Management of Occupational Health and Safety Test Bank PDF

1. Which of the following is an example of earnings loss payment? a. a worker who does not return to work, but receives a disability pension following injury b. a worker who receives payment for vocational counselling services while off work c. a worker who receives a lump-sum paymen...

1. Which of the following is an example of earnings loss payment? a. a worker who does not return to work, but receives a disability pension following injury b. a worker who receives payment for vocational counselling services while off work c. a worker who receives a lump-sum payment following return to work d. a worker who returns lower-paying job, and receives payment to supplement their new wages 2. Which of the following is an example of principle collective liability? a. all companies within logging paying the costs for any and all accidents and diseases that occur for employees in that industry b. all companies within logging pay into a fund to support prevention initiatives c. all companies within logging pay based on only their experience d. all companies no matter the industry pay into WCB for any and all workplace accidents or illnesses 3. Which of the following countries had the greatest influence on the Canadian worker’s compensation system? a. Japan b. Germany c. England d. France 4. You are required to estimate your company’s WCB premiums. You must first identify which of the following? a. your company’s experience with WCB injury/illness claims b. industry classification code (or SIC) c. the previous year’s average d. changes to WCB legislation 5. Via Rail is Canada’s passenger railway, whereas CN Rail is a freight/cargo railway. What WCB liability do these organizations face? a. They both have individual liability for injuries/illnesses. b. They both have collective liability—the same as all other organizations. c. Via Rail has collective liability, whereas CN has individual liability. d. Via Rail has individual liability, whereas CN has collective liability. 6. According to collective liability, employers in a class or other rate group are liable for which of the following costs? a. costs of net earnings b. costs of both accidents and occupational diseases c. costs of just accidents d. costs of just occupational diseases 7. If you develop a lung disease because of working in a bakery, which is most likely to happen first? a. rehabilitation b. vocational counselling c. compensation while you receive treatment d. litigation or legal recourse 8. Helen worked in a fireworks factory for 25 years. After she took early retirement, her doctor told her that her long standing health issues were due to lead poisoning from materials that are now banned. What factor will be given serious consideration in assessing her WCB claim? a. how old and how sick she is b. whether the employer told her of the risk c. the latency period between exposure and illness d. whether she is already getting a retirement pension 9. Which of the following reflects how workers’ compensation boards view the social benefit of compensation? a. Compensation gets reluctant workers back to work. b. Compensation makes up for your pain and suffering. c. Compensation is a cost that must be tightly managed. d. Compensation helps you remain active in your community. 10. Ivan lost an eye in an industrial accident, and is just starting a new job. How does the second injury provision work if he loses sight in the other eye? a. The total disability cost is borne by his current employer. b. The total disability cost is shared between his former and current employers. c. The total disability cost is borne entirely by the Workers’ Compensation Board. d. The total disability cost is borne by all employers in his employer’s industry rate group. 11. In Canada, the majority of workers who receive compensation will receive ________ a. 90% of net earnings b. 75% of net earnings c. 75% of average earnings d. 90% of average earnings 12. What defines an experience rating system? a. an industry’s experience with injury or illness claims b. a company’s experience with injury or illness claims c. an employee’s experience with injury or illness claims d. a profession’s (e.g. electricians, nurses etc.) experience with injury or illness claims 13. In general, after how many years of lower than annual injury costs might a Canadian employer receive a rebate on their annual assessment? a. after two years b. after three years Page 2 c. after four years d. after five years 14. How are safety associations different from workers’ compensation boards? a. They are financially independent from the WCBs. b. They develop their own regulations for OH&S. c. They only provide industry-specific safety training. d. They offer fee-based safety audits to their members. 15. Complete the following analogy: social rehabilitation is to coping as vocational rehabilitation is to a. employment b. physical function c. provision for second injuries d. wage loss earnings 16. When a worker is injured, which parties are needed to provide information in order to process a workers’ compensation board (WCB) claim? a. employer, employee, and coworker b. employer and employee c. employer, employee, and physician d. employee only 17. What is the numeric basis on which workers’ compensation rate group premiums are calculated and published? a. dollars per $100 of insurable earnings b. dollars per $1,000 of insurable earnings c. dollars per 100 full-time employees d. dollars per 1,000 full-time employees 18. Which of the following is NOT an example of an experience rating program in Ontario? a. New Experimental Experience Rating Program (NEER) b. Workplace Safety Insurance Appeals Tribunal (ESIAT) c. Merit Adjusted Premium (MAP) Plan for Small Business d. CAD-7 19. What is the cost of the penalty when an employer discourages an employee from filing a claim or punishes the worker for filing the claim? a. $4000 b. $40 c. $400 d. $4 Workers in nursing homes regularly experience a number of physical and psychological health and safety issues. Incidents can involve twisting and/or lifting injuries, contact with viruses and bacteria, as well as stress-related illnesses from dealing with very sick and dying patients. At Restwell Manor there are 80 employees who work an average of 6 hours per day for 250 days a year. In the past year, the employer reported a total of 8 injuries for a total lost time of 50 days. 20. