Cisco-350-401-v25.6.3_10200-oshbrp edited.pdf

ClouCertified Practice Tests 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Question #1 What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB? A. The FIB is populated based on RIB content. B. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB. C. The RIB is used...

ClouCertified Practice Tests 350-401 Implementing Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR) Question #1 What is the difference between a RIB and a FIB? A. The FIB is populated based on RIB content. B. The RIB maintains a mirror image of the FIB. C. The RIB is used to make IP source prefix-based switching decisions. D. The FIB is where all IP routing information is stored. Correct Answer: A Question #2 Which QoS component alters a packet to change the way that traffic is treated in the network? A. policing B. classification C. marking D. shaping Correct Answer: C Question #3 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the correct QoS components on the right. 1 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Answer: Question #4 Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true? A. The CPU of a router becomes directly involved with packet-switching decisions. B. It uses a fast cache that is maintained in a router data plane. C. It maintains two tables in the data plane: the FIB and adjacency table. D. It makes forwarding decisions by a process that is scheduled through the IOS scheduler. Correct Answer: C Question #5 What is a benefit of deploying an on-premises infrastructure versus a cloud infrastructure deployment? 2 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. ability to quickly increase compute power without the need to install additional hardware B. less power and cooling resources needed to run infrastructure on-premises C. faster deployment times because additional infrastructure does not need to be purchased D. lower latency between systems that are physically located near each other Correct Answer: D Question #6 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the appropriate infrastructure deployment types on the right. Select and Place: Correct Answer: 3 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #7 How does QoS traffic shaping alleviate network congestion? A. It drops packets when traffic exceeds a certain bitrate. B. It buffers and queues packets above the committed rate. C. It fragments large packets and queues them for delivery. D. It drops packets randomly from lower priority queues. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/quality-of-service-qos/qos-policing/19645- policevsshape.html Question #8 An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.) A. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible. B. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic. C. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible. D. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate. E. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it. Correct Answer: AD Question #9 Which component handles the orchestration plane of the Cisco SD-WAN? 4 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. vBond B. vSmart C. vManage D. WAN Edge Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2018/pdf/BRKCRS-2112.pdf page 8. Question #10 What are two device roles in Cisco SD-Access fabric? (Choose two.) A. edge node B. vBond controller C. access switch D. core switch E. border node Correct Answer: AE Question #11 What is the role of the vSmart controller in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? A. It performs authentication and authorization. B. It manages the control plane. C. It is the centralized network management system. D. It manages the data plane. Correct Answer: B Question #12 When a wired client connects to an edge switch in a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which component decides whether the client has access to the network? A. edge node B. Identity Services Engine C. RADIUS server D. control-plane node Correct Answer: B Question #13 Which benefit is offered by a cloud infrastructure deployment but is lacking in an on- premises deployment? 5 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. virtualization B. supported systems C. storage capacity D. efficient scalability Correct Answer: D Question #14 Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? A. onboard WAN Edge nodes into the Cisco SD-WAN fabric B. gather telemetry data from WAN Edge routers C. distribute policies that govern data forwarding performed within the Cisco SD- WAN fabric D. handle, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the Cisco SD-WAN fabric Correct Answer: C Question #15 Where is radio resource management performed in a Cisco SD-Access wireless solution? A. DNA Center B. control plane node C. wireless controller D. Cisco CMX Correct Answer: B Question #16 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the infrastructure types on the right. 6 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Correct Answer: Question #17 How does the RIB differ from the FIB? A. The FIB maintains network topologies and routing tables. The RIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. B. The FIB includes many routes to a single destination. The RIB is the best route to a single destination. C. The RIB is used to create network topologies and routing tables. The FIB is a list of routes to particular network destinations. D. The RIB includes many routes to the same destination prefix. The FIB contains only the best route. 7 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: D Question #18 Which technology is used to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 logical networks in the Cisco SD- Access architecture? A. underlay network B. VPN routing/forwarding C. easy virtual network D. overlay network Correct Answer: D Question #19 What is the difference between CEF and process switching? A. CEF processes packets that are too complex for process switching to manage. B. Process switching is faster than CEF. C. CEF uses the FIB and the adjacency table to make forwarding decisions, whereas process switching punts each packet. D. CEF is more CPU-intensive than process switching. Correct Answer: C Question #20 What are two considerations when using SSO as a network redundancy feature? (Choose two.) A. requires synchronization between supervisors in order to guarantee continuous connectivity B. the multicast state is preserved during switchover C. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 3 operations D. both supervisors must be configured separately E. must be combined with NSF to support uninterrupted Layer 2 operations Correct Answer: AC Question #21 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct infrastructure deployment type on the right. 8 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Answer: 9 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #22 In a Cisco SD-Access fabric, which control plane protocol is used for mapping and resolving endpoints? A. DHCP B. VXLAN C. SXP D. LISP Correct Answer: D Question #23 What are two differences between the RIB and the FIB? (Choose two.) A. FIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the RIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. B. The FIB is derived from the data plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. C. The RIB is a database of routing prefixes, and the FIB is the information used to choose the egress interface for each packet. D. The RIB is derived from the control plane, and the FIB is derived from the RIB. E. The FIB is derived from the control plane, and the RIB is derived from the FIB. Correct Answer: CD Question #24 Which two network problems indicate a need to implement QoS in a campus network? (Choose two.) A. port flapping B. excess jitter C. misrouted network packets D. duplicate IP addresses E. bandwidth-related packet loss Correct Answer: BE Question #25 In a Cisco SD-Access wireless architecture, which device manages endpoint ID to edge node bindings? A. fabric control plane node B. fabric wireless controller C. fabric border node D. fabric edge node 10 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: A Question #26 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the QoS mechanisms from the left onto their descriptions on the right. Select and Place: Correct Answer: Question #27 Which control plane protocol is used between Cisco SD-WAN routers and vSmart controllers? A. TCP B. OMP C. UDP D. BGP Correct Answer: B Question #28 11 ClouCertified Practice Tests In a three-tier hierarchical campus network design, which action is a design best-practice for the core layer? A. provide QoS prioritization services such as marking, queueing, and classification for critical network traffic B. provide redundant Layer 3 point-to-point links between the core devices for more predictable and faster convergence C. provide advanced network security features such as 802.1X, DHCP snooping, VACLs, and port security D. provide redundant aggregation for access layer devices and first-hop redundancy protocols such as VRRP Correct Answer: B Question #29 What is a VPN in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? A. common exchange point between two different services B. attribute to identify a set of services offered in specific places in the SD-WAN fabric C. virtualized environment that provides traffic isolation and segmentation in the SD- WAN fabric D. virtual channel used to carry control plane information Correct Answer: C Question #30 Which function does a fabric edge node perform in an SD-Access deployment? A. Connects endpoints to the fabric and forwards their traffic. B. Encapsulates end-user data traffic into LISP. C. Connects the SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. D. Provides reachability between border nodes in the fabric underlay. Correct Answer: A Question #31 What is the role of a fusion router in an SD-Access solution? A. acts as a DNS server B. provides additional forwarding capacity to the fabric C. performs route leaking between user-defined virtual networks and shared services D. provides connectivity to external networks Correct Answer: C Reference: 12 ClouCertified Practice Tests https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/cloud-systems-management/dna- center/213525-sda-steps-to-configure-fusion-router.html#anc1 Question #32 Which action is the vSmart controller responsible for in an SD-WAN deployment? A. onboard vEdge nodes into the SD-WAN fabric B. gather telemetry data from vEdge routers C. distribute security information for tunnel establishment between vEdge routers D. manage, maintain, and gather configuration and status for nodes within the SD- WAN fabric Correct Answer: C Question #33 What is one fact about Cisco SD-Access wireless network deployments? A. The access point is part of the fabric overlay. B. The wireless client is part of the fabric overlay. C. The access point is part of the fabric underlay. D. The WLC is part of the fabric underlay. Correct Answer: A Question #34 In a Cisco SD-Access solution, what is the role of a fabric edge node? A. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric B. to connect wired endpoints to the SD-Access fabric C. to advertise fabric IP address space to external networks D. to connect the fusion router to the SD-Access fabric Correct Answer: B Question #35 What are two reasons a company would choose a cloud deployment over an on-prem deployment? (Choose two.) A. Cloud costs adjust up or down depending on the amount of resources consumed. On-prem costs for hardware, power, and space are on-going regardless of usage. B. Cloud resources scale automatically to an increase in demand. On-prem requires additional capital expenditure. C. In a cloud environment, the company is in full control of access to their data. On- prem risks access to data due to service provider outages. D. In a cloud environment, the company controls technical issues. On-prem environments rely on the service provider to resolve technical issues. 13 ClouCertified Practice Tests E. Cloud deployments require long implementation times due to capital expenditure processes. On-prem deployments can be accomplished quickly using operational expenditure processes. Correct Answer: AB Question #36 What is the difference between the MAC address table and TCAM? A. TCAM is used to make L2 forwarding decisions. CAM is used to build routing tables. B. Router prefix lookups happen in CAM. MAC address table lookups happen in TCAM. C. The MAC address table supports partial matches. TCAM requires an exact match. D. The MAC address table is contained in CAM. ACL and QoS information is stored in TCAM. Correct Answer: D Question #37 Which controller is the single plane of management for Cisco SD-WAN? A. vBond B. vSmart C. vManage D. vEdge Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/SDWAN/CVD-SD-WAN- Design-2018OCT.pdf Question #38 A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilitates a migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design? A. two-tier B. Layer 2 access C. three-tier D. routed access Correct Answer: D Question #39 Which statement about a fabric access point is true? 14 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. B. It is in local mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. C. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric border node. D. It is in FlexConnect mode and must be connected directly to the fabric edge switch. Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/sda-sdg-2019oct.html Question #40 A customer requests a network design that supports these requirements: ✑ FHRP redundancy ✑ multivendor router environment ✑ IPv4 and IPv6 hosts Which protocol does the design include? A. VRRP version 2 B. VRRP version 3 C. GLBP D. HSRP version 2 Correct Answer: B Question #41 While configuring an IOS router for HSRP with a virtual IP of 10.1.1.1, an engineer sees this log message. Jan 1 12:12:12.111 : %HSRP-4-DIFFVIP1: GigabitEthernet0/0 Grp 1 active routers virtual IP address 10.1.1.1 is different to the locally configured address 10.1.1.25 Which configuration change must the engineer make? A. Change the HSRP group configuration on the local router to 1. B. Change the HSRP virtual address on the local router to 10.1.1.1. C. Change the HSRP virtual address on the remote router to 10.1.1.1. D. Change the HSRP group configuration on the remote router to 1. Correct Answer: B Question #42 A network administrator has designed a network with two multilayer switches on the distribution layer, which act as default gateways for the end hosts. Which two technologies allow every end host in a VLAN to use both gateways? (Choose two.) A. VRRP 15 ClouCertified Practice Tests B. GLBP C. VSS D. MHSRP E. HSRP Correct Answer: BC Question #43 Refer to the exhibit. On which interfaces should VRRP commands be applied to provide first hop redundancy to PC-01 and PC-02? A. G0/0 and G0/1 on Core B. G0/0 on Edge-01 and G0/0 on Edge-02 C. G0/1 on Edge-01 and G0/1 on Edge-02 D. G0/0 and G0/1 on ASW-01 Correct Answer: C Question #44 Under which network conditions is an outbound QoS policy that is applied on a router WAN interface most beneficial? A. under traffic classification and marking conditions B. under interface saturation conditions C. under all network conditions 16 ClouCertified Practice Tests D. under network convergence conditions Correct Answer: B Question #45 An engineer must configure HSRP group 300 on a Cisco IOS router. When the router is functional, it must be the active HSRP router. The peer router has been configured using the default priority value. Which command set is required? A. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 preempt B. standby 300 priority 110 standby 300 timers 1 110 C. standby version 2 standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt D. standby 300 priority 90 standby 300 preempt Correct Answer: A Question #46 What is the function of a fabric border node in a Cisco SD-Access environment? A. To collect traffic flow information toward external networks. B. To connect the Cisco SD-Access fabric to another fabric or external Layer 3 networks. C. To attach and register clients to the fabric. D. To handle an ordered list of IP addresses and locations for endpoints in the fabric. Correct Answer: B Question #47 In a wireless Cisco SD-Access deployment, which roaming method is used when a user moves from one AP to another on a different access switch using a single WLC? A. Layer 3 B. inter-xTR C. auto anchor D. fast roam Correct Answer: B Question #48 What is the recommended MTU size for a Cisco SD-Access Fabric? A. 4464 B. 17914 C. 9100 D. 1500 17 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: C Question #49 What is the function of the fabric control plane node in a Cisco SD-Access deployment? A. It is responsible for policy application and network segmentation in the fabric. B. It performs traffic encapsulation and security profiles enforcement in the fabric. C. It holds a comprehensive database that tracks endpoints and networks in the fabric. D. It provides integration with legacy nonfabric-enabled environments. Correct Answer: C Question #50 What is the data policy in a Cisco SD-WAN deployment? A. list of ordered statements that define node configurations and authentication used within the SD-WAN overlay B. set of statements that defines how data is forwarded based on IP packet information and specific VPNs C. detailed database mapping several kinds of addresses with their corresponding location D. group of services tested to guarantee devices and links liveliness within the SD- WAN overlay Correct Answer: B Question #51 In Cisco SD-WAN, which protocol is used to measure link quality? A. IPsec B. OMP C. RSVP D. BFD Correct Answer: D Question #52 What is used to perform QoS packet classification? A. the Type field in the Layer 2 frame B. the Options field in the Layer 3 header C. the TOS field in the Layer 3 header D. the Flags field in the Layer 3 header 18 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: C Question #53 How do cloud deployments differ from on-premises deployments? A. Cloud deployments require longer implementation times than on-premises deployments. B. Cloud deployments are more customizable than on-premises deployments. C. Cloud deployments have lower upfront costs than on-premises deployments. D. Cloud deployments require less frequent upgrades than on-premises deployments. Correct Answer: C Question #54 Which controller is capable of acting as a STUN server during the onboarding process of Edge devices? A. vBond B. vSmart C. vManage D. PNP Server Correct Answer: A Question #55 How is 802.11 traffic handled in a fabric-enabled SSID? A. centrally switched back to WLC where the user traffic is mapped to a VXLAN on the WLC B. converted by the AP into 802.3 and encapsulated into VXLAN C. centrally switched back to WLC where the user traffic is mapped to a VLAN on the WLC D. converted by the AP into 802.3 and encapsulated into a VLAN Correct Answer: B Question #56 19 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. When checking on the standby status of each router, the engineer notices that the routers are not functioning as expected. Which action will resolve the configuration error? A. configure matching hold and delay timers B. configure matching key-strings C. configure matching priority values D. configure unique virtual IP addresses Correct Answer: D Question #57 20 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Router1 is currently operating as the HSRP primary with a priority of 110. Router1 fails and Router2 takes over the forwarding role. Which command on Router1 causes it to take over the forwarding role when it returns to service? A. standby 2 priority B. standby 2 preempt C. standby 2 track D. standby 2 timers Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/hot-standby-router-protocol-hsrp/13780- 6.html Question #58 An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172 16.50.5/24. The engineer must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I- E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP scope on the switch as follows: Network 172.16.100.0 255.255.255.0 Default Router 172.16.100.1 - Option 43 ASCII 172.16.50.5 - 21 ClouCertified Practice Tests The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue? A. configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205 B. configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205 C. configure dns-server 172.16.50.5 D. configure dns-server 172. 