Constitutional Law MCQ PYQ PDF

NITI 2.0 ALL STATE JUDICIARY PRELIMS PYQs BOOSTER Constitution 500+ PYQ Prathmesh Niranjani THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA CONSTITUTION – NATURE & CHARACTERISTICS  1. Which one of the fol...

NITI 2.0 ALL STATE JUDICIARY PRELIMS PYQs BOOSTER Constitution 500+ PYQ Prathmesh Niranjani THE CONSTITUTION OF INDIA CONSTITUTION – NATURE & CHARACTERISTICS  1. Which one of the following is considered as a Supreme source of power? [U.P.CJ 2015] A Supreme Court of India B Parliament of India C President of India D Constitution of India  2. The Indian Constitution is dedicated to: [U.P. CJ 2012, Chhat ADPO 2006] A The Constituent Assembly B The Parliament C The whole society D The people of India  3. The number of Articles and Schedules in original Indian Constitution was [UJS 2012, OJS 2016] A 395 Articles and 8 Schedules B 394 Articles and 9 Schedules C 396 Articles and 10 Schedules D 395 Articles and 7 Schedules  4. How many parts are present in the Constitution of India? [KJS 2016] A XXII parts. B XXII parts. C XXV parts. D XXIII parts.  5. Who is known as the architect of the Constitution of independent India? [HJS 2015] A Jawaharlal Nehru B Rajendra Prasad C S. Radhakrishnan D B.R. Ambedkar  6. The idea of forming the Constituent Assembly of India was contained in the [WBJS 2015] A Cripps Proposals B Cabinet Mission Plan C Government of India Act, 1935 D Simon Commission Report  7. The first Constituent Assembly's meeting held on9-12-46 was presided over by [UJS 2012] A Dr.Rajendra Prasad B Shri S.N. Sinha C Shri Jawahar Lal Nehru D None of the above  8. Who was the temporary Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India? [BHJS 2015] A Dr. Rajendra Prasad B Acharya J.B. Kripalani C Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha D Dz. B.R. Ambedkar  9. The Chairman of the Constituent Assembly was - [Bihar APO 2012, TJS 2009, 2013] A Jawaharlal Nehru B Jaiprakash Narayan C Rajagopalachari D Dr.Rajendra Prasad  10. On which amongst the following days the Constitution of India came into effect? [TJS 2008, HJS 2010] A 26th November, 1949 B 26th January, 1950 C 26th March, 1950 D 26th April, 1950  11. Which Indian artist decorated the hand written copy of the Constitution? [UJS 2017] A Mihir Sen B SN. Banergi C Mukesh Bandhopadhyaya D NandLal Bose  12. Which among the following is described as Supreme? [TJS 2008] A Constitution of India B Indian Penal Code C Criminal Procedure Code D Supreme Court of India  13. Which was the first country to have a written Constitution? [AJS 2017] A UK B USA C France D Russia  14. The Constitution of India is on [HJS 2011] A Highly federal B Highly unitary C Neither federal nor unitary D Partly federal and partly unitary  15. Who amongst the following has said that "Indian Constitution is a federation with strong centralizing tendency? [U.P. CJ 2015] A KC. Wheare B AV. Dicey C Sir Ivor Jennings D None of the above  16. Consider the following statements: The salient features of the Indian Constitution provide: 1. single citizenship for whole of India 2. strictly federal form of Government 3. unique blend of rigidity and flexibility Which of the above statements are correct? [Bihar APO 2013] A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 C 2 and 3 D 1 and 3 PREAMBLE  17. Which part of the Constitution reflects the mind and ideals of the framers of the Constitution? [TJS 2015, M.P. CJ 2017] A Preamble B Fundamental Rights C Directive Principles of State Policy D None of these  18. What are the 4 objectives mentioned in the preamble of the Indian Constitution? [T.N.JS 2018] A Justice, liberty, equality and fraternity B Social, secular, democratic and republic C Liberty, equality, fraternity and secular D Justice, liberty, federal and democratic  19. The Constitution of India secures to all its citizens [KCJ 2015] A Justice and Equality B Liberty C Fraternity D All of the above  20. Which of the following statements is incorrect? [Bihar APO 2012] A The Preamble is a key to the understanding of the mind of founding fathers B The Preamble embodies the ideals, hopes, faith and aspiration of the people. C The Preamble embodies the intentions of the founding fathers and objectives of the Constitution. D The Preamble of the Constitution has no importance. It is no more than an introduction to the Constitution  21. Preamble of the Constitution declares India as: [M.P. CJ 2009, 2014, 2018 (1), AJS 2012] A a Socialist democratic Republic B a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic C a Sovereign Democratic Republic D a None of the above  22. The text of the Preamble of the Constitution of India aims to secure:- [PJS 2011] A fundamental rights to all individuals B fundamental duties to citizens of India C dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the nation D security of service to the Government servant  23. In case there is a conflict between the Preamble and other provisions of the Constitution, which will prevail over the other: [M.P. CJ 2012] A Preamble will prevail B Other provision will prevail C Both will go side by side D Interpretation of the Supreme Court will prevail  24. The solemn resolution in the Preamble of our Constitution is made in the name of: [OJS 2011, Chhat ADPO 2006] A Constituent Assembly of Free India B Constitution of India C Indian Independence Act D People of India  25. The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:- [AJS 2011] A Italian Constitution B Canadian Constitution C French Constitution D Constitution of USA  26. Preamble is the part of Constitution: [HJS 2008] A Yes B No C May be D May not be  27. Which one of the following statements is more correct? [M.P. HJS 2014] A Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368 B Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended C Preamble is the part of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made D Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective resolution  28. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is: [UPSC CS 1998] A not a part of the Consultation B a part of the Constitution but it neither confers any power nor imposes any duties nor can it be of any use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution C a part of the Constitution and can be of use in interpreting other provisions of the Constitution in cases of ambiguity D a part of the Constitution and it confers powers and imposes duties as any other provisions of the Constitution  29. Consider the following objectives stated in the Preamble of the Constitution: 1. Equality of Status and of opportunity 2. Fraternity assuring the dignity of the individual 3. Justice - social, economic and political 4. Liberty of thought, expression and belief What is the correct order in which these find places in the Preamble? [DAPP 2005] A 4-3-2-1 B 2-3-1-4 C 1-4-3-2 D 3-4-1-2  30. The Preamble of Constitution of India includes all the following except: [PJS 2015] A Equality of status B Adult Franchise C Fraternity D Justice  31. Which of the following is correct about the Preamble to the Constitution of India? [DJS 2014] A It was adopted on 26 November 1949 B It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights. C It seeks to secure good livelihood to all. D It is not a part of the Constitution.  32. Which among the words appears first in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? [UHJS 2011] A Liberty B Equality C Justice D Fratemity  30. The Preamble of Constitution of India includes all the following except: [PJS 2015] A Equality of status B Adult Franchise C Fraternity D Justice  31. Which of the following is correct about the Preamble to the Constitution of India? [DJS 2014] A It was adopted after adoption of operative Articles of Constitution B It envisages that all citizens have fundamental rights. C It seeks to secure good livelihood to all. D It is not a part of the Constitution.  32. Which among the words appears first in the Preamble to the Constitution of India? [UHJS 2011] A Liberty B Equality C Justice D Fratemity  33. The 'Preamble of the Indian Constitution has been amended so far: [UHJS 2018] A Once B Twice C Thrice D Never  34. Preamble was amended by which amendment? [HJS 2008, U.P. HJS 2014] A 42nd Amendment B 44th Amendment C 39th Amendment D None of these  35. Preamble of the Constitution was amended and the words "Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic" were substituted for "Sovereign Democratic Republic "vide: [M.P.CJ 2010] A 93rd Amendment w.e.f. 20-11-2006 B 85th Amendment wef. 17-6-1995 C 42nd Amendment w.e.f. 3-1-1977 D 44th Amendment w.e.f. 20-6-1979  36. By which amendment, the words Secular and Socialist were included in the preamble? [RJS 2019, BJS 2009, MJS 2011, HJS 2013, M.P. CJ 2012, TJS 2013, A 1st Amendment AJS 2011, 2015] B 6th Amendment C 42nd Amendment D 44th Amendment  37. The Preamble to the Constitution of India: [DJS 2011] A Contains the Resolution to constitute India into inter alia a Socialist Republic, since the framing of the Constitution B The word 'Socialist' was incorporated in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment with effect from 3rd January, 1977 C Never contained the word "Socialist' D The word "Socialist' was dropped by the 42nd Amendment.  