Diabetes Medications Question Bank PDF

1. Which rapid-acting insulin has a peak time of 1-1.5 hours? a) Glargine b) Lispro Correct: b) Lispro Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with peak time of 1-1.5 hours and duration of 3-4 hours, used for meal coverage and correction of high blood glucose. 2. What is the primary conc...

1. Which rapid-acting insulin has a peak time of 1-1.5 hours? a) Glargine b) Lispro Correct: b) Lispro Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with peak time of 1-1.5 hours and duration of 3-4 hours, used for meal coverage and correction of high blood glucose. 2. What is the primary concern when giving metformin to a patient receiving contrast dye? a) B12 deficiency b) Lactic acidosis Correct: b) Lactic acidosis Rationale: Contrast can cause nephropathy, reducing renal function. Since metformin is excreted by kidneys, reduced function can lead to metformin buildup and potentially fatal lactic acidosis. 3. Which mnemonic helps remember rapid-acting insulins? a) "Regular and Short" b) "Do not LAG" Correct: b) "Do not LAG" Rationale: LAG stands for Lispro, Aspart, and Glulisine - the three rapid-acting insulins. 4. How long do long-acting insulins typically last? a) 16 hours b) 24 hours Correct: b) 24 hours Rationale: Long-acting insulins (Glargine, Detemir) last 24 hours and provide basal insulin replacement without peak times. 5. Which adverse effect is associated with SGLT2 inhibitors? a) Pancreatitis b) Urinary tract infections Correct: b) Urinary tract infections Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors cause glucosuria, increasing risk of UTIs and vaginal yeast infections. 6. What is the duration of action for NPH insulin? a) 4-6 hours b) 10-16 hours Correct: b) 10-16 hours Rationale: NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin with peak at 8 hours and duration of 10-16 hours. 7. Which adverse effect is most concerning with Thiazolidinediones? a) Heart failure b) Lactic acidosis Correct: a) Heart failure Rationale: TZDs can cause fluid retention leading to heart failure and increased fracture risk. 8. What is the mechanism of sulfonylureas? a) Inhibit hepatic gluconeogenesis b) Increase insulin release Correct: b) Increase insulin release Rationale: Sulfonylureas increase insulin release by depolarizing potassium channels. 9. Which medication requires B12 monitoring? a) Metformin b) Acarbose Correct: a) Metformin Rationale: Metformin can cause B12 deficiency and requires regular monitoring. 10. What is the mechanism of alpha-glucosidase inhibitors? a) Inhibit intestinal enzyme b) Increase insulin sensitivity Correct: a) Inhibit intestinal enzyme Rationale: They inhibit intestinal brush border alpha-glucosidases, preventing carbohydrate breakdown. 11. How do GLP-1 agonists work? a) Block glucose reabsorption b) Potentiate insulin release Correct: b) Potentiate insulin release Rationale: GLP-1 agonists enhance insulin release and inhibit glucagon secretion. 12. Which medication ends in "-glipton"? a) Sitagliptin b) Pioglitazone Correct: a) Sitagliptin Rationale: DPP-4 inhibitors end in -glipton, helping identify this drug class. 13. When should metformin be held? a) Before contrast studies b) Before meals Correct: a) Before contrast studies Rationale: Metformin should be held before contrast due to risk of contrast-induced nephropathy. 14. Which drug class causes pancreatitis? a) GLP-1 agonists b) SGLT2 inhibitors Correct: a) GLP-1 agonists Rationale: GLP-1 agonists have a known risk of pancreatitis as an adverse effect. 15. What is the duration of rapid-acting insulins? a) 3-4 hours b) 6-8 hours Correct: a) 3-4 hours Rationale: Rapid-acting insulins have short duration of 3-4 hours for meal coverage.