CHEM3040 Problems PDF - Chemical Thermodynamics
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This document contains a series of problems relating to chemical thermodynamics. Questions cover topics like functional groups, bond strengths, entropy, Gibbs free energy, and spontaneous reactions. This resource appears suitable for undergraduate chemistry students.
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CHEM3040 PROBLEMS 1. Which is an amine? 2. Which is a carboxylic acid? 3. Which is an alkyl phosphate? 4. Which is an alcohol functional group? 5. Which is an amide functional group? 6. Which is an alkyl sulfate? 7. Which bond has shared electrons? (a) noncovalent (b) shared (c) covalent (d)...
CHEM3040 PROBLEMS 1. Which is an amine? 2. Which is a carboxylic acid? 3. Which is an alkyl phosphate? 4. Which is an alcohol functional group? 5. Which is an amide functional group? 6. Which is an alkyl sulfate? 7. Which bond has shared electrons? (a) noncovalent (b) shared (c) covalent (d) polar (e) dipolar 8. Which bond type is not strongly affected by the environment? (a) ionic (b) H-bond (c) covalent (d) dipole-dipole (e) dispersion 9. Which type of bond does not generally form between proteins and ligands when they bind (a) salt bridge (b) H-bond (c) covalent (d) dipole-dipole (e) dispersion 10. Which bond gives more possible conformations (a) carbon-carbon (b) carbon-nitrogen (c) phosphodiester (d) van der Waals interactions 11. Rank the length of the bonds from longest to shortest: 1-amide bond, 2-carbon nitrogen double bond, 3-carbon nitrogen single bond, 4-H-bond between amides a. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 b. 3 > 1 > 4 > 2 c. 3 > 4 > 1 > 2 d. 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 e. 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 12. Which is the weakest bond in the gas phase? a. dipole-dipole b. hydrogen c. dispersion d. ionic 13. Which is the strongest bond in the gas phase? a. dipole-dipole b. hydrogen c. dispersion d. ionic 14. What type of bond is shown by the dotted line? a. H-bond b. ionic c. salt bridge d. dipole-dipole e. dispersion 15. What type of bond is shown by the dotted line? a. H-bond b. ionic c. salt bridge d. dipole-dipole e. dispersion 16. What type of bond is shown by the dotted lines? a. H-bond b. ionic c. salt bridge d. dipole-dipole e. dispersion 17. What type of bond is shown by the dotted line? a. H-bond b. ionic c. salt bridge d. dipole-dipole e. dispersion 18. What type of bond requires random shifts in e-clouds to form? a. H-bond b. ionic c. salt bridge d. dipole-dipole e. dispersion 19. Rank the compounds from highest to lowest in boiling points. a. 2 > 1 > 5 > 4 > 3 b. 5 > 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 c. 2 > 5 > 1 > 4 > 3 d. 5 > 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 e. 1 > 2 > 5 > 4 > 3 20. Rank the compounds from highest to lowest in boiling points. a. 2 > 1 > 5 > 4 > 3 b. 5 > 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 c. 2 > 5 > 1 > 4 > 3 d. 5 > 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 e. 1 > 2 > 5 > 4 > 3 21. Rank the compounds from highest to lowest in boiling points. a. 3 > 4 > 1 > 2 b. 4 > 2 > 1 > 3 c. 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 d. 4 > 3 > 2 > 1 e. 4 > 2 > 3 > 1 22. Rank the compounds from highest to lowest in boiling points. a. 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 b. 4 > 2 > 1 > 3 c. 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 d. 4 > 3 > 1 > 2 e. 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 23. Which molecule has the highest boiling point? 24. Rank the molecules from highest to lowest solubility in water. a. 2 > 5 > 4 > 3 > 1 b. 2 > 4 > 5 > 3 > 1 c. 5 > 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 d. 4 > 2 > 5 > 3 > 1 e. 4 > 2 > 3 > 5 > 1 25. Rank the molecules from highest to lowest solubility in hexane. a. 1 > 3 > 5 > 2 > 4 b. 1 > 3 > 5 > 4 > 2 c. 3 > 1 > 5 > 4 > 2 d. 4 > 3 > 5 > 2 > 1 e. 3 > 1 > 4 > 2 > 5 26. Rank the molecules from highest to lowest solubility in water. a. 2 > 5 > 4 > 3 > 1 b. 2 > 4 > 5 > 3 > 1 c. 5 > 2 > 4 > 3 > 1 d. 4 > 2 > 5 > 3 > 1 e. 4 > 2 > 3 > 5 > 1 27. Rank the molecules from highest to lowest solubility in hexane. a. 2 > 5 > 4 > 3 > 1 b. 2 > 4 > 5 > 3 > 1 c. 5 > 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 d. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 > 5 e. 4 > 2 > 3 > 5 > 1 28. Which is more soluble in water: NaCl or ethanol? a. NaCl, full charges bind stronger to water b. Ethanol, its H-bonds form stronger bonds to water c. NaCl, it has two charged groups d. Ethanol, breaking NaCl’s ionic bond costs more energy 29. Which is more soluble in water: ethanol or acetic acid a. Ethanol, it has more hydrogen bond acceptors b. Ethanol, it has more hydrogen bond donors c. Acetic acid, it has more hydrogen bond acceptors d. Acetic acid, it has more hydrogen bond donors 30. Which is more soluble in water: ethanol or diethyl ether a. Ethanol, it has more hydrogen bond acceptors b. Ethanol, it has a hydrogen bond donor c. Diethyl ether, it has more hydrogen bond acceptors d. Diethyl ether, it has a hydrogen bond donor 31. Which molecule has the most wasted heat, assuming all have the same boiling point? 32. Which system has the highest entropy? a. ice b. water 25 oC c. water at 75 oC d. water at 40 oC 33. Which state has the highest entropy? a. gas b. liquid c. solid 34. Which system has the lowest entropy? a. ice b. water 25 oC c. water at 75 oC d. water at 40 oC 35. Which state has the lowest entropy? a. gas b. liquid c. solid 36. The salt bridge formed between would be the most exothermic in? a. water b. ethanol c. ether d. hexane 37. The salt bridge formed between would be the least exothermic in? a. water b. ethanol c. ether d. hexane 38. Which diagram shows a spontaneous reaction? 39. Which diagram shows an exergonic reaction? 40. Which diagram shows an endergonic reaction? 41. Which diagram shows an exothermic reaction? 42. Which diagram shows an endothermic reaction? 43. Which statement is consistent with the 2nd law of thermodynamics? a. The entropy of the surrounding must increase b. A hot object will spontaneously warm a cold object c. The entropy of the system must decrease d. The entropy of the universe must stay the same e. Both answers a and b 44. What is the first law of thermodynamics? a. systems go to their lowest energy states b. energy can be created not destroyed c. energy cannot be created only destroyed d. energy cannot be created or destroyed e. energy is constant in the system 45. Which outcome breaks the second law of thermodynamics? a. the universe loses energy b. a puzzle falls to pieces when dropped c. the universe gains matter d. a cold object spontaneously heats a warm object when in contact. 46. Which is true for a spontaneous process in a system? (a) heat is consumed (b) heat is released to the surrounding (c) heat can be consumed or released (d) heat stays constant 47. Which is true for a spontaneous process in a system? (a) the system becomes more disordered (b) the system could become more or less disordered (c) the system becomes more ordered (d) disorder of the system remains constant 48. Which is true for a spontaneous process in a system? (a) the surrounding becomes more disordered (b) the surrounding could become more or less disordered (c) the surrounding becomes more ordered (d) disorder of the surrounding remains constant 49. When change happens, the entropy of the universe must (a) increase (b) decrease (c) increase or decrease (d) stay constant 50. When change happens, the entropy of the surrounding must (a) increase (b) decrease (c) increase or decrease (d) stay constant 51. Do proteins have high heat capacities / why? a. yes, they have many possible conformations b. no, they have very stable structures c. no, they have many conformations d. yes, they have very stable structures. 52. Entropy is a measure of a) probability b) disorder c) heat distribution d) answers (a) and (b) e) all the above 53. All processes must be favorable under a specific condition if they are (a) exothermic (b) endothermic (c) exergonic (d) endergonic (e) more free 54. The bond between Na+ and Cl- is weakest in (a) hexane (b) water (c) methanol (d) acetone 55. Which diagram depicts a nonspontaneous reaction? 56. Which functional group can form a off-faced stack arrangement? a. carboxylic acid b. amides c. alcohol d. arenes e. amines 57. The Gibbs free energy for a chemical process was -8 kcal/mol and the heat produced was -5 kcal/mol. What was the TS term for this process? a. -3 kcal/mol b. 3 kcal/mol c. -13 kcal/mol d. 13 kcal/mol 58. The enthalpy for a chemical process was 2 kcal/mol and TS was 5 kcal/mol. What was the Gibbs free energy (G) term for this process? a. -3 kcal/mol b. 3 kcal/mol c. -7 kcal/mol d. 7 kcal/mol 59. The Gibbs free energy for a chemical process was -5 kcal/mol and TS was -2 kcal/mol. What was the enthalpy for this process? a. -3 kcal/mol b. 3 kcal/mol c. -7 kcal/mol d. 7 kcal/mol 60. The Gibbs free energy for a chemical process was 4 kcal/mol and the heat produced was 3 kcal/mol. What was the TS term for this process? a. -7 kcal/mol b. 7 kcal/mol c. -1 kcal/mol d. 1 kcal/mol 61. The Gibbs free energy for a chemical process was -13 kcal/mol and TS was -2 kcal/mol. What was the enthalpy for this process? a. 15 kcal/mol b. 11 kcal/mol c. -11 kcal/mol d. -15 kcal/mol 62. A thermometer measures (a) thermo energy (b) average kinetic energy (c) potential energy (d) heat 63. Which reaction can be coupled to A + B = C + D G = 3 kcal/mol? a. C + E = F G = -2 kcal/mol b. F + B = G G = -5 kcal/mol c. F + G = H G = -3 kcal/mol d. D + F = G G = -5 kcal/mol 64. The bond between Na+ and Cl- is strongest in a. hexane b. water c. methanol d. acetone 65. Rank the strength of the interactions between the molecules from the highest to lowest. a. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 b. 3 > 1 > 4 > 2 c. 3 > 4 > 1 > 2 d. 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 e. 2 > 4 > 3 > 1 66. Which phosphate would be linked to the hydroxyl group of glucose during enzyme catalysis? 67. Rank the strength of the interactions between the molecules from the highest to lowest. a. 1 > 5 > 4 > 3 > 2 b. 5 > 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 c. 3 > 1 > 5 > 4 > 2 d. 5 > 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 e. 2 > 4 > 3 > 1 > 5 68. Which electrostatic interaction is less affected by going from the gas phase to water? a. ionic b. H-bond c. dipole d. dispersion 69. Which functional group can form a T-stack arrangement? a. carboxylic acid b. arene c. alcohol d. amides e. amines 70. Which sign/parameter shows an exothermic process? a. S b. H c. -G d. -S e. −H 71. Which sign/parameter shows an exergonic process? a. S b. H c. -G d. -S e. −H 72. Which sign/parameter shows an endergonic process? a. G b. H c. -G d. -S e. −H 73. Which sign/parameter shows a gain in freedom during a process? a. S b. H c. -G d. -S e. −H 74. Which sign/parameter shows a loss of freedom during a process? a. S b. H c. -G d. -S e. −H 75. Which sign/parameter shows an endothermic process? a. S b. H c. -G d. -S e. −H 76. Which parameter gives the distribution of heat in a system? a. w b. H c. G d. S e. q 77. Which is the first law of thermodynamics? a. Energy can be created and destroyed b. Energy cannot be created or destroyed c. Energy can be destroyed and not created d. Energy can be created and not destroyed 78. Which statement is consistent with the 2nd law of thermodynamics? a. The entropy of the universe cannot be destroyed b. The entropy of a system always increases c. Cold objects will spontaneously give energy to warm objects d. Freedom of motion of a system can decrease 79. A thermometer measures (a) pressure (b) heat (c) average kinetic energy (d) molecular conformations 80 Which is not wasted heat? a. Conformational changes b. Increased molecular vibrations c. Breaking H-bonds d. Expanding glassware 81. Which system has the highest entropy? a. CH4 at 30 oC b. H2O at 30 oC c. H2O at 50 oC d. Sand at 30 oC 82. A spontaneous reaction (a) Has a positive free energy (b) Makes less stable molecules (c) Makes more stable molecules (d) Happens immediately once the materials are mixed e. Both c and d 83. Which reaction can be coupled to A + B = C + D G = 3 kcal/mol? a. C + E = F G = -2 kcal/mol b. F + B = G G = -5 kcal/mol c. F + G = H G = -3 kcal/mol d. D + F = G G = -5 kcal/mol 84. Which reaction can be coupled to A + B = C + D G = 3 kcal/mol? (a) C + E = F G = 4 kcal/mol (b) F + B = G G = -5 kcal/mol (c) F + G = A G = -6 kcal/mol (d) D + F = G G = -2 kcal/mol 85. Which are symbols for heat (a) G (b) H (c) w (d) q (e) b and d 86. Entropy is a measure of (a) disorder (b) probability (c) energy distribution (d) all answers 87. A chemical process gives off heat to the surrounding and the system becomes more ordered. The process is a. spontaneous b. nonspontaneous c. its spontaneity cannot be determined 88. A chemical process takes heat from the surrounding and the system becomes more ordered. The process is a. spontaneous b. nonspontaneous c. its spontaneity cannot be determined 89. A chemical process gives off heat to the surrounding and the system becomes more disordered. The process is a. spontaneous b. nonspontaneous c. its spontaneity cannot be determined 90. The Gibbs free energy for a chemical process was -5 kcal/mol and the heat produced was -7 kcal/mol. What was the TS term for this process? a. -12 kcal/mol b. 12 kcal/mol c. 2 kcal/mol d. -2 kcal/mol 91. Which reaction can be coupled to A + B = C + D G = 5 kcal/mol? a. C + E = F G = -2 kcal/mol b. D + F = G G = -6 kcal/mol c. F + G = H G = -3 kcal/mol d. F + B = G G = -6 kcal/mol 92. Which phosphate would be linked to the hydroxyl group of a sugar? 93. Fe3+ is called a _____ when bound to a protein and is chemically active. a. substrate b. coenzyme c. cosubstrate d. cofactor e. particle 94. A coenzyme that is loosely bound by a protein is called a a. cosubstrate b. prosthetic group c. substrate d. particle 95. A coenzyme that is tightly bound by a protein is called a a. cosubstrate b. prosthetic group c. substrate d. particle 96. Which vitamin is responsible for eye health? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. K 97. Which vitamin is used to make collagen? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. K 98. Which vitamins are water soluble? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. K 99. Which vitamin is responsible for blood clotting? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. K 100. Which vitamin is responsible for bone health? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E f. K 101. What term describes the biochemical processes that are required for cell survival? (a) metabolism (b) anabolism (c) catabolism (d) ergolism 102. What term describes the building of molecules that are required for cell survival? (a) metabolism (b) anabolism (c) catabolism (d) ergolism 103. What term describes the destruction of molecules that are required for cell survival? (a) metabolism (b) anabolism (c) catabolism (d) canabolism 104. Which hydrogen is used as the reducing atom for NADH? a. H1 b. H2 c. H3 and H4 d. H3 or H4 e. H5 105. Which cofactor needs to be tightly bound to an enzyme? a. ATP b. FAD c. ADP d. NADH e. NAD+ 106. Which redox agent’s reaction produces an aromatic product? a. NADH to NAD+ b. FADH2 to FAD c. ubiquinone to ubiquinol d. FAD to FADH2 107. Which structure represents the active portion of FAD? 108. The main purpose of the citric acid cycle is to a. oxidize the acetyl group b. make ATP c. make CO2 d. make protons e. make NADH and FADH2 109. Which agent performs a variety of redox chemistry? a. NADH b. FADH2 c. ubiquinone d. ATP e. coenzyme Q 110. The main purpose of glycolysis is to a. oxidize the acetyl group b. make NADH c. make pyruvate d. make protons e. make ATP 111. The main purpose of oxidative phosphorylation is to a. oxidize the acetyl group b. make NADH c. make pyruvate d. make protons e. make ATP 112. What molecule drives chemical reactions and conformational changes in the body? a. NADH b. FADH2 c. Glucose d. ATP e. AMP 113. What molecule is considered as a rechargeable battery for the body? a. NADH b. FADH2 c. Glucose d. ATP e. ADP 114. What molecule initiates glycolysis? a. Glycerol b. FADH2 c. Glucose d. ATP e. Glycogen 115. Which is the final product of glycolysis? (a) ATP (b) pyruvate (c) glucose (d) acetyl-CoA 116. Which is the last molecule to accept electrons in the electron transport chain? (a) ATP (b) O2 (c) cytochrome C (d) ubiquinone (e) NAD+ 117. Which materials combine to make H2O2? a. FAD and O2 b. NAD and O2 c. NADH and O2 d. FADH2 and O2 118. Which is the reactive portion of ubiquinone? 119. Which is not a source of energy for the body? a. NAD degradation b. protein breakdown c. glycolysis d. fats 120. Which is the movement of ions across a semipermeable membrane of a cell? (a) electron hopping (b) chemiosmosis (c) proton cascade (d) dialysis 121. Which molecule makes the most ATP when reacted in the electron transport chain? a. FADH2 b. FAD c. NAD+ d. NADH e. ADP 122. Which process makes the most ATP? a. oxidative phosphorylation b. citric acid cycle c. glycolysis d. acetylation e. reductive phosphorylation 123. NADH2 acts as a (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent (c) nucleophile (d) electrophile (e) acid 124. NAD+ acts as a (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent (c) nucleophile (d) electrophile (e) acid 125. FADH2 acts as a (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent (c) nucleophile (d) electrophile (e) acid 126. FAD acts as a (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent (c) nucleophile (d) electrophile (e) acid 127. Ubiquinone acts as a (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent (c) nucleophile (d) electrophile (e) acid 128. Ubiquinol acts as a (a) oxidizing agent (b) reducing agent (c) nucleophile (d) electrophile (e) acid 129. Succinate to furmate (HO2CCH2CH2CO2H to HO2CCH=CHCO2H) is a_______reaction (a) substitution (b) oxidation (c) reduction (d) acid-base (e) elimination 130. Furmate to succinate (HO2CCH=CHCO2H to HO2CCH2CH2CO2H) is a_______reaction (a) substitution (b) oxidation (c) reduction (d) acid-base (e) elimination 131. Fe3+ to Fe2+ is a_______reaction (a) ionic (b) oxidation (c) reduction (d) ironic (e) salt 132. Fe2+ to Fe3+ is a_______reaction (a) ionic (b) oxidation (c) reduction (d) ironic (e) salt 133. In the reaction of succinate to furmate (HO2CCH2CH2CO2H to HO2CCH=CHCO2H), succinate is (a) deprotonated (b) oxidized (c) eliminated (d) reduced (e) dehydrated 134. In the reaction of furmate to succinate (HO2CCH=CHCO2H to HO2CCH2CH2CO2H), furmate is (a) deprotonated (b) oxidized (c) eliminated (d) reduced (e) dehydrated 135. In the reaction Fe3+ to Fe2+, Fe3+ is (a) charged (b) oxidized (c) protonated (d) reduced (e) cationic 136. In the reaction Fe2+ to Fe3+, Fe2+ is (a) charged (b) oxidized (c) protonated (d) reduced (e) cationic 137. Which molecule would give the most energy when reacted fully with O2? 