Communication Questions PDF

NAME___________ DATE________________ Which of the following statements best describes the contemplative stage of behavior change as outlined by Prochaska and DiClemente? 1. Determination 2. Integration of behavior change into a p...

NAME___________ DATE________________ Which of the following statements best describes the contemplative stage of behavior change as outlined by Prochaska and DiClemente? 1. Determination 2. Integration of behavior change into a person's life 3. Struggling with ambivalence 4. None of the options above Which of the following behaviors are part of active listening? 1. maintain eye contact 2. nodding and making eye contact. 3. asking for clarification 4. all of the above What would be the best physician response to elicit a change talk in the following situation? Physician: “How confident are you on a scale of 0 to 10 that you can make this change?” Patient: “About a 4.” 1. So, you’re about a 4 2. Why are you a 4 and not a 0? 3. You’ve got some confidence, but not a lot. 4. Why are you not a 10? Which of the following statements is correct according to the James-Lange theory of emotion? 1. Physiological arousal of the body occurs before the conscious interpretation of an emotion. 2. Conscious interpretation of an emotion occurs before physiological arousal. 3. Abolishing physiological arousal can still result in signs of emotion 4. The autonomic nervous system responds in exactly the same way to all types of emotion. Which is NOT part of active listening 1. Look at the person 2. Encourage the person to talk 3. Give advice 4. Use empathy When someone incorrectly believes he or she is receiving a real treatment and reports an improvement in his or her condition, it is called... 1. Placebo 2. Stimulus 3. Placebo effect 4. Control effect Among the different stages characterizing the mechanism for changing risky health behaviors, Pre- contemplation is when: 1. the patient is ready to implement a plan for changing health risk behaviors. 2. the patient sees both the reason why to change and why not to change. 3. the patient goes see the physician for a problem and the physician gives information on the condition and the health risk associated with that condition. 4. the patient experiences health related issues but has not gone to see the physician, yet. Within the framework of motivational interviewing as explained in class: when a physician argues that a patient’s behavior needs to change, the patient often responds by: 1. accepting the need for change. 2. arguing against change. 3. asking for advice. 4. moving to the next stage in the process of change.  Which of the following is NOT consistent with the Motivational Interviewing approach? 1. Rolling with resistance 2. Avoiding argumentation 3. Confronting denial 4. Supporting self-efficacy Please read this exchange between counselor and client and answer the questions that follow. a-Patient (P): I know I messed up. I ruined my family, my wife hates me, I got fired from my job, and now I just feel so hopeless. I’m sad all the time, and it’s like I can’t do anything about it. b-Physician (Ph): Where did you work? c-P: Joe’s Auto. I just felt lost there all day, like I didn’t want to be there. d-Ph: Did your boss know you were drinking? e-P: Yeah, when he fired me, he told me he could smell the alcohol. God, he must really think I’m a loser. f-Ph: What you are is an addict. g-P: I’m not addicted, ok. I just need a few beers after work to calm down. h-Ph: No, you are an addict. You have to admit you are powerless over it before you can better. Physician’s statement #h represents 1. Lack of denial 2. an accurate reflection 3. a failure to roll with resistance 4. none of the options above What causes autism? 1. Mothers who don't bond with their newborn 2. A single gene on chromosome 12 3. Poor prenatal nutrition 4. There is no single cause of autism According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, 1. the autonomic nervous system has no role to play in emotion. 2. there is a different pattern of physiological activity for each emotion. 3. cognitive appraisal of the emotion has to take place before activation of the sympathetic nervous system. 4. the autonomic nervous system responds in exactly the same way to all types of emotion. Which of these is an unconditioned stimulus? 1. Shock 2. Money 3. Music 4. None of these options When would you use closed questions? 1. When you do not want the person to keep talking 2. When the client is short of breath 3. When you do not understand the conversation 4. Closed questions are never helpful The Motivational Interviewing approach is: 1. completely non-directive 2. highly authoritarian 3. directive but patient-centered 4. primarily educational  Which of the following is NOT a Motivational Interviewing-consistent strategy for handling resistance? 1. simple reflection 2. amplified reflection 3. argument 4. emphasizing personal control 5. Self-efficacy is: 1. the confidence that you are right 2. the belief that you can accomplish anything 3. a humanistic theory by Carl Rogers 4. the belief that you will be able to accomplish a specific task Which of the following is NOT considered a source for self-efficacy? 1. Mastery experiences 2. Social modeling 3. Physiological factors 4. Genetic predisposition The statement, "You’re very determined, even in the face of discouragement. This change must really be important to you." is an example of _______________. 1. An open-ended question 2. Affirmation 3. Change talk 4. A reflection Patient-Centeredness is best defined as: 1. Having the patient make all decisions in regards to their medical care 2. Providing care that is respectful of and responsive to individual patient preferences, needs and values 3. Practicing evidence based medicine to ensure that patients receive high quality care 4. A philosophy that focuses more on holistic healing and complementary medicine than conventional medical care Paralanguage or paraverbal communication refers to: 1. the words spoken. 2. the various meanings in different languages. 3. the vocal messages of pitch, rate, and loudness. 4. None of these options are correct When a patient expresses anger about a physician’s colleague, which of the following statements would be the most appropriate response? 1. You are aggravated over something trivial 2. Before I ask any questions, please calm down 3. Tell me what concerns you have and how you were treated 4. It’s better if you talk directly to Dr. X about the reason why you are upset Empathic understanding is which ONE of the following? 1. Empathic understanding is the ability to see the incomplete picture that patients paint with their words. 2. Empathic understanding is the ability to feel with patients, as opposed to feeling for patients 3. Empathic understanding is the ability to communicate and demonstrate genuine caring and concern for patients. 4. Empathic understanding is the ability to deal with the here-and-now factors that operate within the doctor-patient relationship  In patient-doctor communication, what is the difference between reflecting and paraphrasing? 1. Reflecting goes on to check how the person is feeling, not just checking you understand 2. Paraphrasing is when you repeat back word for word while reflecting means you change is slightly 3. They mean the same thing 4. Reflecting is when you repeat back word for word while paraphrasing means you change it slightly Negative reinforcement can be defined as: Stimulus _______________, contingent upon a response, which _______________ the future probability of that response. 1. Presented, increases 2. Presented, decreases 3. Removed, increases 4. Removed, decreases In which of the following conditions involving the use of placebos have NO real changes been detected in the patient... 1. Depression 2. Fatigue 3. Parkinson’s 4. Pain First Impressions are based on the following three items: 1. Appearance, Presentation, Dress 2. Appearance, Presentation, Content 3. Appearance, Presentation, Language 4. Appearance, Presentation, Opinions Which is NOT a principle of nonverbal communication? 1. It is possible not to communicate nonverbally. 2. Communication occurs even when language is not used. 3. Nonverbal communication is ambiguous. 4. Nonverbal communication is culture bound. Learning by trial and error is called ______. 