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What is the common denominator in the equations that you would use to calculate the injury frequency and severity rates for Restwell Manor? a. average hours worked b. total hours worked c. average time off work d. total time off work 21. Refer to Scenario 3-1: Using a factor of 200,000, what was Restwell Manor’s severity rate last year? a. 83.30 b. 13.30 c. 0.200 d. 0.003 22. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What assistance would workers’ compensation be most likely to pay for if a Restwell Manor worker develops chronic depression after working with Alzheimer/dementia patients for three years? a. none b. anti-depression medication c. professional counselling d. leave of absence 23. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What would workers’ compensation be most likely to pay for if a Restwell Manor worker is physically attacked by a patient and suffers post-traumatic stress disorder? a. none b. counselling c. disability pension d. retraining 24. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What type of loss is incurred by a Restwell Manor worker who has to switch to light-duty nursing due to a back injury that prevents him/her from bending over a patient’s bed? a. occupational capacity b. range of motion loss c. functional capacity d. occupational injury 25. Refer to Scenario 3-1: What type of rehabilitation might have been provided to enable an injured worker to make the change from heavy-duty to light-duty nursing? a. vocational and social b. vocational and physical c. physical and social d. vocational, physical, and social 26. Workers’ compensation is driven by two main social goals. a. True b. False 27. Without a provision for multiple injuries employers might be temped to discriminate against workers with impairments? a. True b. False 28. Employees cannot sue their employer in criminal court in addition to claiming workers’ compensation. a. True b. False 29. The WCB premium for a given organization is always the same as other organizations in the same industry classification. a. True b. False 30. The adjudication of stress claims is currently receiving a great deal of attention from all insurance parties. a. True b. False 31. Compensation for stress-related disabilities can be provided only when mental stress results in a physical disability or traumatic occurrence. a. True b. False 32. Experience programs offer financial incentives to companies that reduce workplace injuries but no illnesses. a. True b. False 33. Employees can always expect to return to their old job following injury or illness. a. True b. False 34. Providing services intended to prevent injuries or to reduce the psychological impact of injuries when they occur is one of the social goals of workers’ compensation. a. True b. False 35. In 2018 the province of Alberta amended its WCB act. a. True b. False 36. List the three groups of stress-related occupational disabilities identified in the text. Discuss the probability of obtaining compensation in each case, then contrast the current practice of workers’ compensation boards with how the courts and human rights tribunals in Canada view stress-related occupational disabilities. 37. Explain why a large restaurant chain (e.g. McDonald’s, Mandarin, Boston Pizza) might pay a) the same WCB premium as other large restaurant chains. b) a lower premium than other large restaurant chains. c) a higher premium than other large restaurant chains. 38. Describe the current roles and responsibilities of a typical provincial/territorial workers’ compensation board. Then extend the discussion by giving two examples of how provincial/territorial boards can differ from each other in terms of policy and/or practice. 39. Describe the relationship between workers’ compensation boards and government departments as it relates to a mandate of injury prevention and the OH&S aspects of compensation. 40. Discuss the employer reporting requirements and documentation required for reporting all workplace injuries to the Workers’ Compensation Board. 41. Duane is a long-haul truck driver who specializes in transporting oversize loads across Canada and the U.S.A. for his Markham, Ontario–based company. The nature of his work requires: long hours due to specialized loading, driving, and delivery procedures; driving at a slower than normal speed, often at night to avoid peak traffic; taking longer routes to avoid obstacles such as low height or low weight bridges, and crossing the Canada–USA border. Truckers in this occupation are often under tight deadlines to deliver on time, or their employer will face financial penalties. a) Identify three possible work-related injuries and illnesses/diseases that might result from working in this occupation and discuss the workers’ compensation coverage that would apply in each case. b) Discuss how his employer would obtain the necessary information to complete the employer and incident analysis reports. c) Compare and contrast the Canadian compensation system with the compensation available to an American-based trucker doing similar work. 1. Which of the following is a representative of a hazard? a. probability of harm b. potential for harm c. perception of harm d. awareness of harm 2. Which of the following best distinguishes between risk and risk perception? a. Risk is the likelihood for harm, risk perception is the belief that harm is likely to occur. b. Risk is the assumption of harm, and risk perception is certainty of harm. c. Risk describes what should be done, risk perception describes what will be done. d. Risk can be assessed; risk perceptions cannot be assessed. 