CDC 2W151B Set PDF - Answers

CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov the most commonly used powered lift trucks are the MJ-1/B, MHU-83, MJ-40. Which part of the MJ-1/B controls the engine speed? Hand throttle located to the le...

CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov the most commonly used powered lift trucks are the MJ-1/B, MHU-83, MJ-40. Which part of the MJ-1/B controls the engine speed? Hand throttle located to the left of the steering wheel changing the position of the MJ-1B accelerator pedal varies the flow rate of the pump in the hydrostatic drive. Which part of the hydrostatic drive system is supported by the lift cradle assembly. arms and used to hold the munition or store to be loaded? the lifting capacity of the MJ-40 lift truck is 10,000 pounds. which aircraft loading missions are supported by the MJ-40 lift B-1, B-2. truck? Which loading controls are found only on the MJ-40 lift truck Ram up/down. remote? What number of pounds is the lift capacity of the MHU-83 lift truck? 7,000. Which fuel type is the MHU-83 lift truck capable of using? Diesel or JP-8. the controls for adjusting the side frame width of the MHU-83 lift operator's position only. truck are located at the Which device ensures the boom cannot fall in the event hydraulic power is loss, a component fails, or a line breaks on the MHU-83 counterbalance valve. series lift trucks? The MHU-83 lift truck component used to lift the front wheels off lift boom. the ground to allow side frame width adjustment is the The parking break on the MHU-83 lift truck is set by closing the locking valve then depressing the brake pedal. Which variant of the MHU-83 lift truck incorporates a remote control unit and hydraulic servicing lines/connectors to perform MHU-83 D/E tasks that once necessitated the use of the MJ-40 lift truck? The purpose of the hydraulic hand pump located on the right hand operate the hydraulic system should the engine quit during loading side of the MHU-83 lift truck is to operations. which type of movement do bomb lift truck rollers provide during rotation loading how many pounds is the lift capacity of a MJ-1 lift truck with 3,000. aluminum rollers installed? what number of pounds is the lift capacity of an MHU-83 lift truck 7,000 with aluminum rollers installed. Which bomb support rollers may be used with roller extensions? all rollers Which type of load binder is attached to bomb support beams? Nylon How many pounds is the lifting capacity of the sling assembly used 4,600 on lift trucks or forklift adapters? the proper method to install the extension lift arms or on the in the lift arms MJ-1A/B lift truck is by inserting the ends of the arms into slots Which device must be used when forklift adapters are installed on load binders the lift trucks? what weight is the MJ-40 and mhu-83 series lift truck limited to 6,000 when using the fork adapter assembly? which component is used in conjunction with the MHU-83 series fork adapter assembly lift truck to load external heavy stores on a B-52? which device attach the fork adapters to the MHU-83 series lift two quick-release pins truck's table assembly? how many inches is the maximum lifting height when the adapter 107.5 assembly is inverted on the MHU-83 series lifting truck? Pylons are attached to pylon handling adapters for mounting or the pylons bomb rack hooks removing from aircraft with F310707-500 bomb loading adapter 1 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov Which bomb loading adapter is used in loading internal and ex- ternal stores on the B-52? where does the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) receive its through two hydraulic service lines attached to the lift trucks lift power? boom how is the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) primarily controlled the lift trucks remote control unit and operated? how many inches high is the mechanical ram assembly (MRA) 83 when fully extended? how many pounds is the lift capacity of the mechanical ram 5,000 assembly (MRA). the maximum load capacity of a MHU-141/M trailer is 5,500 pounds what number of pounds is the maximum load capacity of an 15,000 MHU-110/M trailer How many main rail assemblies can be installed on the deck of six the MHU-110/M trailer? How many trolleys and chocks can the MHU-110/M trailer be 24 trolleys and 48 chocks configured with for round-shaped stores? How many hand brake lever(s) are located on the MHU-226/M two munitions handling trailer? the lift capacity of the MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M lift trailers is 40,000 pounds To prevent personnel injury or equipment damage, each opera- tional mode of the MHU-204/M and the MHU-196/M lift trailers "Deadman" switch is released on the PCU automatically shuts off when either on or two team members press the remote stop switch or when the during tow what is the travel of the tow bar the MHU-204/M and 45 MHU-196/M lift trailer is limited to? Which MHU-204/M and MHU-196/M lift trailer components allow for precise lateral and longitudinal positioning corrections to the X-Y pads lift trailers and load during lifting operations? Independent operation of either lift arm mechanism on the rolling the load MHU-196/M lift trailer results in Which MHU-196/M lift trailer component supports the lift arms retractable travel locks under transport conditions? How much air pressure must be in the compressor tank before 90 psi loading with the