1. classical conditioning 2. operant conditioning 3. positive reinforcement 4. Learning by observation One difference between verbal and nonverbal communication is that verbal communication is 1. more multidimensional. 2. usually continuous. 3. more ambiguous. 4. usually deliberate. You visit a new friend for the first time and as you enter his apartment his cat hisses and jumps on you from above the doorway. This happens for several nights. Then one evening you come in for a visit and at the sound of the cat's hiss you jump briskly to one side and the cat lands on the floor next to you. The cat's hiss is the: 1. Conditioned stimulus 2. Conditioned response 3. Unconditioned stimulus 4. Unconditioned response 84397 Communication Tools 5 CFU Exam Questions Academic Year [2020/2021] Exam methods Student learning will be assessed at the end of the Integrated Course by a multiple-choice question exam followed by an oral exam. The written part will be 30 minutes. 1) 10 questions for Communications with Patients, 2 points each → max. score = 20 2) 2 questions for Communications with Colleagues and Teamwork → max. score = 4 3) 15 questions for Communication with Scientific World → max. score = 30 12 questions are multiple choice 3 questions are ‘open questions’ (very short) → If the parts 1 & 2 are passed (score ≥ 18) you’ll have to do the oral exam for those parts as well For the oral exam you’ll have a starting score of 18-24 and can improve it from there. o She mostly asked about placebo effects The final score will then be calculated (weighted average) based on both final scores 84398 Communication with Patients 2 CFU + 84403 Communication with Colleagues and Teamwork 1 CFU Katia Mattarozzi Exam questions: WRITTEN: 1. Clinician-patient communication is central to effective medical practice and it affects: ▪ the patient’s satisfaction ▪ the patient’s compliance during diagnosis lead-up ▪ the efficacy of the therapy ▪ all options are correct 2. When a patient makes a complaint regarding the communication of information, the most frequent cause is ▪ a lack of truthfulness ▪ information accessibility ▪ the timeliness of information ▪ information congruency between different healthcare providers 3. The healthcare provider can increase the patient’s informativeness by ▪ immediately disclosing all of the information about the illness and the therapy ▪ checking the information needs of the patient ▪ giving all essential information in that specific moment ▪ checking the information needs of the patient and giving all essential information in that specific moment 4. Top-down processes guarantee ▪ the perception of the external stimulus; ▪ the possibility to take advantage of previous experience and knowledge in order to perceive the stimulus more accurately; ▪ the possibility to take advantage of previous experience and knowledge in order to perceive the stimulus more quickly ▪ the integration of bottom-down processes 5. Long term Memory is divided into: ▪ several storages which are content dependent ▪ two main storages (episodic and procedural) ▪ working memory and associative learning storage ▪ none of the options are correct 6. Which of the following isn’t a type of associative learning? ▪ social learning ▪ classical conditioning ▪ operant conditioning ▪ none of them 7. Evaluating faces on trustworthiness: ▪ is an automatic process ▪ only takes a few milliseconds ▪ is an extension of systems for the recognition of emotions ▪ all options are correct 8. Pain is modulated by ▪ the presence of attachment figures ▪ only noxious stimuli ▪ the presence of familiar faces ▪ the presence of attachment figures and the presence of familiar faces 9. The placebo is: ▪ only a paradigm to validate the effectiveness of a therapy. ▪ is only a sham treatment ▪ is a complex process which is active anytime a patient is receiving treatment ▪ all options are correct 10. The elements that are active during a placebo response are: ▪ patient expectation and needs ▪ the environmental setting ▪ the relationship between the doctor and his patient ▪ all options are correct 11. The diagnosis disclosure is ▪ a gradual step by step process ▪ a one time event ▪ varies from patient to patient ▪ none of the options are correct 12. Placebo mechanism ▪ may derive from an evolutionary process of adaptation to medical-scientific conditions over thousands of years ▪ derives from an evolutionary process of adaptation to medical-scientific conditions over thousands of years ▪ derives from a form of social behaviour ▪ none of the options are correct 13. Effective clinic-patient communication is central to effective medical practice ▪ However, it cannot be taught in medical courses ▪ And improving health-care provider satisfaction ▪ And is mainly a skill learned by observing the behaviour of an expert clinician ▪ And is exclusively determined by the personality characteristics of the clinical and the patient 14. In order to increase the patient’s comprehension of information you must ▪ Speak slowly ▪ Provide a conceptual framework which the patient can place the information into ▪ Bot to use technical terms ▪ All options are correct 15. Previous experience and the individual’s expectations affect the perception of a stimulus ▪ When the stimuli are presented in an unclear or degraded form ▪ Anytime an individual comes in contact with a stimulus ▪ When the individual has perceptual deficits ▪ None of the options are correct 16. The main key competencies for effective communication are ▪ Informativeness ▪ Interpersonal sensitivity ▪ Partnership building  ▪ All options are correct 17. Patient’s complaints regarding a lack of truthful information could be explained by: ▪ The novelty of information ▪ The patient’s expectation ▪ The patient’s fear and anxiety ▪ All options are correct 18. Emotion recognition is affected by ▪ The type of emotion ▪ The facial appearance of the individual who is expressing the emotion ▪ The race of the individual who is expressing the emotion ▪ All options are correct 19. Health care provider’s judgments of pain is biased by: ▪ Patient’s facial appearance ▪ Patient’s race ▪ Patient’s gender ▪ Both race and inferences from patient’s facial appearance 20. Pain is modulated by: ▪ The presence of attachment figures ▪ Only noxious stimuli ▪ The presence of familiar faces ▪ The presence of attachment figures and the presence of familiar faces 21. Placebo analgesia is stronger when ▪ Pre-conditioning with effective treatments is performed ▪ When a patient observes a reduction of pain in other individuals ▪ When the patient is supposed to take a painkiller ▪ All options are correct 22. The percept derives from: ▪ the elaboration of the physical characteristics of the external stimulus ▪ the interaction of top-down and bottom-up processes ▪ the semantic elaboration of the stimulus ▪ no options are correct 23. A classical conditioned response: ▪ cannot be eliminated ▪ can be distinguished by stopping the occurrence of the unconditioned stimulus ▪ can be retrieved easily and quickly if the association between the conditioned and unconditioned stimuli has been presented ▪ both options B (can be distinguished by..) and C (can be retrieved..) are correct 24. Observational social learning produced placebo responses that were similar in magnitude to those induced by: ▪ verbal suggestions ▪ direct experience and conditioning ▪ personality traits ▪ sensitivity to rewards 25. Which of the following is not a factor that determines placebo:. Single choice. ▪ Gender ▪ Genetics ▪ associative learning ▪ social learning ORAL: 1. What did you like most in the course?  2. Clinical implications of placebo 3. Pure and impure placebo definition 4. Cons of placebo 5. Open and hidden injection 6. Ethical implications of placebo 7. Classical conditioning in placebo 8. Mechanisms active in placebo 9. Emotions effects on placebo 10. Operant conditioning in placebo. Can pain give rise to positive reinforcement? (ANSWER: yes, because pain induces other people to take care of you - evolutionary-acquired behavior. Caring is usually perceived as positive.) 