3. Wakkhar’s first job required him to sit at a computer for a minimum of 8 hours per shift. While Wakkhar’s chair and desk were comfortable and ergonomically friendly, his keyboard and mouse were very small and required his hands to frequently rest at an awkward angle. After a year of work, Wakkhar’s right hand and wrist started to ache and in some cases tingle. Which of the following injuries is Wakkhar most likely to have? a. thoracic outlet syndrome b. overt trauma c. hinged joints d. repetitive strain 4. Which of the following steps should you complete first if you wanted to determine whether a new piece of equipment in your workplace was safe to use? a. consult with the most experienced worker and ask their opinion  b. consult the Internet c. conduct a risk assessment d. evaluate incident reports 5. Which of the following creates hazards in the workplace by their actions or inactions. a. people b. equipment c. materials d. processes e. CHOICE BLANK 6. Mohan has decided not to put down a safety guard on the saw he is using. This is an example of which of the following? a. an accident b. human factor c. substitution d. elimination 7. Careless stacking of boxes such that the boxes later fall on a coworker would be classified as what type of hazard? a. human factor—commission b. human factor—omission c. human factor—poor judgment d. human factor—substandard practice 8. Which of the following is an example of an unsafe act? a. improper illumination b. poor design c. inadequate hand washing d. defective equipment 9. Which of the following is an example of an unsafe condition? a. use of defective equipment b. poor indoor air quality c. failure to wear personal protective equipment d. alcohol and drug abuse 10. Who is most likely to carry out safety sampling? a. in-house safety personnel b. a third-party safety professional c. the Ministry of Labour d. the WSIB/WCB 11. What numerical measure is typically used to communicate risk, regardless of how it is assessed? a. cost b. frequency c. severity d. probability 12. What is another term for a direct unsafe act? a. substandard practice b. act of omission c. poor judgment d. human factor 13. The consequences of a hazard are assessed through what measure? a. probability b. likelihood c. severity d. frequency 14. Hand removal devises are an example of which of the following? a. administrative control b. elimination c. engineering control d. PPE 15. CIUB injuries would fall within what larger category of injuries? a. injuries resulting from overuse b. overt traumatic injuries c. overexertion injuries d. awkward working position injuries 16. The Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS) uses which of the following indicators of severity of consequences? a. very likely harmful, likely harmful, unlikely harmful, very unlikely harmful b. minor harmful, moderately harmful, majorly harmful c. slightly harmful, moderately harmful, extremely harmful d. very likely, likely, unlikely, very unlikely 17. Which of the following is an example of a process modification that would be supported by the Hawthorne studies? a. machine guarding b. illumination c. heat stress testing d. job rotation 18. In the context of occupational health and safety, what groups of individuals are most likely to receive kickbacks? a. workers b. supervisors c. managers d. ministry inspectors 19. The process of removing a hazard from the workplace is an example of which of the following? a. substitution b. elimination c. PPE d. machine guarding 20. Which of the following is an example of a lockout? a. turning off a stove and placing a sign on it that says “Do not use” b. placing a restricted-access sign on a piece of equipment c. turning off equipment and securing the fuse box so no one has access to it d. isolating the electrical controls on one piece of equipment 21. Which of the following is NOT a general lifting guideline? a. keep lower body straight b. tuck chin into chest c. initiate the lift with body weight d. avoid twisting and side bending while lifting Scenario 4-1 The performing arts (theatre, dance, music) do not always come to mind when hazardous workplaces are being discussed. However, performers at Canada’s famed Shaw and Stratford festivals encounter many hazards and OH&S incidents can occur. Imagine a theatre with suspended overhead lights, trapdoors in the stage, on-stage sets that look real but are built of flimsy materials, narrow hallways and stairs, and actors engaged in fight scenes using realistic weapons. The same process of hazard recognition, risk assessment, and control must take place. 22. Refer to Scenario 4-1: What type of hazard would be represented by an unevenly repaired patch on a stage that could cause an actor to slip and fall when engaged in a fight scene? a. equipment hazard b. environment hazard c. materials hazard d. process hazard 23. Refer to Scenario 4-1: What analytic technique is available to show why the defective repair occurred and contributed to the incident? a. safety sampling b. audit program c. positive tree d. fault tree 24. Refer to Scenario 4-1: Under what legislation could the theatre be liable for failing to maintain the stage in a better condition? a. Canada Labour Code b. Occupational Health and Safety Act c. Workers’ Compensation Act d. CSA Standard Z432-94 25. Refer to Scenario 4-1: Preventive work plans are often completed according to which of the following? a. legislation b. supervisor’s motivation c. time available d. specific schedule 26. The first step in the risk assessment process is risk analysis. a. True b. False 27. Nico fell asleep for a minute while driving his company vehicle and narrowly missed hitting a car in the next lane. This would be classified as an OH&S incident. a. True b. False 28. A piece of wood is pushed through a saw suddenly becomes snagged and then is thrown back toward the operator. This is an example of reflectance. a. True b. False 29. Ventilation is a type of administrative control that specifically targets airborne hazards. a. True b. False 30. Sia works for a book printing service. Employees often hit the emergency stop button on the new piece of machinery. When this happens an extremely loud alarm sounds. Sia has noticed that other employees have started to ignore the alarm because it sounds several times a shift due to the operators mistaking the stop emergency stop button for the “hold” button that temporarily pauses the machine. Sis is afraid that employees will ignore the alarm when an emergency is happening. She investigates and notices the hold and emergency stop button are both red, suggesting that the operating panel does not exhibit the characteristic of interpretability. a. True b. False 31. In order to accurately describe the risks involved in using various types of lasers by surgeons at the clinic, Oleg must consider both likelihood and severity of both overt traumatic and overexertion injuries. a. True b. False 32. The risk levels set by the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS) are expressed in terms of the percentage chance a worker has of encountering that event in their lifetime. a. True b. False 33. Using the source-path-human model allows for a systematic process for determining when a control is necessary. a. True b. False 34. Jeremy works in a large shipping area of a courier company. A guard placed around the perimeter of a conveyor is an example of an engineering control. a. True  b. False 35. Hazards can be controlled by identifying and attacking the source and the path it travels. a. True b. False 36. Differentiate between engineering controls and administrative controls, giving an example of how each could be applied in a situation where workers have to work outside in the summer (e.g. road crew or roofing crew). 