Civil, Electrical, Boiler, Turbine & Generator Quality DRAFT_Q.docx PDF

**Civil Quality** 1\. Which test is commonly used to assess the durability of concrete in aggressive environments? A. Compressive strength test B. Abrasion resistance test C. Sulfate resistance test D. Slump test Answer: C. Sulfate resistance test 2\. What is the purpose of a rebound hammer t...

**Civil Quality** 1\. Which test is commonly used to assess the durability of concrete in aggressive environments? A. Compressive strength test B. Abrasion resistance test C. Sulfate resistance test D. Slump test Answer: C. Sulfate resistance test 2\. What is the purpose of a rebound hammer test in concrete quality? A. To determine concrete\'s density B. To evaluate surface hardness C. To measure slump value D. To assess curing time Answer: B. To evaluate surface hardness 3\. Which of the following is essential to prevent foundation settlement in thermal power plants? A. High moisture content B. Low compaction density C. Adequate soil compaction D. Reduced foundation thickness Answer: C. Adequate soil compaction 4\. What is the standard curing period for concrete at a power plant site as per quality norms? A. 14 days B. 7 days C. 28 days D. 21 days Answer: C. 28 days \-\-- **Electrical Quality** 5\. In high-voltage transformers, which testing method is used to detect winding insulation faults? A. Megger test B. Tan delta test C. Earth resistance test D. Phase angle test Answer: B. Tan delta test 6\. What does the Dissolved Gas Analysis (DGA) in transformer oil detect? A. Insulation breakdown B. Oil contamination C. Presence of dissolved water D. Voltage instability Answer: A. Insulation breakdown 7\. What is the main function of Partial Discharge (PD) testing in electrical equipment? A. To test insulation resistance B. To assess cable capacitance C. To detect local insulation defects D. To measure load capacity Answer: C. To detect local insulation defects 8\. What is the ideal insulation resistance value for 33kV cables in a power plant? A. Above 1 MΩ B. Above 10 MΩ C. Above 100 MΩ D. Above 500 MΩ Answer: C. Above 100 MΩ \-\-- **Control & Instrumentation (C&I) Quality** 9\. What does the HART protocol in instrumentation primarily help with? A. Data encryption B. Signal transmission C. Device calibration D. Bidirectional communication Answer: D. Bidirectional communication 10\. For critical control loops, which quality standard should be adhered to for calibration? A. ISA-5.1 B. ISO 9001 C. ISA-88 D. ASME Section IX Answer: A. ISA-5.1 11\. Which of the following tests ensures the accuracy of pressure transmitters? A. Span calibration B. Loop testing C. Linearity test D. Range adjustment Answer: C. Linearity test 12\. Which tool is best for calibrating a temperature sensor in a thermal power plant? A. Manometer B. Dead weight tester C. Dry block calibrator D. Tachometer Answer: C. Dry block calibrator \-\-- **Boiler Quality** 13\. Which is the most reliable NDT method for inspecting boiler tubes? A. Ultrasonic testing B. Radiographic testing C. Dye penetrant test D. Visual inspection Answer: A. Ultrasonic testing 14\. To prevent corrosion in boiler feed water, which parameter is strictly controlled? A. pH level B. Hardness C. Dissolved gases D. Both A and C Answer: D. Both A and C 15\. Which of the following impurities in boiler feed water can cause scale formation? A. Silica B. Chlorine C. Sulfate D. Dissolved oxygen Answer: A. Silica 16\. What is the purpose of deaeration in boiler water treatment? A. To reduce water hardness B. To remove dissolved gases C. To adjust pH D. To increase conductivity Answer: B. To remove dissolved gases \-\-- **Turbine Quality** 17\. Which alloy is typically used in high-temperature turbine blades? A. Titanium B. Nickel-based alloy C. Copper D. Stainless steel Answer: B. Nickel-based alloy 18\. What is a common cause of turbine blade failure in power plants? A. Excessive vibration B. Overheating C. Metal fatigue D. All of the above Answer: D. All of the above 19\. Which of the following is crucial in reducing turbine rotor misalignment? A. Lubrication quality B. Balancing accuracy C. Blade surface roughness D. Casing material Answer: B. Balancing accuracy 20\. What is the primary purpose of a borescope inspection in turbines? A. To measure blade thickness B. To visually inspect internal parts C. To detect oil leaks D. To calibrate vibration sensors Answer: B. To visually inspect internal parts \-\-- **Generator Quality** 21\. Which type of oil is generally used in generator bearings? A. Transformer oil B. Lubricating oil C. Engine oil D. Mineral oil Answer: B. Lubricating oil 22\. What does an increase in generator winding temperature indicate? A. Over-voltage B. High load C. Insulation breakdown D. Both B and C Answer: D. Both B and C 23\. What is the purpose of measuring air gap in generators? A. To prevent rotor-stator contact B. To increase efficiency C. To reduce cooling needs D. To enhance insulation Answer: A. To prevent rotor-stator contact 24\. What is used to prevent dust and dirt from entering generator windings? A. Insulating tape B. Air filters C. Epoxy