138. Which is not a step in cellular respiration? (a) citric acid cycle (b) glycolysis (c) glucose transport (d) oxidative phosphorylation 139. Which is the correct order for cellular respiration from start to finish 1-electron transport chain, 2-glycolysis, 3-chemiosmosis, 4-citric acid cycle (a) 1>2>3>4 (b) 2>4>1>3 (c) 4>2>1>3 140. Which complex would assemble at the lowest concentration? (a) KA = 102 M-1 (b) KA = 107 M-1 (c) KA = 105 M-1 (b) KA = 106 M-1 141. Which complex would require the highest concentration to assemble? (a) KA = 102 M-1 (b) KA = 107 M-1 (c) KA = 105 M-1 (b) KA = 106 M-1 142. Complexes held by H-bonds will always be strong complexes. (a) True, H-bonds are strong bonds (b) False, H-bonds require full charges (c) False, complex strength depends on its environment (d) True, H-bonds exist in water 143. A complex with more noncovalent bonds will be more stable than a complex with less noncovalent bonds. (a) True, noncovalent bonds are additive (b) False, complex strength depends on the type of bond (c) True, more bonds means more stabilization energy (d) False, weak bonds cancel strong bonds 144. Which will not significantly increase the strength of H-bonds between molecules dissolved in water. (a) Adding nonpolar groups to the molecules (b) Adding functional groups with full charges (c) Placing the complex within an apolar environment (d) Placing the complex within a protein core 145. Assemblage between small molecules typically experience (a) +G (b) +H (c) H S compensation (d) +S (e) H S cooperativity 146. Which site forms a stronger salt bridge for a protein in water? 147. Which protein pocket would bind the strongest (ignore steric clash)? 148. Which protein pocket would bind the strongest (ignore steric clash)? 149. Rank the ligands from the strongest to the weakest binding within this pocket (ignore sterics) a. 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 b. 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 c. 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 d. 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 e. 1 > 3 > 4 > 2 150. Rank the ligands from the strongest to the weakest binding within this pocket (ignore sterics) a. 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 b. 2 > 4 > 1 > 3 c. 2 > 1 > 4 > 3 d. 1 > 2 > 4 > 3 e. 2 > 3 > 4 > 1 151. Which system has the highest entropy? a. ice b. water 15 oC c. water around an apolar molecule at 25 oC d. water at 25 oC 152. What phenomenon drives alkyl chains together in water? a. hydrophobic interaction b. hydrophobic effect c. hydrophobic bond d. salad dressing effect 153. Which system has the lowest entropy? a. water 100 oC b. water 45 oC c. water around an apolar molecule at 25 oC d. water at 25 oC 154. Which compound would form a larger micelle at their cmc? 155. Which compound would form the smallest micelle at their cmc? 156. Which compound would have the lowest critical micelle concentration (cmc)? 157. Which compound would have the higher critical micelle concentration (cmc)? 158. Which interaction is unfavorable in micelle formation? a. hydrophobic effect b. electrostatic c. hydrogen bond d. dispersion 159. Adding NaCl to a long chain alkyl phosphate solution would a. lower its cmc b. raise its cmc c. make larger micelles d. make smaller micelles e. both a and c 160. Which sign/parameter drives the hydrophobic effect? a. -S b. +G c. +H d. +S e. -H 161. Which compound would form the smallest micelle? 162. Adding NaCl to will (a) lower its cmc (b) raise its cmc (c) make larger micelles (d) make smaller micelles (e) have little effect on its micelle-properties 163. A molecule requires which features to form a micelle in water 1- a polar head group 2- an apolar chain 3 - to be at a certain concentration 4 - an apolar chain of a certain length 5 – a polar head group of a certain charge (a) 1, 2, 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 (c) 3, 4, 5 (d) 1, 3, 4 (e) 1, 2, 4 164. A micelle in wáter has (a) a polar surface and polar interior (b) an apolar surface and polar interior (c) an apolar surface and apolar interior (d) an apolar interior and polar surface (e) properties depends on the size of the micelle 165. A micelle in hexane has (a) a polar surface and polar interior (b) an apolar surface and polar interior (c) an apolar surface and apolar interior (d) an apolar interior and polar surface (e) properties dependent on the size of the micelle 166. A steroid would be found with a micelle in water (a) interior (b) exterior (c) interior and exterior (d) interior or exterior depending on the size of the micelle (e) interior or exterior depending on the length of the tail and charge of the head group 167. Glucose would be found with a micelle in water (a) interior (b) exterior (c) interior and exterior (d) interior or exterior depending on the size of the micelle (e) interior or exterior depending on the length of the tail and charge of the head group 168. What is the term given for the phenomenon of solute affecting solvent properties? (a) associative (b) colligative (c) dissociative (d) equilibration (e) collective 169. What is the term used to describe the spontaneous passage of water through a semi- permeable membrane due to a concentration difference? (a) osmosis (b) colligative (c) vaporization (d) dilution (e) flux 170. Which has the highest osmolarity? a. 2M glucose b. 1M NaCl c. 0.5M CaCl2 d. 1M MgCl2 171. Glucose would be found with a reverse micelle in hexane (a) interior (b) exterior (c) interior and exterior (d) interior or exterior depending on the size of the micelle (e) interior or exterior depending on the length of the tail and charge of the head group 172. Rank the osmolarity of the solutions (1 to 4) from highest to lowest? 1. 1.5M Na3PO4 2. 2.5M glucose 3. 1.0M NaCl and 1.0M KCl 4. 1.5M MgCl2 (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 2 3 1 (c) 1 3 4 2 (d) 3 1 4 2 (e) 1 4 3 2 173. Which solution has the highest osmolarity? (a) 1.5M Na2SO4 (b) 5.0M glucose (c) 2.0M NaCl and 1.0M KCl (d) 1.0M MgCl2 174. Which solution has the highest osmolarity? a. 0.5M NaCl and 1M MgCl2 (b) 5M glucose (c) 1M NaCl and 0.5M KCl (d) 1.5M CaCl2 175. Which solution has the lowest osmolarity? (a) 1.5M Na3PO4 (b) 2.0M glucose (c) 1.0M NaCl and 0.5M KCl (e) 0.5M MgCl2 176. Which solution has the lowest osmolarity? (a) 1.0M Na2SO4 (b) 2.5M glucose (c) 0.5M NaCl and 0.5M KCl (d) 1.0M MgCl2 177. Which solution has the lowest osmolarity? (a) 1.0M NaCl and 0.5M MgCl2 (b) 3.5M glucose c. 1M NaCl and 0.5M KCl (d) 1.5M CaCl2 178. Which condition is the cell experiencing (. is a membrane impermeable solute)? (a) Isotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Hypotonic (d) Barotonic cell 179. What happens to the cell shown in question 178? (a) It shrinks (b). It swells (c) It takes in solute (d) It releases solute (e) nothing 180. Which condition is the cell experiencing (. is a membrane impermeable solute)? (a) Isotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Hypotonic (d) Barotonic 181. What happens to the cell shown in question 180? (a) It shrinks (b). It swells (c) It takes in solute (d) It releases solute (e) nothing 182. Which condition is a cell experiencing when the osmolarity of the cytosol is equal to outside solution? (a) Isotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Hypotonic (d) Barotonic 183. What happens to the cell in question 182? (a) It shrinks (b). It swells (c) It takes in solute (d) It releases solute (e) nothing 184. Chambers A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane (NaCl can’t pass through) with initial 1.0 L in chamber A of 2.0 M NaCl and 1.0 L in chamber B of 1.0 M NaCl. What would the final solutions look like? a A B b A B c A B 185. What would be the final concentration of NaCl in chamber A? (a) 0.50 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 1.5 M (d) 2.0 M (e) 2.5 M 186. Chambers A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane (NaCl can’t pass through) with initial 1.0 L in chamber A of 1.0 M NaCl and 1.0 L in chamber B of 4.0 M NaCl. What would the final solutions look like? a A B b A B c A B 187. What would be the final concentration of NaCl in chamber A? (a) 0.50 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 1.5 M (d) 2.0 M (e) 2.5 M 188. Chambers A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane (NaCl can’t pass through) with initial 1.0 L in chamber A of 3.0 M NaCl and 1.0 L in chamber B of 1.0 M NaCl. What would the final solutions look like? a A B b A B c A B 189. What would be the final concentration of NaCl in chamber A? (a) 0.50 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 1.5 M (d) 2.0 M (e) 2.5 M 190. Chambers A and B are separated by a