37. Define and give examples of two of the four types of overt traumatic injuries discussed in the textbook. What are some prevention strategies that an HRM can implement to prevent overt traumatic injuries? 38. Give two different examples of overexertion injuries that an exterior window cleaner working on a multi-story office building might experience. Explain the basic causes of overexertion injuries and discuss the impact of pre-existing conditions on overexertion injuries. 39. Describe and differentiate between the two types of analytical trees used in hazard analysis, explaining which one is more common, but why the other might facilitate precontact control. 40. List the four levels of probability and the three levels of consequences provided by the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety (CCOHS). Apply the following hazards facing chefs working in a restaurant kitchen, identifying the injury, likelihood, and typical severity: hot oven, sharp knives, pots with boiling contents, and hard floors. 41. Jarrett has just taken a transfer from being a retail store manager to a development opportunity as the manager of the retail chain’s local distribution centre (warehouse); the new position will help to prepare him for a long-term career in the company. Discuss the pros and cons of three different ways that he can quickly familiarize himself with the hazards facing workers in his new work environment in order to meet his legal responsibilities. 1. Older watch faces that would “glow in the dark” are an example of a. non-ionizing radiation. b. infrared radiation. c. radon. d. manufactured ionizing radiation. 2. Which of the following best characterizes how are ionizing and non-ionizing radiation differ? a. the source b. wavelength range c. exposure control measures/methods d. the path 3. Gemma is employed as a seamstress for a family-run business located in the basement of the owner’s house. Gemma should be concerned about which of the following? a. whole body vibration b. low frequency radiation  c. radon d. homeostasis 4. According to the Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety, when might a workplace be too noisy? a. when employees have to raise their voices to be understood b. when employees have chronic ear infections c. when employees have a general feeling of fatigue d. when one employee has a hearing problem 5. Which of the following is commonly the cause of Reynaud’s phenomenon? a. thermal stress b. vibration c. noise d. radiation 6. Rick is the supervisor of a road crew working on highway resurfacing. What administrative control would help his workers acclimatize to working in the heat? a. a heat stress assessment b. reduced worker activity c. cooling vests d. mandatory water break policy 7. What condition is an employee likely experiencing if he or she reports tingling in the fingers, loss of sensation in the fingers, and loss of grip strength? a. HAVS b. hyperpyrexia c. hyperreflexia d. neuritis 8. HAVS is an acronym for which of the following syndromes? a. hearing adherence vibration syndrome b. hearing accumulation vibration syndrome c. hearing avocation vibration syndrome d. hand-arm vibration syndrome 9. Which of the following decibel (dB) differences represents a doubling of “loudness”? a. 80 dB to 82 dB b. 80 dB to 83 dB c. 80 dB to 90 dB d. 80 dB to 160 dB 10. What heat-related condition could you resolve by giving workers salty crackers along with some water? a. heat stroke b. heat syncope c. heat cramps d. heat hyperpyrexia 11. Which of the following forms of ionizing radiation does not occur naturally? a. gamma rays b. X-rays c. alpha particles d. beta particles 12. Which is the cause of early warning change? a. radiation b. cold temperatures c. noise d. vibration 13. What statistical value should Aiko look at to compare the hearing protection of various devices on the market? a. dB(A) b. Hz c. watt d. NRR 14. What factor would explain why, in a cold climate, Worker A can raise their body temperature by four degrees by jogging on the spot or skipping with a rope, whereas Worker B can only raise their body temperature by two degrees? a. Worker A is in better physical condition. b. Worker B is an older worker. c. Worker A is a non-smoker. d. Worker B is female. 15. At what core body temperature does mild hypothermia start to set in? a. o o b. o o 23.9 C to 25.6 C 32.2 C to 30 C c. o o d. o o 37.2 C to 36.1 C 35 C to 33.9 C 16. Non-ionizing radiation is a hospital scanner as ionizing radiation is to a. nuclear power generation. b. lightening. c. radon. d. a microwave oven. 17. When assessing the impact of vibration on employee health which of the following is NOT evaluated? a. the source of the vibration energy b. the intensity and frequency of the vibration c. the part of the body that receives the vibration energy d. the duration of exposure to the vibration 18. According to the textbook a Canadian study found that approximately ______ million Canadians age 20–79 had hearing loss? a. 2.6 b. 3.5 c. 4.6 d. 6.0 19. What is the required noise attenuation in a commercial laundry where actual noise level is 95 dB(A) and the standard is 88 dB(a) for eight hours? a. 1 dB(A) b. 14 dB(A) c. 49 dB(A) d. 176 dB(A) 20. Akanksha is a dental hygienist who cleans patients’ teeth for 35 hours a week. What is the most realistic way of minimizing segmental vibration from the electric polishing brush? a. using a manual polishing brush b. reducing the number of patients that she sees c. loosening her grip on the polishing brush d. adding padding to the handle of the brush Scenario 5-1 Imagine a large-scale kitchen operation such as the Mandarin, Boston Pizza, or Swiss Chalet. Even though restaurant customers might experience a relatively quiet, comfortable, and relaxing atmosphere out front, in the kitchen area there are many physical agents that can impair the safety and health of kitchen workers and servers. 