84406 Communication with Scientific World 2 CFU Mauro Bernardi Exam questions: [Multiple Choice] 1. Effective scientific medical communication should achieve several goals. Please state the most important goal in your opinion among: a) Achieve a high acceptance rate from journals b) Achieve a brief turnaround of the publishing process c) Contribute to improve clinical practice d) Enhance your career progression 2. Sharing original research findings is mainly pursued through: a) Editorials b) Journal articles c) Review articles d) Patents 3. The main “audience” in scientific medical journal is represented by: Commented [Ss1]: medically qualified doctors (39%) a) Libraries b) Academic researchers c) Medical students d) Medically qualified doctors 4. A discourse community shares the following Commented [Ss2]: all the above a) A highly specific research topic b) A core set of research methods c) The knowledge of scientific or medical topics related to a given field d) All the above 5. Which verb would you use to introduce the achievement(s) of your research in a manuscript or oral communication: Commented [Ss3]: support a) Support b) Prove c) Establish d) State 6. A comprehensive search of the scientific and medical literature should be conducted: Commented [Ss4]: all the above a) Using appropriate (specific) databases b) Citation tracking c) Forward tracking d) All the above 7. The “lazy author syndrome” consist in: Commented [Ss5]: Citing a secondary instead of a a) Inaccurate writing primary source (aka empty reference) b) Citating a secondary instead of a primary source  c) Exceed the allotted number of words in a manuscript d) Present inaccurate slides at a conference 8. The selection of participants in a medical research should be thoroughly described in: Commented [Ss6]: The method section a) The introduction section b) The discussion section c) It does not need to be reported d) The methods section 9. Which statement among the following would you think to be more appropriate in describing a major finding: Commented [Ss7]: Among the elderly, mortality roughly a) Mortality and age are correlated doubles for each successive five year age group. b) Among the elderly, mortality roughly doubles for each successive five-year age group c) As age increases, mortality increases d) None of the above 10. The conclusions of a discussion section should contain: Commented [Ss8]: All the above a) A summary of the principal claim b) The implications of the research c) Specific recommendations for future research d) All the above 11. In a research article, tables and figures are mostly used in: Commented [Ss9]: The results section a) The introduction section b) The methods section c) The results section d) The discussion section 12. In presenting an oral scientific communication at a conference you should avoid to: Commented [Ss10]: All the above a) Present “busy” slides b) Exceed the allotted time c) Rad the talk d) All the above 13. Which “phase” do posters and oral presentations at conferences belong to? a) Pre-research phase b) Research phase Commented [Ff11]: Research phase c) Communication phase d) Commercialization phase 14. The term “genre” of scientific medical communication is referred to: a) Written communications b) Oral communications c) Standardized types or categories of communication Commented [Ff12]: Standardized types or categories of d) Press releases and dissemination of results to the general public communication 15. In the field of scientific medical communication, “audience” means: a) Medical students b) Reviewers c) The editor(s) of a scientific journal d) The intended recipients of a communication Commented [Ff13]: The intended recipients of a 16. In order to identify your audience, you should consider: communication a) Specific subject-matter knowledge b) Research methods experience c) Both a) and b) Commented [Ff14]: Both a and b d) Neither a) or b) 17. Among the following sentences, which would you think is correct? a) Scientists discover new findings and demonstrate that they are true b) Scientist’s conclusions are limited by the methods and instruments used to collect data Commented [Ff15]: Scientist’s conclusions are limited by c) Scientist’s conclusions are objective statements that should be translated into practice data the methods and instruments used to collect data d) All of the above  18. Is literature search essential in scientific medical communication? Why? a) A good manuscript can leave aside a cumbersome literature search b) It allows to mimic existing publications, so writing is speeded up c) It avoids to “discover” what is already known Commented [Ff16]: It avoids to “discover” what is d) None of the above already known 19. An appropriate database for literature search should: a) Contain thousands of records b) Contain most records, or sources, for a particular topic (yours) Commented [Ff17]: Contain most records, or sources, for c) Include publications in abstract form a particular topic (yours) d) Provide the full texts of all reported publications 20. A comprehensive search of the scientific and medical literature should be conducted a) Using appropriate (specific) database b) Citation tracking c) Forward tracking d) All of the above Commented [Ff18]: All of the above 21. In which section of a research article would you report the aim of your study? a) The introduction section Commented [Ff19]: The Introduction section b) The methods section c) The results section d) The discussion section 22. In which section would you describe how the patients enrolled in a clinical trial were selected? a) The introduction section b) The methods section Commented [Ff20]: Methods section c) The results section d) The discussion section 23. Among the following, which report of results would you prefer? a) Serum albumin concentration was lower in patients with cirrhosis than in healthy subjects b) Serum albumin concentration was 3.1 g/dL in patients with cirrhosis and 4.3 g/dL in healthy subjects. c) Patients with cirrhosis had serum albumin concentration (3.1 g/dL) lower than in healthy subjects (4.2g/dL) d) Serum albumin concentration was significantly lower (3.1 g/dL) than in healthy subjects (4.2 g/dL; P < 0.001) Commented [Ff21]: Serum albumin concentration was 24. In which section would you compare the results obtained in your study and those already reported significantly lower (3.1 g/dL) than in healthy subjects (4.2 by other publications? g/dL; P < 0.001) a) The introduction section b) The methods section c) The results section d) The discussion section Commented [Ff22]: Discussion Section 25. “Citation gaming” consists in: a) citating articles to support well-known or obvious facts b) citating secondary sources c) citating a secondary instead of a primary source d) inappropriate citation of one’s own work [Open questions] 26. How would you organize the discussion section of an experimental (or hypotheses-) testing journal article? (just list the ”moves”) 27. How would you organize the result section of an experimental (or hypotheses-) testing journal article? (just list the ”subsections”) 28. How would you organize the introduction section of an experimental (or hypotheses-) testing journal article? (just list the ”moves” and “steps”) 29. How would you organize a scientific article? Just report the sections that should be present. 30. Please list the sub-headings that should be included in a structured abstract 184397 Communication Tools​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ ​ 5 CFU Exam Questions Academic Year [2021/2022] Exam method: A written exam of 35 questions (32MCQ and 3 Short answers) following the release of grades, an optional oral exam is available for students. It may raise or lower one’s grade. The oral exam will be held by professor Gobbini only. 84398 Communication with Patients 2 CFU + 84403 Communication with Colleagues and Teamwork 1 CFU Maria Ida Gobbini Exam questions: ​ Which of the following statements regarding communication is false? ○​ The dress code is an example of non verbal communication ○​ There are always content and form linked together ○​ It’s not possible to not communicate ○​ All relationships are equal ​ The motivational Interviewing approach is: ○​ Directive, but patient centered ○​ Completely non-directive ○​ Primarily educational ○​ Highly authoritarian ​ If the patient asks a question that is beyond the scope of your practice, the best response would be to: ○​ Make your best guess based on what you know ○​ Tell your patient that you will find them the correct answer ○​ Change the subject ○​ Give them a book on the subject ​ When taking a medical history, which of the following approaches would be the best way to develop a patient’s trust and build a rapport? ○​ Always include family members in these conversations ○​ Be persistent in