MHU-196/M lift trailer? how many rounds of ammunition is the capacity of the 20 mm 2,100 linkless admonition loading adapter(LALS)? which component of the linkless ammunition loading system interface unit (LALS) transfers rounds into the gun systems loading adapter? which component of the A-10 ammunition loading system (ALS) GFU-7E ALA interfaces with the aircraft during ammunition loads? during normal loading of the A-10 gun system, where does the the aircraft hydraulic system ammunition loading assembly (ALA) get its power? how many different outputs can an A/M 32A-60 generator pro- three vide? Which unit is the only auxiliary power unit (APU) to provide both A/M 32A-60 electrical and pneumatic power? Which A/M 32A-60 control panel has the switches and controls necessary to operate the direct current (DC) generator and to DC instrument monitor the DC voltage output of the generator set? What source is the output of the A/M32A-95 Gas Turbine Com- bleed air pressor? 2 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov Due to the expansion properties of fuel, an unmodified A/M32A-95 1/2 fuel tank should not be filled more than approximately how full? how many instrument/control panels must use the operator make three use of during operation of the A/M 32A-86 generator set? Which A/M 32A-86 control panel contains the gauges and controls required for monitoring the output voltage and amperage of the generator control unit during operation? Which panel of the A/M 32A-86 generator set has the circuit external alternating current (AC) breaker to shut off current flow in case of an overload? which auxiliary power unit serves as an external power source for starter cart assembly (SCA) the MQ-1 and MQ-9 aircraft/ which type of power is provided to the MQ-1 and MQ-9 aircraft by 28 VDC starter cart assembly (SCA) for use in avionics systems? Where is the control panel of the starter cart assembly (SCA) underneath a cover located at the top of the unit located? An operator not required at or in the immediate vicinity of an in-use inert training munitions auxiliary power unit (APU) when they are practice loading Fighter aircraft may be exempted from the 50-foot distance place- combat or simulated combat operations ment requirements of an auxiliary power unit (APU) during Which air compressor may be used to operate small pneumatic MC-2A tools? How much air pressure is produced by the MC-2A air compres- 15 cfm at 200 psi sor? how many pounds per square inch (psi) is the maximum air 30 psi pressure you may use for cleaning equipment or work areas Before you connect or disconnect a high-pressure service hose, pressurized you must make sure the system is not Which power output of a portable floodlight set is used for pow- 115-120 volts, alternating current (VAC) ering common electrically powered hand tools? the FL-1D floodlight can serve as a ground power source for MQ-1 DCs40-75 "Sorensen" power supply unit and MQ-9 aircraft when used in conjunction with a/an how long can the lights of a FL-1D floodlight must be left off before 10-15 minutes you should restart them when can you use the floodlight receptacles for external power to never, these receptacles cannot be used to operate accessories operate accessories? in which position must the FL-1D floodlight's platform be placed lowered completely during towing? which additional piece of aerospace ground equipment (AGE) generator set is required during operation of the A/M 32C-10 air A/M 32A-60 conditioner? How far from the supported aircraft should the A/M 32C-10 air conditioner be positioned for optimum unit operating efficiency 15 to 30 feet and safety? Which pound per square inch (psi) is the maximum amount of bleed-air pressure that may be applied to the A/M 32C-10 air 45 psi conditioner? How many operators are required to be present during the oper- two ation of the -10 air conditioner? which additional piece of aerospace ground equipment (AGE) is required during the operation of the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/ air none, it is a self-contained system cooling cart? how many fluid temperature modes are available on the polyal- two phaolefin (PAO)/ air cooling cart? 3 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov Which action must be ensured before making or breaking a con- nection between the polyalphaolefin (PAO)/air cooling cart and the system is depressurized aircraft? the cool-air hatch on the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand is located on top the unit, but which location on the unit Which panel(s) of the MJ-2A hydraulic test stand has most of the main panel operating controls? If hydraulic fluid comes in contact with your eyes during a MJ-2A flush eyes with water and seek medical attention hydraulic test stand operation, what should you do? what reason is necessary for making sure aircraft fittings are clean dirty fittings can introduce contaminants to the hydraulic systems before attaching hydraulic servicing hoses? causing damage to valves and lines Which aircraft(s) require aircraft armament system personnel to F-22 only use the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)? when using the self-generating nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC) why is it important that waste gasses are not allowed to accumu- excess oxygen can pose a fire or explosion hazard late in an enclosed space? why is it important to prevent venting the self-generating nitrogen large volumes of nitrogen can displace the oxygen in the air if there servicing cart (SGNSC) storage tanks is an enclosed space with- is inadequate ventilation out sufficient ventilation? which precaution must be taken prior to attempting to loosen fit- you must vent the pressure from that part of the system through tings, or removing tubes or hoses when using the self-generating the appropriate valve nitrogen servicing cart (SGNSC)? What range in feet is the height of the B-1 maintenance stand? 