21. Refer to Scenario 5-1: During the dinner hour when there are a lot of boiling pots, frying pans, and hot ovens in constant operation, what is likely to be the typical humidex range captured using the WGBT index? a. 20–29 degrees C b. 30–39 degrees C c. 40–45 degrees C d. 46+ degrees C 22. Refer to Scenario 5-1: If a kitchen worker gets locked into the walk-in freezer either by accident or by a misguided prank, when you finally find them what symptom would tell you that they are suffering from moderate hypothermia? a. intense pain in fingers b. abnormal drowsiness c. decreased respiration d. irrational behaviour 23. Refer to Scenario 5-1: From which source could a chef or sous chef (preparation cook) be exposed to ionizing radiation? a. microwave oven b. kitchen computer c. vegetables d. aluminum pan 24. Refer to Scenario 5-1: There are four mechanical dishwashers in the kitchen running at the following sound ratings: 82 dB, 84 dB, 86 dB, and 88 dB. A 2 dB difference translates to a noise factor increase of 2.1 dB, a 4 dB difference to a factor of 1.5, and a 6 dB difference to a factor of 1.0. Given this information, what is the total noise level coming from the dishwashers? a. 85.0 dB b. 86.1 dB c. 87.5 dB d. 89.0 dB 25. Refer to Scenario 5-1: The kitchen has a number of large floor-standing mixers for mixing large batches of cake and bread dough. The frequency of these mixers is 75 Hz. What part of the body would be affected by resonance at this frequency? a. head b. eyeballs c. shoulder d. arms 26. The effects of radiation depend on the frequency of radiation. a. True b. False 27. NIHL is typically a cumulative process. a. True b. False 28. Hyperreflexia can be caused by noise. a. True b. False 29. Vasoconstriction affects the bronchial tubes. a. True b. False 30. Conductive hearing loss can be caused by a buildup of ear wax from the improper use of ear plugs. a. True b. False 31. A sore neck can be a symptom of segmental vibration. a. True b. False 32. The heat level in a crowded room or subway car rises due to convection. a. True b. False 33. While at work, Zamboni drivers who resurface the ice in hockey arenas are more likely to have lower blood pressure than athletic trainers working in arena dressing rooms. a. True b. False 34. A dosimeter is designed to measure a person’s exposure to noise for one shift as a percentage. a. True  b. False 35. If a roofer is suffering from hyperpyrexia after installing replacement shingles for eight hours in the hot sun their skin will be dry and tight. a. True b. False 36. Describe the legal steps an employer/HRM must take to control hazardous noise in the workplace. What is the most effective noise control method? 37. Discuss commonalities in regards to the origins, effects, and control of the four types of physical agents. ll physical agents are related to sources of energy—noise comes from sound waves, vibration from objects in motion (kinetic energy), radiation from electromagnetic energy, and thermal stress from thermodynamic energy. 38. What obligations do employers have to ensure that the workers are safe from the dangers of heat exposure? 39. Describe several factors that the Canadian Forces would have to take into account in developing a cold-weather occupational health and safety strategy for Forces members working at bases in the northernmost territories of Canada (Yukon, Northwest Territory, and Nunavut). 40. It is rare to see employees in a trendy club wearing any kind of hearing protection. As the new HR manager, explain why club owners and managers may not be protecting club employees from excessive noise and what you could suggest to them that might reduce the risk of hearing loss. 1. Marco is a hair stylist for a large salon. On an average day Marco sees up to 12 clients, many of whom have their hair coloured. Consequently, Marco is frequently mixing chemical agents and using various toners and bleaching compounds. Marco is at risk for which of the following if he does not follow proper hand hygiene protocols? a. arthritis b. asthma c. acute toxicity d. dermatitis 2. Vapours are mostly likely to enter the body via which of the following routes of entry? a. skin absorption b. ingestion c. respiration d. skin penetration 3. Which of the following is most likely to create a synergistic effect with airborne chemicals in a manufacturing plant? a. the other chemicals used in the plant b. inadequate safety training c. inconsistent use of respirators d. the plant being located in a valley 4. Besides record keeping, what control measure ensures that baseline tests will be available when needed?  a. medical surveillance b. engineering controls c. work practices d. good housekeeping 5. Employees with diabetes and other conditions often need to inject themselves at work to manage their condition. What is an administrative control that the human resource management department can implement to protect everyone from needlestick injuries? a. install “sharps” disposal bins in restrooms b. provide education and training to all employees c. ask these employees to inject themselves in an off-site location d. change work schedules, so they can inject at home before and after work 6. What is the recommended remedy for occupational asthma (e.g. crab asthma experienced by the snow crab workers in Newfoundland)? a. transferring to a different job in the same plant b. changing to employment in another industry c. taking asthma medication via a bronchial inhalator “puffer” d. taking antihistamine medication (e.g. Benadryl, Claritin) 7. Ciera’s is a 55-year-old registered nurse who works in a large hospital. Ciera recently contracted a bacterial infection from a patient. Her treatment was a course of antibiotics. Following her treatment Ciera noticed she had trouble hearing. She visited an audiologist who informed her that her recent hearing loss is likely the result of ototoxicity. Which of the following is most likely the cause of Ciera’s hearing loss? a. noise b. bacteria c. antibiotics d. age 8. A smoker who works for an asbestos removal company is more likely to develop lung