semipermeable membrane (NaCl can’t pass through) with initial 1.0 L in chamber A of 1.0 M NaCl and 1.0 L in chamber B of 1.0 M NaCl. What would the final solutions look like? a A B b A B c A B 191. What would be the final concentration of NaCl in chamber A? (a) 0.50 M (b) 1.0 M (c) 1.5 M (d) 2.0 M (e) 2.5 M 192. Same experiment as above. Before the solutions were added to the chambers, which solution was more concentrated? (a) A (b) B (c) A and B had the same concentration (d) cannot tell with the information given 193. What is the osmotic pressure of a 0.75M KCl aqueous solution at 37 oC? R = 0.082 Latm/Kmol (a) 2.3 atm (b) 4.6 atm (c) 19 atm (d) 34 atm (e) 38 atm 194. What is the osmotic pressure of a 0.50M MgCl2 aqueous solution at 25 oC? R = 0.082 Latm/Kmol (a) 1.0 atm (b) 37 atm (c) 24 atm (d) 3.1 atm (e) 12 atm 195. What is [CaCl2] in a solution with the osmotic pressure of a 19 atm at 37 oC? R = 0.082 Latm/Kmol (a) 3.0 atm (b) 0.75 M (c) 0.50 M (d) 2.1 atm (e) 0.25 M 196. What is the osmotic pressure of an 1.0 L aqueous solution containing 0.50 M MgCl2 and 1.0 M glucose at 37 oC? R = 0.082 Latm/Kmol (a) 150 atm (b) 8.0 atm (c) 18 atm (d) 64 atm (e) 38 atm 197. What is the osmotic pressure of a aqueous solution containing 0.50 M MgCl2 ,1.0 M NaCl, and 0.50M Na3PO4 with a final volume of 1.0 L at 37 oC? R = 0.082 Latm/Kmol (a) 17 atm (b) 51 atm (c) 140 atm (d) 76 atm (e) 127 atm 198. How do cells overcome osmotic pressure? a. use cellular pumps b. use membrane channels c. polymerize solute d. all the above 199. According to the Arrhenius acid-base theory, a base (a) accepts a proton (b) increases H3O+ (c) donates a proton (d) releases HO- 200. According to the Arrhenius acid-base theory, an acid (a) accepts a proton (b) increases H+ (c) donates a proton (d) releases HO- (e) increases H3O+ 201. According to the Bronsted-Lowry acid-base theory, a base (a) accepts a proton (b) increases H3O+ (c) donates a proton (d) releases HO- 202. According to the Bronsted-Lowry acid-base theory, an acid (a) accepts a proton (b) increases H3O+ (c) donates a proton (d) releases HO- 203. Which molecule is not a strong acid? (a) H2SO4 (b) CH3CO2H (c) HCl (d) HClO4 (e) all are strong acids 204. Which molecule is a weak base? (a) NaOH (b) Ca(OH)2 (c) NH3 (d) HSO4- (e) c and d 205. Which answer indicates or shows a strong acid? (a) CH3CO2H (b) H2O (c) pKa > 1 (d) pKa < 1 206. Which answer indicates or shows a weak acid? a. H3O+ b. Ka < 1 c. pKb > 14 d. pKa < 1 207. Which is inconsistent with a weak base solution? a. Kb < 1 b. Ka < 10-14 c. pKb >1 d. pka < 14 e. Ka > 10-14 208. Which is inconsistent with a weak acid solution? a. pKa >1 b. Ka < 1 c. pKb < 1 d. pkb < 14 e. Kb > 10-14 209. Which is inconsistent with a strong base solution? a. Kb > 1 b. Ka < 10-14 c. pKb < 1 d. pka > 14 e. Ka > 10-14 210. Which is inconsistent with a strong acid solution? a. Kb > 10-14 b. Ka > 1 c. pKb >14 d. pka < 1 e. Kb < 10-14 211. Ka for an acid is 1 x 10-3M. What is the pKb of its conjugate base? a. 1 x 10-11 b. 1 x 10-4 c. 11 d. 4 e. 3 212. Kb for a basic, aqueous solution is 1 x 104 M. What is the solution’s pH? a. 1 x 10-18 b. 1 x 1018 c. -4 d. 18 e. can’t tell with information given 213. What is the pH of a 0.0050 M solution of HCl? a. 11.7 b. 1.3 c. 5.0 d. 2.3 e. 3.3 214. What is the pH of a 0.025 M solution of HCl? a. 12.4 b. 1.6 c. 1.1 d. 2.3 e. -1.6 215. What is the pOH of a 0.57 M solution of HBr? a. -0.24 b. 0.24 c. 13.8 d. 1.1 e. -1.1 216. What is the concentration of HO- in a 2.0L aqueous solution of NaOH with a pH of 11.5? a. 0.0016 M b. 0.0032 M c. 0.032 M d. 0.016 M e. 0.16 M 217. What is the concentration of Mg2+ in a 5.0L aqueous solution of Mg(OH)2 with a pH of 12? a. 1 x 10-12 M b 2.0 M c. 0.010 M d. 0.0050 M e. 0.0010 M 218. What is the concentration of H3O+ in a 0.50 L solution of water with a pH of 1.5? a. 0.032 M b. 0.062 M c. 31 M d. 16 M e. 1.5 M 219. What is the pH of a 0.5M solution of H2SO4 in water? pKa1 = -2 pKa2 = 1.9 220. The pKa of CH3CO2H is 4.8. What is the pKb of its conjugate base? a. 9.2 b. 4.8 c. 2.2 d. 7.0 221. The pKa of lactic acid is 3.9. What is the pKb of its conjugate base? a. 3.1 b. 10.1 c. 10.9 d. 7.0 222. The pKb of ammonium ion is 9.3. What is the pKa of its conjugate acid? a. 2.3 b. -2.3 c. 4.7 d. 7.0 223. What is the pH of a 0.050 M NaOH solution in water? a. -1.3 b. 1.3 c. 13 d. 9.0 e. 5.0 224. What is the pOH of a 0.050 M NaOH solution in water? a. -1.3 b. 1.3 c. 13 d. 9.0 e. 0.89 225. What is the pH of a water solution containing 0.10 M HCl and 0.050 M of Ca(OH) 2? a. 7.0 b. -1.3 c. 1.3 d. 13 e. -13 226. What is the pH of a water solution containing 0.30 M HCl and 0.075 M of Ca(OH)2? a. -0.15 b. 0.15 c. 0.23 d. 0.65 e. 0.82 227. What is the pH of a 0.050 M imidazole (Im), aqueous solution? The pKa of Im-H+ is 7.0. a. 4.2 b. 8.3 c. 4.7 d. 9.8 e. 1.3 228. What is the pH of a 2.0L aqueous solution containing 10.0g of KH 2PO4 (mw = 136 g/mol, KH2PO4 pKa is 6.8)? a. 4.1 b. 1.4 c. 4.0 d. 8.3 229. A 100 mL buffer solution contains 1.2 moles of HCN and 1.2 moles of KCN. What is the pH of this solution? pKa of HCN is 9.3 a. 7.0 b. 9.3 c. 4.7 d. 9.1 e. 9.5 230. A 100 mL buffer solution contains 1.2 moles of HCN and 2.4 moles of KCN. What is the pH of this solution? pKa of HCN is 9.3 a. 9.0 b. 9.3 c. 7.2 d. 9.6 e. 10.5 231. A 100 mL buffer solution contains 2.4 moles of HCN and 1.2 moles of KCN. What is the pH of this solution? pKa of HCN is 9.3 a. 9.0 b. 9.3 c. 7.2 d. 9.6 e. 10.5 232. What volumes of a 0.50 M HCN and 1.25 M KCN solutions need to be mixed and diluted to 1.0 L to make a 0.25 M buffer at pH 8.9? pKa of HCN is 9.3 a. HCN 0.140L KCN 0.144L b. HCN 0.18L KCN 0.071L c. HCN 0.36L KCN 0.058L d. HCN 0.288L KCN 0.280L 233. What volumes of a 0.50 M HCN and 1.25 M KCN stock solutions need to be mixed and diluted to 1.0 L to make a 0.25 M buffer at pH 9.7? pKa of HCN is 9.3 a. HCN 0.280L KCN 0.288L b. HCN 0.18L KCN 0.071L c. HCN 0.36L KCN 0.05L d. HCN 0.142L KCN 0.143L 234. Which solution would have the greatest buffering capacity? a. 0.85 M ImH+ and 0.25 M Im b. 1 M HCl and 0.75 M NaCl c. 0.82 M ImH+ and 0.90 M Im d. 1.0 M AcOH and 0.41 M Im 235. What is the final pH of a 1.0L solution containing 0.25 M KH2PO4 with 25 mL of 1N NaOH added? KH2PO4 pKa is 6.8 and KHPO4 pKa is 12. a. 7.8 b. 5.8 c. 6.8 d. 5.5 236. What is the final pH of a 1.0 L solution containing 0.25 M KH2PO4 with 25 mL of 1N HCl added? H3PO4 pKa is 2.2. a. 3.2 b. 1.2 c. 2.3 d. 5.8 237. What is the pH of an aqueous solution containing 0.82 M acetic acid (Ka = 1.76 x 10 -5) and 0.17 M sodium acetate? a. 9.4 b. 9.9 c. 2.4 d. 5.4 e. 4.1 238. Acid X has a pH of 8.3 when 0.25 moles of HX are mixed with 0.65 moles of NaX and diluted to 1.0 L. What is the pKa of HX? a. 8.7 b. 9.2 c. 7.9 d. 9.7 e. 7.7 239. Acid X has a pH of 9.3 when 0.75 moles of HX are mixed with 0.25 moles of NaX and diluted to 1.0 L. What is the pKa of HX? a. 8.7 b. 9.2 c. 7.9 d. 9.0 e. 9.8 240. A solution is made by mixing 1.0 L of 1.5 M Ba(OH)2 and 2.0 L of 1.0 M HCl. What is the final pH? a. –0.78 b. 13.5 c. 0.30 d. 0.78 e. 14.0 241. A 1.0L aqueous solution contains 0.75 M CH3CO2Na and 0.15 M of HCl. What is the pH of the solution? The pKa of CH3CO2H is 4.75. a. 5.4 b. 2.5 c. 4.8 d. 4.2 242. A 1.0L aqueous solution contains 1.15 M CH3CO2H and 0.25 M of KOH. What is the pH of the solution? The pKa of CH3CO2H is 4.75. (a) 4.47 (b) 5.02 (c) 5.19 (d) 4.19 (e) 4.97 243. What ratio of acetate (AcO-) to acetic acid (AcOH) is needed to make a pH 4.28 buffer? The pKa for AcOH is 4.76. a. 1 to 3 b. 2 to 1 c. 3 to 1 d. 1 to 2 e. 0.3 to 10 244. What ratio of acetate (AcO-) to acetic acid (AcOH) is needed to make a pH 5.25 buffer? The pKa for AcOH is 4.76. a. 1 to 3 b. 2 to 1 c. 3 to 1 d. 1 to 2 e. 0.3 to 10 245. What ratio of acetate (AcO-) to acetic acid (AcOH) is needed to make a pH 6.3 buffer? The pKa for AcOH is 4.76. a. 1 to 3 b. 2 to 1 c. 3 to 1 d. 1 to 2 e. can’t use acetic acid/acetate 246. How many grams of AcOH and AcONa dissolved to 1.0 L are needed to make a 0.50 M, pH 5.0 buffer? (pKa for AcOH is 4.76, MW’s AcOH 60 g/mol and AcONa 82 g/mol) (AcOH and AcONa) a. 19g and 15g b. 15g and 19g c. 26g and 11g d. 17g and 17g e. 11g and 26g 247. What is the final pH of a 1.0 L solution containing 0.25 M HF, 0.75 M NaF, and 0.10 moles of HCl? Ka of HF is 7.1 x 10-4 a. 2.8 b. 3.6 c. 3.4 d. 2.7 e. 5.0 248. What is the final pH of a 1.0 L solution containing 0.25 M HF, 0.75 M NaF, and 0.10 moles of KOH? Ka of HF is 7.1 x 10-4 a. 2.8 b. 3.9 c. 3.4 d. 2.3 e. 4.3 249. What is the final pH of a 1.0 L solution containing 0.25 M HF, 0.75 M NaF, and 0.10 moles of KCl? Ka of HF is 7.1 x 10-4 a. 2.8 b. 3.9 c. 3.4 d. 2.3 e. 3.6 250. What is the pH of a 0.0010 M solution of HCl? a. 1.0 b. 2.0 c. 3.0 d. 4.0 e. 7.0 251. What was the starting concentration of Ca(OH)2 in a 1.0L solution of water with a pH of 12.5? a. 0.016 M b. 0.0032 M c. 0.032 M d. 1.6 M e. 0.00032 M 252. The pKb of KH2PO4 is 11.9. What is the pKa of its conjugate acid? a. 7.8 b. 2.1 c. 0.20 d. 7.0 253. A solution is made by mixing 1.0 L of 1.5 M HCl and 1.0 L of 0.50 M NaOH. What is the final pH? a. –0.18 b. 0.00 c. 0.30 d. 0.60 e. 1.0 254. A 1.0L aqueous solution contains 1.5 M NH4Cl and 1.0 M of NaOH. What is the pH of the solution? The pKa of NH4Cl is 4.75. a. -2.5 b. 2.5 c. 4.8 d. 5.1 255. What ratio of NH3 to NH4+ is needed to make a pH = 9.55 solution? The pKa of NH4Cl is 9.25. a. 1 to 2 b. 2 to 1 c. 0.3 to 1 d. 1 to 0.3 e. 3 to 1 256. What volume ratio of 1M NH3 to 1M NH4+ is needed to make a 0.90L of a 1.0M buffered solution at pH = 9.55 (use results from question 252)? a. 675 mL to 225 mL b. 225 mL to 675 mL c. 400 mL to 500 mL d. 300 mL to 600 mL e. 600 mL to 300 mL 257. To the above 0.900 L, 1.00 M NH4+/NH3 buffered solution, 60.0 mL of 2.00 M HCl is added. What is the final pH? The pKa of NH4Cl is 9.25. a. 9.31 b. 9.85 c. 9.04 d. 9.46 e. 8.90 258. What is the pH of a 0.25 M MeNH2, 2.0 L aqueous solution, which is weak base Kb = 5.25 x 10-4. a. 1.9 b. 12 c. 10 d. 11 259. What is the pH of the above buffer solution after 0.25 moles of solid MeNH3Cl are added? a. 10.2 b. 3.8 c. 3.3 d. 11 260. Make a 1.0 L of a 0.10 M sodium phosphate buffer at pH = 7.8. Stock solutions are H 2PO4- = 1.0 M and NaOH = 2.0 M, pKa H2PO4- = 7.2. 