16.100.1 Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/97066- dhcp-option-43-00.html Question #59 What is the role of vSmart in a Cisco SD-WAN environment? A. to establish secure control plane connections B. to monitor, configure, and maintain SD-WAN devices C. to provide secure data plane connectivity over WAN links D. to perform initial authentication of devices Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/sdwan/configuration/sdwan-xe-gs- book/system-overview.html Question #60 Which action is performed by Link Management Protocol in a Cisco StackWise Virtual domain? A. It determines which switch becomes active or standby. B. It determines if the hardware is compatible to form the StackWise Virtual domain. C. It rejects any unidirectional link traffic forwarding. D. It discovers the StackWise domain and brings up SVL interfaces. Correct Answer: C Question #61 What are two reasons why broadcast radiation is caused in the virtual machine environment? (Choose two.) A. vSwitch must interrupt the server CPU to process the broadcast packet. B. The Layer 2 domain can be large in virtual machine environments. C. Virtual machines communicate primarily through broadcast mode. D. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is broadcast based. E. Communication between vSwitch and network switch is multicast based. 22 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center- virtualization/net_implementation_white_paper0900aecd806a9c05.html Question #62 Which two GRE features are configured to prevent fragmentation? (Choose two.) A. TCP window size B. IP MTU C. TCP MSS D. DF bit clear E. MTU ignore Correct Answer: BC Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/generic-routing-encapsulation-gre/25885- pmtud-ipfrag.html Question #63 Which LISP device is responsible for publishing EID-to-RLOC mappings for a site? A. ETR B. MR C. ITR D. MS Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/locator-id- separation-protocol-lisp/white_paper_c11-652502.html Question #64 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that R1 is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1? 23 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. default VRF B. VRF VPN_A C. VRF VPN_B D. management VRF Correct Answer: A Question #65 What are two benefits of virtualizing the server with the use of VMs in a data center environment? (Choose two.) A. reduced rack space, power, and cooling requirements B. smaller Layer 2 domain C. increased security D. speedy deployment E. reduced IP and MAC address requirements Correct Answer: AD Question #66 Which statement about route targets is true when using VRF-Lite? A. Route targets control the import and export of routes into a customer routing table. B. When BGP is configured, route targets are transmitted as BGP standard communities. C. Route targets allow customers to be assigned overlapping addresses. D. Route targets uniquely identify the customer routing table. Correct Answer: A Question #67 Which LISP infrastructure device provides connectivity between non-LISP sites and LISP sites by receiving non-LISP traffic with a LISP site destination? A. PITR B. map resolver C. map server D. PETR Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5- 0/LISPmobility/DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html Question #68 24 ClouCertified Practice Tests Which statement explains why Type 1 hypervisor is considered more efficient than Type2 hypervisor? A. Type 1 hypervisor is the only type of hypervisor that supports hardware acceleration techniques. B. Type 1 hypervisor relies on the existing OS of the host machine to access CPU, memory, storage, and network resources. C. Type 1 hypervisor runs directly on the physical hardware of the host machine without relying on the underlying OS. D. Type 1 hypervisor enables other operating systems to run on it. Correct Answer: C Question #69 Which statement about VXLAN is true? A. VXLAN encapsulates a Layer 2 frame in an IP-UDP header, which allows Layer 2 adjacency across router boundaries. B. VXLAN uses the Spanning Tree Protocol for loop prevention. C. VXLAN extends the Layer 2 Segment ID field to 24-bits, which allows up to 4094 unique Layer 2 segments over the same network. D. VXLAN uses TCP as the transport protocol over the physical data center network. Correct Answer: A Question #70 Which TCP setting is tuned to minimize the risk of fragmentation on a GRE/IP tunnel? A. MSS B. MTU C. MRU D. window size Correct Answer: A Question #71 Which statement describes the IP and MAC allocation requirements for virtual machines on Type 1 hypervisors? A. Virtual machines do not require a unique IP or unique MAC. They share the IP and MAC address of the physical server. B. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP address but shares the MAC address with the physical server. C. Each virtual machine requires a unique IP and MAC addresses to be able to reach to other nodes. 25 ClouCertified Practice Tests D. Each virtual machine requires a unique MAC address but shares the IP address with the physical server. Correct Answer: C Question #72 Which two namespaces does the LISP network architecture and protocol use? (Choose two.) A. TLOC B. RLOC C. DNS D. VTEP E. EID Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_lisp/configuration/xe-3s/irl- xe-3s-book/irl-overview.html Question #73 Which two entities are Type 1 hypervisors? (Choose two.) A. Oracle VM VirtualBox B. Microsoft Hyper-V C. VMware server D. VMware ESXi E. Microsoft Virtual PC Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://phoenixnap.com/kb/what-is-hypervisor-type-1-2 Question #74 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the LISP components from the left onto the functions they perform on the right. Not all options are used. 26 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Correct Answer: Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Data_Center/DCI/5- 0/LISPmobility/DCI_LISP_Host_Mobility/LISPmobile_2.html#:~:text=% E2%80%93%20Proxy%20ITR%20(PITR)%3A%20A,devices%20deployed%20at%20LISP%20site s. Question #75 Which action is a function of VTEP in VXLAN? A. tunneling traffic from IPv6 to IPv4 VXLANs B. allowing encrypted communication on the local VXLAN Ethernet segment C. encapsulating and de-encapsulating VXLAN Ethernet frames D. tunneling traffic from IPv4 to IPv6 VXLANs 27 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: C Question #76 Which two actions provide controlled Layer 2 network connectivity between virtual machines running on the same hypervisor? (Choose two.) A. Use a virtual switch provided by the hypervisor. B. Use a virtual switch running as a separate virtual machine. C. Use VXLAN fabric after installing VXLAN tunneling drivers on the virtual machines. D. Use a single routed link to an external router on stick. E. Use a single trunk link to an external Layer2 switch. Correct Answer: AE Question #77 What is a Type 1 hypervisor? A. runs directly on a physical server and depends on a previously installed operating system B. runs directly on a physical server and includes its own operating system C. runs on a virtual server and depends on an already installed operating system D. runs on a virtual server and includes its own operating system Correct Answer: B Question #78 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures a GRE tunnel and enters the show interface tunnel command. What does the output confirm about the configuration? 28 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. The keepalive value is modified from the default value. B. The physical interface MTU is 1476 bytes. C. The tunnel mode is set to the default. D. Interface tracking is configured. Correct Answer: C Question #79 What it the purpose of the LISP routing and addressing architecture? A. It creates two entries for each network node, one for its identity and another for its location on the network. B. It allows LISP to be applied as a network virtualization overlay though encapsulation. C. It allows multiple instances of a routing table to co-exist within the same router. D. It creates head-end replication used to deliver broadcast and multicast frames to the entire network. Correct Answer: A Question #80 What function does VXLAN perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment? A. policy plane forwarding B. control plane forwarding C. data plane forwarding D. systems management and orchestration Correct Answer: C Question #81 Refer to the exhibit. MTU has been configured on the underlying physical topology, and no MTU command has been configured on the tunnel interfaces. 29 ClouCertified Practice Tests What happens when a 1500-byte IPv4 packet traverses the GRE tunnel from host X to host Y, assuming the DF bit is cleared? A. The packet is discarded on router B B. The packet arrives on router C without fragmentation C. The packet arrives on router C fragmented D. The packet is discarded on router A Correct Answer: C Question #82 Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments in a VXLAN environment? A. VNID B. switch fabric C. VTEP D. host switch Correct Answer: A Question #83 What is an emulated machine that has dedicated compute, memory, and storage resources and a fully installed operating system? A. mainframe B. host C. virtual machine D. container Correct Answer: C Question #84 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used. 30 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Answer: Question #85 Which technology does VXLAN use to provide segmentation for Layer 2 and Layer 3 traffic? 31 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. bridge domain B. VLAN C. VNI D. VRF Correct Answer: C Question #86 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must assign an IP address of 192.168.1.1/24 to the GigabitEthernet1 interface. Which two commands must be added to the existing configuration to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Router(config-if)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 B. Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv4 C. Router(config-vrf)#ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0 D. Router(config-if)#address-family ipv4 E. Router(config-vrf)#address-family ipv6 Correct Answer: AB Question #87 The following system log message is presented after a network administrator configures a GRE tunnel: %TUN-RECURDOWN Interface Tunnel 0 temporarily disabled due to recursive routing Why is Tunnel 0 disabled? A. Because dynamic routing is not enabled. B. Because the tunnel cannot reach its tunnel destination. C. Because the best path to the tunnel destination is through the tunnel itself. D. Because the router cannot recursively identify its egress forwarding interface. 32 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: C Question #88 What is a benefit of using a Type 2 hypervisor instead of a Type 1 hypervisor? A. better application performance B. improved security because the underlying OS is eliminated C. improved density and scalability D. ability to operate on hardware that is running other OSs Correct Answer: D Question #89 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec profiles. Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two). A. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set ACL, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface. B. Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode ipsec ipv4. 33 ClouCertified Practice Tests C. Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the ACL. D. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set, and apply the profile to the tunnel interface. E. Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24. Correct Answer: CD Question #90 What is a benefit of a virtual machine when compared with a physical server? A. Multiple virtual servers can be deployed on the same physical server without having to buy additional hardware. B. Virtual machines increase server processing performance. C. The CPU and RAM resources on a virtual machine cannot be affected by other virtual machines. D. Deploying a virtual machine is technically less complex than deploying a physical server. Correct Answer: A Question #91 What is required for a virtual machine to run? A. a Type 1 hypervisor and a host operating system B. a hypervisor and physical server hardware C. only a Type 1 hypervisor D. only a Type 2 hypervisor Correct Answer: B Question #92 Which entity is a Type 1 hypervisor? A. Oracle VM VirtualBox B. Citrix XenServer C. VMware server D. Microsoft Virtual PC Correct Answer: B Question #93 What are two benefits of virtual switching when compared to hardware switching? (Choose two.) 34 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. increased MTU size B. VM-level isolation C. extended 802.1Q VLAN range D. hardware independence E. increased flexibility Correct Answer: DE Question #94 What is a characteristic of a virtual machine? A. It must run the same operating system as its host. B. It is deployable without a hypervisor to host it. C. It must be aware of other virtual machines, in order to allocate physical resources for them. D. It relies on hypervisors to allocate computing resources for it. Correct Answer: D Question #95 Which LISP component is required for a LISP site to communicate with a non-LISP site? A. Proxy ITR B. ITR C. ETR D. Proxy ETR Correct Answer: D Question #96 Which two components are supported by LISP? (Choose two.) A. proxy ETR B. egress tunnel router C. route reflector D. HMAC algorithm E. spoke Correct Answer: AB Question #97 What is the function of a VTEP in VXLAN? A. provide the routing underlay and overlay for VXLAN headers B. dynamically discover the location of end hosts in a VXLAN fabric C. encapsulate and de-encapsulate traffic into and out of the VXLAN fabric 35 ClouCertified Practice Tests D. statically point to end host locations of the VXLAN fabric Correct Answer: C Question #98 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration must be applied to R1 to enable R1 to reach the server at 172.16.0.1? A. interface Ethernet0/0 ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf bank network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 B. interface Ethernet0/0 vrf forwarding hotel ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf Hotel network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 C. interface Ethernet0/0 vrf forwarding bank ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf bank network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0 D. interface Ethernet0/0 ip address 172.16.0.7 255.255.0.0 router ospf 44 vrf hotel network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 Correct Answer: C Question #99 36 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration allows Customer2 hosts to access the FTP server of Customer1 that has the IP address of 192.168.1.200? A. ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20 B. ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.255 172.16.1.1 global ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.1 global ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan10 ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 Vlan20 C. ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer2 ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer1 D. ip route vrf Customer1 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.1.1 Customer1 ip route vrf Customer2 192.168.1.200 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.1 Customer2 Correct Answer: A Question #100 37 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures a new GRE tunnel and enters the show run command. What does the output verify? A. The tunnel keepalive is configured incorrectly because they must match on both sites. B. The tunnel destination will be known via the tunnel interface. C. The tunnel will be established and work as expected. D. The default MTU of the tunnel interface is 1500 bytes. Answer: B Question #101 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the virtual components from the left onto their descriptions on the right. Select and Place: 38 ClouCertified Practice Tests Answer: Question #102 Which element enables communication between guest VMs within a virtualized environment? A. hypervisor B. virtual router C. vSwitch D. pNIC Correct Answer: C Each VM is provided with a virtual NIC (vNIC) that is connected to the virtual switch. Multiple vNICs can connect to a single vSwitch, allowing VMs on a physical host to communicate with one another at layer 2 without having to go out to a physical switch. Question #103 Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.) A. Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz. B. Reduce AP transmit power. C. Enable Fastlane. D. Increase minimum mandatory data rate. E. Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz. Correct Answer: BD Question #104 Which antenna type should be used for a site-to-site wireless connection? A. patch B. dipole C. omnidirectional 39 ClouCertified Practice Tests D. Yagi Correct Answer: D Question #105 In a wireless network environment, what is calculated using the numerical values of the transmitter power level, cable loss, and antenna gain? A. SNR B. RSSI C. EIRP D. dBi Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless-mobility/wireless-lan-wlan/23231- powervalues-23231.html Question #106 What does the LAP send when multiple WLCs respond to the CISCO-CAPWAP- CONTROLLER.localdomain hostname during the CAPWAP discovery and join process? A. unicast discovery request to the first WLC that resolves the domain name B. broadcast discovery request C. join request to all the WLCs D. unicast discovery request to each WLC Correct Answer: D Question #107 40 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. A port channel is configured between SW2 and SW3. SW2 is not running a Cisco operating system. When all physical connections are made, the port channel does not establish. Based on the configuration excerpt of SW3, what is the cause of the problem? A. The port-channel mode should be set to auto. B. The port channel on SW2 is using an incompatible protocol. C. The port-channel trunk is not allowing the native VLAN. D. The port-channel interface load balance should be set to src-mac. Correct Answer: B Question #108 What is a fact about Cisco EAP-FAST? A. It requires a client certificate. B. It is an IETF standard. C. It does not require a RADIUS server certificate. 41 ClouCertified Practice Tests D. It operates in transparent mode. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan- controllers/99791-eapfast-wlc-rad-config.html Question #109 Which DNS lookup does an access point perform when attempting CAPWAP discovery? A. CISCO-CONTROLLER.local B. CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local C. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.local D. CISCO-DNA-CONTROLLER.local Correct Answer: C Reference: http://www.revolutionwifi.net/revolutionwifi/2010/11/capwap-controller-discovery- process_23.html Question #110 Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.) A. It establishes a one-to-one NAT translation. B. The 209.165.201.0/27 subnet is assigned as the outside local address range. C. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside local addresses. D. Inside source addresses are translated to the 209.165.201.0/27 subnet. E. The 10.1.1.0/27 subnet is assigned as the inside global address range. Correct Answer: CD Question #111 An engineer configures a WLAN with fast transition enabled. Some legacy clients fail to connect to this WLAN. Which feature allows the legacy clients to connect while still allowing other clients to use fast transition based on their OUIs? A. over the DS B. 802.11k C. adaptive R D. 802.11v 42 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: C Question #112 What are two common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks? (Choose two.) A. LED lights B. radar C. fire alarm D. conventional oven E. rogue AP Correct Answer: BE Question #113 Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.) A. transmit power B. noise floor C. EIRP D. RSSI E. antenna gain Correct Answer: BD Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/snr-rssi-eirp-and-free-space- path-loss/ta-p/3128478 Question #114 Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices? A. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast B. broadcast to nonbroadcast C. point-to-multipoint to broadcast D. broadcast to point-to-point Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.freeccnaworkbook.com/workbooks/ccna/configuring-ospf-network-types Question #115 43 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which statement about the OSPF debug output is true? A. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1. B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces. C. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on interface Fa0/1. D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received. Correct Answer: A Question #116 Which statement about multicast RPs is true? A. RPs are required only when using protocol independent multicast dense mode. B. RPs are required for protocol independent multicast sparse mode and dense mode. C. By default, the RP is needed periodically to maintain sessions with sources and receivers. D. By default, the RP is needed only to start new sessions with sources and receivers. Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/solutions_docs/ip_multicast/White_papers/rp s.html Question #117 To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect? A. Active B. Passive C. On D. Auto 44 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: C Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta- p/3128669 Question #118 Based on this interface configuration, what is the expected state of OSPF adjacency? A. 2WAY/DROTHER on both routers B. not established C. FULL on both routers D. FULL/BDR on R1 and FULL/BDR on R2 Correct Answer: B Question #119 45 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Link1 is a copper connection and Link2 is a fiber connection. The fiber port must be the primary port for all forwarding. The output of the show spanning-tree command on SW2 shows that the fiber port is blocked by spanning tree. An engineer enters the spanning-tree port-priority 32 command on G0/1 on SW2, but the port remains blocked. Which command should be entered on the ports that are connected to Link2 to resolve the issue? A. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 4 on SW2. B. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 32 on SW1. C. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 224 on SW1. D. Enter spanning-tree port-priority 64 on SW2. Correct Answer: B Question #120 Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP version is changed from 1 to 2? A. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router. B. No changes occur because version 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI. C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed. D. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed. 46 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: C Question #121 Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address becomes the active next hop for 192.168.102.0/24 when 192.168.101.2 fails? A. 192.168.101.10 B. 192.168.101.14 C. 192.168.101.6 D. 192.168.101.18 Correct Answer: D Question #122 Which PAgP mode combination prevents an EtherChannel from forming? A. auto/desirable B. desirable/desirable C. desirable/auto D. auto/auto Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.omnisecu.com/cisco-certified-network-associate-ccna/etherchannel-pagp- and-lacp-modes.php Question #123 If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router? A. router with the lowest priority B. router with the highest priority C. router with the highest loopback address D. router with the lowest loopback address 47 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: B Question #124 Which two mechanisms are available to secure NTP? (Choose two.) A. IPsec B. IP prefix list-based C. encrypted authentication D. TACACS-based authentication E. IP access list-based Correct Answer: CE Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/bsm/configuration/xe- 3se/3650/bsm-xe-3se-3650-book.html Question #125 In OSPF, which LSA type is responsible for pointing to the ASBR router? A. type 1 B. type 2 C. type 3 D. type 4 Correct Answer: D Question #126 Refer to the exhibit. VLANs 50 and 60 exist on the trunk links between all switches. All access ports on SW3 are configured for VLAN 50 and SW1 is the VTP server. Which command ensures that SW3 receives frames only from VLAN 50? A. SW1(config)#vtp mode transparent B. SW3(config)#vtp mode transparent C. SW2(config)#vtp pruning D. SW1(config)#vtp pruning Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.orbit-computer-solutions.com/vtp-pruning/ 48 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #127 Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol maximizes uplink utilization and minimizes the amount of configuration that is necessary? A. GLBP B. HSRP v2 C. VRRP D. HSRP v1 Correct Answer: A Question #128 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP? A. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 B. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 C. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 192.168.10.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#network 10.0.0.0 mask 255.0.0.0 D. R1(config)#router bgp 1 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 remote-as 2 R1(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 update-source lo0 R1(config-router)#network 10.1.1.0 mask 255.255.255.0 R2(config)#router bgp 2 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 remote-as 1 R2(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 update-source lo0 R2(config-router)#network 10.2.2.0 mask 255.255.255.0 49 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: A Question #129 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna do the radiation patterns present? A. Yagi B. patch C. omnidirectional D. dipole Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-antennas- accessories/prod_white_paper0900aecd806a1a3e.html Question #130 Which reason could cause an OSPF neighborship to be in the EXSTART/EXCHANGE state? A. mismatched OSPF link costs B. mismatched OSPF network type C. mismatched areas D. mismatched MTU size Correct Answer: D Reference: 50 ClouCertified Practice Tests https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13684- 12.html#neighbors Question #131 When configuring WPA2 Enterprise on a WLAN, which additional security component configuration is required? A. PKI server B. NTP server C. RADIUS server D. TACACS server Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan- controllers/100708-wpa-uwn-config.html#conf Question #132 A customer has several small branches and wants to deploy a Wi-Fi solution with local management using CAPWAP. Which deployment model meets this requirement? A. local mode B. autonomous C. SD-Access wireless D. Mobility Express Correct Answer: D Question #133 51 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. The WLC administrator sees that the controller to which a roaming client associates has Mobility Role Anchor configured under Clients > Detail. Which type of roaming is supported? A. indirect B. Layer 3 intercontroller C. intracontroller D. Layer 2 intercontroller Correct Answer: B Question #134 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the correct routing protocol types on the right. 52 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Answer: Question #135 Which feature is supported by EIGRP but is not supported by OSPF? A. route filtering B. unequal-cost load balancing C. route summarization D. equal-cost load balancing Correct Answer: B Question #136 53 ClouCertified Practice Tests What is the correct EBGP path attribute list, ordered from most preferred to least preferred, that the BGP best-path algorithm uses? A. local preference, weight, AS path, MED B. weight, local preference, AS path, MED C. weight, AS path, local preference, MED D. local preference, weight, MED, AS path Correct Answer: B Question #137 A local router shows an EBGP neighbor in the Active state. Which statement is true about the local router? A. The local router is attempting to open a TCP session with the neighboring router. B. The local router is receiving prefixes from the neighboring router and adding them in RIB-IN. C. The local router has active prefixes in the forwarding table from the neighboring router. D. The local router has BGP passive mode configured for the neighboring router. Correct Answer: A Question #138 54 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. SwitchC connects HR and Sales to the Core switch. However, business needs require that no traffic from the Finance VLAN traverse this switch. Which command meets this requirement? A. SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning vlan 110 B. SwitchC(config)#vtp pruning C. SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan add 210,310 D. SwitchC(config)#interface port-channel 1 SwitchC(config-if)#switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 110 55 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: D D (86%) 14% Question #139 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must ensure that all traffic leaving AS 200 will choose Link 2 as the exit point. Assuming that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers, which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R4(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200 B. R3(config-router)bgp default local-preference 200 C. R4(config-router)neighbor 10.2.2.2 weight 200 D. R3(config-router)neighbor 10.1.1.1 weight 200 Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/13753- 25.html#:~:text=Border%20Gateway%20Protocol%20(BGP)% 20routers,to%20use%20for%20traffic%20forwarding. Question #140 Which feature of EIGRP is not supported in OSPF? 56 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. load balancing of unequal-cost paths B. load balance over four equal-cost paths C. uses interface bandwidth to determine best path D. per-packet load balancing over multiple paths Correct Answer: A Question #141 Which NTP Stratum level is a server that is connected directly to an authoritative time source? A. Stratum 0 B. Stratum 1 C. Stratum 14 D. Stratum 15 Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr920/configuration/guide/bsm/16-6- 1/b-bsm-xe-16-6-1-asr920/bsm-time-calendar-set.html Question #142 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer reconfigures the port-channel between SW1 and SW2 from an access port to a trunk and immediately notices this error in SW1's log: *Mar 1 