cancer than a nonsmoker due to which of the following? a. toxicity b. otoxicity c. synergism d. acute toxicity 9. What type of biological agents if inhaled can cause occupational diseases in farmworkers? a. bacterial b. viruses c. chlamydiae d. fungal 10. The immediate pain and discoloration you experience after burning your hand on a hot surface is an example of which of the following? a. acute toxicity b. chronic toxicity c. systemic toxicity d. dose 11. What is the difference between a fume and a vapour? a. vapours are lighter in colour  b. fumes come from the evaporation of solids c. vapours come from the evaporation of liquids d. the material in a fume condenses with air contact 12. Sensitization is an example of which of the following? a. chronic toxicity b. local toxicity c. acute toxicity d. systemic toxicity 13. Which of the following factors allows a solvent to spread evenly and quickly? a. low boiling point b. high volatility c. high vapour pressure d. low surface tension 14. Through what physiological system would poison ivy have an effect on gardeners and agricultural workers? a. nervous system b. immune system c. respiratory system d. metabolic system 15. Which of the following factors would have the greatest impact on a solvent’s effectiveness? a. auto-ignition temperature b. flammability c. colour d. low boiling point 16. Evan is the OH&S manager for a research lab that has Biosafety Level 1 (BSL 1) organisms. What does he need to do to protect himself from this type of organisms? a. wash his hands before he eats lunch at work b. put in a separate lunchroom/restroom for lab workers c. make sure his office is on a different ventilation system d. make sure the lab has a negative pressure environment 17. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the basic levels of protection within the respiratory tract? a. esophagus b. nose c. mucus d. alveoli 18. The Globally Harmonized System is a system that would establish consistency around the world in terms of which of the following? a. the purchase and control of biological agents b. specifying the toxicity levels of chemical agents  c. dealing with epidemics due to biological agents d. classification and labelling of chemical products 19. What are the types of control measures that can be used to ensure the safe handling of both chemical and low-level biological agents? a. people, processes, equipment, materials b. hazard, administrative c. engineering, administrative, and work practices/procedures d. processes, engineering, equipment 20. Which of the following is NOT considered a biohazard? a. bacteria b. virus c. prion d. aerosol Scenario 6-1 Custodial staff (also known as janitors or cleaners) are the unsung heroes of the workplace. Going about their work while many of us are in bed, they deal with a whole host of situations that bring them into contact with a wide range of chemical and biological agents. They are exposed to residues left in the air and on surfaces from manufacturing processes, from service operations, and from human excretions (sweat, body oils, from sneezing, and so on). While employees of the firms that they service receive training about specific chemical and biological hazards, the custodial staff are often unaware of some of the hazards that they may encounter. 21. Refer to Scenario 6-1. Custodial staff may be at more risk of acquiring an illness/injury from acute, rather than ambient, exposure to a chemical or biological agent. How would the cleaning manager know if it was an acute exposure? a. The cleaner had not worked at that location before. b. The cleaner could not continue working that day. c. The cleaner had to go to the hospital right away. d. The cleaner could not return to work for a week. 22. Refer to Scenario 6-1. The owner of the cleaning company tries to protect his workers by getting as much information as he can about chemical hazards when meeting with new clients and renewing contracts with existing clients. In general, for what percentage of chemicals will he be provided with toxicity data? a. 10% b. 20% c. 40% d. 80% 23. Refer to Scenario 6-1. Custodial staff are exposed to aerosols through the cleaning products they use and as a by product of mechanical and human activity at each workplace where they clean. What is the part of the respiratory system that is spiral shaped and could be protected from aerosols by wearing a face mask? a. cilia b. alveoli c. turbinates d. macrophages 24. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What characteristic of chlorinated solvents could ultimately result in liver problems from cleaners? a. acidity b. alkalinity c. fat-solubility d. low surface tension 25. Refer to Scenario 6-1. What two food-related biohazards could cause custodial staff to fall victim to food poisoning if they do not have a way to properly store the food they brought from home for their meal break at 3 a.m.? a. ricksettia and brucellosis b. brucellosis and salmonellosis c. staphylococcus and ricksettia d. salmonellosis and staphylococcus 26. Flashpoint is the highest temperature at which a liquid gas gives off enough vapour to form an ignitable mixture with air and produce a flame with a source of ignition. a. True b. False 27. Norma has been exposed to lead from the plumbing that supplies the drinking water in her workplace, consequently Norma is at risk of developing kidney disease. a. True b. False 28. The best method for mitigating the risks associated with chemical and biohazards is substitution. a. True b. False 29. Sarah has poured a hazardous cleaning chemical into her personal smaller and easier-to-use spray bottle. Sarah has poured only enough to use for the task at hand. Sarah is required to put a workplace label on her spray bottle. a. True b. False 30. Hazards identified within WHMIS are organized by group and class. a. True b. False 31. Supplier labels must include initial supplier information. a. True b. False 32. The ingestion of chemicals or biohazards is often the result of poor hygiene. a. True b. False 33. A human is an example of a reservoir. a. True b. False 34. A chemical’s ability to pass through the skin is closely associated with toxicity. a. True b. False 35. An SDS must contain information about composition and ingredients. a. True b. False 36. Differentiate between chemical and biological agents. Identify a biological or chemical agent present in your workplace or in a workplace with which you are familiar (either by knowing someone who works there or by being a customer/patient). Explain the route of entry, type(s) of toxicity involved, and the health effects that this specific agent can have on the human body. Describe the controls that should be put in place to control this hazard. 