38. State which of the following statements is correct [HJS 2011] A Preamble is not part of the Constitution B Preamble is part of the Constitution and relates to its basic structure, C Preamble is not part of the Constitution but a sort of introduction to the Constitution D Preamble is like a prologue to the Constitution  39. The word "secular" used in the Preamble of the Constitution of India means [U.P. CJ 2012] A The State has no religion of its own B All religions are treated equally C The State has no common religion D Both (A) and (B) are correct  40. India is a Secular State, because [TJS 2009] A It has no State religion B Hinduism is tolerant towards other religion C Indian Government has nothing to do with religion D Minority rights are guaranteed in the Constitution.  41. Which of the following words is not used with Liberty in the preamble of the Constitution? [PJS 2019] A Worship B Speech C Expression D Faith UNION & TERRITORY / CITIZENSHIP  42. One of the following Articles describes the Republic of India as a Union and not as a federation though the words are "India, that is, Bharat, shall be a Union of States,". [TJS 2015] A Article 1 B Article 2 C Article 3 D Article 4  43. India, that is Bharat, shall be [WBJS 2011, OJS 2016] A the Union of Union territories B a Union of States C the territories of any State D the Union of territories specified in the Second Schedule  44. The name of the Union given in the Constitution is [PJS 2010] A Hindustan or Bharatavarsha B India or Hindustan C India or Bharat D Bharatadesh or India  45. According to the Constitution of India which among the following is empowered to establish the new States? [U.P. APO 2015, OJS 2014] A President B Parliament C Supreme Court D Cabinet  46. Under which Article of the Constitution Parliament can create a new state? [BJS 2009, 2012] A Art: 3 B Art. C Art. 5 D Art 368  47. Under Article 3 of Constitution the Parliament may by law form a new state. No Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in Parliament except on recommendation of [M.P. HJS 2014] A Prime Minister B President C Speaker D Any Member of Parliament  48. The power of Parliament to form new States or alternation of areas and boundaries is drawn from: [PJS 2013] A List I-Union List only B List III-Concurrent List also C The Constitution other than Article 246 D None of the above  49. Within the meaning of Article 3 of the Indian Constitution the Parliament by law may/can: [M.P.CJ 2012] A Form new States B Alter areas of States C Alter boundaries or the names of existing states D All of the above  50. Which of the following in India is empowered to admit into the Union or establish new State? [Bihar APO 2013] A Rajya Sabha B President C Constitutional Amendment D Parliament  51. Through which amendment of the Constitution of India, Sikkim was included in the Union of India? [UJS 2015, U.P. CJ 2016] A 36th Amendment B 35th Amendment C Seventh Amendment D Fifth Amendment  52. The first State in Independent India which was created on linguistic basis was [UJS 2015] A Gujarat B Kerala C Andhra Pradesh D Haryana  53. Which one of the following is not the way of Termination of Citizenship? [U.P. CJ 2013] A By renunciation B By acquisition C The tour journey of another State for few months D By deprivation  54. Can a juristic person acquire citizenship under Part-II of the Constitution of India? [UP. HJS 2018] A Yes, if the juristic person is in operation from more than 10 years in Indian territory B Yes, if that had operation in pre- partition Indian territory C No D Yes, as per provisions of the Citizenship Act, 1955  55. The system of dual citizenship within the country exists in; [HJS 2015] A USA B France C India D UK FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS  56. Fundamental Right are contained in which Part of the Constitution of India? [DJS 2011, UHJS 2011, OJS 2015] A Part II B Part III C Part IV D Part V  57. Under which Article the definition of State includes the Government and Parliament of India, Government and Legislature of State and all local authorities in the territory of India. [CJS 2019] A Article 11 B Article 12 C Article 13 D Article 9  58. The definition of State under Article 12 of the Constitution applies to: [Jhar APP 2012] A Part III and Part IV of the Constitution B Only Part III of the Constitution C Only Part IV of the Constitution D None of the above  59. Which one among the following is not a relevant factor to decide whether an agency or instrumentality should be treated as “State' under Article 12 of the Constitution of India? [DAPP 2010] A Deep and pervasive State control B Monopoly status conferred or recognized by the State C Function which are of public importance D Profit earning  60. Which of the following is not 'State for the purpose of Article 12 of the Constitution? [Chhat ADPO 2008, Bihar APO 2013] A National Council of Education Research and Training (NCERT) B A Nationalized Bank C Institute of Medical Education and Research, Chandigarh D GrihaKalyan Kendra  61. Which out of the following is not covered under ‘State' under Article 12 of the Constitution? [BJS 2009] A Central Govt. B State Govt. C University of Patna D international commission on irrigation and drainage (ICID)  62. Which of the following is a State for the purposes of Article 12? [DJS 2014] A National Council of Educational Research and Training B Institute of Constitutional and Parliamentary Studies C Indian Oil Corporation D High Court of Delhi  63. A corporation is 'State' for the purpose of enforcement of fundamental rights [UP, HIS 2016] A it is a body registered according to law B it is an agency or instrumentality of Government C it has to report to Government D the Government services are made applicable to its employees  64. Under which of the following Articles laws inconsistent or abridging fundamental rights are declared void? [M.P.APO 2002] A Article 12 B Article 13 C Article 11 D Article 21  65. The objective of the Article 13 of the Constitution of India is to: [DAPP 2010] A secure paramountcy to the fundamental rights B limit the legislative power of the State C define the word 'law D expand the powers of the courts  66. According to Article 13(3) of the Constitution of India, Law includes [WBJS 2011] A any ordinance, order, bye-law rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law B any ordinance, order, bye-law, customs or usages C any rules, regulations or notifications in India D any law made by delegated authority in the country  67. Which of the following is included in the definition of 'law' as provided in Article 13? [HJS 2013] A Bye-Law B Custom having the force of law C Usage having the force of law D All of the above  68. The term "law in force” in clause (3) of Article 13 means: [AJS 2011] A statutory law B Law made by Parliament C both (A) & (B) D Newly formed public order only  69. "Law" under Article 13(3)(a) of the Constitution includes: 1. ordinance, order, notification 2. bye-law, rule, regulation 3. custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Select the correct answer using the code given below [M.P. HJS2011] A 1, 2 and 3 B 1 and 2 only C 1 and 3 only D 2 and 3 only  70. Which Article talks about Judicial review A Article 105 B Article 245 C Article 246 D Article 13  71. Article 13 Applies to : [M.P. HJS 2011] A Only to pre-constitutional laws B To post-constitutional laws but only in respect of non-citizens C To post-constitutional laws but only in respect of citizens D To all laws-pre-constitutional as well as post constitutional  72. Judicial review means - [T.N.JS 2018] A To review the judgment of one High Court Judge by another High Court Judge B To review one's own judgment C Testing the judgment of High Court by Supreme Court D 'Testing the action of Executive by Judiciary  73. The power of Judicial Review in India is possessed by [U.P. CJ 2012] A Supreme Court alone B By all courts C Supreme Court as well as High Courts D None of the Courts  74. The concept of judicial review in India is inspired by the Constitution of [Bihar APO 2012, TJS 2015] A Britain B France C USA D Switzerland  75. Does a foreign citizen have fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution? [DJS 2018] A Yes, all fundamental rights apply to all natural persons B Yes, all fundamental rights apply to all natural and juristic person C No, fundamental rights only apply to Indian citizens. D Some fundamental rights apply to all person, whereas others are restricted to citizens.  76. Right to equality are in Article: [M.P.APO 2008] A 14-18 B 18-19 C 20-21 D 32  77. 