C) Association rules D) Markov chains Answer: D) Markov chains Which HTTP status code indicates a successful request? A) 404 B) 500 C) 200 D) 302 Answer: C) 200 What is \'path completion\' in web usage mining? A) Analyzing data paths of server traffic B) Inferring missing user paths due to caching C) Completing database indexing D) Generating complete user transaction logs Answer: B) Inferring missing user paths due to caching In session analysis, a \'page view\' is defined as: A) A click path followed by the user B) A request for a file classified as a page C) The total time spent on a webpage D) All files requested in one session Answer: B) A request for a file classified as a page A common disadvantage of static aggregation in web analytics is: A) Quick data retrieval B) Lack of in-depth insights C) Higher resource usage D) Complex setup requirements Answer: B) Lack of in-depth insights Which technology is a key component of Automated Identification and Data Capture (AIDC)? A) GPS B) RFID C) IoT D) AI Answer: B) RFID What is a major difference between barcodes and RFID? A) RFID requires line of sight B) RFID cannot be used in harsh conditions C) RFID allows real-time tracking D) Barcodes are more durable Answer: C) RFID allows real-time tracking Which type of RFID tag has the longest read range? A) Passive tags B) Semi-active tags C) Active tags D) Static tags Answer: C) Active tags RFID tags in the EPC global network use which unique identifier? A) IP address B) 12-digit barcode C) Electronic Product Code (EPC) D) UUID Answer: C) Electronic Product Code (EPC) In an RFID system, what is the role of middleware? A) Identifies tags in harsh conditions B) Facilitates data processing and updating to backend systems C) Acts as a secondary power source for tags D) Ensures battery life in active tags Answer: B) Facilitates data processing and updating to backend systems Which frequency band is commonly used for RFID tags with a short-range application? A) Low Frequency (LF) B) Ultra High-Frequency (UHF) C) High-Frequency (HF) D) Very High-Frequency (VHF) Answer: A) Low Frequency (LF) What is one of the major privacy concerns associated with RFID? A) Data format standardization B) Unauthorized tracking of individuals C) High cost of RFID tags D) Low durability of RFID tags Answer: B) Unauthorized tracking of individuals Which of the following is a technical concern with RFID systems? A) Multipurpose usage B) Multiple standards and frequencies C) Limited data storage capacity D) Lack of global acceptance Answer: B) Multiple standards and frequencies What is a passive RFID tag? A) A tag with a built-in power source B) A tag that relies on the reader\'s energy C) A tag with limited memory but high durability D) A tag used only for temperature monitoring Answer: B) A tag that relies on the reader\'s energy In which sector is RFID widely used for livestock tracking? A) Agriculture B) Healthcare C) Manufacturing D) Retail Answer: A) Agriculture Week-7\-\-\-\-\-\-\-\-\-- 1\. Which of the following is NOT a feature of cloud computing? o A) Remotely hosted o B) Limited storage capacity o C) Resource pooling o D) Rapid elasticity Answer: B) Limited storage capacity 2\. What is the primary purpose of EDI in business communication? o A) Speed up financial transactions o B) Ensure secure online payments o C) Enable electronic data exchange between companies o D) Encrypt customer information Answer: C) Enable electronic data exchange between companies 3\. Which cloud service model provides the complete environment for application development, including tools and infrastructure? o A) SaaS o B) IaaS o C) PaaS o D) DaaS Answer: C) PaaS 4\. In electronic payment systems, which of the following is typically NOT classified as a digital cash system? o A) DigiCash o B) CyberCash o C) SWIFT o D) Millicent Answer: C) SWIFT 5\. What does interoperability at the data level primarily focus on? o A) Protocol standardization o B) Database compatibility and information sharing o C) Hardware compatibility o D) Workflow automation Answer: B) Database compatibility and information sharing 6\. Which of the following protocols is commonly used in EDI to ensure secure transmission over the Internet? o A) AS1 o B) XML o C) HTTP o D) FTP Answer: A) AS1 7\. Which cloud deployment model is exclusively used by a single organization? o A) Private cloud o B) Public cloud o C) Community cloud o D) Hybrid cloud Answer: A) Private cloud 8\. The SET protocol in digital payments is primarily designed to ensure: o A) Data transfer speed o B) User anonymity o C) Transaction security and authentication o D) Payment flexibility Answer: C) Transaction security and authentication 9\. Which of these is a disadvantage of cloud computing? o A) Instant software updates o B) Limited data security o C) Unlimited storage o D) Resource pooling Answer: B) Limited data security 10\. In supply chain interoperability, which layer is concerned with executing business processes collaboratively? A) Data level B) Communication level C) Process level D) Business level Answer: C) Process level