09:47:22.245: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: bpduguard error detected on Gi0/0, putting Gi0/0 in err-disable state Which command set resolves this error? A. SW1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 SW1(config-if)#no spanning-tree bpdufilter SW1(config-if)#shut SW1(config-if)#no shut B. SW1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 SW1(config-if)#no spanning-tree bpduguard enable SW1(config-if)#shut SW1(config-if)#no shut C. SW1(config-if)#interface Gi0/0 SW1(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard enable SW1(config-if)#shut SW1(config-if)#no shut D. SW1(config-if)#interface Gi0/1 SW1(config-if)#spanning-tree bpduguard enable SW1(config-if)#shut SW1(config-if)#no shut Correct Answer: B 57 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #143 When a wireless client roams between two different wireless controllers, a network connectivity outage is experienced for a period of time. Which configuration issue would cause this problem? A. Not all of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name. B. Not all of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address. C. All of the controllers within the mobility group are using the same virtual interface IP address. D. All of the controllers in the mobility group are using the same mobility group name. Correct Answer: B Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan- controllers/107188-mobility-groups-faq.html Question #144 What is the role of the RP in PIM sparse mode? A. The RP maintains default aging timeouts for all multicast streams requested by the receivers. B. The RP acts as a control-plane node only and does not receive or forward multicast packets. C. The RP is the multicast router that is the root of the PIM-SM shared multicast distribution tree. D. The RP responds to the PIM join messages with the source of a requested multicast group. Correct Answer: C Question #145 Why is an AP joining a different WLC than the one specified through option 43? A. The AP is joining a primed WLC B. The APs broadcast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 2 C. The AP multicast traffic is unable to reach the WLC through Layer 3 D. The WLC is running a different software version Correct Answer: A Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless- controllers/119286-lap-notjoin-wlc-tshoot.html#:~:text=on%20document% 20conventions.- 58 ClouCertified Practice Tests ,Overview%20of%20the%20Wireless%20LAN%20Controller%20(WLC)%20Discovery%20and %20Join%20Process,-In%20a%20Cisco Question #146 Company policy restricts VLAN 10 to be allowed only on SW1 and SW2. All other VLANs can be on all three switches. An administrator has noticed that VLAN 10 has propagated to SW3. Which configuration corrects the issue? A. SW1(config)#int gi1/1 SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 B. SW2(config)#int gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 C. SW2(config)#int gi1/2 SW2(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-9,11-4094 D. SW1(config)#int gi1/1 SW1(config)#switchport trunk allowed vlan 10 Correct Answer: C Question #147 Which First Hop Redundancy Protocol should be used to meet a design requirement for more efficient default gateway bandwidth usage across multiple devices? A. GLBP B. LACP C. HSRP D. VRRP Correct Answer: A Question #148 A client device roams between access points located on different floors in an atrium. The access points are joined to the same controller and configured in local mode. The access points are in different AP groups and have different IP addresses, but the client VLAN in the groups is the same. Which type of roam occurs? A. inter-controller B. inter-subnet C. intra-VLAN D. intra-controller 59 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-3/config- guide/b_cg83/b_cg83_chapter_010011.html Question #149 Which DHCP option helps lightweight APs find the IP address of a wireless LAN controller? A. Option 43 B. Option 60 C. Option 67 D. Option 150 Correct Answer: A Question #150 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring OSPF between router R1 and router R2. The engineer must ensure that a DR/BDR election does not occur on the Gigabit Ethernet interfaces in area 0. Which configuration set accomplishes this goal? A. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point R2(config- if)interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)ip ospf network point-to-point B. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast R2(config- if)interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)ip ospf network broadcast C. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out R2(config- if)interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)ip ospf database-filter all out D. R1(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R1(config-if)ip ospf priority 1 R2(config-if)interface Gi0/0 R2(config-if)ip ospf priority 1 Correct Answer: A Question #151 60 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna does the radiation pattern represent? A. multidirectional B. directional patch C. omnidirectional D. Yagi Correct Answer: D Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/wireless/aironet-antennas- accessories/prod_white_paper0900aecd806a1a3e.html Question #152 Wireless users report frequent disconnections from the wireless network. While troubleshooting, a network engineer finds that after the user is disconnected, the connection re-establishes automatically without any input required. The engineer also notices these message logs: AP 'AP2' is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:54:04 PM AP 'AP4' is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:44:49 PM AP 'AP7' is down. Reason: Radio channel set. 6:34:32 PM Which action reduces the user impact? A. enable coverage hole detection B. increase the AP heartbeat timeout C. enable BandSelect D. increase the dynamic channel assignment interval 61 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: D Question #153 Refer to the exhibit. The inside and outside interfaces in the NAT configuration of this device have been correctly identified. What is the effect of this configuration? A. NAT64 B. dynamic NAT C. static NAT D. PAT Correct Answer: D Question #154 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right. Select and Place: 62 ClouCertified Practice Tests Answer: Question #155 What is the purpose of an RP in PIM? A. send join messages toward a multicast source SPT B. ensure the shortest path from the multicast source to the receiver C. receive IGMP joins from multicast receivers D. secure the communication channel between the multicast sender and receiver Correct Answer: A Question #156 63 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which command must be applied to R2 for an OSPF neighborship to form? A. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.0.0 area 0 B. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.0.0 area 0 C. network 20.1.1.2 255.255.255.255 area 0 D. network 20.1.1.2 0.0.255.255 area 0 Correct Answer: B Question #157 64 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which router is the designated router on the segment 192.168.0.0/24? A. This segment has no designated router because it is a p2p network type. B. Router Chicago because it has a lower router ID. C. Router NewYork because it has a higher router ID. D. This segment has no designated router because it is a nonbroadcast network type. Correct Answer: A Question #158 65 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands are needed to allow for full reachability between AS 1000 and AS 2000? (Choose two.) A. R2#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 B. R2#network 209.165.201.0 mask 255.255.192.0 C. R2#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 D. R1#no network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 E. R1#network 192.168.0.0 mask 255.255.0.0 Correct Answer: AC Question #159 66 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. An engineer attempts to configure a router on a stick to route packets between Clients, Servers, and Printers; however, initial tests show that this configuration is not working. Which command set resolves this issue? A. interface Vlan10 no ip vrf forwarding Clients ! interface Vlan20 no ip vrf forwarding Servers ! interface Vlan30 no ip vrf forwarding Printers B. router eigrp 1 network 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 network 172.16.0.0 255.255.255.0 network 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 C. interface Vlan10 no ip vrf forwarding Clients ip address 192.168.1.1. 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan20 no ip vrf forwarding Servers ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.0 ! interface Vlan30 no ip vrf forwarding Printers ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 D. router eigrp 1 network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 network 192.168.1.0 255.255.0.0 Correct Answer: C Question #160 How does SSO work with HSRP to minimize network disruptions? A. It enables HSRP to elect another switch in the group as the active HSRP switch. B. It ensures fast failover in the case of link failure. 67 ClouCertified Practice Tests C. It enables data forwarding along known routes following a switchover, while the routing protocol reconverges. D. It enables HSRP to failover to the standby RP on the same device. Correct Answer: D Question #161 Refer to the exhibit. Which command when applied to the Atlanta router reduces type 3 LSA flooding into the backbone area and summarizes the inter-area routes on the Dallas router? A. Atlanta(config-router)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 B. Atlanta(config-router)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0 C. Atlanta(config-router)#area 0 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.248.0 D. Atlanta(config-router)#area 1 range 192.168.0.0 255.255.252.0 Correct Answer: D Question #162 An engineer must configure interface GigabitEthernet0/0 for VRRP group 10. When the router has the highest priority in the group, it must assume the master role. Which command set must be added to the initial configuration to accomplish this task? Initial Configuration - interface GigabitEthernet0/0 description To IDF A 38-24-044.40 ip address 172.16.13.2 255.255.255.0 A. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 standby 10 preempt B. vrrp group 10 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 vrrp group 10 priority 68 ClouCertified Practice Tests C. standby 10 ip 172.16.13.254 standy 10 priority 120 D. vrrp 10 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 10 preempt Correct Answer: D Question #163 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the routing protocols they describe on the right. Select and Place: 69 ClouCertified Practice Tests Answer: Question #164 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes the root bridge for VLAN 10 and 20? (Choose two.) 70 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 4096 B. spanning-tree mst 1 root primary C. spanning-tree mst vlan 10,20 priority root D. spanning-tree mst 1 priority 1 E. spanning-tree mstp vlan 10,20 root primary Correct Answer: AB Question #165 Refer to the exhibit. R1 is able to ping the R3 fa0/1 interface. Why do the extended pings fail? A. The maximum packet size accepted by the command is 1476 bytes. B. The DF bit has been set. C. R3 is missing a return route to 10.99.69.0/30. D. R2 and R3 do not have an OSPF adjacency. Correct Answer: B 71 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #166 Refer to the exhibit. Which command allows hosts that are connected to FastEthernet0/2 to access the Internet? A. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload B. ip nat inside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/1 overload C. ip nat outside source static 209.165.200.225 10.10.10.0 overload D. ip nat outside source list 10 interface FastEthernet0/2 overload Correct Answer: B Question #167 Refer to the exhibit. What are two effects of this configuration? (Choose two.) 72 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active but reverts to standby when R1 comes back online. B. If R2 goes down, R1 becomes active but reverts to standby when R2 comes back online. C. R1 becomes the active router. D. R1 becomes the standby router. E. If R1 goes down, R2 becomes active and remains the active device when R1 comes back online. Correct Answer: CE Question #168 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must ensure that all traffic entering AS 200 from AS 100 chooses Link 2 as an entry point. Assume that all BGP neighbor relationships have been formed and that the attributes have not been changed on any of the routers. Which configuration accomplishes this task? A. R3(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R3(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 200 200 200 R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3#(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map PREPEND out B. R4(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R4(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 100 100 100 R4(config)#router bgp 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-map PREPEND in C. R4(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R4(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 200 200 200 R4(config)#router bgp 200 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.2.2.2 route-map PREPEND out 73 ClouCertified Practice Tests D. R3(config)#route-map PREPEND permit 10 R3(config-route-map)#set as-path prepend 100 100 100 R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.1.1.1 route-map PREPEND in Correct Answer: A Question #169 Which DHCP option provides the CAPWAP APs with the address of the wireless controller(s)? A. 43 B. 66 C. 69 D. 150 Correct Answer: A Question #170 Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands ensure that DSW1 becomes root bridge for VLAN 10? (Choose two.) A. DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 4096 B. DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 10 priority root C. DSW2(config)#spanning-tree vlan 10 priority 61440 D. DSW1(config)#spanning-tree vlan 10 port-priority 0 E. DSW2(config)#spanning-tree vlan 20 priority 0 Correct Answer: AC Question #171 74 ClouCertified Practice Tests What mechanism does PIM use to forward multicast traffic? A. PIM sparse mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic. B. PIM dense mode uses a pull model to deliver multicast traffic. C. PIM sparse mode uses receivers to register with the RP. D. PIM sparse mode uses a flood and prune model to deliver multicast traffic. Correct Answer: A Question #172 Refer to the exhibit. The traceroute fails from R1 to R3. What is the cause of the failure? A. An ACL applied inbound on loopback0 of R2 is dropping the traffic. B. The loopback on R3 is in a shutdown state. C. Redistribution of connected routes into OSPF is not configured. D. An ACL applied inbound on fa0/1 of R3 is dropping the traffic. Correct Answer: D Question #173 75 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must establish eBGP peering between router R3 and router R4. Both routers should use their loopback interfaces as the BGP router ID. Which configuration set accomplishes this task? A. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)# neighbor 10.4.4.4 update-source Loopback0 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200 R4(config- router)#network 10.3.3.3 update-source Loopback0 B. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 update-source Loopback0 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200 R4(config- router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 update-source Loopback0 C. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.4.4.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config- router)#neighbor 10.3.3.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4 D. R3(config)#router bgp 200 R3(config-router)#neighbor 10.24.24.4 remote-as 100 R3(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.3.3.3 R4(config)#router bgp 100 R4(config- router)#neighbor 10.24.24.3 remote-as 200 R4(config-router)#bgp router-id 10.4.4.4 Correct Answer: D Question #174 An engineer is configuring GigabitEthernet1/0/0 for VRRP. When the router has the highest priority in group 5, it must assume the master role. Which command set should the engineer add to the configuration to accomplish this task? interface GigabitEthernet1/0/0 description To IDF A 38-70-774-10 ip address 172.16.13.2 255.255.255.0 A. standby 5 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 5 priority 100 standby 5 track 1 decrement 10 B. standby 5 ip 172.16.13.254 standby 5 priority 100 standby 5 preempt C. vrrp 5 ip 172.16.13.254 vrrp 5 priority 100 D. vrrp 5 ip 172.16.13.254 255.255.255.0 vrrp 5 track 1 decrement 10 vrrp 5 preempt Correct Answer: C 76 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #175 Which two security features are available when implementing NTP? (Choose two.) A. encrypted authentication mechanism B. symmetric server passwords C. clock offset authentication D. broadcast association mode E. access list-based restriction scheme Correct Answer: AE Question #176 How does the EIGRP metric differ from the OSPF metric? A. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth only. The OSPF metric is calculated on delay only. B. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on delay only. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay. C. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on bandwidth and delay. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth only. D. The EIGRP metric is calculated based on hop count and bandwidth. The OSPF metric is calculated on bandwidth and delay. Correct Answer: C By default, EIGRP metric is calculated: metric = bandwidth + delay While OSPF is calculated by: OSPF metric = Reference bandwidth / Interface bandwidth in bps Question #177 Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is installing a new pair of routers in a redundant configuration. Which protocol ensures that traffic is not disrupted in the event of a hardware failure? A. HSRPv1 B. GLBP C. VRRP D. HSRPv2 77 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: A The ‫ג‬€virtual MAC address‫ג‬€ is 0000.0c07.acXX (XX is the hexadecimal group number) so it is using HSRPv1. HSRP Version 2 uses a new MAC address which ranges from 0000.0C9F.F000 to 0000.0C9F.FFFF. Question #178 Refer to the exhibit. After an engineer configures an EtherChannel between switch SW1 and switch SW2, this error message is logged on switch SW2: SW2# 09:45:32: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: channel-misconfig error detected on Gi0/0, putting Gi0/0 in err-disable state 09:45:32: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: channel-misconfig error detected on Gi0/1, putting Gi0/1 in err-disable state Based on the output from switch SW1 and the log message received on switch SW2, what action should the engineer take to resolve this issue? A. Configure the same protocol on the EtherChannel on switch SW1 and SW2. B. Define the correct port members on the EtherChannel on switch SW1. C. Correct the configuration error on Interface Gi0/0 on switch SW1. D. Correct the configuration error on Interface Gi0/1 on switch SW1. Correct Answer: B Question #179 78 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Communication between London and New York is down. Which command set must be applied to resolve this issue? A. NewYork(config)#int f0/1 NewYork(config)#switchport nonegotiate NewYork(config)#end NewYork# B. NewYork(config)#int f0/1 NewYork(config)#switchport mode trunk NewYork(config)#end NewYork# C. NewYork(config)#int f0/1 NewYork(config)#switchport trunk encap dot1q NewYork(config)#end NewYork# D. NewYork(config)#int f0/1 NewYork(config)#switchport mode dynamic desirable NewYork(config)#end NewYork# Correct Answer: C Question #180 Which encryption hashing algorithm does NTP use for authentication? A. SSL B. MD5 C. AES128 D. AES256 Correct Answer: B Question #181 79 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. The trunk between Gig1/0/1 of switch SW2 and Gig1/0/1 of switch SW1 is not operational. Which action resolves this issue? A. Configure both interfaces to nonegotiate and ensure that the switches are in different VTP domains. B. Configure both interfaces in dynamic auto DTP mode and ensure that the switches are in the same VTP domain. C. Configure both interfaces in dynamic auto DTP mode and ensure that the switches are in different VTP domains. D. Configure both interfaces in dynamic desirable DTP mode and ensure that the switches are in the same VTP domain. Correct Answer: D Question #182 80 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which two facts does the device output confirm? (Choose two.) A. The device's HSRP group uses the virtual IP address 10.0.3.242. B. The device is configured with the default HSRP priority. C. The device sends unicast messages to its peers. D. The standby device is configured with the default HSRP priority. E. The device is using the default HSRP hello timer. Correct Answer: DE Question #183 Refer to the exhibit. Which type of antenna is shown on the radiation patterns? A. patch B. dipole C. omnidirectional D. Yagi Correct Answer: B Question #184 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the routing protocol they describe on the right. 