37. List the seven types of chemical contaminants found in workplaces. Describe an example of one chemical hazard that office workers may be exposed to and one example of a chemical hazard that manufacturing workers may be exposed to. Describe a workplace human resource practice or policy that could address each of these health and safety issues. 38. Recalling the 12 toxic substances, what three would be the most likely to result in adverse health effects for firefighters? 39. List the eight general characteristics and properties that make solvents effective. Pick two of the eight and explain how that characteristic/property would make a solvent hazardous. 40. Chris’s restaurant in Halifax, Nova Scotia has just received a substandard evaluation from the Ministry of Agriculture’s restaurant inspector. The report cited the following problems: dirty conditions in the kitchen, leaking refrigeration units, unclean restrooms, cross-contamination (e.g. cutting raw meat and vegetables without cleaning or replacing the cutting board/knife), and inadequate ventilation in the kitchen. There have been a number of cases of food poisoning in the past six months (staff and customers). The restaurant’s negative rating has been posted on an online website available to current and potential customers, so Chris wants to get the problems fixed as soon as possible and have the notice removed. For each problem, identify the form and type of chemical and/or biological hazard involved. Discuss what controls Chris should put in place so that next time around the restaurant will receive a much more positive rating from the inspectors, making special note of new hazards that might arise while he is fixing the problems. 1. What are flexible work arrangements that permit employees to have variable start and finish times to their work  day? a. flextime b. flexplace c. job splitting d. job sharing 2. Which two broad categories of initiatives can companies use to promote well-being at work? a. wellness and fitness programs b. nutrition and fitness programs c. family-friendly policies and health promotion programs d. work–family policies and employee assistance programs 3. Which is a major shortcoming of the research on the effectiveness of family-friendly policies described in the text? a. The research is inconclusive. b. The research is peer reviewed. c. The research is American. d. The research is anecdotal. 4. What would be the most suitable flexible work arrangement for Kerry, who wants a work arrangement with a narrow set of tasks and where she can go to work from 8:30–1:00 p.m. every day? a. flextime b. job sharing c. job splitting d. telecommuting 5. Which of the following describes the Canadian standard for psychological health and safety in the workplace? a. provides guidance for employers who want to develop a psychological health and safety management system b. is a legally enforceable set of regulations on psychological health and safety management c. is an effort of workers’ compensation boards to define psychological health and safety as a compensable condition d. focuses on designing interventions for those organizations with especially high rates of psychosocial stressors and stain 6. Which of the following occurs when using a compressed workweek as a family-friendly program? a. a worker works full time hours over fewer days per week b. a worker works part time c. a worker works fewer hours over 4 days per week instead of 5 days per week d. a worker splits their job tasks with another employee 7. The rise of the Occupational Alcohol Movement in the 1940s is generally acknowledged to be the direct predecessor of which of the following?  a. Psychologically Healthy Workplaces b. EFAPs c. Occupational Health and Safety Act d. CSA Standard for Psychological Health and Safety in the Workplace 8. Relaxation training helps to manage stress by teaching the employee which of the following? a. to quickly quiet their mind b. how to get rid of negative thoughts c. how to counteract feelings with muscle release d. stretches that can be done at their desk/workstation 9. Lifestyle programming/health promotion programs can be classified into which three categories? a. screening, education, and behavioural change b. selection, promotion, and behavioural change c. selection, promotion, and psychological change d. screening, education, and psychological change 10. Which of the following is a challenge that organizations face in regards to participation in health promotion programs that they do not face when it comes to safety training? a. Employees are not committed to better health. b. Employees cannot be made to participate in health promotion. c. Employees are not always aware of their existing health issues. d. Employees will not attend programs delivered by external providers. 11. Despite varying in the specific details, what are the four steps that most workplace hypertension programs will follow? a. education, screening, referral, and follow-up b. education, counselling, monitoring, and follow-up c. assessment, identification, treatment, and follow-up d. screening, education, diet changes, and medication controls 12. Which factor limits the overall effectiveness of workplace weight loss programs? a. low interest b. high attrition rates c. lack of information on meal planning d. unhealthy food choices in the workplace 13. Which of the following limits our understanding of the effectiveness of health promotion programs in workplaces? a. poor methodology in evaluation studies b. the novelty of these programs in organizations c. the complexity of the behaviour involved d. the diversity of health promotion programs 14. When conducting a methodologically sound evaluation of a health promotion program, the study must have which of the following? a. many different organizations taking part b. multiple variations on the program being compared c. equal numbers of men and women in the study d. pre- and post-intervention assessments of the outcomes 15. Hypertension is also known as which of the following conditions? a. heartburn b. elevated blood pressure c. cognitive failure d. liver failure 16. Stephanie and Patrick are new parents who live and work for organizations in Halifax. Which of the following statements best describes their maternity and parental leave opportunities? a. The parents can each take 12 weeks of unpaid leave. b. Only Stephanie can take leave. c. Stephanie can take maternity leave and both parents can share parental leave for a total of one year, unpaid. d. Stephanie can take maternity leave and both parents can split parental leave for a total of one year, with benefits paid through Employment Insurance and potentially their employers. 