coating D. Plastic shields Answer: B. Air filters \-\-- **Electrostatic Precipitator (ESP) Quality** 25\. Which gas property affects ESP performance the most? A. Density B. Resistivity C. Molecular weight D. Specific heat Answer: B. Resistivity 26\. How is ESP efficiency commonly tested? A. Smoke density test B. Dust collection rate C. Particulate capture efficiency D. Gas flow distribution analysis Answer: C. Particulate capture efficiency 27\. Which component in an ESP is crucial for particle collection? A. Discharge electrodes B. Ash hopper C. Gas distribution plates D. None of the above Answer: A. Discharge electrodes 28\. What is the function of rapping in ESPs? A. To distribute gas B. To dislodge dust from electrodes C. To cool flue gas D. To balance voltage Answer: B. To dislodge dust from electrodes \-\-- **Flue Gas Desulfurization (FGD) Quality** 29\. Which is a common byproduct of the FGD process? A. Gypsum B. Sodium sulfate C. Potassium chloride D. Calcium carbonate Answer: A. Gypsum 30\. What is the main chemical reaction in wet FGD systems? A. Sulfur dioxide reacts with calcium carbonate B. Sulfur dioxide reacts with water C. Sulfur dioxide reacts with oxygen D. Sulfur dioxide reacts with silica Answer: A. Sulfur dioxide reacts with calcium carbonate 31\. Which pH range is typically maintained in the FGD slurry? A. 2-3 B. 4-5 C. 6-7 D. 7-8 Answer: D. 7-8 32\. What is the purpose of oxidation air in FGD systems? A. To enhance gypsum formation B. To reduce sulfur content C. To cool the flue gas D. To remove particulates Answer: A. To enhance gypsum formation Welding Quality 33\. Which defect can be identified through ultrasonic testing? A. Porosity B. Cracks C. Lack of fusion D. All of the above Answer: D. All of the above 34\. What is the main cause of weld cracking in high-carbon steels? A. High arc voltage B. Poor fit-up C. Rapid cooling rate D. Low heat input Answer: C. Rapid cooling rate 35\. Which type of welding is typically used for large structures in a power plant? A. Shielded Metal Arc Welding (SMAW) B. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding (GTAW) C. Submerged Arc Welding (SAW) D. Flux-Cored Arc Welding (FCAW) Answer: A&B 36\. In welding inspection, what does a liquid penetrant test primarily detect? A. Internal defects B. Surface cracks C. Subsurface inclusions D. Weld pool temperature Answer: B. Surface cracks \-\-- 5S Movement Quality 37\. In the 5S methodology, what does the term \"Seiso\" mean? A. Sorting B. Set in order C. Shining (cleaning) D. Standardizing Answer: C. Shining (cleaning) 38\. Which of the following best describes the \'Standardize\' phase of 5S? A. Maintaining tools in specific places B. Regularly removing unnecessary items C. Creating consistent procedures for organization D. Daily cleaning and inspection Answer: C. Creating consistent procedures for organization 39\. How does the 5S methodology improve quality in power plants? A. Reduces material waste B. Enhances employee efficiency C. Improves safety standards D. All of the above Answer: D. All of the above 40\. Which 5S step involves continuously improving organizational practices? A. Shine B. Sustain C. Sort D. Set in Order Answer: B. Sustain \-\-- Advanced Welding Quality 41\. In advanced welding, which process is commonly used to weld dissimilar metals? A. Friction Stir Welding B. SMAW C. Gas Welding D. Submerged Arc Welding Answer: A. Friction Stir Welding 42\. What is the primary purpose of preheating metal before welding? A. To improve appearance B. To reduce thermal stress C. To increase cooling rate D. To prevent oxidation Answer: B. To reduce thermal stress 43\. Which welding technique is known for high precision and minimal distortion? A. Laser Beam Welding B. Flux-Cored Arc Welding C. Shielded Metal Arc Welding D. Electron Beam Welding Answer: D. Electron Beam Welding 44\. What type of defect is most likely to occur in underwater welding? A. Oxidation B. Hydrogen embrittlement C. Lack of penetration D. Porosity Answer: B. Hydrogen embrittlement \-\-- Metallurgy Quality 45\. In high-temperature boilers, which alloying element provides the best creep resistance? A. Nickel B. Chromium C. Vanadium D. Molybdenum Answer: D. Molybdenum 46\. What is the primary factor that influences corrosion resistance in stainless steel? A. Nickel content B. Chromium content C. Carbon content D. Iron content Answer: B. Chromium content 47\. Which metallurgical test provides information about the ductility of a metal? A. Tensile test B. Hardness test C. Impact test D. Fatigue test Answer: A. Tensile test 48\. In metallurgy, the Rockwell hardness test measures which property? A. Toughness B. Brittleness C. Hardness D. Ductility Answer: C. Hardness \-\-- Process Quality 49\. What is the role of Six Sigma in process quality? A. To reduce variation and defects B. To optimize energy consumption C. To automate processes D. To maximize production speed Answer: A. To reduce variation and defects 50\. In statistical process control, which chart is used to monitor the process mean over time? A. R-chart B. X-bar chart C. P-chart D. C-chart Answer: B. X-bar chart