'Equality before law' is a fundamental right enshrined in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India [KCJ 2015] A Article 13 B Article 16 C Article 14 D Article 19  78. The rule of law is found in:- [A.P.JS 2011] A Article 12 B Article 14 C Article 16 D Article 21  79. Article 14 of the Constitution of India is confined to- [WBJS2017] A the citizen of India only B to any person C to citizen of Commonwealth Countries D None of the above  80. The equality provision viz. Article 14 of the Constitution of India has been Influenced by the Constitution of:- [DAPP2005] A U.S.A. B Canada C Japan D Australia  81. 'Equality before law' & Equal protection of law under Article 14 is available to whom [HJS 2008, AJS 2012, TJS 2013] A Citizens B Non-Citizens C Both (A) and (B) D None of these  82. Article 14 does not encompass:- [DJS 2011] A Equality before law B Equal protection of laws C Protection against arbitrary action D Protection of life and liberty  83. Select the most appropriate:- Article 14 of the Constitution of India provides all persons: [CJS 2016] A equality before law B reservation C equality before law and equal protection of law D freedom of religion  84. The right to equality before the law contained in Article 14 of the Constitution of India is available to [PJS 2011] A natural persons only B legal persons only C citizens of India D all persons whether natural or legal  86. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organize Village Panchayats? [DJS 2015] A Article 40 B Article 41 C Article 42 D Article 43  87. Discrimination by law in the marriageable age of a boy (21 years and a girl 18 years):- [U.P.CJ 2013] A offends Article 14 of the Constitution B does not offend Article 14 of the Constitution. C is against Rule of Law D violates Human Rights  88. Sixth Schedule of the Constitution applies to which of the following States? [Jhar APP 2012, UHJS 2018) A Assam, Tripura, Meghalaya, Mizoram B Assam, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura C Assam, Tripura, Mizoram, Nagaland D Assam, Meghalaya, Manipur, Nagaland  89. The ‘equal protection of laws’ in Article 14 has been taken from:- [M.P. APO 2009, M.P. HJS 2018, U.P. CJ 2015] A British Constitution B American Constitution C Australian Constitution D None of the above  90. Which of the following fundamental rights is available to both the citizens and non- citizens? [M.P. CJ 2012] A The right to six freedoms B The right to equality before law C Cultural and educational rights D the right to equality of opportunity in public employment  91. Fundamental Right conferred by Article 15(1) of the Constitution is available to- [UP. HJS 2009] A Any person B citizen C Any corporation D None of the above  92. Protective Discrimination is constitutionally valid in view of [T.N.JS 2018] A Articles 15(4) and 16(4) B Article 15(4) and 20(2) C Article 15(4) and 21 D None of the above  93. Article 15 of the Constitution of India does not permit the State to make special provision for one of the following which one is that? [M.P. CJ 2012] A Socially and educationally backward classes B A class of specific religion C Only scheduled caste and scheduled tribes D None of the above  94.. Article 15 of the Constitution prohibits discrimination between citizen on the basis of [U.P. CJ 2015, M.P.APO 2002, TJS 2017] A Religion and caste only B Religion, race and caste only C Religion, caste and sex only D Religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them  95. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India permits State to make special provision for children? [CBI APO 2015] A Article 21 B Article 19(2) C Article 18 D Article 15(3)  96. Article 15(3) of the Constitution of India empowers the State to make special provisions for [UPSC CS 2002] A reservation in employment for freedom fighters B women and children C reservation in employment for physically handicapped persons D relaxation of minimum qualifying marks for admission to those belonging to SC and ST category  97. Reservation of seats, in educational institutions in favor of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by [U.P. CJ 2012] A Article 15(5) of the Constitution B Article 16(4) of the Constitution C Article 29 (2) of the Constitution D Article 14 of the Constitution  98. Backwardness under Article 15(4):- [HSJS 2012] A must be social and educational B must be social and not necessarily to be educational C must be economic as well as social D none of the above is correct  99. Reservation of seats in Private educational Institutions in favor of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes is governed by: [U.P. CJ 2018] A Article 15(5) of the Constitution B Article 16(4) of the Constitution C Article 29(2) of the Constitution D Article 14 of the Constitution  100. Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment: [DJS 2011, M.P. CJ 2015] A Is guaranteed to all citizens of India B Is guaranteed to all residents of India C Is available to persons of Indian origin irrespective of citizenship D Is not provided for in the Constitution  101. Under Article 16 the words 'any employment of office' applies [TJS 2013] A Only to public employments B Private employments C Both public and private employments D None of the above  102. Operation of any law which provides that the incumbent of an office in connection with the affairs of any religion shall profess a particular religion: [DJS 2018] A Violates Article 14 of the Constitution of India. B Violates Part III of the Constitution of India. C Is protected under Article 16 of the Constitution of India. D Violates principle of equality of opportunity.  103. Right of equality of opportunity in the matters of public employment is under: [M.P. HJS 2009] A Industrial Dispute Act B Contract Act C Constitutional Right D Partnership Act  104. The right to equality prevents the State from: [DAPP 2008] A Making any provision for women and children B Making 3% reservation for physically handicapped persons C Making special provision for the advancement of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens D Giving reservations in public employment to Scheduled Tribes irrespective of any consideration to efficiency of administration  105. Which Article of the Constitution provides for reservation in promotion for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes, [M.P. CJ 2014, PJS 2012] A Article 15(4) B Article 16(4) C Article 16(4A) D Article 16(41)  106. The term consequential seniority is mentioned under which of the following Articles of the Constitution? [PJS 2019] A Article 16(5) B Article 16(4A) C Article 16(4B) D Article 166)  107. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment clause (4B) was added to Article 16 of the Constitution? [UJS 2012] A 80th B 82nd C 81st D 85th  108. In which schedule of Constitution of India, the three lists are mentioned [PJS 2012] A III B V C IX D VII  109. Which Article of the Constitution enables the State to have a special drive for unfilled reserved vacancies of a year? [HHJS 2013] A Article 14 B Article 15(4) C Article 16(4) D Article 16(4B)  110. The provision to fill 'backlog vacancy' was inserted in the Article 16 by which of the following Amendment Acts? [Bihar APO 2012] A 77th Amendment Act, 1995 B 81th Amendment Act, 2000 C 85th Amendment Act, 2001 D It was never inserted in the Article16  111. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden under: [RJS 2019, MJS 2011, DJS 2015, AJS 2017, TJS 2013, UJS 2013, KCJ 2015] A Article 14 of the Constitution B Article 16 of the Constitution C Article 17 of the Constitution D Article 19 of the Constitution  112. Practicing untouchability is; [HJS 2013] A Violation of a constitutional right B A criminal offence C Both (A) and (B) D Violation of a legal right only  113. Article 17 of Indian Constitution deals with. [UJS 2019, M.P. CJ 2016] A Education B Health C Abolition of untouchability D Food guarantee  114. An unlawful compulsory labour is deemed to be a practice of "untouchability when any person compels other person to do: [Chhat ADPO2008] A scavenging B removing any carcass C sweeping D all of the above  115. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was enacted to give effect to which provision of the Constitution? [DJS 2018] A Article 24 B Article 17 C Article 31 D Article 25  116. Which of the following is prohibited without the consent of the President of India according to Article 18? [Bihar APO 2012] A Conferment of title B Accepting any title from foreign State C Accepting any gift or office of any kind from or under any foreign State D All of the above.  