261. To this sodium phosphate buffered solution, 5.0 mL of 4.00 M NaOH is added. What is the final pH? The pKa of HPO42- is 12. a. 12.5 b. 6.5 c. 8.0 d. 7.5 262. Which combination in equal amounts of material can be adjusted with NaOH or HCl to give a buffered solution at pH = 6.5? (a) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with NaOH (b) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with HCl (c) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with NaOH (d) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with HCl 263. Which combination in equal amounts of material can be adjusted with NaOH or HCl to give a buffered solution at pH = 4.3? (a) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with NaOH (b) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with HCl (c) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with NaOH (d) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with HCl 264. Which combination in equal amounts of material can be adjusted with NaOH or HCl to give a buffered solution at pH = 9.6? (a) BO-/BOH, pKa = 9.2 with NaOH (b) BO-/BOH, pKa = 9.2 with HCl (c) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with NaOH (d) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with HCl 265. Which combination in equal amounts of material can be adjusted with NaOH or HCl to give a buffered solution at pH = 7.5? (a) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with NaOH (b) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with HCl (c) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with NaOH (d) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with HCl 266. Which combination in equal amounts of material can be adjusted with NaOH or HCl to give a buffered solution at pH = 5.3? (a) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with NaOH (b) AcOH/AcO-, pKa = 4.8 with HCl (c) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with NaOH (d) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with HCl 267. Which combination in equal amounts of material can be adjusted with NaOH or HCl to give a buffered solution at pH = 8.6? (a) BO-/BOH, pKa = 9.2 with NaOH (b) BO-/BOH, pKa = 9.2 with HCl (c) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with NaOH (d) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with HCl 268. Which combination in equal amounts of material can be adjusted with NaOH or HCl to give a buffered solution at pH = 2.6? (a) HCl/NaCl, pKa = -3 with NaOH (b) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with NaOH (c) ImH+/Im, pKa = 7.0 with HCl (d) none will work 269. Which potentiometric titration is for acetic acid (CH3CO2H)? 270. Which potentiometric titration is for lysine ? 271. What is pKa for lysine’s side chain? a. 12.5 b. 10.8 c. 6.5 d. 9.5 e. 2.3 272. Which amino acid underwent this potentiometric titration? 273. What is the first pKa of the above plot? a. 1.0 b. 2.5 c. 4.5 d. 5.5 274. What is the second pKa of the above plot? a. 3.0 b. 4.5 c. 6.5 d. 9.5 275. What is the third pKa of the above plot? a. 8.0 b. 8.5 c. 9.5 d. 11.5 276. Which potentiometric titration is for alanine? 277. Which potentiometric titration is for aspartic acid? 278. What is the definition of an amino acid’s isoelectric point? a. it moves to the anode b. it moves to the cathode c. it deprotonates d. it doesn’t move in an electric field 279. What is the pI for glycine with pKa’s of 2.3, 9.6? a. 2.3 b. 9.6 c. 7.0 d. 6.0 e. 6.5 280. What is the pI for glutamic acid with pKa’s of 2.2, 4.2, 9.7? a. 3.2 b. 4.2 c. 5.4 d. 6.9 e. 7.4 281. What is the pI for aspartic acid with pKa’s of 1.9, 3.6, 9.6? a. 3.2 b. 6.6 c. 5.0 d. 2.8 e. 7.4 282. What is the pI for lysine with pKa’s of 2.2, 9.0, 10.5? a. 9.8 b. 4.2 c. 5.6 d. 6.9 e. 7.2 283. What is the pI for histidine with pKa’s of 1.8, 6.0, 9.2? a. 5.8 b. 3.9 c. 5.6 d. 6.9 e. 7.6 284. What is the pI of arginine having pKa’s of 2.0, 9.0, 12.5? a. 7.3 b. 5.5 c. 7.8 d. 10.8 285. What is the normal, healthy pH range of blood? a. 1.5 to 3.0 b. 6.5 to 7.5 c. 6.8 to 7.2 d. 7.3 to 7.5 e. 7.4 to 7.7 286. To counter alkalosis, the body will a. increase respiration b. lower H+ c. lower HCO3- d. decrease respiration 287. At tissues, which direction does carbonic anhydrase mainly catalyze? CO2 + H2O = HCO3- + H+ a. left b. both approximately equally c. right 288. At lungs, which direction does carbonic anhydrase mainly catalyze? CO2 + H2O = HCO3- + H+ a. left b. both approximately equally c. right 289. During acidosis, a. ATP is too high b. ATP is too low c. pH is too high d. pH is too low 290. During alkalosis, a. ATP is too high b. ATP is too low c. pH is too high d. pH is too low 291. To counter acidosis, the body will a. increase respiration b. raise H+ c. raise HCO3- d. decrease respiration 292. What is the blood’s buffer? a. phosphates b. imidazoles c. acetic acid d. bicarbonate e. ammonia 293. What is the major intracellular buffer? a. phosphates b. imidazoles c. acetic acid d. bicarbonate e. ammonia 294. Which is not a buffer in the body? a. phosphates b. proteins c. hemoglobin d. phosphonates e. glucose 295. Releasing too much CO2 from the lungs causes, a. hyperventilation b. acidosis c. hypoventilation d. alkalosis e. degassing 296. CO2 in the blood is found mainly a. dissolved in plasma b. as HCO3- c. carried by hemoglobin d. carried by myoglobin e. all answers 297. Which is not a source of CO2 in the blood a. dissolved in plasma b. as HCO3- c. carried by hemoglobin d. carried by myoglobin e. none of the answers 298. Amino acids that need to be obtained through a diet are called? a. Required b. Essential c. Nonessential d. Balanced 299. Which amino acid side chain is most likely to be phosphorylated? 300. Which amino acid side chain acts as a redox buffer? 301. Rank the most to least acidic hydrogen atom. (a) 1 2 3 (b) 3 2 1 (c) 2 1 3 302. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. a. 1 > 3 > 2 b. 2 > 3 > 1 c. 3 > 2 > 1 d. 1 > 2 > 3 e. 2 > 1 > 3 303. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. a. 1 > 3 > 2 b. 2 > 3 > 1 c. 3 > 2 > 1 d. 1 > 2 > 3 e. 2 > 1 > 3 304. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. 305. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. 306. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. 307. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. 308. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. 309. Rank the acidities from most acidic to least acidic. 310. Which is the best binding pocket for phenylalanine? 311. -Helices are what type of structure? a. primary b. secondary c. tertiary d. quaternary 312. Why aren’t prolines found in -helices? a. too apolar b. too flexible c. too polar d. too stiff 313. Amino acids are only (a) levorotatory (b) called ‘L’ amino acids (c) dextrorotatory (d) a and b 314. Amide bonds are important for proteins because they are (a) chemically stable (b) significantly resonance stabilized (c) partial -bond rigidity (d) H-bonding (e) all answers 315. Rank the length of the carbon nitrogen bond from shortest to longest. a) 1 2 3 4 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 3 1 4 2 d) 3 4 1 2 316. Amino acids that the body can synthesize are called? a. Required b. Essential c. Nonessential d. Balanced 317. Rank the strength of the carbon nitrogen bond from strongest to weakest. a) 1 2 3 4 b) 3 1 2 4 c) 3 1 4 2 d) 3 4 1 2 318. Why are apolar side chains necessary for -sheet stability? a. dispersion interactions b. H-bonding c. desolvation d. hydrophobic effect e. answers a, c, d 319. Which amino acid side chain acts gives kinks in peptides/proteins? 320. Is tryptophan a basic amino acid? (a) yes, nitrogen atoms are basic (b) no, nitrogen’s electron pair are part of aromaticity (c) yes, only at pH = 3 (d) no, it is an acidic amino acid. 321. Are the pKa’s of glycine approximately the same as acetic acid and methylammonium ion. (a) yes, the functional groups do not communicate (b) no, the dipole moments cancel (c) no, the side chains interact through space (d) b and c (e) all answers 322. Which curve shows the solubility of amino acids in water? 