Biomedical Sciences: Immune Disorders Overview PDF

COPY: Biomedical Sciences: Immune Disorders Overview Your Name: 1. What characterizes hypersensitivity reactions? A. An overactive immune response causing tissue damage B. An inappropriate reaction to self-antigens C. Ineffective immune response to infections D. A lack of immune respon...

COPY: Biomedical Sciences: Immune Disorders Overview Your Name: 1. What characterizes hypersensitivity reactions? A. An overactive immune response causing tissue damage B. An inappropriate reaction to self-antigens C. Ineffective immune response to infections D. A lack of immune response to antigens 2. Which of the following defines immunodeficiency? A. An inappropriate response to foreign antigens B. The body attacking its own cells C. A failure of the immune system to function properly D. An overreaction of the immune system 3. Autoimmunity can be defined as: A. An excessive immune response to pathogens B. A failure to produce antibodies C. An inappropriate immune response directed against the body's own tissues D. A strong immune reaction to vaccines 4. What is an important consequence of hypersensitivity reactions? A. Gross tissue damage upon re-exposure to an antigen B. Decreased inflammatory response C. Reduction in immune system efficiency D. Increased production of antibodies 5. Which statement about autoimmune diseases is true? A. They have no oral manifestation B. They exclusively affect the endocrine system C. They result from an inappropriate reaction to self-antigens D. They are always caused by genetic factors 6. Which type of hypersensitivity involves IgE-mediated reactions? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type IV hypersensitivity D. Type III hypersensitivity 7. What is the primary cause of immunodeficiency disorders? A. Exposure to allergens B. Nutritional deficiencies C. Autoimmune reactions D. Genetic mutations or infections 8. How can autoimmune diseases manifest in the oral cavity? A. Oral lesions or ulcers B. Increased salivary flow C. Higher resistance to dental caries D. Improved gum health 9. What is a common allergic reaction for individuals with atopy? A. Swollen red face after lidocaine B. Anaphylaxis to antibiotics C. Death from latex exposure D. Rash from cholesterol medication 10. Which type of allergy can lead to type I anaphylaxis? A. Latex allergy B. Chlorhexidine allergy C. Sodium metabisulphite allergy D. Benzocaine allergy 11. What defines primary immunodeficiency (PID)? A. A condition acquired through lifestyle factors B. Weakness from viral infections C. A temporary state from medication usage D. An immune system failure due to congenital defects 12. Which of the following can cause secondary immunodeficiency (SID)? A. Exposure to environmental toxins B. Inherited autoimmune diseases C. Genetic factors from parents D. Congenital disorders 13. What is a potential risk associated with chlorhexidine in dental practice? A. Ongoing skin irritation leading to eczema B. Allergic reaction resembling asthma C. Fatality in rare cases D. Immediate immune response failure 14. What is the primary immune system issue faced by immunodeficient individuals? A. Inability to recognize common pathogens B. Consistent and normal immune responses C. Enhanced ability to fight infections D. Impaired response to infections 15. Which allergy is specifically associated with dental topical anaesthetics? A. Chlorhexidine allergy B. Benzocaine allergy C. Dentine bonding agent allergy D. Sodium metabisulphite allergy 16. Which of the following symptoms is NOT associated with a Type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. Diarrhoea B. Laryngeal oedema C. Chronic fatigue D. Urticaria 17. What is the primary treatment for systemic anaphylaxis? A. Adrenaline B. Steroids C. Antihistamines D. Bronchodilators 18. Which of the following is a classic example of a Type I hypersensitivity reaction? A. Viral-induced cough B. Pollen allergy leading to hay fever C. Asthma caused by exercise D. Infection leading to fever 19. What action should NOT be taken when administering treatment for anaphylaxis? A. Avoid other treatments until adrenaline is given B. Administer adrenaline promptly C. Provide intravenous fluids first D. Use a prescribed adrenaline autoinjector 20. Which of the following is a common trigger for allergic reactions? A. Overexposure to sunlight B. Excessive physical activity C. Animal fur from cats and dogs D. Household cleaning products 21. What type of reaction is hay fever considered? A. Type I hypersensitivity B. Type IV hypersensitivity C. Type III hypersensitivity D. Type II