your questioning of the patient ○​ Confront a patient with targeted questions about his/her behaviours in a direct manner ○​ Provide a setting that is private and safe for disclosure ​ Which of the following statements about body language is false? ○​ The study of body language is called kinetic interpretation ○​ Everyone uses some form of body language to communicate ○​ Body language can be interpreted by people from different cultures ○​ Indications of emotion such as smiling when happy are universal ​ Fill in the blank: “active listening involves listening and ________ ?” ○​ Responding ○​ Agreeing  ○​ Action ○​ Being active ​ Within Motivational Interviewing Framework, ambivalence about change on the part of the client is seen as: ○​ Normal and useful ○​ Irrelevant ○​ Pathological ○​ A major roadblock to change ○​ ​ What is interprofessional education? ○​ All these statements are false ○​ Students from different professions learning the same material together ○​ Healthcare providers from different professions collaborating to provide patient care ○​ Two or more professionals engaging in learning with, from and about each other ​ Which of the following options can have more weight in signalling a lack of interest or an unfriendly attitude and can make therapeutic communication difficult to achieve? ○​ Questioning ○​ Nonverbal communication ○​ Empathy ○​ Eye contact ​ Within the Motivational Interviewing Framework, ambivalence about change on the part of the client as seen as ○​ Irrelevant ○​ Pathological ○​ A major roadblock to change ○​ Normal and useful ​ Positive reinforcement _______ the likelihood of a behavior, while negative reinforcement _______ the likelihood of a behavior. ○​ Decreases, Decreases ○​ Decreases, Increases ○​ Increases, Decreases ○​ Increases, Increases ​ Which of the following is not a risk factor for burnout? ○​ Sense of unfairness ○​ Lack of control ○​ Cynicism ○​ Work overload ​ What are the two goals of the technique of summarization? ○​ To obtain more specific information and show that you are paying attention ○​ To make the interview as short as possible and to follow the rules as determined by the HMO ○​ To ensure that the information you collected is accurate and complete and to signal the end of the interview!!! ○​ To gain the patient’s trust and to obtain more specific information ​ When motivating patients to quit smoking, which of the following approaches is the most effective one? ○​ Direct all patients to a smoking cessation support group ○​ Remind patients that smoking with kill them in time ○​ Provide patients with ample brochures about the dangers of smoking ○​ Support each patient’s small steps and develop a long-term quitting plan ​ Research shows that _____ is a technique to put people at ease and better engage them. ○​ Leaning forward ○​ Speaking softly ○​ Mirroring body language ○​ Making eye contact ​ Which of the following correctly identifies the role of the physician and the patient in making healthcare decisions? ○​ The physician and the patient must establish together who makes decisions about the patient’s health ○​ The physician has little direct influence on the patient’s personal health choices ○​ Although it is the physician’s responsibility to instruct the patient about his or her condition, the physician must ultimately respect the patient’s personal health choices ○​ The physician is the ultimate authority in making decisions about a patient’s health ​ Which of the following is NOT consistent with the Motivational interviewing approach to counselling? ○​ Rolling with resistance ○​ Supporting self-efficacy ○​ Confronting denial ○​ Avoiding argumentation ​ People who have a lot of dental problems often come to dislike even the smell of their dentist’s office. In the classical conditioning framework, the smell represents a: ○​ CR ○​ CS ○​ US ○​ UR ​ What is the placebo effect? ○​ A substance that fails to work on a patient because of their beliefs about its efficacy ○​ A substance which has an enhanced effect on a patient due to their belief in its efficacy ○​ An inactive substance or fake treatment produces a response in the patient ○​ The belief that a substance is having an effect even when it isn’t ​ When talking to an older patient with a hearing aid, what would be the most effective way to communicate? ○​ Be sure your face is visible to the patient ○​ Increase the volume of your voice  ○​ Just say what you want to say whatever the patient is doing ○​ Direct your voice to the ear without a hearing-aid ​ The importance of oral communication within the teamwork is because there is a possibility of immediate: ○​ Retort ○​ Reset ○​ Response ○​ Reaction ​ _____ involves repeating something the patient just said to gain more specific information and to show you are paying attention. ○​ Mirroring ○​ None of the above ○​ Reflection ○​ Facilitation ​ In order to develop discrepancy, physicians using the Motivational interviewing approach ○​ Direct patients to stop the problem behaviour ○​ Point out differences between the patient’s own stated goals and current behaviour ○​ Warn patients about future consequences of their behavior ○​ Inform patients about the harmful effects of their behaviour ​ Which of these is not a risk factor of burnout? ○​ Cynicism ○​ Work overload ○​ Sense of unfairness ○​ Lack of Control ​ Which statement about body language is false? ○​ Everyone uses some form of body language to communicate ○​ The study of body language is called kinetic interpretation ○​ Body language can be interpreted by people from different cultures ○​ Indications of emotion such as smiling when happy are universal ​ If a patient asks a question that is beyond the scope of your practice, the best response would be to: ○​ Make your best guess based on what you know ○​ Tell the patient that you will find them the correct answer ○​ Give them a book on the subject ○​ Change the subject Oral ​ Communication with the patient ​ Emotions (compare 3 theories) ​ Burnout ​ Topic of your choice 84406 Communication with Scientific World 2 CFU Mauro Bernardi Exam questions: (same as last year’s, see previous doc) ​ Effective scientific medical communication should achieve several goals. Please state the most important goal in your opinion among: ○​ Achieve a high acceptance rate from journals ○​ Contribute to improve clinical practice ○​ Achieve a brief turnaround of the publishing process ○​ Enhance your career progression ​ Which verb would you use to introduce the achievement(s) of your research in a manuscript or oral communication: ○​ Establish ○​ Support ○​ Prove ○​ State ​ The selection of participants in a medical research study should be thoroughly described in: ○​ The methods section ○​ The introduction section ○​ It does not need to be reported ○​ The discussion section ​ A comprehensive search of the scientific and medical literature should be conducted: ○​ Citation tracking ○​ All the above ○​ Using appropriate (specific) database ○​ Forward tracking ​ A discourse community shares the following: ○​ All these options ○​ A core set of research methods ○​ A highly specific research topic ○​ The knowledge of scientific or medical topics related to a given field ​ Which statement among the following would you think to be more appropriate in describing a major finding: ○​ Mortality and age are correlated ○​ Among the elderly, mortality roughly doubles for each successive five-year age group ○​ As age increases, mortality increases ○​ None of the above ​ The main “audience” in scientific journals is represented by: ○​ Librarians ○​ Medically Qualified Doctors ○​ Academic researchers ○​ Medical students ​ Sharing original research findings is mainly pursued through: ○​ Editorials ○​ Journal Articles ○​ Review Articles ○​ Patents ​ The “lazy author syndrome” consist in: ○​ Present inaccurate slides at a conference ○​ Citing a secondary instead of a primary source  ○​ Inaccurate writing ○​ Exceed the allotted number of words in a manuscript ​ The conclusion(s) of a discussion section should contain: ○​ A summary of the principal claim ○​ The implications of the research ○​ All the above ○​ Specific recommendations for future research ​ How would you organise the introduction section of an experimental (or hypothesis) testing journal article? (Just list moves and steps) ​ How would you organise the results section of an experimental (or hypothesis-) testing journal article? (Just