323. Which protein structure is the amino acid sequence? (a) primary (b) secondary (c) teritary (d) quaternary 324. Which protein structure includes protein dimers? (a) primary (b) secondary (c) teritary (d) quaternary 325. Which protein structure is the final 3d structure? (a) primary (b) secondary (c) teritary (d) quaternary 326. The process whereby a protein unfolds and can spontaneously refold is called (a) degradation (b) hydrolysis (c) denaturation (d) reformation 327. Which chart correctly shows amino acid solubility in water? 328. How many natural amino acids are found in proteins? a. 10 b. 15 c. 18 d. 20 e. 30 329. Which chart correctly shows amino acid solubility in hexane? 330. Which amino acid side chain forms covalent bonds through dimerization in proteins for stability? 331. Which protein structure is characterized by -helices and -sheets? (a) primary (b) secondary (c) tertiary (d) quaternary 332. Which side chain promotes strong H-bonds between the amide backbone of -sheets? 333. Glutathione a. has a low cellular concentration b. keeps cells in a reducing environment c. keeps cells in an oxidizing environment d. always exists as a monomer 334. Proteins that help other proteins fold are called (a) helpers (b) chaperones (c) foldamers (d) guardians 335. Which peptide structure forms from H-bonds to itself with 3.6 amino acids per turn? (a) - sheet (b) -turn (c) -helix (d) -turn (e) -helix 336. Which side chain would be most likely found within a protein folded in water? 337. Glycine is a. uncommon in -helices, too stiff b. uncommon in -helices, too flexible c. common in -helices, strong H-bonds d. common in -helices, low sterics 338. Which -helix would be the most stable near the core of a protein? 339. Why are apolar side chains necessary for -sheet stability? a. dispersion interactions b. increase H-bond strength c. desolvation d. hydrophobic effect e. all the above 340. Which -helix would most likely be found spanning the lipid membrane of a cell? 341. A common amino acid chain in -turns is and why? 342. What motif is shown? a. b. -sheets-loop c. -turn- d. hairpin 343. Which side chain would be most likely found on the surface of a protein folded in water? 344. -Keratin is commonly found in a. hair b. cornea c. crab shells d. bone 345. Glycine is a. uncommon in -helices, too stiff b. uncommon in -helices, too flexible c. common in -helices, strong H-bonds d. common in -helices, low sterics 346. Which protein is mainly used for function not structure? a. fibroin b. fibrous c. globular d. collagen 347. Are -helices stable in water? (a) yes, they form strong H-bonds to themselves (b) no, water makes them too tight (c) yes, if the side chains are polar (d) yes, if the side chains are apolar (e) no, amide H-bonding to water disrupts their H-bonds 348. Which -barrel would be found as a transporter between the mitochondrial membranes? 349. What common protein structure is used mainly for function and folds independently? a. -helix b. -sheet c. quaternary d. motif e. domain 350. Which side chain would be most likely found on the surface of a protein folded in hexane? 351. -Helices that coil around themselves are called (a) -helix- -helix (b) coiled-coil (c) -twist (d) ,-helix (e) coilamers 352. Which does not describe fibrous proteins (a) polypeptides in long strands (b) insoluble in water (c) soluble in water (d) used for structure (e) contain many apolar side chains. 353. What motif is shown? a. b. -sheets-loop c. -turn- d. hairpin 354. Which describes globular proteins (a) polypeptides in long strands (b) insoluble in water (c) soluble in water (d) used for structure (e) contain many apolar side chains. 355. Collagen is commonly found in a. hair b. connective tissue c. spider webs d. finger nails 356. Globular proteins when folded in water have a. polar insides and outsides b. apolar insides and polar outsides c. apolar insides and outsides d. fibers e. polar insides and apolar outsides 357. Which protein structure contains 4-hydroxyproline (a) globular (b) -keratin (c) collagen (d) Fibroin 358. Which side chain would be most likely found in the core of a protein folded in hexane? 359. Which -barrel would transport sugars through a membrane? 360. -Keratin has what unique feature compared to other fibrous proteins? a) Amide Bonds b) 4-Hydroxyproline c) Lys-HyLys cross links d) Disulfide links 361. -sheets exists in which structures (a) parallel (b) perpendicular (c) anti-parallel (d) a and c (e) all answers 362. Which -barrel would be act as an ion pore? 363. Which protein structure forms tight -sheets with alanine and glycine as major amino acids (a) globular (b) -keratin (c) collagen (d) fibroin 364. Folded proteins are (a) very stable (b) unstable (c) weakly stable 365. Which side chain would be mainly found stabilizing protein quaternary structures? 366. Which condition would purify proteins 1 and 2, CO2H pKa = 4.0, NH3+ pKa = 9.5? a) cation exchange pH = 3 b) anion exchange pH = 3 c) cation exchange pH = 11 d) anion exchange pH = 11 367. Which protein shown in Q366 would come off first of a cation exchange column at pH = 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 368. Which protein shown in Q366 would come off first of a anion exchange column at pH = 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 369. Which protein shown in Q366 would come off first of a anion exchange column at pH = 11? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 370. Which condition would purify proteins 1 and 2, CO2H pKa = 4.0, NH3+ pKa = 9.5? a) cation exchange pH = 3 b) anion exchange pH = 3 c) cation exchange pH = 11 d) anion exchange pH = 11 371. Which protein shown in Q370 would come off first of a cation exchange column at pH = 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 372.Which protein shown in Q370 would come off first of an anion exchange column at pH = 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 373. Which protein shown in Q370 would come off first of a cation exchange column at pH = 11? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 374. Which condition would separate proteins 1 and 2? a) cation exchange pH = 3 b) anion exchange pH = 3 c) cation exchange pH = 7 d) anion exchange pH = 7 375. Which protein shown in Q374 would come off first of a cation exchange column at pH = 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 376. Which protein shown in Q374 would come off first of a anion exchange column at pH = 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 377. Which condition would purify proteins 1 and 2, CO2H pKa = 4.0, NH3+ pKa = 9.5? a) cation exchange pH = 3 b) anion exchange pH = 3 c) cation exchange pH = 11 d) anion exchange pH = 11 378. Which protein shown in Q377 would come off first of a cation exchange column at pH = 7? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 379. Which protein shown in Q377 would come off first of a anion exchange column at pH = 11? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 380. Which protein shown in Q377 would come off first of a cation exchange column at pH = 3? a) 1 b) 2 c) 1 = 2 381. What order (first to last) would the proteins come off a size exclusion column with a working range 15 kD to 90 kD? a. 1 2 3 4 b. 2 1 4 3 c. 4 2 1 3 d. 3 1 2 4 e. 2 4 3 1 384. What common protein structure contains secondary structures and used mainly for structure? a. -helix b. -sheet c. folds d. motif e. domain 385. What is the pI of this representative peptide? a. 7.7 b. 9.5 c. 3.7 d. 6.6 e 7.0 386. What is the pI of this representative peptide? a. 5.8 b. 9.5 c. 4.2 d. 7.0 e 7.5 387. Which condition would enable the separation of all three proteins 1, 2, and 3? a. cation exchange pH = 3.5 b. anion exchange pH = 3.5 c. cation exchange pH = 11 d. anion exchange pH = 11 e. cation exchange pH = 6.0 388. What order off the column first to last would occur for the proteins shown in Q388 using a cation exchange column at pH = 6.0? a. 1 > 2 > 3 b. 1 = 2 > 3 c. 2 > 3 = 1 d. 1 = 2 = 3 e. 3 > 2 > 1 389. Which condition would enable the separation of all three proteins 1, 2, and 3? a. cation exchange pH = 3.5 b. anion exchange pH = 3.5 c. cation exchange pH = 7.0 d. anion exchange pH = 7.0 e. cation exchange pH = 10.0 390. What order off the column first to last would occur for the proteins shown in Q389 using a anion exchange column at pH = 10.0? a. 1 > 2 > 3 b. 1 = 3 > 2 c. 2 > 1 = 3 d. 1 = 2 = 3 e. 3 > 2 > 1 391. Which condition would enable the isolation of protein 1? a. cation exchange pH = 11 b. anion exchange pH = 11 c. cation exchange pH = 7.0 d. anion exchange pH = 7.0 e. cation exchange pH = 3.3 392. Which condition would enable the isolation of protein 3? a. cation exchange pH = 11 b. anion exchange pH = 11 c. cation exchange pH = 7.0 d. anion exchange pH = 7.0 e. cation exchange pH = 3.3 393. Which condition would enable the isolation of protein 2 (may require more than one column)? 394. What separable order, first to last, would these proteins come off a size exclusion chromatography column with a working range of 50 kD to 125 kD? a. 15kD > 25 kD > 75 kD > 130 kD > 145 kD b. 145kD > 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD = 15 kD c. 145kD = 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD > 15 kD d. 145kD = 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD = 15 kD e. 145kD > 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD > 15 kD 395. Which protein comes off last on this column? 