17. What are the types of stress management programs described in the textbook? a. skills training, relaxation training, counselling b. cognitive-behavioural therapy, mindfulness, counselling c. cognitive-behavioural skills training, relaxation training, social support d. relaxation training, meditation, mindfulness 18. Haruo and Katya are grade 2 teachers. They are taking part in a family-friendly program offered at their school. Haruo teaches the grade 2 class on Monday, Wednesday, and Friday. Katya teaches the class on Tuesday and Thursday. Which of flexible work arrangement are they using? a. job splitting b. job sharing c. compressed workweek d. part time work 19. What is the second step in most secondary-level worksite health promotion programs? a. referral to in-house or community-based resources b. treatment directed at the symptoms c. counselling and recommendations d. identification of high-risk individuals 20. Which of the following is considered a health promotion program? a. personal leave b. family care benefits  c. lifestyle programming d. flexible work arrangements 21. Elon works in personal accounting and is very busy during the tax season. One of the ways he manages stress when he feels overwhelmed and worried about how he will meet all his deadlines is to purposely bring his attention back to the present moment. What is he is engaging in? a. cognitive-behavioural skills training b. relaxation training c. mindfulness d. meditation 22. Lena wants to have Tuesdays off so that she can take her elderly father to his doctor appointments without losing any income. Which flexible work arrangement should she discuss with her supervisor? a. flextime b. flexplace c. compressed workweek d. job sharing or job splitting 23. Which of the following occurs as part of the family-friendly policies of a flexible work arrangement? a. modifications to the traditional work schedule b. employees have variable start and finish times for work c. employees complete work away from the office d. employees work full-time hours in fewer days per week 24. Which of the following was NOT identified as a best practice in developing and implementing successful health promotion programs? a. communicate program success to stakeholders b. ensure the program is in line with the workplace’s goals and values c. keep the program broad so it meets general needs d. engage in thorough evaluation of the program 25. Trudy feels considerable pressure. Her grown children expect her to help them care for her grandchildren, her mother requires daily visits, and she is still working full time. She wants to change the way she thinks about these pressures in her life. What type of programming would help Trudy think differently about the stressors she faces? a. relaxation training b. resilience training c. cognitive-behavioural skills training d. conflict management training 26. Cognitive behavioural skills training should be provided to only managerial-level positions due to the complexity of it. a. True b. False 27. There are four types of workplace nutrition programs. a. True b. False 28. Employee and Family Assistance Programs (EFAPs) can help employees and their family members with financial or legal problems. a. True b. False 29. Drug and alcohol testing programs are illegal in Canada. a. True b. False 30. Some family-friendly policies may increase family-to-work conflict. a. True b. False 31. Behavioural change is one category of worksite health promotion programming. a. True b. False 32. There are mixed results regarding the effectiveness of stress management programs. a. True b. False 33. Cognitive-behavioural skills training is the most effective stress management intervention. a. True b. False 34. Meditation helps you deal directly with stress, whereas mindfulness helps you distance yourself from stress. a. True b. False 35. The bulk of the meta-analytic research evidence suggests that family-friendly programming has moderately negative effects. a. True b. False 36. Flextime programs are also known as telecommuting. a. True b. False 37. EFAPs fall in the category of family-friendly policies. a. True b. False 38. Health promotion programs can sometimes increase absenteeism and benefit costs. a. True b. False 39. List and give examples of the three broad categories of family-friendly programs that organizations can implement to reduce work–family conflict and assist employees in balancing their work and family responsibilities. 40. Describe the seven essential elements required to develop a successful health promotion program. 41. List the two overall recommendations and give examples for any four of the specific recommendations for organizations from the long-running national study on work–life balance in Canada. 42. Discuss the steps typically included in secondary-level worksite health promotion programs. 43. Compare and contrast the three approaches to stress management programs in terms of their focus on thoughts, emotions, or behaviour. 44. Ten years ago, the brand-new IT company where you started your career in HR as a technical recruiter was full of people in their early twenties with few commitments. However, because of the company’s success in retaining its employees, the company now has a workforce comprised of many employees, including yourself, in their child-bearing and child-rearing years and already experiencing health issues associated with the rapid growth of the company. You are now the Director of Human Resource Management for the entire company. Explain how you would put together a business case to convince the founders of the company to invest financially and give their support to family-friendly and health promotion programs.