list the “moves”) ​ How would you organise the discussion section of an experimental (or hypothesis-) testing journal article? (Just list the “moves”) 84388 Diagnostic Technology 8 CFU Exam Questions Academic Year [2019/2020] Exam methods Final evaluation will be performed by means of a joint test on all topics covered in the integrated course. The test will be based on 40 multiple choice questions. The time given to complete it will be 75 minutes. Passing score = 18 (24 correct Questions) 30L - if all Questions are answered correctly *** The exam was written at first, then changed to oral in April (due to Covid?) and then back to being written in June. 65630 Clinical Pathology 2 CFU Lorenzo Montanaro Exam questions: How is it possible to assess the erythrocyte sedimentation rate? o Centrifuging the blood and measuring the amount of sediment o Using glass columns and measuring the sedimentation rate in 24 hours o Using glass columns and measuring the sedimentation rate in 1 hour o Using glass columns and measuring the sedimentation rate in 1 minute What is Ceruloplasmin? o An iron carrier protein o A heat-shock protein o A copper carrier protein o A haemoglobin derivate What is the cell count threshold/mm3 of erythrocytes and leukocytes in cerebrospinal fluid for adults? o erythrocytes: 100; leukocytes: 50 o erythrocytes: 1,000; leukocytes: 500 o erythrocytes: 10; leukocytes: 5 o erythrocytes: 2,000; leukocytes: 5,000 Which of the following is a typical hemogas analysis result in metabolic acidosis: o pH 7,51 (increased); pC02 47.8 mmHg (increased); p02 70 mmHg; [HC03-] (decreased); 36 mEq/L (increased) o pH 7,11 (decreased); pC02 95 mmHg (increased); p02 33 mmHg (decreased); [HC03-] 29,5 mEq/L (increased) o pH 7,56 (increased); pC02 23 mmHg (decreased); p02 100 mmHg; [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) o pH 7,37 (decreased); pC02 35,2 mmHg (decreased); p02 83 mmHg; [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) Which of the following is a typical hemogas analysis result in respiratory acidosis: o pH 7,11 (decreased); pC02 95 mmHg (increased); p02 33 mmHg (decreased); [HC03-] 29,5 mEq/L (increased) 1  o pH 7,56 (increased); pC02 23 mmHg (decreased); p02 100 mmHg; [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) o pH 7.37 (decreased); pC02 35,2 mmHg (decreased); p02 83 mmHg. [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) o pH 7,51 (increased); pC02 47.8 mmHg (increased); p02 70 mmHg; [HC03-] (decreased); 36 mEq/L (increased) Which of the following is considered an open, renewable body buffer system: o Bisodium / monosodium phosphate system o The bicarbonate / carbonic acid system o Reduced / oxygenated hemoglobin system o H-protein / Na-protein system The ratio AST (GOT)>ALT(GPT) is more suggestive of: o Kidney failure o Extra-hepatic cholestasis o Alcoholic hepatitis or steato-hepatitis o Viral hepatitis Elevated serum levels of alpha-fetoprotein are more likely associated with: o Liver cancer and germline tumour of the testis o Ovarian tumours o Pancreatic cancer o Breast cancer What’s uric acid? o The final product of purine’s catabolism o It is a synonym of urea o The final product of urea catabolism o A product of the heme catabolism What do we mean for direct bilirubin? o Urobilinogen o Levels of bilirubin in jaundice o Bilirubin conjugated with glucuronic acid o bilirubin not conjugated with glucuronic acid A very clear color of the urine is usually a sign of: o Hemolysis o Hyper-hydration o Diabetes o Dehydration Which of these statements concerning anticoagulant therapy is wrong? o New oral anticoagulants require close laboratory monitoring o New oral anticoagulants act by selectively blocking the activity of one coagulation factor o Anticoagulant therapy can be administered to prevent thromboembolism in patients with atrial fibrillation o Vitamin K antagonist require close laboratory monitoring During disseminated intravascular coagulation (select the only right answer) o There is strong decrease of fibrin degradation products (FDPs) o A reduction of platelet number is often present o Fibrinogen levels increase increasing the thrombotic risk o PT and aPTT are often normal 2  Which of the following is not a risk factor for type II diabetes o To have been mothers of macrosomal foetuses o Obesity o Specific class II histocompatibility antigen o Familiarity Which of the following is a typical finding in Haemophilia A (select the only right answer): o normal platelet count, altered ristocetin test, normal ADP test, normal aPTT, normal PT o normal platelet count, prolonged aPTT, normal PT o normal platelet count, normal aPTT, prolonged PT o normal platelet count, normal aPTT, normal PT. aPTT result prolonged only after the addition of plasma from a Haemophilia B patient The presence of hyperchromatic urine and hypochromatic stool is more likely associated with: o Inflammatory bowel disease o Hemolysis o Acute hepatitis o Bile duct obstruction What type of condition is orthostatic proteinuria? o Typical of pregnancy o Associated with kidney cancer o Benign, typical of young girls o Serious, linked to diabetes Which of these laboratory results represents the typical scenario found in von Willebrand disease? o Normal bleeding time, normal platelet count, normal ristocetin test, normal ADP test, altered aPTT, normal PT o Normal bleeding time, reduced platelet count, normal ristocetin test, normal ADP test, normal aPTT, altered PT o Altered bleeding time, normal platelet count, altered ristocetin test, altered ADP test, normal aPTT, altered PT o Altered bleeding time, normal platelet count, altered ristocetin test, normal ADP test, altered aPTT, normal PT Which of the following is a typical hemogas analysis result in respiratory alkalosis? o pH 7,11 (decreased); pCO2 95 mmHg (increased); pO2 33 mmHg (decreased); [HCO3- ] 29,5 mEq/L (increased) o pH 7,56 (increased); pCO2 23 mmHg (decreased); pO2 100 mmHg; [HCO3-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) o pH 7,51 (increased); pCO2 47.8 mmHg (increased); pO2 70 mmHg (decreased); [HCO3-] 36 mEq/L (increased) o pH 7,11 (decreased); pCO2 35,2 mmHg (decreased); pO2 83 mmHg; [HCO3-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) Which of the following is a typical hemogas analysis result in respiratory acidosis: o pH 7,11 (decreased); pC02 95 mmHg (increased); p02 33 mmHg (decreased); [HC03-] 29,5 mEq/L (increased) o pH 7,56 (increased); pC02 23 mmHg (decreased); p02 100 mmHg; [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) 3  o pH 7.37 (decreased); pC02 35,2 mmHg (decreased); p02 83 mmHg. [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) o pH 7,51 (increased); pC02 47.8 mmHg (increased); p02 70 mmHg; [HC03-] (decreased); 36 mEq/L (increased) Which of the following is a typical hemogas analysis result in metabolic acidosis: o pH 7,51 (increased); pC02 47.8 mmHg (increased); p02 70 mmHg; [HC03-] (decreased); 36 mEq/L (increased) o pH 7,11 (decreased); pC02 95 mmHg (increased); p02 33 mmHg (decreased); [HC03-] 29,5 mEq/L(increased) o pH 7,56 (increased); pC02 23 mmHg (decreased); p02 100 mmHg; [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) o pH 7,37 (decreased); pC02 35,2 mmHg (decreased); p02 83 mmHg; [HC03-] 20 mEq/L (decreased) What statement about thrombophilia is wrong? o may be caused by factor V gene mutations o coexistence of multiple thrombogenic risk factors has more than additive effects o Unusual predisposition to arterial-venous thromboembolism even in absence of obvious triggering causes o can be monitored at aPTT and PT SOME OPEN QUESTIONS (not asked like this at the exam, but unfortunately, we couldn’t obtain the whole questions, with the answers): 1. Clear color of urine indicates 2. The presence of foamy urine is typical of: Answer: Proteinuria 3. Haemophilia A or B (lab results on aPPT, PPT, platelet count): aPPT lengthened, PPT normal, platelet count normal 4. Does gravity of urine change in case of dehydration? 5. The INR (international normalized ratio) is: 6. Altered ADP aggregation test is never observed in... 10. Urine pH in normal condition is: Answer: weakly acidic 11. Creatinine Clearance is a Answer: good index of glomerular filtration 12.. AST>ALT is suggestive of AH ASH; Kidney failure ; 18. Is Creatinine clearance a good parameter for renal functioning? 