396. What separable order, first to last, would these proteins come off a size exclusion chromatography column with a working range of 20 kD to 135 kD? a. 15kD > 25 kD > 75 kD > 130 kD > 145 kD b. 145kD > 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD = 15 kD c. 145kD = 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD > 15 kD d. 145kD = 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD = 15 kD e. 145kD > 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD > 15 kD 397. What type of chromatography relies on specific, strong noncovalent complexation for separation? (a) antibody-antigen (b) enzyme-inhibitor (c) affinity (d) HPLC (e) ion exchange 398. Which curve represents hemoglobin binding O2? 399. Ligand at 2.0 x 10-5 M is mixed with a protein. What is the Ka of the complex when the fraction of this ligand bound is 0.29? a. 2 x 104 M-1 b. 1.2 x 105 M-1 c. 7.5 x 104 M-1 d. 5 x 103 M-1 e. 3.3 x 103 M-1 400. The association constant for a protein ligand complex is 5 x 103 M-1. What is the Kd? a. 0.50 M b. 200 M c. 2 x 10-4 M d. 2 M e. 5 M 401. A ligand binds a protein with a Kd of 8.0 x 10-5 M. What is the concentration of ligand when the fraction bound is 0.71? a. 3.3 x 10-5 M b. 2.0 x 10-4 M c. 1.2 x 10-4 M d. 5.3 x 10-5 M e. 8.0 x 10-5 M 402. A ligand binds a protein with a Kd of 1.0 x 10-6 M. What is the concentration of ligand when the fraction bound is 0.98? a. 4.9 x 10-5 M b. 2.5 x 10-6 M c. 6.7 x 10-7 M d. 6.5 x 10-6 M e. 2.5 x 10-7 M 403. Which protein shows negative cooperativity? 404. A ligand is 75% complexed to a protein at a concentration of 1.5 x 10-4 M. What is the Kd of this complex? (a) 2.0 x 10-4 M (b) 2.0 x 104 M (c) 5.0 x 10-5 M (d) 5.0 x 105 M 405. The fraction of a ligand bound is 0.82 at a concentration of 6.0 x 10-6 M. What is the Ka of this complex? (a) 7.6 x 105 M-1 (b) 1.3 x 10-6 M (c) 7.3 x 10-6 M (d) 1.4 x 105 M 406. Ka of a protein-ligand complex is 3.5 x 104 M-1. What is the ligand concentration when it is 37% complexed? (a) 7.8 x 10-5 M (b) 2.9 x 10-5 M (c) 7.8 x 10-7 M (d) 1.7 x 10-5 M 407. Ka of a protein-ligand complex is 7.6 x 105 M-1. What is the ligand concentration when it is 56% complexed? (a) 1.3 x 10-6 M (b) 1.7 x 10-6 M (c) 1.0 x 10-6 M (d) 2.4 x 105 M 408. Which protein binds the strongest? 409. What is the approximate Kd for protein b? (a) 0.5 uM (b) 2 uM (c) 3.5 uM 410. What is the approximate Ka for protein a? (a) 0.5 uM (b) 2 x 106 M-1 (c) 5 x 105 M-1 411. Which protein (a,b,or c) would require the highest concentration to form a complex? 412. If a second ligand is more likely to bind a protein than the first ligand, this is consistent with (a) non-cooperativity (b) positive cooperativity (c) negative cooperativity. 413. If a second ligand is less likely to bind a protein than the first ligand, this is consistent with (a) non-cooperativity (b) positive cooperativity (c) negative cooperativity. 414. If a second ligand binds a protein as likely as the first ligand, this is consistent with (a) non- cooperativity (b) positive cooperativity (c) negative cooperativity. 415. What transfers O2 in the red blood cells? (a) myoglobin (b) carbonates (c) hemoglobin (d) erythrocytes (e) Cu-porphyrin 416. The Hill coefficient will be which for positive cooperativity? (a) less than one (b) equal to one (c) greater than one 417. Which class of protein binds foreign material in the body? a. enzymes b. fibrous c. actins d. antibodies e. globins 418. What stores O2 in muscles? (a) myoglobin (b) carbonates (c) hemoglobin (d) erythrocytes (e) Cu-porphyrin 419. Hemoglobin differs from myoglobin because hemoglobin a. binds O2 b. binds amino acids c. binds cooperatively d. has only one peptide strand e. binds noncooperatively 420. Which curve represents myoglobin binding O2? 421. What separable order, first to last, would these proteins come off a size exclusion chromatography column with a working range of 10 kD to 180 kD? a. 15kD > 25 kD > 75 kD > 130 kD > 145 kD b. 145kD > 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD = 15 kD c. 145kD = 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD > 15 kD d. 145kD = 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD = 15 kD e. 145kD > 130 kD > 75 kD > 25 kD > 15 kD 422. Which protein gives the power stroke in muscle contraction? a. myosin b. F-actin c. hemoglobin d. myoglobin e. G-actin 423. An enzyme a. makes products more stable b. accelerates the forward reaction rate c. accelerates the reverse reaction rate d. accelerates the forward and reverse reaction rates 424. Which protein contains myosin binding sites in muscle contraction? a. antibody b. F-actin c. hemoglobin d. myoglobin e. G-actin 425. Which enzyme has the smallest Km value? (a) a (b) b (c) c (d) can’t tell from the graph 426. Which enzyme has the largest Kcat? (a) a (b) b (c) c (d) can’t tell from the graph 427. What is the approximate Vmax from enzyme a? (a) 15 uM/s (b) 20 uM/s (c) 25 uM/s (d) can’t tell from the graph 428. What is the approximate Km for enzyme c? (a) 1 uM (b) 2 uM (c) 8 uM (d) can’t tell from the graph 429. [Enzyme a] is 2 uM, what is its kcat? (a) 25 s-1 (b) 12 s-1 (c) 6 s-1 (d) can’t tell from the graph 430. The enzymes are at the same concentration, which enzyme has the largest Kcat? (a) a (b) b (c) c (d) can’t tell from the graph 431. Experiments run at [S] > 10uM for enzymes a and c is called (a) Vmax conditions (b) flattening conditions (c) saturating condition 432. For the Michaelis-Menten equation when k2 is the rate limiting step, this is called (a) steady-state approximation (b) pre-equilibrium approximation (c) kinetic approximation (d) complex-rate approximation 433. kcat is not considered to be (a) first order rate constant (b) the turnover number (c) when enzyme is saturated with substrate (d) best measure of enzyme’s ability 434. Km is considered to be (a) enzyme’s affinity for substrate (b) the turnover number (c) enzyme is saturated with substrate value (d) best measure of enzyme’s ability 435. kcat/Km is not considered to be (a) first order rate constant (b) second order rate constant (c) catalytic effeciency (d) best measure of enzyme’s ability 436. What fraction of enzyme is saturated when Vmax = 50 M/min, Vo = 10 M/min, and [S]0 = 2 M? (a) 0.20 (b) 0.40 (c) 0.10 (d) 0.50 (e) can’t tell missing KM 437. What fraction of enzyme is saturated when Vmax = 40 M/min, V = 4 M/min, and [S]0 = 2 M? (a) 0.05 (b) 0.10 (c) 0.50 (d) 0.20 (e) can’t tell missing KM 438. Which equation is used for the experimental condition of [S]0 < [E]T? a. kcat = Vmax b. Vmax = kcat[E]T c. v = kcat[E]T[S] d. v = kcat.Km-1[E]T[S] e. Vmax = kcat/[E]T 439. Under saturating conditions, Vmax is 8.0 x 10-2 M/min for [E]T = 1.0 x 10-6 M. What is kcat? a. 8.0 x 10-4 min-1 b. 8.0 x 104 min-1 c. 1.2 x 10-5 min-1 d. 8.0 x 10-8 min-1 e. can’t tell need [S] 440. Enzyme at 5.0 x 10-5 M hydrolyzes the substrate with kcat = 30.0 s-1. The rate of product formation for this substrate at [S]0 = 2.5 x 10-6 M was 1.5 x 10-5 M/s. What is KM for this E-S? a. 2.5 x 10-4 M b. 1.5 x 10-3 M-1 c. 4.0 x 103 M-1 d. 3.8 x 10-9 M 441. Which parameter best represents an enzyme’s ability? a) kcat b) kcat / KM c) KM d) Vmax 442. For , assuming k2 is rate-determining, what are the rate constants for KM? 443. What is the enzyme concentration showing kcat = 25 s-1 and a Vmax of 100 mM/s? a) 4.0 mM b) 0.25 mM c) 2,500 mM d) 0.40 mM e) need Km 444. An enzyme’s kcat is 10.0 min-1 and KM = 2.0 mM. What is the reaction’s velocity with [E]t = 0.50 mM when [S] = 100.0 mM? a) 2.5 mM/min b) 0.10 mM/min c) 5.0 mM/min d) 250 mM/min 445. What is a reaction’s Vmax with [E]t = 0.10 M, [S] = 50 M and kcat is 12.0 s-1? a) 2.4 uM/s b) 60 uM/s c) 1.2 uM/s d) can’t tell missing Km 446. Under saturating conditions, Vmax is 60 uM/min and kcat is 15 min-1 what is [E]T? a. 0.25 uM b. 900 uM c. 4 uM d. can’t tell need [S] e. can’t tell need [S] and Km 447. What type of inhibitor is mixed with the enzyme, according to the experimental plot? a) competitive b) noncompetitive c) uncompetitive d) unproductive 448. An enzyme a. makes products more stable b. accelerates the forward reaction rate c. accelerates the reverse reaction rate d. accelerates the forward and reverse reaction rates 449. What type of inhibitor was used according to the Lineweaver-Burke plot? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 450. Which equation is used for the experimental saturating condition of [S] >> [E]T? a. kcat = Vmax b. Vmax = kcat[E]T c. v = kcat[E]T[S] d. v = kcat.Km-1[E]T[S] e. Vmax = kcat/[E]T 451. Under saturating conditions, Vmax is 7.5 x 10-3 M/min and kcat = 1.5 x 104 min-1. What is [E]T? a. 5.0 x 10-7 M b. 112 min-1 c. 2.0 x 106 M-1 d. 7.5 x 10-3 M e. can’t tell need [S] 452. Enzyme at 3.5 x 10-5 M hydrolyzes the substrate with kcat = 15.0 s-1. The rate of product formation for this substrate at [S] = 1.5 x 10-6 M was 7.0 x 10-5 M/s. What is KM for this E-S? a. 8.9 x 104 M b. 1.1 x 10-5 M c. 5.2 x 10-4 M-1 d. 4.5 x 10-5 M 453. For enzyme reaction, [S] = 2 uM and [E]T = 1 uM, and Vmax is 10. mM/s. What is kcat? a. 500 s-1 b. 0.002 s-1 c. 5,000 s-1 d. 50 s-1 e. can’t tell need Km 454. For an enzymatic reaction kcat is 110.0 min-1, with [S]T = 1.5 M, [E]t = 50 M the velocity was 25 M/min, what is KM? (a) 8.4 mM (b) 220 M (c) 495 M (d) 330 M 455. For an enzymatic reaction KM = 75 M and kcat is 35 min-1, with [S]T = 25 M, [E]t = 250 M the velocity was? (a) 225 mM/min (b) 330 M/min (c) 3.0 mM/min (d) 13 mM/min 456. What type of inhibitor was used according to the graph? 