hypersensitivity 22. Which treatment is commonly used for extrinsic asthma caused by allergens? A. Bronchodilators B. Subcutaneous immunotherapy C. Antibiotics D. Antidepressants 23. What is the primary function of antihistamines in allergic reactions? A. To block histamine receptors B. To reduce inflammation C. To induce sedation D. To act as a vasoconstrictor 24. Which of the following treatment options should be prioritized for someone experiencing anaphylactic shock? A. Antihistamines and bronchodilators B. Oral steroids for infection control C. Hydration via intravenous fluids D. Immediate administration of adrenaline 25. What type of hypersensitivity reaction occurs due to exposure to certain foods? A. Type III hypersensitivity B. Type II hypersensitivity C. Type I hypersensitivity D. Type IV hypersensitivity 26. What is an indication that a patient is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction? A. Headache and muscle aches B. Hypertension and fever C. Abdominal pain and urticaria D. Persistent cough and fatigue 27. Which symptom is a sign of anaphylactic shock? A. Redness of the skin B. Sweating C. Nausea D. Unconsciousness 28. What is the primary purpose of referring a patient to an Immunology or allergy clinic post-anaphylaxis? A. To prescribe antihistamines B. To conduct genetic testing C. To monitor blood pressure D. To identify the cause of the reaction 29. What antibodies are involved in Type II hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgD and IgE B. IgE only C. IgG or IgM D. IgA and IgM 30. Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with an allergic reaction? A. Chest pain and wheezing B. Cyanosis of mucous membranes C. Rapid or weak pulse D. Blurred vision 31. What is a common physical response to anaphylaxis regarding heart rate? A. Regular pulse B. Tachycardia C. Arrhythmia D. Bradycardia 32. Which of the following is an effective management strategy after an anaphylactic episode? A. Avoiding all medications B. Immediate hospitalization only C. Identifying triggers through clinic referral D. Monitoring symptoms at home 33. What characterizes a Type II hypersensitivity reaction? A. Delayed reaction after 48 hours B. No involvement of antibodies C. Antibody-mediated destruction of cells D. Immediate response by mast cells 34. In which timeframe does a Type II hypersensitivity reaction typically develop? A. 2-24 hours B. After 48 hours C. Immediately within minutes D. 1-2 hours 35. Which of the following is a sign of respiratory distress in an allergic reaction? A. Fever B. Difficulty breathing C. Skin rash D. Dizziness 36. What is a characteristic feature of Type III hypersensitivity reactions? A. Primarily affects T cells B. Involves IgM antibodies exclusively C. Formation of immune complexes D. Immediate reaction to antigens 37. What role do opsonins play in immune responses? A. They initiate inflammation directly B. They promote phagocytosis C. They inhibit antibody production D. They cause cell lysis 38. Which immune cells are primarily involved in the inflammatory response during Type III hypersensitivity? A. Natural killer cells B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes C. Platelets D. B lymphocytes 39. Which condition is a potential consequence of systemic immune complex disease? A. Autoimmune hemolytic syndrome B. Allergic rhinitis C. Hemolytic anemia D. Serum sickness 40. What is the primary mechanism through which immune complexes in Type III hypersensitivity cause damage? A. Histamine release by mast cells B. Inhibition of B cells C. Complement activation D. Direct cellular apoptosis 41. What can occur when immune complexes lodge in small blood vessels? A. Inflammation and tissue damage B. Increased blood flow to tissues C. Tissue regeneration D. Increased oxygenation of tissues 42. What type of antibodies primarily participate in Type III hypersensitivity reactions? A. IgM only B. IgA and IgM C. IgG and IgM D. IgE and IgD 43. What outcome is associated with chemotaxis in the context of hypersensitivity reactions? A. Movement of cells toward a chemical stimulus B. Agglutination of red blood cells C. Inhibition of immune response D. Decreased antibody production 44. Which of the following accurately describes cell lysis? A. The migration of immune cells B. Destruction of the cell membrane C. Marking cells for phagocytosis D. The clumping of cells 45. Which of the following best describes autoimmunity in relation to transfusion reactions? A. Only universal donors can be transfused B. Autoimmune reactions never occur C. All transfusions are safe D. Incompatibility can lead to hemolytic reactions