19. Diabetes II risk factors 20. Fibrinopeptide a and b derive from? Answer: cleavage of fibrinogen by thrombin 21. Difference between infection and inflammation 22. D dimer, when is it generated? Answer: during plasmin digestion of stabilized fibrin 23. Glucose in blood 24. Modified albumin/globulin ratio 25. Von Willebrand signs in blood (Von Willebrand disease - lab results) 26. Difference between serum and plasma, for which bio tests? 27. Serum and plasma are identical from a biochemical point of view? Different assays? 28. Glucose tolerance patterns (type 2 diabetes vs obese) 83169 Clinical Biochemistry 1 CFU 4 Luca Morandi Exam questions: Which of the following techniques cannot be used to find mutations in a liquid biopsy experiment due to its low sensitivity: o digital PCR o Allele Specific real time PCR o Sanger Sequencing o Targeted Next Generation Sequencing Oral squamous cell carcinoma (OSCC) has a mortality rate of 50% within 5 years. This is due to: o OSCC gives usually brain metastasis o OSCC patients are usually diagnosed at stage I o OSCC patents are usually diagnosed at an advanced stage o HPV positive OSCCs are very aggressive Which of the following bases can be methylated? o T that precedes an A (TpA) o A that precedes a T (ApT) o C that precedes a G (CpG) o G that precedes a C (GpC) May epigenetic modifications be influenced by the environment? o Yes, the environment increases the level of DNA methylation during life until it reaches the full methylation state in every gene o No, the environment does not affect any of the 5 layers of chromatin organization o No, the environment may change DNA generating mutations, with no effect on the chromatin state o Yes, the environment and microenvironment may change chromatin structure, histone modifications and DNA methylation CpG islands are defined as regions of at least 200 bp showing a CG percentage higher than: o - 55% o - 20% o - 5% o - 1% Which of the following statements about liquid biopsy is false? o Liquid biopsy of cfDNA in plasma permits analysis of DNA, RNA, mRNA, and microRNA (miRNA). o Tumour heterogeneity, one of the greatest limitations of tissue biopsies, could be assessed by analysis of circulating cancer cells in peripheral blood. o Liquid biopsy embraces circulating DNA fragments carrying tumour-specific sequence alterations that can also be defined as cell free DNA (cfDNA) or circulating tumour DNA (ctDNA), as well as circulating tumour (CTCs). o The replacement of tissue biopsy with liquid biopsy is feasible and should be considered in the clinic What is the starting material for a liquid biopsy? o Stool o Plasma, urine, cerebrospinal fluid o Lymph nodes o Tumour tissue around the site of intervention 5  Histone methylation: o Methylation of H3-K9 and H3-K27 induce gene expression o Methylation of H3K4 and H3K26 promotes gene expression o Methylation of H3-K9 and H3-K27 inhibits gene expression o Methylation of H4K4 and H3K26 inhibits gene expression Why may epigenetic biomarkers be useful in diagnostic assays aimed to early detect cancer? Liquid biopsy characteristics Is histone modification dynamic? Meaning of epigenetics DNA histone modification is dynamic (true, false) What is the error rate of the epigenetic signature in DNA replication? Which biomarkers are useful to diagnosis Alzheimer disease starting from CSF CpG islands at the promoter level control gene expression Error rate of the epigenetic signature in the inheritance of DNA methylation o 20% o 0.1 % o 0.001% o 4% When it is more likely to have errors in biochemical tests: o During the collection phase o During laboratory tests, by machines WES analysis allows: o The analysis of all the transcription factors o The target analysis of the coding exons of the genome o The target analysis of the microbiome o The analysis of the entire genome DNA microarray may be useful for: o Antibody-antigen binding and immunohistochemistry o Protein-protein interactions o Wide gene expression, DNA mutation and copy number variation, DNA methylation analysis o Enzyme activity The enrichment performed during the library preparation can by carried out with: o exclusive target hybridization o reverse transcription and multiplex PCR o target hybridization or multiplex PCR for selected regions o droplet digital P DNA methylation works on genetic expression by? Methylation silencing and activating genes A sequencing reaction using the Sanger method contains: o ddNTP, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase, forward or reverse primer o dNTP/ddNTP, DNA ligase, forward and reverse primer o dNTP/ddNTP, DNA polymerase, forward and reverse primer What is ctDNA, when is it found? ctDNA applications dedifferentiation 6 84393 Introduction to Anatomic Pathology 1 CFU Giovanni Tallini Exam questions: Standard fixative for histopathology: o 50% alcohol o 10% neutral buffered formalin o 5% neutral buffered formalin o 90% alcohol “De Sedibus et causis morborum per anatomem indagatis” was written by: o William Harvey o Giovanni Battista Morgagni o Marcello Malpighi o Antonio Maria Valsalva Haematoxylin (one correct answer): o Is obtained from the logwood tree o Is a fluorescent dye o Binds to and forms salts with basic compounds like protein containing amino acid residues such as arginine and lysine o Is a tetrabromofluorescein For the definition of prognosis: o Diagnosis is more important than stage or grade o Stage is more important that the diagnosis or grade o Grade is more important than the diagnosis or stage o None of them is important, prognosis is determined by the therapy Staging schemes: o Are the same for all malignant tumours o Are defined for specific types of malignant tumours o Are the same for all benign and malignant tumours o Are defined for specific types of benign and malignant tumours The complete definition of the prognosis of a malignant tumour depends on: o Tumour grade, stage is of secondary important o Tumour stage, grade is of secondary important o Tumour grade and stage, diagnosis is not relevant o Tumour diagnosis, stage, grade (all are important) “Cellular Pathologie” (Cellular Pathology) was written by: o Wilhelm von Waldeyer o Rudolph Virchow o Heinrich Caro o Frederic Sanger What percentage of formalin is used for a histopathologic fixation? Fine Needle Aspiration (FNA) used to test what? 7  Criteria for tumour grading Which are the divisions of anatomical pathology o different combinations of: cytopathology, general research, clinical, molecular, surgical etc Which type of tumour is melanoma? o Sarcoma o Carcinoma Correct order of the steps to obtain conventional histopathology sections: o Embedding Microtome Cutting Staining Sampling Processing o Processing Sampling Embedding Staining Microtome Cutting o Microtome Cutting Staining Sampling Processing Embedding o Sampling Processing Embedding Microtome Cutting Staining The picture below is the histologic picture of a: o teratoma o benign tumor o poorly/undifferentiated malignant tumor o well differentiated malignant tumor 84394 Radiology, Nuclear Medicine and Radioprotection 2 CFU Module 1 - Rita Golfieri Exam questions: Basic elements of digital imaging: o Pixel (Picture elements): each point (ROI) in the image matrix. Voxel: the volume which has pixel as a base in the plane. o Pixel (Picture elements): each square in the image matrix. Voxel: the volume (block of tissue), which has pixel as a base in the plane. o Pixel (Picture elements): is the measure of the whole size of the image matrix. Voxel: the volume (block of tissue), which has pixel as a base in the plane. o Pixel (Picture elements) each millimeters of the image matrix. Voxel: the volume (block of tissue), which has pixel as a base in the plane. The radiopharmaceutical used for bone scan imaging is 8  o Vitamin D o Glucose analogue o Bisphosphonates o Steroids Thyroid scintigraphy can detect: o Goitre o All answers are correct o Thyroid nodules (cold/hot) o Thyroiditis Indications to renal scintigraphy include: o urinary infection scarring o all answers are correct o suspected urinary obstruction o kidney transplant (recipient and donor) lodine-based contrast media: o are excreted by glomerular filtration after dilution. In people with normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR; 60 mL/min/1.73 m2), more than 80% is excreted after 24 hours, and 98% after 48 hours o are excreted by glomerular filtration after dilution in 24 hours. o are excreted 50% by glomerular filtration and 50% in the biliary system o are excreted unchanged by glomerular