NEET PG Weekend Test - 02 PDF

E-Prathna Medical Institutions, India., NEET PG WEEKEND TEST – 02 Max. Marks : 800 Max. Time : 3hrs 30mins SYLLABUS Pharmacology : Autonomous Nervous System- Upto Cholinergic Drugs Microbiology : General Microscopy – Introduction, Microscopy, General Bacteriology – Taxonomy, Morpholo...

E-Prathna Medical Institutions, India., NEET PG WEEKEND TEST – 02 Max. Marks : 800 Max. Time : 3hrs 30mins SYLLABUS Pharmacology : Autonomous Nervous System- Upto Cholinergic Drugs Microbiology : General Microscopy – Introduction, Microscopy, General Bacteriology – Taxonomy, Morphology, Physiology of bacteria, Laboratory diagnosis of infectious diseases Pathology : Chronic Inflammation 1 of 34  PHARMACOLOGY Which of the following neurotransmitters is primarily involved in the sympathetic nervous system? A) Acetylcholine B) Dopamine C) Norepinephrine D) Serotonin The parasympathetic nervous system primarily uses which neurotransmitter at the postganglionic synapse? A) Norepinephrine B) Epinephrine C) Acetylcholine D) Dopamine Which receptor type is primarily responsible for the effects of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) Alpha receptors B) Beta receptors C) Nicotinic receptors D) Muscarinic receptors Which of the following is a characteristic of the sympathetic nervous system? A) Decreases heart rate B) Constricts pupils C) Increases gastrointestinal motility D) Dilates bronchioles Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft? A) Acetylcholinesterase B) Monoamine oxidase C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase D) Butyrylcholinesterase Which of the following is a function of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) Increases heart rate B) Dilates pupils 2 of 34 C) Stimulates saliva production D) Inhibits digestion The autonomic nervous system is divided into: A) Central and peripheral nervous systems B) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous systems C) Somatic and autonomic nervous systems D) Sensory and motor nervous systems Which of the following drugs is a beta-adrenergic blocker? A) Atropine B) Propranolol C) Epinephrine D) Pilocarpine The primary action of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors is: A) Vasodilation B) Vasoconstriction C) Bronchodilation D) Decreased heart rate Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor antagonist? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Physostigmine The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the: A) Craniosacral division B) Thoracolumbar division C) Enteric division D) Somatic division Which of the following is a characteristic effect of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) Increased heart rate B) Pupil dilation C) Increased gastrointestinal motility 3 of 34 D) Bronchodilation Which enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft? A) Monoamine oxidase B) Acetylcholinesterase C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase D) Butyrylcholinesterase Which of the following is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Physostigmine The therapeutic use of pilocarpine includes: A) Treatment of myasthenia gravis B) Management of glaucoma C) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade D) Treatment of bradycardia Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor antagonist? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Physostigmine Which of the following drugs is used to treat Alzheimer’s disease by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase? A) Donepezil B) Atropine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a characteristic effect of cholinergic drugs? A) Increased heart rate B) Decreased gastrointestinal motility C) Increased salivation D) Pupil dilation 4 of 34 Which of the following is an indirect-acting cholinergic agonist? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Physostigmine Which of the following is a therapeutic use of neostigmine? A) Treatment of glaucoma B) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade C) Treatment of bradycardia D) Management of Alzheimer’s disease Which of the following is a side effect of cholinergic drugs? A) Dry mouth B) Constipation C) Diarrhea D) Hypertension Which of the following drugs is a cholinesterase inhibitor used in the treatment of myasthenia gravis? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of cholinergic drugs? A) Glaucoma B) Myasthenia gravis C) Asthma D) Alzheimer’s disease Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor agonist? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Physostigmine Which of the following is a therapeutic use of physostigmine? 5 of 34 A) Treatment of myasthenia gravis B) Management of glaucoma C) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade D) Treatment of bradycardia Which of the following is a characteristic effect of muscarinic receptor antagonists? A) Increased heart rate B) Decreased salivation C) Increased gastrointestinal motility D) Pupil constriction Which of the following drugs is used to treat motion sickness by blocking muscarinic receptors? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a side effect of muscarinic receptor antagonists? A) Increased salivation B) Diarrhea C) Dry mouth D) Bradycardia Which of the following is a therapeutic use of atropine? A) Treatment of myasthenia gravis B) Management of glaucoma C) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade D) Treatment of bradycardia Which of the following is a characteristic effect of cholinergic drugs on the eye? A) Pupil dilation B) Pupil constriction C) Increased intraocular pressure D) Decreased tear production Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of muscarinic receptor antagonists? A) Glaucoma 6 of 34 B) Myasthenia gravis C) Asthma D) Alzheimer’s disease Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor agonist used in the treatment of dry mouth? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a therapeutic use of cholinesterase inhibitors? A) Treatment of myasthenia gravis B) Management of glaucoma C) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade D) Treatment of bradycardia Which of the following is a side effect of cholinesterase inhibitors? A) Dry mouth B) Constipation C) Diarrhea D) Hypertension Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor antagonist used to treat bradycardia? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a characteristic effect of cholinergic drugs on the gastrointestinal system? A) Decreased motility B) Increased motility C) Decreased secretions D) Increased absorption Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of cholinesterase inhibitors? A) Glaucoma B) Myasthenia gravis 7 of 34 C) Asthma D) Alzheimer’s disease Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor agonist used in the treatment of glaucoma? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a therapeutic use of muscarinic receptor antagonists? A) Treatment of myasthenia gravis B) Management of glaucoma C) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade D) Treatment of bradycardia Which of the following is a side effect of muscarinic receptor agonists? A) Dry mouth B) Constipation C) Diarrhea D) Hypertension Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor antagonist used to treat motion sickness? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a characteristic effect of cholinergic drugs on the cardiovascular system? A) Increased heart rate B) Decreased heart rate C) Increased blood pressure D) Decreased blood pressure Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of muscarinic receptor agonists? A) Glaucoma B) Myasthenia gravis C) Asthma 8 of 34 D) Alzheimer’s disease Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor agonist used in the treatment of urinary retention? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Bethanechol Which of the following is a therapeutic use of cholinergic drugs? A) Treatment of myasthenia gravis B) Management of glaucoma C) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade D) Treatment of bradycardia Which of the following is a side effect of cholinergic drugs? A) Dry mouth B) Constipation C) Diarrhea D) Hypertension Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor antagonist used to treat peptic ulcers? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Scopolamine Which of the following is a characteristic effect of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) Increased heart rate B) Pupil dilation C) Increased gastrointestinal motility D) Bronchodilation Which neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons? A) Norepinephrine B) Epinephrine C) Acetylcholine 9 of 34 D) Dopamine The primary action of beta-2 adrenergic receptors is: A) Vasoconstriction B) Bronchodilation C) Decreased heart rate D) Increased gastrointestinal motility Which of the following drugs is a selective beta-1 adrenergic agonist? A) Isoproterenol B) Dobutamine C) Albuterol D) Phenylephrine Which of the following is a function of the sympathetic nervous system? A) Decreases heart rate B) Constricts pupils C) Increases gastrointestinal motility D) Dilates bronchioles Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft? A) Monoamine oxidase B) Acetylcholinesterase C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase D) Butyrylcholinesterase Which of the following is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Physostigmine The therapeutic use of pilocarpine includes: A) Treatment of myasthenia gravis B) Management of glaucoma C) Reversal of neuromuscular blockade D) Treatment of bradycardia 10 of 34 Which of the following is a characteristic of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) Increases heart rate B) Dilates pupils C) Stimulates saliva production D) Inhibits digestion Which of the following drugs is a beta-adrenergic blocker? A) Atropine B) Propranolol C) Epinephrine D) Pilocarpine The primary action of alpha-1 adrenergic receptors is: A) Vasodilation B) Vasoconstriction C) Bronchodilation D) Decreased heart rate Which of the following is a muscarinic receptor antagonist? A) Atropine B) Neostigmine C) Pilocarpine D) Physostigmine The sympathetic nervous system is also known as the: A) Craniosacral division B) Thoracolumbar division C) Enteric division D) Somatic division Which of the following is a characteristic effect of the parasympathetic nervous system? A) Increased heart rate B) Pupil dilation C) Increased gastrointestinal motility D) Bronchodilation Which neurotransmitter is released by preganglionic sympathetic neurons? 11 of 34 A) Norepinephrine B) Epinephrine C) Acetylcholine D) Dopamine The primary action of beta-2 adrenergic receptors is: A) Vasoconstriction B) Bronchodilation C) Decreased heart rate D) Increased gastrointestinal motility Which of the following drugs is a selective beta-1 adrenergic agonist? A) Isoproterenol B) Dobutamine C) Albuterol D) Phenylephrine Which of the following is a function of the sympathetic nervous system? A) Decreases heart rate B) Constricts pupils C) Increases gastrointestinal motility D) Dilates bronchioles Which enzyme is responsible for the degradation of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft? A) Monoamine oxidase B) Acetylcholinesterase C) Catechol-O-methyltransferase D) Butyrylcholinesterase MICROBIOLOGY Which of the following is the genetic material of most viruses? A) DNA B) RNA 12 of 34 C) Both DNA and RNA D) Neither DNA nor RNA Which structure is found in all viruses? A) Envelope B) Capsid C) Ribosome D) Mitochondria What is the function of the viral capsid? A) Replication of viral genome B) Protection of viral nucleic acid C) Synthesis of viral proteins D) Assembly of new virions Which of the following is a characteristic of enveloped viruses? A) They are more resistant to environmental conditions B) They are less sensitive to disinfectants C) They have a lipid bilayer derived from the host cell membrane D) They lack surface proteins Which enzyme is essential for the replication of retroviruses? A) DNA polymerase B) RNA