117. A citizen of India, who holds any office of profit or truth under the State cannot accept any title from foreign State without the consent of the: [UP, HJS 2016] A President B Prime Minister C Speaker of the Lok Sabha D Council of Minister  118. Which Article of our Constitution provides the right to freedom of speech and expression to the citizens of India? [CJS 2019, MJS 2011] A Article 18 B Article 19 C Article 17 D Article 20  119. Fundamental Freedoms given under Article 19 of the Constitution are available only to:- [M.P. APO 2002, AJS 2012 DJS 2011, KCJ 2018, HJS 2008] A Citizens of India B Citizens of India and Foreigners C Both a and b above D Foreigners living in India  120. Six Freedoms under Article 19 of the Constitution are- [TJS 2017] A Sacrosanct and inalienable B Absolute without any restriction C Subject to reasonable restrictions D Both a and c above  121. The number of categories of freedoms guaranteed by Article 19 is:- [M.P. HJS 2010] A 6 B 7 C 8 D 9  122. Which Fundamental Right is available to citizens only? [RJS 2010] A Right to Equality B Protection against arrest and detention C Freedom of speech and expression D Protection of life and personal liberty  123. Which of the following is not a fundamental right guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India? [AJS 2017] A Freedom of speech and expression B Freedom to from associations or union C Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the territory of India D Freedom of self determination  124. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India is related to liberty of press [HJS 2010] A Article 19 B Article 20 C Article 21 D Article 22  125. Which one out of the following is not a Fundamental Right? [RJS 2011, BJS 2013] A Right to strike B Right against exploitation C Right to equality D Right to freedom of religion  126. Which one of the following is not a ground on which a reasonable restrictions on the right to freedom of speech and expression can be imposed? [HJS 2013] A Security of the State B Public Order C Morality D Public Policy  127. Which one of the under mentioned right is guaranteed to citizens as right to freedom under Article 19: [AJS 2011, 2012] A right to vote B right to citizenship C right to contest election D right to assemble peacefully without arms  128. Which of the following is a Fundamental Right? [DJS 2014] A To assemble with arms B To form co-operative societies C Right to employment D None of those  129. Right to form association under Article 19(3) of the Constitution includes: [DJS 2014] A Right to strike B Right to collective bargaining C Right to lockout D None of these  130. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees citizens the right to settle in any part of the territory of India? [DJS 2015] A Article 19(1)(a) B Article 19(1) (d) C Article 19(1) (e) D Article 19(1)  131. Right of a citizen to carry on any occupation, trade or business is a: [M.P.HJS 2011] A Contractual right B Right under Transfer of Property Act C Constitutional Right D Right under Partnership Act  132. The State can make any law imposing reasonable restrictions on the right of the citizens to form associations: [MHJS 2012] A in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India B in the interest of friendly relations with foreign states C in relation to defamation D in relation to incitement of an offence  133. Article 19(1)(e) of the Constitution of India guarantees [AJS2013] A Freedom of speech and expression B Abolition of untouchability C Freedom of movement through out India D Freedom to reside in any part of India  134. The Constitution (97th Amendment) Act, 2011 inserted under Art. 19(1)(c): [TOJS 2014] A Associations B Unions C Organizations D Cooperative Societies  135. Pursuant to a Constitutional amendment, "cooperative society" finds a place among fundamental rights in [UJS 2015] A Article 19(1) (a) B Article 19(1) (b) C Article 19(1) D None of the above  136. Which one of the following is a ground on which the State can impose reasonable restrictions on the right to move freely throughout the territory of India? [HJS 2013] A Security of the State B Decency C Morality D Protecting the interests of any Scheduled Tribe  137. A Pakistani citizen residing in India cannot claim Fundamental Right to [HJS 2017] A Equality before the law B Life and personal liberty C Freedom of trade and profession D Freedom of religion  138. Match list-I with list-II and select correct answer using the code given below the lists- List-I List-I (Right) (Restriction) A. Freedom of assembly 1. Article 19(2) B. Freedom of profession, trade and occupation 2. Article 19(4) C. Freedom of speech 3. Article 19(3) D. Freedom of association 4. Article 19(6) [U.P. CJ 2003] Codes: A B C D A 3 4 1 2 B 1 3 2 4 C 3 2 1 4 D 2 4 1 3  139. The freedom of Press in India is: [U,P.HJS 2012, M.P. APO 2008] A available to the people under the laws of the Parliament B specifically provided in the Constitution of India C implied in the right of freedom of expression D available to the people under executive orders  140. What is imperative to show the requisite respect to the National Anthem? [U.P. CJ 2003] A Sing and stand respectfully B Stand respectfully C Sing the same D To bow  141. Right to information is essential part of Article: [DHJS 2001, HHJS2013] A 19 (1)(a) B 21 C 19(1)(g) D None of these  142. Which of the following language is NOT a part of Eighth Schedule? [CJS, 2016] A Nepali B Sanskrit C Maithili D Rajasthani  143. Which constitutional right is not a fundamental right? [M.P. CJ 2011, 2015, PJS 2015, KCJ 2018, TJS 2009, A.P. & N.JS 2015, DJS 2011] A Right to equality B Right to freedom C Right to life D Right to property  144. Within the Indian legal system: [UJS 2012] A There is no right to property B Right to property is a fundamental right guaranteed by the Constitution C Right to property is a constitutional right but not a fundamental right D Right to property is a statutory right only and not constitutional  145. It used to be a Fundamental Right but is now a legal right only:- [PJS 2010] A Cultural and Educational Rights B Rights to Property C Right against Exploitation D Right to Religious Freedom  146. The Right to Property ceased to be Fundamental Right from- [AJS 2015] A 1975 B 1976 C 1978 D 1979  147. Who can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights? [HJS 2010] A Supreme Court B Parliament C President D None of these  148. 'Protection in respect of conviction for offences' is the essence of which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution? [BJS 2016] A Article 22 B Article 21 C ArticlE 20 D Article 19  149. Which one of the following is not covered under Article 20 of the Constitution of India? [DHJS 2014] A ex post facto laws B Preventive detention C Double jeopardy D Self-incrimination  150. Which Article of the Constitution protects ex-post facto law? [TJS 2015, M.P. HJS2017] A Article 20 B Article 21 C Article 22 D None of these  151. In which Article of the Constitution of India, provision has been made for "Finance Commission"? [UJS 2013] A 366 (12) B 280 C 265 D None of the above  152. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution recognizes the Doctrine of Double Jeopardy? [UJS 2018, BHJS 2015] A Article 22(2) B Article 21(2) C Article 20(2) D None of them  153. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Double Jeopardy means: [DJS 2010, MJS 2011, DHJS 2001, TJS 2013, AJS 2012, 2015, KCJ 2015] A Trying two persons jointly for the same offence B Trying the same person for two offences at two different times C Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence D Trying a person for two offences committed by him in one incident.  154. What is in provision of Article 20(2)? [GJS 2019, HJS 2008, M.P. CJ 2018[I], BJS 2009] A Ex-post Facto B Double Jeopardy C Self-conviction D None of these  155. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of protection in respect of conviction for offences: [DAPP 2005] A Ex post facto penal laws - double jeopardy - self incrimination B Double jeopardy - ex post facto penal laws - self incrimination C Self incrimination - double jeopardy - ex post factor penal laws D Ex post facto penal laws - self incrimination double jeopardy  156. Tenth schedule of the Constitution provides for: [CJS 2016] A Disqualification on grounds of defection B Union list C Administration of tribal areas D Allocation of seats in council of states  157. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against which one of the following in any court during the term of his office? [UPSC CS 2008] A President, Vice-President or Governor B President, Prime Minister and Governor C President and Governor only D President, Vice-President and Prime Minister  158. The prohibition against prosecution and punishment for the same offence more than once [DJS 2011] A Is a principle of natural justice B Is contained in the Indian Penal Code. C Is contained in the Constitution of India D Is a principle evolved by the Courts  159. Which Article of the Indian Constitution is related to Doctrine of self incrimination? [OJS 2013, AJS 2017] A Article 20 (1) B Article 22 C Article 20 (3) D Article 20 (2)  160. Doctrine of Self Incrimination enacted in Article 20(3) means [TJS 2017] A No person accused of an offence can be the Judge against himself B No person accused of an offence can be compelled to be the witness against himself C No person accused of an offence can be compelled to give evidence against others D None of the above  161. Article 20(3) of the Constitution of India guarantees the 'right against self- incrimination' to [AJS 2015] A A witness B An accused C Any person D None of the above  162. That “no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself" is a/ an [DJS 2010, PJS 2011] A Directive Principle which the State should apply while enacting criminal laws B Human right under the Universal Declaration of Human Rights to which India is a party C Fundamental Right D Ordinary Constitutional right  163. Assertion (A):An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression. Reason (R): An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself. [DJS 2010] A Both 'A' and 'R' are true B Both 'A' and 'R' are false C 'A' is false but 'R' is true. D None of these  164. Protection of life and personal liberty is a: [M.P. HJS 2009] A Civil right B Contractual right C Fundamental right D None of these  165. The protection of life and personal liberty under Article 21 is - [M.P. HJS 2012] A available to citizens only B available to any person C not available to enemy alien D not available to a person arrested under a preventive detention law  166. Which Fundamental Right is available to all persons? [TOJS 2013] A Right to form Union B Protection of life and personal liberty C Right to assemble peaceably D Right to move freely throughout the territory of India  167. Article 312 of the Constitution is related to:— [BJS 2009] A Constitution of All India Services B Powers of Chief Election Commissioner C Breach of Parliamentary privileges D None of the above  168. The words, 'procedure established by law' in Article 21 means [Bihar APO 2012] A that due process of law must be followed B a procedure laid down or enacted by a competent authority C the same things as 'due process of law' D A law which is reasonably fair and jus  169. Procedure established by law", the terminology is taken from the Constitution of which country? [UJS 2019] A America B Japan C Canada D Australia  170. Fair trial in a criminal case is guaranteed in the constitution of India by Article [KJS 2011] A 14 B 20 C 21 D 32  171. The Supreme Court of India has traced the "Right of Privacy" in: [U.P.CJ 2015] A Article 14 B Article 19 C Article 21 D Article 22  172. Which one of the following is the correct statement? Right to privacy as a Fundamental Right is implicit in: [Bihar APO 2013] A the Right to Freedom B the Right to Personal Liberty C the Right to Equality D the Right against Exploitation  173. Which one of the following is not included in Article 21 of the Constitution of India? [U.P. CJ 2013, TJS2017] A Right to Die B Right to Life C Right to Livelihood D Right to Dignity  174. Which out of the following is not a right covered by Article 21 of the Constitution? [BJS 2009] A Right to Health B Right to Education C Right to safe drinking water D Right to Strike  175. Right of accused to speedy trial is a fundamental right under which Article of the Constitution of India? [AJS 2013] A 21 B 32 C 236 D None of the above  176. What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India? [CJS 2014] A Five years B 62 years of age C Five years or 62 years of age whichever is earlier D Six years or 65 years of age whichever is earlier  177. Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides for [AJS 2013, KCJ 2015] A minority rights B equality before law C abolition of titles D right to education  178. "Article 21A-Right to education to all children of the age of six -- fourteen years" has been inserted -- the Constitution by: [U.P. CJ 2006, Raj HJS 2015, UJS 2012, BJS 2013, HJS 2008, PJS 2015, AJS 2011, TJS 2017] A The Constitution 43rd Amendment Act, 1977 B The Constitution 86th Amendment Act, 2002 C The Constitution 70th Amendment Act, 1992 D The Constitution 74th Amendment Act, 1992  179. Assertion (A): Right to education is a Fundamental Right. Reason (R): Our Constitution has no provision for education before making to education as Fundamental Right Code: [U.P. CJ 2006, 2018] A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) B Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) C (A) is true but (R) is false D (A) is false but (R) is true  180. Right to free and compulsory education to children between six and fourteen years of age is provided by which Article of the Constitution? [DAPP 2008, CJS 2016, M.P. HJS 2015, M.P.APO 2009, DJS 2015, M.P. CJ 2018 [I], TJS 2009] A Article 21A B Article 14 C Article 21 D Article 45  181. Right to Education is a fundamental right emanating from right to: [AJS 2011] A Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(1)(a) B Culture and education under Article 29 and 30 C Life and personal liberty under Article 21 D Equality before law and equal protection to the laws under Article 14  182. As per Article 21A, the state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of: [CJS 2019, HJS 2013, AJS 2017] A Six to fourteen years B Six to twelve years C Six to ten years D Six to eighteen years  183. In India right to education is a: [KJS 2011] A constitutional right B statutory right C fundamental right D common law right  184. Which provision of the Constitution spells out "right to clean environment as a fundamental right? [DAPP 2008, M.P. APO 2009] A Article 14 B Article 19 C Article 21 D Article 22  185. Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during emergency? [PJS 2011] A freedom under Article 19 B right to Constitutional remedies under Article 32 and 226 C rights under Articles 21 and 22 D rights under Article 20 and 21  186. On Proclamation of Emergency under Article 352 the President has power to suspend the Fundamental Rights except the right secured by [U.P. CJ 2012] A Articles 19 and 20 B Articles 20 and 21 C Articles 21 and 22 D Articles 19, 20 and 21  187. By which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts the voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years? [BJS 2012, TJS 2017] A 48th B 57th C 61st D 63rd  188. Which of the following set is said to be the Golden Triangle of Indian Constitution? [DAPP 2005] A Articles 14, 15 and 16 B Articles 20, 21 and 22 C Preamble, Fundamental Right and Directive Principles D Articles 14, 19 and 21  189. Safeguards against the arrest and detention are provided under which Article of the Constitution of India? [DAPP 2008,OJS 2016] A Article 25 B Article 22 C Article 14 D Article 19  190. The Article 22 of the Constitution provides protection against which of the following? [PJS 2019] A Preventive detention B Detention C Arrest D All of the above  191. Every person who is arrested or detained is required to be produced before the nearest Magistrate within a period of [HJS2010] A 24 hours B 48 hours C 72 hours D None of these  192. Under which one of the following Articles of the Constitution an accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and cause of accusation? [Bihar APO 2013, U.P.CJ 2015] A Article 22(1) B Article 22(3) C Article 212 D Article 22(4)  193. The right of an accused to be defended by a legal practitioner of his choice commences when [KCJ 2015] A He is arrested B He is remanded C Charge is framed D He pleads not guilty  194. There is no fundamental right of a person arrested not to be detained in custody without being informed, as soon as may be, of the grounds for such arrest or for period beyond that of twenty four hours of such arrest (excluding the time necessary for journey from place of arrest to court) without the authority of a Magistrate [DJS 2019] A In case of one who for the time being is an enemy alien B In case of one who is arrested or detained under any law providing for preventive detention C Both a and b D None of these  195. Under Article 22(4) of the Constitution of India, with the exception of certain provisions stated herein, what is the maximum period for detention of a person under preventive detention? [U.P. HJS 2018] A 2 months B 3 months C 4 months D 6 months  196. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour has been provided under:- [M.P. APO 2009] A Article 14 B Article 19 C Article 21 D Article 23  197. 