filtration. In people with normal glomerular filtration rate (GFR; 60 mL/min/1.73 m2), more than 80% is excreted after 4 hours, and 98% after 24 hours Magnetic Resonance is a: o process in which a pulsed Magnetic field interact with nuclei which pass to a state of ſantiparallel] energy and then re-emit energy in the form of an RE pulse of equal frequency. the latter constitutes the MR signal o process in which the external static MRI field interact with nuclei which pass to a state of energy to a lower energy state re-emitting energy in the form of an RF pulse of equal frequency. The latter constitutes the MR signal o process in which a pulsed Magnetic field increase the energy of an RF pulse of equal frequency. The latter constitutes the MR signal o process in which the nuclei absorb energy (RF) when the transmitted frequency meets the specific resonance frequency of the nuclei, which pass to a state of [antiparallel] energy to a lower one and then re-emit energy in the form of an RF pulse of equal frequency. The latter constitutes the MR signal The BEIR VII model: o stated that cancer risks are negligible at effective doses below 50 millisieverts (mSv) for single CT exposures and below 100 mSv for multiple exposures over short durations. o postulates that there is no safe level of ionizing radiation exposure; carcinogenic effects are assumed to follow a linear dose response, meaning even the smallest exposure carries some level of cancer risk. 9  o postulates that cancer risks are negligible at effective doses below 200 millisieverts (mSv) for single CT exposures and below 300 mSv for multiple exposures over short duration. The plain abdomen x-ray (AXR) Is the first level imaging technique in diagnosing the common inflammatory conditions such as appendicitis, diverticulitis Is the first imaging technique for diagnosing the cause of pelvic pain Is the first level imaging technique in some case of acute abdomen diagnosing perforation of a viscus, obstruction and for assessing bowel dilation. Is not helpful in diagnosing the common inflammatory conditions such as appendicitis, diverticulitis Is the first level imaging technique: it allows to evaluate the shape and the size of the abdominal organs and their content Which exam is the one presented? o A CRX o A CT scan o An ultrasonography o An MRI In the Chest X-rays here presented it is easily recognizable: 10  o Free subdiaphragmatic air o The sign of the cat under the rug o The giant panda sign o Breast prosthesis Deterministic effect: o it is related to the effective dose, o it is dose dependent and time independent, o it concerns the exposed person and the progeny, o threshold dose and severity increases with the dose CT scan, in the diagnosis of pneumonia: o Is a second level exam, performed in case in doubtful pneumonia or immunocompromised patients. o Should always be performed if the clinical suspicion is high o Is a second level exam, performed in association with lung MRI. o Should never be performed, as it exposes the patient to an excessive dose of ionizing radiation. Module 2 – Valentina Ambrosini Exam questions: 18F-FDG PET/CT imaging: delayed acquisitions (Iater than the acquisition at 60 minutes) can be useful to: o are generally acquired 3 hours after the radiopharmaceutical injection o more accurately characterise the localisation of a PET-positive finding o can help differentiate benign form malignant findings (the latter showing increased uptake over time) o both more accurately characterise the localisation of a PET- positive finding and be of help in differentiating benign form malignant findings (the latter showing increased uptake over time) When studying an oncologic patient, indicate potential pitfalls at 18F PET/CT imaging: o recent surgery 11  o all answers are correct o lesions smaller than 5 mm o infection/inflammation The use of FDG in neuroendocrine tumours (indicate the correct statement) o Should be performed in all well-differentiated cases o Should be performed in pheochromocytoma o Should be performed in high grade tumours o Should be performed in high grade tumours and in all cases with suspected/proven dedifferentiation Sentinel node scintigraphy is generally performed in patients with. o Breast cancer o Melanoma o Lung cancer o Both breast cancer and melanoma Indicate the most suitable radiopharmaceutical for the assessment of brain tumours (primary or metastatic) o 18F-DOPA o 18F-FDG o 18F-FLT o 68Ga-DOTA-peptides When studying a patient with suspected endocarditis the correct preparation to the exam consists of: o A 6-hour fasting and antidiabetic drugs suspension o Fat diet followed by 6 hours fasting o Fat diet followed by prolonged (12 hours) fasting o Protein rich diet followed by prolonged (12 hours) fasting Principles of Computed Tomography are: o A Beam of X ray large as the desired field of view, scans across a patient in synchrony with a radiation detector on the opposite side of the patient. By assigning different levels to different attenuation coefficients, an image can be reconstructed. o A narrow beam of X-ray scans across a patient rotating in synchrony with a radiation detector on the opposite side of the patient. By assigning different levels to different attenuation coefficients, an image can be reconstructed. o A beam of gamma-ray scans large as the desired field of view, scans across a patient in synchrony with a radiation detector on the opposite side of the patient. By assigning different levels to different attenuation coefficients, an image can be reconstructed. o A beam of protons, large as the desired field of view, scans across a patient in synchrony with a radiation detector on the opposite of the patient. By assigning different levels to different attenuation coefficient The uptake time is the time between o A radiopharmaceutical administration and patients’ discharge from the hospital o Image acquisition and decay of the injected radiopharmaceutical o Image acquisition and image processing 12  o Radiopharmaceutical administration and image acquisition Cold sensation during the uptake time: o Increases accuracy; o increases lesions detectability; o increases FDG uptake in muscles; o Implies brown fat activation 11 C-choline can be used to study patients with prostate cancer (p.c.) relapse, but in case of undifferentiated lesions: o 18F- FDG can also be used, o 68Ga PSMA not indicated in pc, o 18F-FDG routinely used in pc relapse, o 18 F-FDG?? Myocardial scintigraphy, comparison between rest and: o ergometry o ephedrine o vasodilators o Ca2+antagonists (I guess) In ultrasound the piezoelectric crystals are excited by which type of wave? o electromagnetic o sound waves not audible How to study a patient with suspected endocarditis: o 6h fasting; o Fat diet; o Protein diet + 12h fasting o Fat diet+ 12h fasting (Find the correct match) o FDG is accurate for brain tumours; o renal scintigraphy is recommended for pielonephritis; o bone scan is recommended for osteoblastic lesions; o DAT is recommended for Alzheimer Lung scintigraphy in a patient with pulmonary embolism: o matched perfusion and ventilation defects, o mismatched …, o only ventilation defects, o Non Uptake of patients with dementia: o increased FDG uptake; o increased 68 Ga-DOTA peptide uptake; o it was studied with 11C Choline PET CT; o decreased FDG uptake 13  What radiopharmaceutical is used for prostate cancer? o 68Ga-DOPA-peptides o 11C-methionine o 11C-choline o 18F-FDG Myocardial scintigraphy is generally acquired with o SPECT o PET o CT Correct statement: o 11C-choline to study hepatocellular carcinoma o 18-FDG tracer of choice study brain metastasis o 68-Ga PSM study breast cancer o 11C-choline study lung cancer PET/CT standard acquisition extends from: o the vortex to mid thigh o base skull to feet o vertex to feet o base skull to mid thigh. CA19-9 is used as a radiopharmaceutical for: o breast o liver o ovarian o pancreas PET/CT is generally performed in oncological patients for: o staging and restaging after therapy, follow up o prognosis o staging, restaging after therapy, detection of the unknown primary tumor, follow-up, prognosis o staging and restaging after therapy Some open questions without options: 1. Bone / Renal Scintigraphy is sensitive for 2. Principles of CT 3. X-rays characteristics are the following 4. Chest radiology what it is and if it have been replaced by something else 5. Why is it important to measure the dose? 6. 