polymerase C) Reverse transcriptase D) Helicase Which of the following viruses is known for its ability to integrate into the host genome? A) Influenza virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) D) Hepatitis B virus What is the primary mode of transmission for arboviruses? A) Respiratory droplets B) Fecal-oral route C) Vector-borne (e.g., mosquitoes) 13 of 34 D) Direct contact Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of cancer? A) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) B) Rhinovirus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a common method for diagnosing viral infections? A) Gram staining B) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) C) Culture on nutrient agar D) Hemagglutination test Which of the following viruses is known for causing latent infections? A) Influenza virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Rhinovirus D) Rotavirus What is the primary target cell for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? A) Hepatocytes B) Neurons C) CD4+ T cells D) Erythrocytes Which of the following is a characteristic of prions? A) They contain nucleic acids B) They are sensitive to proteases C) They cause neurodegenerative diseases D) They can be cultured in vitro Which of the following viruses is transmitted via the fecal-oral route? A) Hepatitis A virus B) Hepatitis B virus C) Hepatitis C virus D) Hepatitis D virus 14 of 34 Which of the following is a DNA virus? A) Influenza virus B) Hepatitis C virus C) Human papillomavirus (HPV) D) Rabies virus Which of the following viruses is known for causing congenital infections? A) Influenza virus B) Cytomegalovirus (CMV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the influenza virus? A) It has a double-stranded DNA genome B) It undergoes antigenic shift and drift C) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route D) It causes chronic infections Which of the following viruses is associated with the common cold? A) Influenza virus B) Rhinovirus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the hepatitis B virus? A) It is a single-stranded RNA virus B) It is transmitted via respiratory droplets C) It can cause chronic liver disease D) It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes Which of the following viruses is known for causing hemorrhagic fever? A) Influenza virus B) Ebola virus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the rabies virus? 15 of 34 A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It causes encephalitis D) It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes Which of the following viruses is associated with gastroenteritis? A) Influenza virus B) Norovirus C) Rhinovirus D) Rabies virus Which of the following is a characteristic of the herpes simplex virus? A) It is a single-stranded RNA virus B) It causes latent infections C) It is transmitted by mosquitoes D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing respiratory infections? A) Hepatitis B virus B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) D) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Which of the following is a characteristic of the poliovirus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It causes paralysis D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of warts? A) Influenza virus B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the measles virus? A) It is a DNA virus 16 of 34 B) It causes a maculopapular rash C) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing encephalitis? A) Influenza virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the mumps virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It causes parotitis C) It is transmitted by mosquitoes D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of Kaposi’s sarcoma? A) Influenza virus B) Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the rubella virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It causes a maculopapular rash C) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? A) Influenza virus B) Coronavirus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the varicella-zoster virus? A) It is a single-stranded RNA virus B) It causes chickenpox and shingles 17 of 34 C) It is transmitted by mosquitoes D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of Burkitt’s lymphoma? A) Influenza virus B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the hepatitis C virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted via respiratory droplets C) It can cause chronic liver disease D) It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes Which of the following viruses is known for causing hand, foot, and mouth disease? A) Influenza virus B) Coxsackievirus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the dengue virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It causes hemorrhagic fever D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of cervical cancer? A) Influenza virus B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus * Which of the following is a characteristic of the Zika virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It can cause microcephaly in newborns 18 of 34 D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing bronchiolitis in infants? A) Influenza virus B) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the hepatitis E virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted via the fecal-oral route C) It can cause chronic liver disease D) It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)? A) Influenza virus B) JC virus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the chikungunya virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It causes joint pain and fever D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing severe acute respiratory syndrome coronavirus 2 (SARS-CoV-2)? A) Influenza virus B) Coronavirus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the hepatitis D virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It requires hepatitis B virus for replication C) It can cause