'A', a private organization, hires an employee at less than the minimum wage. By this Act 'A' [M.P. APO 2009] A Violate the rights of the employee under Article23 of the Constitution. B Does not violate the rights of the employee un-r Article 23 of the C Does not violate the rights of the employee under Article 23 of the Constitution since Article 23only applies against the State D Does not violate Article 23 as it is not forced labour  198. Which Article provides that employment of children in hazardous factory is prohibited? [DJS 2018] A Article 21 B Article 22 C Article 23 D Article 24  199. No child below the age of....... years shall be employed to work in any factory. [DJS 2008, WBJS 2015] A 14 B 15 C 18 D 12  200. Article 24 of the Constitution speak about- [KJS 2011, M.P. CJ 2014, 2018[II], AJS 2012, TJS 2017] A No child below the age of 14 year shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment B No child below the age of 12 year shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment C No child below the age of 16 year shall be employed to work in any factory of mine or other hazardous employment D No child below the age of 10 year shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or other hazardous employment  201. Article 25 of the Constitution of India is concerned with: [M.P. CJ 2019 [II]] A The right to freedom of religion The right of equality B C The right to freedom of work Cultural and educational rights. D  202. Order of the Election Commission to cover statutes of elephants being election symbol of a political party, during election period:- [DAPP 2010 A does not violate Article 25 of the Constitution violates Article 25 of the Constitution B C offends Preamble of the Constitution infringes Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution D  203. Which Article of the Constitution provides benefit to minority institutions:- [DJS 2018] A 19 B 16 C 15 D 30  204. Article 30 of the Constitution of India applies to: [U.P. HJS 2014] A Both minority and non-minority. B Majority C All minorities whether based on religion or language. D All minorities based on religion and not language  205. Article 30 guarantees the right:- [DJS 2018] A to freedom of religion B to minorities to establish educational institutions of their choice C to be informed of the grounds for one's arrest D against trafficking and forced labour  206. The Supreme Court can be moved under Article32 of the Constitution of India for the enforcement of- [CJS 2019] A Directive principles of State policy B Fundamental rights C Civil rights D Fundamental duties  207. For the enforcement of any of the fundamental rights- [U.P. HJS 2018] A A writ petition must be first moved in the High Court B Writ petition cannot be filed directly in the Supreme Court C A writ petition can be directly moved in the Supreme Court D A writ petition cannot be directly moved in the Supreme Court  208. The right to Constitutional remedies in India is available to- [TJS 2013] A Citizens of India only B All persons, in case of infringement of any Fundamental Right C All persons, for enforcing any of the Fundamental Rights, conferred on them D An aggrieved individual alone  209. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the 'heart and soul of the Constitution'? [HJS 2010] A Right to Property B Right to Religion C Right to Constitutional Remedies D Right of Residence  210...........…. is the "heart and soul of the Constitution."- [M.P. HJS 2014] A right to constitutional remedies B right to property C right to religion D all of the above  211. The Right to move the Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed under:- [KCJ 2012] A Article 226 B Article 14 C Article 32 D Article 33  212 How many types of writ can the Supreme Court issue for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights? [DAPP 2010] A Six B Four C Five D Three  213. Which of the following is not a writ mentioned in the Constitution? [Bihar APO 2013, DHJS 2014] A Quo Warranto B Certiorari C Prohibition D Interogatory  214. What writ can be issued for an illegal detention? [HJS 2012] A Writ of Prohibition B Writ of Mandamus C Writ of Habeas Corpus D Writ of Quo Warranto  215. X has been illegally detained by the police authorities. His father has been advised to file a writ petition before the High Court, Which Writ should be prayed for in such petition? [M.P. APO 2002, OJS 2013] A Habeas Corpus B Certiorari C Quo Warranto D Mandamus  216. Which of the following protects personal freedom? [GJS 2019] A Quo-warranto B Mandamus C Habeas Corpus D Certiorari  217. Which of the following writs literally means you may have the body’? [DAPP 2010, HJS 2013, BJS 2013, DJS 2014] A Habeas Corpus B Mandamus C Quo-warranto D Ceritorari  218. The writ of Habeas Corpus is issued:- [PJS 2010] A by a superior court to the lower court directing it to transfer the record of proceedings in a case for its review B in the form of an order calling upon a person who has detained another person to bring that person before court and show authority for such detention C by a superior court to a subordinate court to do something in the nature of its allotted duty D in the form of an order to stop proceedings in acertain case  219. Under which of the following condition[s] a writ of mandamus can be granted? What is the incorrect Statement regarding this [PJS 2012] There must be a public duty A There must be a specific demand and refusal B C There must be a clear right to enforce the duty D The right must be subsisting on the date of the petition  220. Why is the writ of 'mandamus' issued? [BJS 2016] To direct Public Authority to perform its public duty A To Quash quasi-judicial proceedings B C To Quash illegal appointment in public office D To prohibit a person from holding public office  221. Writ of Quo Warranto is related with:- [CJS 2016] Illegal detention of a person A Want of Jurisdiction o a court B C Illegal holder of a Public Office D None of the above  222. Which among the following writs literally means what is your authority:-- [BJS 2009] Certiorari A Habeas corpus B C Quo warranto D Prohibition  223. A wrongful assumption of a public office can be corrected by a writ of:- [Bihar APO 2013, DJS 2014, 2018] Habeas Corpus A Quo warranto B C Mandamus D Certiorari  224. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting contrary to the rules of natural Justice it is called a writ of:- [BJS 2009] Certioriari A Mandamus B C Quo Warranto D Habeas Corpus  225. Which one of the following writs can be issued only against the judicial or quasi- judicial authorities? [M.P. HJS 2011] Mandamus A Habeas corpus B C Certiorari D Quo warranto  226. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:- [MP.Hjs 2009] List-I (Article in List-II (Subject) Constitution) A. Article 17 1. Maternity B. Article 42 2. Abolition of Untouchability C. Article 21 3. Freedom of press D. Article 19 4. Protection of life and personal liberty  Code: A B C D 3 4 1 2 A 3 1 4 2 B C 2 4 1 3 D 2 1 4 3  227. Assertion (A): Part III and Part IV of the Constitution of India are supplementary to each other. Reason (R): Fundamental Rights are enforceable. [DAPP 2005] A Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) B Both (A) and (R) are individually true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) C (A) is true but (R) is false D (A) is false but (R) is true  228. When was Magna Carta granted in England? [BJS 2012, WBJS 2017] A 1832 B 1911 C 1949 D 1215  229. In the Indian Constitution- [T.N. JS 2018] A Fundamental rights and fundamental duties are enumerated B Fundamental rights alone are enumerated C Fundamental duties are not enumerated D Fundamental duties alone are enumerated  230. Assertion (A): Dr. Ambedkar described Article 32 as the very soul of the Constitution. Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective remedies against violation of fundamental Rights. Code: [Bihar APO 2013] A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A) B Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A) C (A) is true but (R) is false D (A) is false but (R) is true DPSP  231. The binding force behind the Directive Principles of State Policy is:- [U.P. CJ 2013] A Public Opinion B Government C Constitution D Administration  232. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been borrowed from the Constitution of:- [M.P. APO 2002, 2003,AJS 2011, M.P. HJS 2010, 2014, HJS 2011, A U.S.A. AJS 2011, WBJS 2017, UJS 2015] B Canada C Ireland D Russia  233. "Directive Principles of State Policy are the conscience of the Constitution which embody the social philosophy of the Constitution." This was described by- [Bihar APO 2012] A Granville Austin B A. V. Dicey C Dr. B. R. Ambedkar D K. C. Wheare  234. Which Article of the Constitution of India states that the provisions of Part IV of the Constitution of India would not be enforceable by any court? [DJS 2018] A Article 33 B Article 37 C Article 44 D Article 51  235. If the Directive Principles of State Policy is infringed- [TJS 2013] A There is remedy in the court B There is no remedy by Judicial proceedings C There is remedy in Lok Adalat D There is remedy in the court of Special Executive Magistrate  236. Statement No. 1: Directive Principles of State Policy are not enforceable by any Court. Statement No. 2: Directive Principle of State Policy are fundamental in the governance of the country. [RCJ 2014] A Both the statements are true B Both the statements are false C Statements No. 1 is true but Statement No. 2 is false D Statement No. 2 is true but Statement No. 1 is false  237. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country? [HJS 2014] A Fundamental Rights B Fundamental Duties C Directive Principles of State Policy D Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties  238. The enforcement of Directive Principles of State Policy primarily depends on:- [PJS 2013] A The choice of Government B Judiciary C Parliamentary Committee D Resources available with the Government  239. What are the Directive Principles of State Policy? [M.P. APO 2008] A The main objectives of the framers of the constitution The principles that are expected to guide the State in the B good governance of the country The ideals of a welfare State that should be acceptable C to all right thinking persons Type option here Social rights as approved to personal D rights enumerated in Part III  240. The Directive Principles of State Policy are:- [Chhat ADPO 2006] A Justiciable B Non Justiciable C Not all are justiciable but some are D Justiciable so for do not conflict with Fundamental Rights  241. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy contained in the Constitution are not enforceable by any court, yet they are:- [Bihar APO 2013, DJS 2010] A fundamental in the governance of the country B binding on the State C enforceable at the instance of the President of India D superior of Fundamental Rights  242. The Directive Principles are:- [HJS 2011] A Justiciable the same way as the fundamental rights B Justiciable though not the same way, as the fundamental rights. C Decorative portions of the Indian Constitution. D Not justifiable, yet fundamental in the governance of the country.  243. Which of the following directive principles is a socialistic principle? [AJS 2011] A Equal pay for equal work to all B Protection of the health of the workers C Prevention of concentration of wealth and the means of production D All the above  244. The concept of equal Justice and free legal aid is given under Article- [U.P. HJS 2018] A 14 of the Constitution of India B 16 of the Constitution of India C 39-A of the Constitution of India D 43-A of the Constitution of India  245. Article 39(a) of the Constitution of India obliges the State to secure: [DJS 2015] A an adequate means of livelihood B equal pay for equal work for both men and women C the material resources are so distributed to serve he common good D the health and strength of workers, men and women and the tender age of children are not abused and the citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength  246. Equal pay for equal work' to woman is provided in which Act:- [HJS 2008] A Workman Compensation Act B Equal Remuneration Act C Trade Union Act D Industrial Dispute Act  247. Article 39A of the Constitution pertains to:- [AJS 2017, MJS 2011, Bihar APO 2013, OJS 2011] A Equality before law B Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment C Equal Justice and free legal aid D Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions  248. According to Article 39A of the Constitution what does the legal system of the country seek to promote [DJS 2018] A Effective resolution of disputes between parties B Effective maintenance of law and order in the country C Equal justice D Obedience to the law  249. By which Constitutional Amendment has Article 39A been inserted in the Directive Principles of State Policy? [M.P. HJS 2008] A The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act 1976 B The Constitution (44th Amendment) Act 1978 C The Constitution (46th Amendment) Act 1982 D The Constitution (29th Amendment) Act 197  250. ‘Which one of the following’ is a Directive Principle of State Policy?’ [U.P.CJ 2006, OJS 2013] A To organize Village Panchayats B Right to education C Right to property D Right to move Supreme Court  251. ‘Which one of the following’ is not a Directive Principle of State Policy? [M.P.Cj 2014, 2018 (I)] A Organization of Village Panchayats. B Uniform Civil Code for citizen and non-citizens. C Right to work, to education and to public assistance in certain cases. D Separation of Judiciary from executive.  252. The State shall endeavor to organize agriculture and animal husbandry on modern and scientific lines as laid down in- [WBJS 2015] A Article 38 of the Constitution B Article 42 of the Constitution. C Article 48 of the Constitution D Article 52 of the Constitution  253. It is the duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to improve public health as specified in- [WBJS 2015] A Article 41 of the Constitution B Article 43 of the constitution C Article 47 of the Constitution D Article 50 of the Constitution  254. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organize Village Panchayats? [DJS 2015] A Article 40 B Article 41 C Article 42 D Article 43  255. "Right to Work" in the Constitution can be traced in: [U.P. CJ 2015, Chhat ADPO 2006,AJS 2011] A Fundamental Rights B Directive Principles of State Policy C Preamble of the Constitution D None of the above  256. The Constitution of India deals with provisions for maternity relief under:- [CJS 2016] A Article 40 B Article 43 C Article 42 D Article 41  257. Article 43A which deals with the participation of workers in management of industries was added in constitution by:- [Chhat ADPO 2008] A 44th Amendment? B 45th Amendment C 42nd Amendment D 7th Amendment  258. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution provision regarding Uniform Civil Code has been given? [M.P. APO 2002, 2003, 2009, U.P. HJS 2014, WBJS 2017] A 43 B 44 C 46 D 47  259. According to the Constitution of India, Uniform Civil Code is:- [MJS 2010] A a fundamental right B a statutory right C a directive principle of state policy D a state subject  260. Article 45 of the Indian Constitution refers to:- [Chhat ADPO 2008] A free and compulsory education for children B free and compulsory education to all children of the age six to fourteen years C education to children up to six years of age D none of the above  261. Which Article in Part IV of the Constitution provides for Promotion of Education and Economic Interest of the weaker section? [KCJ 2015] A 36 B 46 C 59 D 69  262. Which of the following statements is incorrect? [Jhar APP 2012] Article 40 of the Constitution is related with A organization of village panchayats Article 47 of the Constitution is related with the B promotion of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and other weaker sections C Article 48 of the Constitution is related with the agriculture and animal husbandry Article 39A of the Constitution is related with D the equal Justice and free legal aid  263. Article 48A of the Constitution of India deals with:- [DJS 2015] A Right to work, education and public assistance B Living wage, etc. for workers C Separation of Judiciary from Executive? D Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife  264. The protection and improvement of environment including forests and wildlife of the country are in:- [BJS 2013, M.P. CJ 2018 (I)] A Directive Principles B Fundamental Duties C National Policy D Both Directive Principles and Fundamental Duties  265. Which one of the following Directive Principle of State Policy is not a Gandhi an principle:- [DAPP 2008] A The State shall take steps to organise village panchayats B The State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries The State shall take steps for preservation and C improving the breeds and prohibiting the slaughter of cows and other milch cattle The State shall endeavour to secure a uniform civil code D throughout the territory of India  266. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India relates/ relate to the protection and improvement of environment? [UPSC CS 2008] A Article 48A only B Article 51A only C Both Articles 48A and Article 51A D Neither Article 48A nor Article 51A  267. The Constitution of India recognizes International Law under- [UJS 2015] A Article 51 and 253 B Article 51 and 252 C Article 50 and 253 D Article 50 and 252  268. According to Article 50, the State Shall take steps to: [HJS 2013] A Separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State B Separate functioning of judiciary from executive C Separate the powers of judiciary from the executive D Separate the powers of judiciary from the legislature  269. Separation of judiciary from the executive has been provided in which of the following? [DAPP 2008] A The Preamble of the Constitution of India B The fundamental rights of the Constitution of India C The Directive Principles of the State Policy of the Constitution of India D The Seventeen Schedule of the Constitution of India  270. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:- [DAPP 2008] List-I List-II (Article in Constitution) (Subject) A. Article 17 1. Maternity relief B. Article 42 2. Abolition of untouchablety C. Article 21 3. Freedom of Press D. Article 19 4. Protection of life and personal liberty A A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2 B A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2 C A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 D A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3  271. Fundamental duties lie in part:- [M.P. APO 2008] A I B II C III D IVA  272. Article 51A of the Constitution of India provides for: [GJS 2019] A fundamental duties B promotion of international peace and security C organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry D protection of monuments and places and objects of national importance  273. The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizen are:- [Chhat ADPO 2006] A Enshrined in the original Constitution B Added to the Constitution by 42nd amendment C Added to the Constitution by 44th amendment D Added to the Constitution by the Supreme Court judgement  274. The number of Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution is:- [UJS 2019, 2018, Bihar APO 2013] A 12 B 11 C 10 D 13  275. Which of the following is not the fundamental duty of every citizen of India:- [M.P. HJS 2012] A to value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture B to develop scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform C to safeguard public property and to abjure violence D to confess guilt and ensure justice  276. Which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? [OJS 2013] A To protect Sovereignty B To defend the Country C To respect National Anthem D To promote Indian Culture  277. To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wild life, and to have compassion for living creatures is, for every citizen of India:- [Raj HJS 2012] A a fundamental right B a legal right C a fundamental duty D none of the above  278. Which of the following duties have been prescribed for the citizens? 1. To develop scientific temper 2. To preserve rich heritage of our composite culture 3. To organize village panchayats 4. To minimize inequalities in income 5. To secure a uniform civil code 6. To defend to country [PJS 2012] A 1, 3, 4 B 3, 4, 5 C 1, 2, 6 D 2, 5, 6  279. Under Indian Constitution "To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture" is a:- [U.P. CJ 2016] A Fundamental Right B Fundamental Duty C Directive Principles of State Policies D A Social morality  280. Which of the following is not a Fundamental duty under Article 51A? [DJS 2014] A To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions B To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture. C To provide opportunity of education to the child below the age of six by his parent or guardian D To have compassion for living creatures  281. Respect for the National Flag and the National Anthem is:- [PJS 2011, AJS 2012] A a fundamental right of every citizen B a fundamental duty of every citizen C a directive principle of state policy D an ordinary duty of every citizen  282. Consider the following statements:- The Fundamental Duties provided in the Constitution are:- 1. to cherish and follow the noble ideals 2. to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women 3. to safeguard private property 4. to protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India Which of the above statements is/ are correct? [Bihar APO 2013] A Only 3 B 1 and 3 C 2 and 4 D 1, 2 and 4  283. Under Indian Constitution, Fundamental duties enshrined under Article 51A does not include the duty: [M.P. CJ 2013-1, 2018 (I)] A To uphold and protect sovereignty of India B To defend the country when called upon to do so C To value and preserve rich heritage of our composite culture D To protect monuments, places and objects of national importance  284. "It shall be the duty of every citizen of India, who is a Parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his children or as the case may be; ward between the age of six and fourteen years." By which Constitutional Amendment Act, this duty included? [U.P. CJ 2013, Jhar APP 2012] A By 42nd Amendment B By 44th Amendment C By 86th Amendment D By 92nd Amendment  285. Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty? [HJS 2012] A To vote in public elections B To develop the scientific temper C To safeguard public property D To beside by the Constitution and respect its ideals  286. The executive power of the Union is vested in the [HJS 2010, DJS 2011] A Union Cabinet B President of India C Prime Minister D Union Council of Ministers  287. Executive power of the Union: [DJS 2018] A Requires personal signature of the President. B Is required to be made and executed in the name of the President C Is required to be in the name of the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers D Can be exercised by any public servant belonging to the Indian Administrative Service  288. Supreme Commander of Indian Armed Forces is ……. [UJS 2018, AJS 2012, 2013, DJS 2007, 2015] A President of India B Prime Minister of India C Defense Minister D Chief of Army Staff  289. The President of India shall be elected by – [DJS 2007, M.P.APO 2008, MJS 2010, UJS 2012] A members of electoral college B the elected member of both Houses of Parliament C the elected members of Legislative Assemblies of States D None of the above  290. Election of President is by way of- [MJS 2014] A Direct election B Indirect election C Partly direct and partly indirect D None of the above  291. Which of the following is a part of the Electoral College for the election of the President but does not participate in the proceedings for his/her impeachment? [UHJS 2018] A Lok Sabha B Rajya Sabha C State Legislative Assemblies D State Legislative Councils  292. The President of India is elected by an electoral college which will consist of: [M.P.APO 2009, Bihar APO 2013] A All members of both the Houses of Parliament Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and B all the members of the State Assemblies of all the States C Elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and elected members of Legislative Assemblies and Legislative Councils of the States D All the elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the States  293. Who does not have the right to vote in the election of President of India? [M.P.APO 2002, 2003] A Speaker of Lok Sabha B Speaker of Vidhan Sabha C President's nominee in Rajya Sabha D Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha  294. The method of proportional representation is adopted in the election of: [HJS 2014] A Prime Minister B President C Governor D Chief Justice of India  295. "The term of office of the President of India is [DJS 2011] A 5 years from date of his election B 5 years from date of his entering upon his office C 7 years from date of his election D 7 years from date of his entering upon his office  296. Who is legally competent to declare war? [TJS 2009] A President of India B Prime Minister of India C Chief Justice of India D Law Minister of India  297. Which one of the following pair of Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the oath or affirmation and impeachment of the President of India? [WBJS 2017] A Article 60& Articles 61 B Article 62 & Article 63 C Article 99 & Article 100 D Article 72 & Article 73  298. Who decides a dispute regarding the election of the President of India? [UJS 2015, M.P. CJ 2019 (I)] A Election Commission B Chief Justice of India C Parliament D Supreme Court  299. Which of the following is not included in Electoral college for electing president? [U.P. HIS 2012] A Elected members of the Rajya Sabha B Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of the State C Elected members of the Legislative Council D Elected members of the Lok Sabha  300. The President of India may be removed from his office on which of the following grounds? [CJS 2019, UJS 2012, M.P.APO 2009, U.P. CJ 2015] A Proved misbehavior B Incapacity C Violation of the Constitution D All of the above  301. Under Indian Constitution, to whom the president addresses his resignation? [CJS 2019, M.P. CJ 2013-II, M.P.APO 2008, TJS 2017] A To the Government B To the Prime Minister C To the Chief Justice of India D To the Vice President  302 The tenth schedule of the constitution of India relates to [HJS 2008] A National languages of India B Judicial review C Administration of scheduled and tribal areas D Anti defection law  303. In which Article of the Constitution, the eligibility for re-election of the President is given? [U.P.CJ 2006] A Article 57 B Article 58 C Article 59 D Article 60  304. For the post of President of India the minimum age of the person should be [BJS 2000, M.P. APO 2002, HJS 2013] A 21 years B 25 years C 30 years D 35 years  305. The maximum age limit for election to the President of India is [UJS 2018] A 65 years B 70 years C 62 years D No age limit  306. Which of the following is not an eligibility criteria for the election of the President of India? [DJS 2011] A should be citizen of India B should be at least 35 years of age C should be qualified for election - the House of the People D he should be el