7. Implications of patients feeling cold during and FDG PET 9. The main actions for obtaining MR signal and imaging are: 11. How are the standard chest X-ray features? (posteroanterior, screen to the left) 13. DAT scan most frequent indication 14 16. The radiopharmaceutical used for bone scane imaging is? 17. Renal scintigraphy patient suspected renal hypertension: imaging generally performed after administration of? 19. Average effective doses of xray and CT 20. How does US work? (probe, electrical/thermal/mechanical/thermo-electrical signal, absorption or not by organs, how reflection affects probe) 28. Cardiac scintigraphy used for 30. Choline 11 used to detect what 31. When is Fdg used in the brain ? Alzheimer(reduced uptake) 33. Iodine tracer properties 34. Properties of positive contrast media 35. CT when in pneumonia 36. What to use as a tracer in Thyroid? 37. Hemorrhage in CSF biomarkers 38. Indicate the correct statement on SUVmax: 40. Panda sign (Wilson’s disease) 42. Absorption time what is it? 43. Bone x-ray used for what other purposes? 44. Radiation amount needs to be known in order to limit what damage? 45. Tumor cell signs histology 46. Which contrast is used for lymphoma? 47. Radiopharmaceutical for epilepsy 48. Basic principles of Ultrasounds are: 49. Standard PET acquisition 50. Paramagnetic media in MRI 51. Positive media in xr (what do they do to radiations) 52. Which is the best Radiopharmaceutical for brain tumors and metastasis 53. Recognize free hypodiaphragmatic air in a CXR 54. What do you see in AXR (black air, bowels…) 55. What do you use 131 Iodine for 57. Parathyroid scintigraphy can be acquired using: 58. Parathyroid scinti protocols 59. What radiopharmaceutical is used for bones? 60. How do you identify subarachnoid haemorrhage analysing CSF 61. Positive contrast medium in X rays and CT 62. Renal scintigraphy patient suspected renal hypertension: imaging generally performed after administration of? 63. Choose the right sentence about plain abdomen x-ray: (1st indication of what) ? 64. Something about 18-dopa usage 65. Bone scintigraphy is sensitive for ? 66. Bone scan is not used only for oncological patients 68. Other incidents of bone scan 69. Indication to renal scintigraphy 70. The presence of an hypoperfusion defect in the stress is a sign of ? 71. False positive findings at FDG PET / CT imaging include? 84395 Bioengineering and Robotics 1 CFU Emanuela Marcelli 15 Exam questions: Heart valve prostheses can be made using: o biological tissue o only metallic materials o polymeric materials o ceramic materials Transcatheter aortic valve prosthesis can be implanted: o using open heart surgery and extracorporeal circulation o using transeptal procedures o only using transapical procedures o using transfemoral procedures Metal biomaterials used in prosthesis o only titanium and alloys o none of the above o never o Rarely In triple chamber pacemakers leads are implanted: o In the right atrium, in the right ventricle and in the left ventricle (through? Ventricular septum) o In the right atrium, in the left atrium and in the left ventricle o In the right ventricle, in the left atrium and in the left ventricle o In the right atrium, in the right ventricle and in the left ventricle (via coronary sinus) Biomaterial is o A viable material used in a medical device intended to interact with biological systems o A non-viable material used in a medical device intended to interact with non-biological system o A non-viable material used in medical device intended to interact with biological systems o A viable material used in a medical device intended to interact with non-biological systems A medical device approved by FDA can be sold also in Europe: o No, never o Yes, always o Yes, if it is patented o Yes, if it is also CE marked Biocompatibility refers to: o An intrinsic material property o The possibility of a material to be sterilized o The ability of a material to perform an appropriate response in a specific application o The ability of a material to perform an appropriate response Some open questions without options: Robot-operating surgeries allow surgeons to...? Robotic surgical technologies overcome limits of...? 16  What requires a heart prosthesis? Current pacemakers can be...? Patent definition Metals that can be used as biomaterials? (maybe the same as the one above) Duration of patent When valve prosthetics Patent needed to sell something in Europe Is FDA approval enough to sell a product in Europe? Which one of these metals can be used as biomaterials? Polymers can be used as biomaterials? Implantable Cardiovascular Defibrillator (ICD) are used to treat? Answer: Ventricular Fibrillation and Ventricular Tachycardia The ability of a material to perform an appropriate response...? 84396 Molecular Diagnostics 1 CFU Elena Bonora Exam questions: The enrichment performed during the library preparation can by carried out with: o Exclusive target hybridization o Reverse transcription and multiplex PCR o Target hybridization or multiplex PCR for selected regions o Droplet digital PCR When is it possible to perform a genetic test via restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis? o When a mutation duplicates the recognition site of a restriction o When a mutation creates the recognition site of a transcription factor o When a mutation creates or abolishes the recognition site of a restriction enzyme. o When the mutation is unknown. What is a real-time quantitative PCR? o It is an assay that monitors the accumulation of a DNA product from a PCR reaction in real time o It is an assay that monitors the accumulation of a DNA product from an ARMS reaction o It is an assay that monitors the accumulation of a RNA product from a restriction reaction in real time o It is an assay that monitors the accumulation of a sequencing product from a PCR reaction in real time Which of the following methods allows to detect the presence of a homozygous variant? o Heteroduplex gel mobility assay o Sanger sequencing o DGGE o DHPLC In autosomal dominant traits, de-novo, somatic and mosaic mutations occur in: o Hemizygous form o Heterozygous form o Homozygous form 17  o Frameshift form Structural variants are defined as: o Genomic alterations that involve segments of DNA (microscopic or submicroscopic) o Sequencing errors due to PCR artifacts o Alterations in the transcription factor-binding sites o Genomic alterations such as single nucleotide variants, frameshift , nonsense and missense variants A Copy Number Variant is: o A segment of DNA that is 50 bp or larger and is present at a variable copy number in comparison with a reference genome o A segment of DNA that is determining a repetitive frameshift in comparison with a reference genome o A segment of DNA that is 1 Mb or larger and is present at a variable copy number in comparison with a reference genome o A segment of DNA that is 1 kb or larger and is present at a variable copy number in comparison with a reference genome Electropherogram picture: which mutation is shown? o homozygous small indel variant o hetero small indel variant o homozygous missense variant o heterozygous missense variant Image represents (we don’t have the image): o electropherogram missense heterozygous o electropherogram missense homozygous o electropherogram small indel heterozygous o electropherogram small indel homozygous A series of questions without options: Question about electrophoregem and homozygotic variants (image to comment) NGS definition NGS data analysis steps How is the workflow of NGS? Function of index sequences in NGS For what is used real time quantitative PCR Criteria for variants classification What are the criteria to state the meaning of a structural variant Classification of variants uses criteria of variant evidence such as...? Answer: enrichment and sequencing.... Possible significance of structural variants What’s a genomic structural variation Which type of mutations are autosomal dominant traits? What is PCR? Answer: Replicates transcription machinery Which is the basis of PCR? What is DNA assay used for? Statistical tool used for discrimination between normal and diseased patients in quantitative evaluation assays (or maybe this question was from another part, they don’t remember) 18  Graph used to test healthy/disease patients (what?) Which exam is the one presented (again, we don’t have the image)? Answer. reported: OBJ ITH (?) 19