81 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Correct Answer: Question #185 82 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. All switches are configured with the default port priority value. Which two commands ensure that traffic from PC1 is forwarded over the Gi1/3 trunk port between DSW1 and DSW2? (Choose two.) A. DSW2(config)#interface gi1/3 B. DSW1(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 0 C. DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 128 D. DSW1(config)#interface gi1/3 E. DSW2(config-if)#spanning-tree port-priority 16 Correct Answer: AE Question #186 A company has an existing Cisco 5520 HA cluster using SSO. An engineer deploys a new single Cisco Catalyst 9800 WLC to test new features. The engineer successfully configures a mobility tunnel between the 5520 cluster and 9800 WLC. Clients connected to the corporate WLAN roam seamlessly between access points on the 5520 and 9800 WLC. After a failure on the primary 5520 WLC, all WLAN services remain functional; however, clients cannot roam between the 5520 and 9800 controllers without dropping their connection. Which feature must be configured to remedy the issue? A. mobility MAC on the 5520 cluster B. mobility MAC on the 9800 WLC C. new mobility on the 5520 cluster D. new mobility on the 9800 WLC 83 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: A Question #187 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration change ensures that R1 is the active gateway whenever it is in a functional state for the 172.30.110.0/24 network? A. R2 standby 1 priority 90 standby 1 preempt B. R2 standby 1 priority 100 standby 1 preempt C. R1 standby 1 preempt R2 standby 1 priority 90 D. R1 standby 1 preempt R2 standby 1 priority 100 Correct Answer: C Question #188 A customer has completed the installation of a Wi-Fi 6 greenfield deployment at their new campus. They want to leverage Wi-Fi 6 enhanced speeds on the trusted employee WLAN. To configure the employee WLAN, which two Layer 2 security policies should be used? (Choose two.) A. WPA2 (AES) B. 802.1X C. OPEN D. WEP E. WPA (AES) Correct Answer: AB Question #189 Which two actions, when applied in the LAN network segment, will facilitate Layer 3 CAPWAP discovery for lightweight AP? (Choose two.) 84 ClouCertified Practice Tests A. Utilize DHCP option 43. B. Utilize DHCP option 17. C. Configure an ip helper-address on the router interface. D. Enable port security on the switch port. E. Configure WLC IP address on LAN switch Correct Answer: AC Question #190 85 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which action resolves the EtherChannel issue between SW2 and SW3? A. Configure switchport mode trunk on SW2. B. Configure switchport nonegotiate on SW3. C. Configure channel-group 1 mode desirable on both interfaces. D. Configure channel-group 1 mode active on both interfaces. Correct Answer: C 86 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #191 Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer configures OSPF and reviews the router configuration. Which interface or interfaces are able to establish OSPF adjacency? A. GigabitEthernet0/0 and GigabitEthernet0/1 B. only GigabitEthernet0/1 C. only GigabitEthernet0/0 D. GigabitEthernet0/1 and GigabitEthernet0/1.40 Correct Answer: C Question #192 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right. 87 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Answer: Question #193 Which two methods are used by an AP that is trying to discover a wireless LAN controller? (Choose two.) A. Cisco Discovery Protocol neighbor B. querying other APs C. DHCP Option 43 D. broadcasting on the local subnet E. DNS lookup CISCO-DNA-PRIMARY.localdomain Correct Answer: CD Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/5500-series-wireless- controllers/119286-lap-notjoin-wlc-tshoot.html#backinfo 88 ClouCertified Practice Tests Question #194 What is the responsibility of a secondary WLC? A. It enables Layer 2 and Layer 3 roaming between itself and the primary controller. B. It registers the LAPs if the primary controller fails. C. It avoids congestion on the primary controller by sharing the registration load on the LAPs. D. It shares the traffic load of the LAPs with the primary controller. Correct Answer: B Question #195 Refer to the exhibit. 89 ClouCertified Practice Tests Based on the configuration in this WLAN security setting, which method can a client use to authenticate to the network? A. text string B. username and password C. RADIUS token D. certificate Correct Answer: A Question #196 A client device fails to see the enterprise SSID, but other client devices are connected to it. What is the cause of this issue? A. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured broadcast SSID. B. The hidden SSID was not manually configured on the client. C. The broadcast SSID was not manually configured on the client. D. The client has incorrect credentials stored for the configured hidden SSID. Correct Answer: B Question #197 Which two descriptions of FlexConnect mode for Cisco APs are true? (Choose two.) A. APs that operate in FlexConnect mode cannot detect rogue APs. B. When connected to the controller, FlexConnect APs can tunnel traffic back to the controller. C. FlexConnect mode is used when the APs are set up in a mesh environment and used to bridge between each other. D. FlexConnect mode is a feature that is designed to allow specified CAPWAP- enabled APs to exclude themselves from managing data traffic between clients and infrastructure. E. FlexConnect mode is a wireless solution for branch office and remote office deployments. Correct Answer: BE Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/7- 2/configuration/guide/cg/cg_flexconnect.html Question #198 90 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. How was spanning-tree configured on this interface? A. By entering the command spanning-tree portfast trunk in the interface configuration mode. B. By entering the command spanning-tree mst1 vlan 10,20,30,40 in the global configuration mode. C. By entering the command spanning-tree portfast in the interface configuration mode. D. By entering the command spanning-tree vlan 10,20,30,40 root primary in the interface configuration mode. Correct Answer: A Question #199 Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ is enabled on all switches. Which command set must be configured on Switch1 to achieve the following results on port fa0/1? ✑ When a device is connected, the port transitions immediately to a forwarding state. ✑ The interface should not send or receive BPDUs. ✑ If a BPDU is received, it continues operating normally. A. Switch1(config)# spanning-tree portfast bpdufilter default Switch1(config)# interface f0/1 Switch1(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast B. Switch1(config)# spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default Switch 1 (config)# interface f0/1 Switch1 (config-if)# spanning-tree portfast C. Switch1(config)# interface f0/1 Switch1(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast D. Switch1(config)# interface f0/1 Switch1(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast Switch1 (config-if)# spanning-tree bpduguard enable 91 ClouCertified Practice Tests Correct Answer: A Question #200 Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209.165.201.0/27 via BR1? A. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound. B. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound. C. Set the weight attribute to 65,535 on BR1 toward PE1. D. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound. Correct Answer: A Question #201 DRAG DROP - Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the protocols they apply to on the right. 92 ClouCertified Practice Tests Select and Place: Correct Answer: Question #202 93 ClouCertified Practice Tests Refer to the exhibit. Which set of commands on router R1 allow deterministic translation of private hosts PC1, PC2, and PC3 to addresses in the public space? A. RouterR1(config)#int f0/0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#int f0/1 RouterR1(config)#ip nat outside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#access-list 1 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 interface f0/1 overload B. RouterR1(config)#int f0/0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#int f0/1 RouterR1(config)#ip nat outside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#access-list 1 10.10.10.0 0.0.0.255 RouterR1(config)#ip nat pool POOL 155.1.1.101 155.1.1.103 netmask 255.255.255.0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source list 1 pool POOL C. RouterR1(config)#int f0/0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#int f0/1 RouterR1(config)#ip nat outside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.101 155.1.1.101 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.102 155.1.1.102 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.103 155.1.1.103 D. RouterR1(config)#int f0/0 RouterR1(config)#ip nat outside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#int f0/1 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside RouterR1(config)#exit RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.101 155.1.1.101 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.102 155.1.1.102 RouterR1(config)#ip nat inside source static 10.10.10.103 155.1.1.103 Correct Answer: C Question