457. For an enzymatic reaction KM = 350 M, with [S]0 = 10 M, [E]T = 175 M the velocity was 37 M/s the kcat is? (a) 170 s-1 (b) 0.54 s-1 (c) 0.21 s-1 (d) 7.4 s-1 458. For an enzymatic reaction KM = 525 M and kcat is 9.0 min-1, with [S]0 = 50 M, the velocity was 105 M/min what is [E]T? (a) 600 M (b) 12 M (c) 1.2 M (d) 122 M (e) 9.0 M 459. For an enzymatic reaction KM = 1,500 M and kcat is 35 min-1, with [E]T = 250 M, the velocity was 55 M/min what is [S]0? (a) 329 M (b) 321 M (c) 9.4 M (d) 589 M 460. For an enzymatic reaction kcat is 5.0 min-1, with [S]0 = 125 M, [E]T = 75 M the velocity was 55 M/min, what is KM? (a) 850 M (b) 730 M (c) 458 M (d) 333 M 461. For an enzymatic reaction under saturating conditions, KM = 20 M and kcat is 75 min-1, with [S]0 = 925 M, [E]T = 125 M the velocity was? (a) 1.7 mM/min (b) 9.4 mM/min (c) 2.0 mM/min (d) 2.9 mM/min 462. For an enzymatic reaction kcat is 5.0 min-1, with [S]0 = 75 M, [E]t = 125 M the velocity was 51 M/min, what is KM? (a) 850 M (b) 730 M (c) 458 M (d) 333 M 463. What type of inhibitor was used according to the graph? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 464. For an enzymatic reaction KM = 150 M, with [S]o = 9.0 M, [E]t = 15 M the velocity was 525 M/min the kcat is? (a) 8.8 min-1 (b) 580 min-1 (c) 56 min-1 (d) 618 min-1 465. For an enzymatic reaction KM = 115 M and kcat is 35 min-1, with [S]o = 6.5 M, the velocity was 175 M/min what is [E]t? (a) 14 M (b) 5.0 M (c) 90 M (d) 20 M 466. For an enzymatic reaction KM = 1,100 M and kcat is 55 s-1, with [E]T = 110 M, the velocity was 83 M/s what is [S]o? (a) 1.1 mM (b) 15 M (c) 390 M (d) 253 M 467. What type of inhibition is shown? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 468. What type of inhibitor was used according to the Lineweaver-Burke plot? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 469. What type of inhibitor was used according to the graph? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 470. Starch a. is used for energy storage in animals b. is used for energy storage in plants c. has -linkages d. exists in layers e. both c and d 471. Carbohydrate coated lipids and proteins on cell surfaces are called a. antibodies b. enzymes c. lectins d. glycans e. saccharides 472. Which type of blood cell is depicted? a. O+ b. O- c. AB- d. AB+ e. A+ 473. Uracil is found in a. RNA b. DNA c. proteins d. lipids e. membranes 474. What type of inhibitor was used according to the Lineweaver-Burke plot? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 475. Most common sugars are a) dextrorotatory b) levorotatory c) -L- d) called -D- e) (a) and (d) 476. Which polysaccharide makes crab shells? a) chitin b) cellulose c) starch d) amylopectin 477. Which blood group is shown? a) B+ b) B- c) A+ d) A- e) AB- 478. What type of inhibition is shown? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 479. The y-axis intercept of a Lineweaver Burke plot gives (a) KM (b) 1/ KM (c) Vmax (d) 1/Vmax (e) -1/KM 480. The x-axis intercept of a Lineweaver Burke plot gives (a) KM (b) 1/ KM (c) Vmax (d) 1/Vmax (e) -1/KM 481. Which blood group is shown? a) B+ b) B- c) A+ d) A- e) AB- 482. What strand would RNA polymerase make from noncoding -GCTA-? a) -CGAT- b) -CGAU- c) -TACG- d) -UCGA- 483. RNA producing protein is called a) polymerization b) transcription c) translation d) proteinization 484. A molecule that slows the rate of product formation from enzymatic catalysis is called a (a) retarder (b) inhibitor (c) reducer (d) blocker 485. Amylopectin forms -helices because it a. has -linkages b. has an amide backbone c. contains several sulfates d. has -linkages e. has mostly polar groups 486. Which blood type is the universal donor? a. O+ b. O- c. AB- d. AB+ e. A+ 487. Which blood type is the universal receiver? a. O+ b. O- c. AB- d. AB+ e. A+ 488. What type of inhibition is shown? a. competitive b. noncompetitive c. uncompetitive d. mix 489. The most stable monosaccharide is (a) -D-glucose (b) -D-mannose (c) -D-galactose (d) - D-glucose (e) -D- galactose 490. Aminoathracene would bind DNA’s a. phosphate atom b. ribose sugar c. major groove d. minor groove e. a and d 491. A reducing sugar has which functional group? 492. Which glucose polymer is used for stored energy in animals? (a) glycogen (b) chitin (c) cellulse (d) starch 493. Which glucose polymer is used for stored energy in plants? (a) glycogen (b) chitin (c) cellulose (d) starch 494. Which glucose polymer is used for structure in plants? (a) glycogen (b) chitin (c) cellulose (d) starch 495. Which N-acetylglucosamine polymer is used for exoskeletons? (a) glycogen (b) chitin (c) cellulose (d) starch 496. Which antibodies would be in the serum with this blood cell? (a) anti-A (b) anti-B (c) anti-A and anti-B (d) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh (e) none 497. Which antibodies would be in the serum with this blood cell? (a) anti-A (b) anti-B (c) anti-Rh and anti-B (d) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh (e) none 498. Which antibodies would be in the serum with this blood cell? (a) anti-A (b) anti-B (c) anti-A and anti-B (d) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh (e) none 499. Which antibodies would be in the serum with this blood cell? (a) anti-A (b) anti-B (c) anti-A and anti-B (d) anti-A, anti-B, anti-Rh (e) none 500. Which is an omega-6 fatty acid? 501. What molecule provides the instructions for life processes? (a) RNA (b) DNA (c) proteins (d) carbohydrates (e) lipids 502. What molecule helps to carry out the instructions for life processes and used in coding/decoding in the expression of genes? (a) RNA (b) DNA (c) proteins (d) carbohydrates (e) lipids 503. Which bases are purines? (a) G and C (b) A and T (c) C and T (d) A and G 504. Which bases are pyrimidines? (a) G and C (b) A and T (c) C and T (d) A and G 505. Which is not a DNA helix (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Z 506. Which is the most common DNA helix (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Z 507. Which DNA helix has a zig-zag shape (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) Z 508. Proteins interact mainly in DNA’s (a) minor groove (b) major groove (c) phosphonate backbone (d) carbohydrates 509. DNA copied to RNA is called (a) translation (b) transportation (c) transcription (d) transcendental 510. RNA producing protein is called (a) translation (b) transportation (c) transcription (d) transcendental 511. The strand of DNA that is the coding strand is also called the _____strand (a) sense (b) antisense (c) nonsense 512. During transcription, RNA polymerase would synthesize _____ when DNA’s sense, coding strand is 5’-GAT-3’. a. -CAT- b. -GAT- c. -CTA- d. -CTU- e. -GAU- 513. Which is not one of the four major groups in biology? (a) carbohydrates (b) polymers (c) lipids (d) proteins (e) nucleic acids 514. DNA’s replication is a. semiconservative b. partial c. permanent d. conservative e. complete 515. Fatty acids are a source of a. glucose b. acetyl-CoA c. amino acids d. proteins e. nucleotides 516. In DNA replication (a) the lagging strand gets a new DNA strand (b) the leading strand gets a new DNA strand (c) both lagging and leading strand get a new DNA partner (d) the leading and the lagging strand reform their duplex 517. Which base is easiest to oxidize? (a) adenine (b) guanine (c) cytosine (d) thymine 518. Which base dimerizes during sun damage? (a) adenine (b) guanine (c) cytosine (d) thymine 519. Enzyme inhibitors that form a covalent bond to the enzyme are called (a) linkers (b) covalent blockers (c) suicide inhibitors (d) covalent inhibitors 520. Which group has water insoluble fats and oils? (a) carbohydrates (b) polymers (c) lipids (d) proteins (e) nucleic acids 521. During transcription, which mRNA would be made from DNA’s antisense, noncoding strand 3’-CGA-5’. a. -TCG- b. -GCU- c. -GCT- d. -GCA- e. -GAU- 522. Fats tend to have (a) shorter alkyl chains (b) longer, saturated alkyl chains (c) longer, unsaturated alkyl chains 523. Oils tend to have (a) unsaturated trans alkyl chains (b) saturated alkyl chains (c) unsaturated cis chains 524. Natural oils have (a) only single bonded carbon-carbon bonds (b) some trans double bonds (c) some cis double bonds 525. What do humans use to help control membrane fluidity? a. glucose b. acetyl-CoA c. amino acids d. steroids e. nucleotides 526. Which lipid carries the blood groups (a) phospholipid (b) glycolipid (c) archaeal (d) sphingolipid 527. Cellular phospholipids generally contain (a) one saturated and one unsaturated fatty acid (b) two saturated fatty acids (c) two unsaturated fatty acids (d) three saturated fatty acids 528. How are fatty acids soluble in water? a. they have short aliphatic tails b. as bilayers c. as energy source d. as micelles e. as fats 529. Rank the most to least likely to be found in the lipid portion of a membrane? a. 5 > 1 > 4 > 3 > 2 b. 1 > 5 > 4 > 2 > 3 c. 3 > 2 > 4 > 5 > 1 d. 2 > 3 > 5 > 4 > 1 e. 1 > 5 > 3 > 4 > 2 530. Which is a typical wax? 531. What functional group provides bacterial cell wall stability in extreme environments? (a) ester (b) ether (c) amide (d) alcohol (e) carboxylic acid