chronic liver disease 19 of 34 D) It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of Guillain-Barré syndrome? A) Influenza virus B) Zika virus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the West Nile virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It can cause encephalitis D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing hand, foot, and mouth disease? A) Influenza virus B) Coxsackievirus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the dengue virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It causes hemorrhagic fever D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of cervical cancer? A) Influenza virus B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the rabies virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It causes encephalitis D) It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes 20 of 34 Which of the following viruses is associated with gastroenteritis? A) Influenza virus B) Norovirus C) Rhinovirus D) Rabies virus Which of the following is a characteristic of the herpes simplex virus? A) It is a single-stranded RNA virus B) It causes latent infections C) It is transmitted by mosquitoes D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing respiratory infections? A) Hepatitis B virus B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) D) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) Which of the following is a characteristic of the poliovirus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted by respiratory droplets C) It causes paralysis D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of warts? A) Influenza virus B) Human papillomavirus (HPV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the measles virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It causes a maculopapular rash C) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing encephalitis? 21 of 34 A) Influenza virus B) Herpes simplex virus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the mumps virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It causes parotitis C) It is transmitted by mosquitoes D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of Kaposi’s sarcoma? A) Influenza virus B) Human herpesvirus 8 (HHV-8) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the rubella virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It causes a maculopapular rash C) It is transmitted by the fecal-oral route D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is known for causing severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS)? A) Influenza virus B) Coronavirus C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the varicella-zoster virus? A) It is a single-stranded RNA virus B) It causes chickenpox and shingles C) It is transmitted by mosquitoes D) It primarily affects the liver Which of the following viruses is associated with the development of Burkitt’s lymphoma? A) Influenza virus 22 of 34 B) Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) C) Norovirus D) Rotavirus Which of the following is a characteristic of the hepatitis C virus? A) It is a DNA virus B) It is transmitted via respiratory droplets C) It can cause chronic liver disease D) It is primarily transmitted by mosquitoes * PATHOLOGY Which of the following cells is primarily involved in chronic inflammation? A) Neutrophils B) Macrophages C) Eosinophils D) Basophils Which cytokine is most commonly associated with chronic inflammation? A) IL-1 B) IL-6 C) TNF-α D) IL-10 Which of the following is a hallmark of chronic inflammation? A) Edema B) Neutrophil infiltration C) Tissue destruction D) Fibrin deposition Which type of granuloma is associated with tuberculosis? A) Caseating granuloma B) Non-caseating granuloma C) Foreign body granuloma D) Suppurative granuloma Which of the following is a characteristic feature of granulomatous inflammation? 23 of 34 A) Neutrophil infiltration B) Formation of giant cells C) Edema D) Fibrin deposition Which cell type is responsible for the formation of granulomas? A) Neutrophils B) Macrophages C) Eosinophils D) Basophils Which of the following is a common cause of chronic inflammation? A) Acute bacterial infection B) Persistent infections C) Allergic reactions D) Trauma Which of the following is a systemic effect of chronic inflammation? A) Fever B) Edema C) Pain D) Redness Which cytokine is known for its anti-inflammatory properties? A) IL-1 B) IL-6 C) TNF-α D) IL-10 Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution 24 of 34 B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis D) Edema Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) Increased vascular permeability B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a mediator of chronic inflammation? A) Histamine B) Bradykinin C) Prostaglandins D) Cytokines Which of the following is a common cause of granulomatous inflammation? A) Viral infections B) Bacterial infections C) Fungal infections D) Parasitic infections Which of the following is a characteristic of granulomatous inflammation? A) Formation of abscesses B) Presence of multinucleated giant cells C) Edema D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation 25 of 34 C) Fibrosis D) Edema Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) Increased vascular permeability B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a mediator of chronic inflammation? A) Histamine B) Bradykinin C) Prostaglandins D) Cytokines Which of the following is a common cause of granulomatous inflammation? A) Viral infections B) Bacterial infections C) Fungal infections D) Parasitic infections Which of the following is a characteristic of granulomatous inflammation? A) Formation of abscesses B) Presence of multinucleated giant cells C) Edema D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis 26 of 34 D) Edema Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) Increased vascular permeability B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a mediator of chronic inflammation? A) Histamine B) Bradykinin C) Prostaglandins D) Cytokines Which of the following is a common cause of granulomatous inflammation? A) Viral infections B) Bacterial infections C) Fungal infections D) Parasitic infections Which of the following is a characteristic of granulomatous inflammation? A) Formation of abscesses B) Presence of multinucleated giant cells C) Edema D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis D) Edema 27 of 34 Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) Increased vascular permeability B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a mediator of chronic inflammation? A) Histamine B) Bradykinin C) Prostaglandins D) Cytokines Which of the following is a common cause of granulomatous inflammation? A) Viral infections B) Bacterial infections C) Fungal infections D) Parasitic infections Which of the following is a characteristic of granulomatous inflammation? A) Formation of abscesses B) Presence of multinucleated giant cells C) Edema D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis D) Edema Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? 28 of 34 A) Increased vascular permeability B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a mediator of chronic inflammation? A) Histamine B) Bradykinin C) Prostaglandins D) Cytokines Which of the following is a common cause of granulomatous inflammation? A) Viral infections B) Bacterial infections C) Fungal infections D) Parasitic infections Which of the following is a characteristic of granulomatous inflammation? A) Formation of abscesses B) Presence of multinucleated giant cells C) Edema D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis D) Edema Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) Increased vascular permeability 29 of 34 B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a common cause of chronic inflammation? A) Persistent infections B) Acute bacterial infections C) Allergic reactions D) Trauma Which of the following cells are typically involved in chronic inflammation? A) Neutrophils and eosinophils B) Lymphocytes and macrophages C) Basophils and mast cells D) Platelets and erythrocytes Which cytokine is primarily responsible for the activation of macrophages in chronic inflammation? A) IL-1 B) IL-6 C) TNF-α D) IFN-γ Which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic inflammation? A) Edema B) Neutrophil infiltration C) Tissue destruction and repair D) Fibrin deposition Which type of granuloma is typically seen in sarcoidosis? A) Caseating granuloma B) Non-caseating granuloma C) Foreign body granuloma D) Suppurative granuloma Which of the following is a hallmark of granulomatous inflammation? A) Neutrophil infiltration B) Formation of giant cells 30 of 34 C) Edema D) Fibrin deposition Which cell type is crucial for the formation of granulomas? A) Neutrophils B) Macrophages C) Eosinophils D) Basophils Which of the following is a systemic effect of chronic inflammation? A) Fever B) Edema C) Pain D) Redness Which cytokine is known for its anti-inflammatory effects? A) IL-1 B) IL-6 C) TNF-α D) IL-10 Which of the following is a mediator of chronic inflammation? A) Histamine B) Bradykinin C) Prostaglandins D) Cytokines Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis D) Edema Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) Increased vascular permeability B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis 31 of 34 D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a common cause of granulomatous inflammation? A) Viral infections B) Bacterial infections C) Fungal infections D) Parasitic infections Which of the following is a characteristic of granulomatous inflammation? A) Formation of abscesses B) Presence of multinucleated giant cells C) Edema D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis D) Edema Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic inflammation? A) Increased vascular permeability B) Formation of exudate C) Tissue repair and fibrosis D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a mediator of chronic inflammation? A) Histamine B) Bradykinin C) Prostaglandins D) Cytokines 32 of 34 Which of the following is a common cause of granulomatous inflammation? A) Viral infections B) Bacterial infections C) Fungal infections D) Parasitic infections Which of the following is a characteristic of granulomatous inflammation? A) Formation of abscesses B) Presence of multinucleated giant cells C) Edema D) Neutrophil infiltration Which of the following is a feature of chronic inflammation? A) Rapid onset B) Short duration C) Presence of lymphocytes and macrophages D) Predominance of neutrophils Which of the following is a common outcome of chronic inflammation? A) Resolution B) Abscess formation C) Fibrosis D) Edema A patient with chronic granulomatous disease is being treated with an antibiotic. Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to be effective against the catalase-positive bacteria commonly associated with this condition? A) Penicillin B) Ciprofloxacin C) Amoxicillin D) Vancomycin In a patient with chronic inflammation due to rheumatoid arthritis, which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to reduce inflammation and pain? A) Acetaminophen B) Ibuprofen C) Methotrexate 33 of 34 D) Prednisone A patient with chronic hepatitis B infection is at increased risk for developing hepatocellular carcinoma. Which of the following markers is most useful for monitoring the progression of chronic hepatitis B? A) HBsAg B) Anti-HBc C) HBeAg D) Anti-HBs A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is experiencing an exacerbation. Which of the following microorganisms is most commonly associated with COPD exacerbations? A) Streptococcus pneumoniae B) Haemophilus influenzae C) Mycobacterium tuberculosis D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa In a patient with chronic inflammation due to Crohn’s disease, which of the following biologic agents targets tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α) to reduce inflammation? A) Infliximab B) Methotrexate C) Azathioprine D) Sulfasalazine 34 of 34