3 to 10 the maximum static load the B-1 maintenance stand can sustain 500 pounds is what rang in feet is the platform height of the B-4 maintenance 3 to 7 stand? the hand pump for raising the B-4 maintenance stand is located platform near the ladder on the which maintenance stand is described as a scissors-type, with a variable-height platform, and mounted on a long-legged cast- B-5 er-equipped base? What range in feet is the platform height of the B-5 maintenance 7 to 12 stand? which maintenance stand is described as a nonadjustable 4-foot C-1 platform with wheels on the back legs which maintenance stand can be used independently, or can be C-1 in stalled as an extension on the b-1 maintenance stand? the split-deck maintenance platform is currently being used with B-1B which aircraft? the lifting capacity of the davit on the split-deck maintenance 250-500 pounds platform is If the split-deck maintenance platform's tape switches detect an obstruction during an operation, what will the switches stop on the forward drive, platform extension, and lowering capabilities unit? What number of pounds is the total lift capacity of the split-deck 2,000 maintenance platform? during the operator's pre-use inspection of aerospace ground equipment (AGE), what action is required by the operator to cycle the unit completely through its range of capabilities ensure proper unit operation? which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form(s) is/are used to annotate any defects you may find on your aerospace ground AFTO Forms 244 and 245 equipment (AGE)? 4 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov High-explosive (HE) bombs are classified according to their kill mechanism or designed use the weight range of general purpose bombs currently in produc- 250 to 2,000 pounds tion is Which bomb category is not suitable for target penetration? blast bombs Which class of bombs is used against targets such as reinforced penetration concrete structures and bridges? the primary target for shaped charge munitions is Heavily armored targets the primary kill mechanism of kinetic energy penetrator is its force of impact Even though kinetic energy penetrator munitions contain no ex- many of their delivery systems contain explosives or other haz- plosive they must be handled carefully because ardous components the design of nuclear bombs is similar to which type of gener- high-drag al-purpose (GP) bomb? the fragmentation bomb is made of spirally wound spring steel. how many inches is the suspension lug spacing for conventional 14 bombs weighing up to 1,000 pounds what is the purpose of the bomb arming wire assembly? keep the fuze from arming until the bomb is released in case of a malfunction which bomb marking might require doc- lot number and serial number umentation on the AF Form 2434? Which color band is painted around high explosive (HE) muni- yellow tions? Smoke munitions have which color band painted around them? light-green what secures the aft cover to the stabilizer housing of the BSU-49 two spring-loaded latch assemblies AIR bomb? the air inflatable retarder (AIR) is inflated by ram air entering through four inlets in the retarder itself. the BLU-109/B is what type of bomb penetration Which of these bombs is designed with only a tail fuze well? BLU-109/B the BLU-113A/B penetrator bomb weighs 4,500 pounds the BLU-113A/B serves as the warhead for the GBU-28A/B and B/B. Standard laser guided bombs have their pulse code set by load using dials located on the under side of the seeker head crews or aircrew members the enhanced guided bomb unit (EGBU) is a hybrid system using laser and global positioning system and inertial navigation guid- both a ance system the MK 84 2,000 pound general purpose (GP) bomb or the GBU-10 BLU-117 GP bomb is used as a warhead by the All GBU-12 models use which bomb as a warhead? MK-82 the GBU-15`s powered control surfaces are located on the trailing edge of the wings what is the weight of the GBU-24A/B 2,000 pounds the GBU-24A/B uses what warhead BLU-109/B what is the weight of the GBU/EGBU-28 5,000 pounds Which model of the Joint Direct Attack Munition (JDAM) family of GBU-32 bombs uses the MK-83 and BLU-110 as a warhead? the GBU-39 weighs 250 pounds a complete cluster bomb unit (CBU) consists of a quantity of small dispenser submunitions and a Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) consists of a SUU-65/B dispenser CBU-107 and a submunition payload of kinetic energy penetrators (KEP)? Which SUU-64 and SUU-65 dispenser component cuts the dis- linear shape charges penser into three longitudinal sections removing the tail section? 5 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov Which submunition is designed as an anti-tank mine? BLU-91/B Which submunition is an anti-personnel munition? BLU-92/B Which submunition incorporates a spin rocket to more effectively BLU-108/B distribute skeet munitions over a wide area? Which cluster bomb unit (CBU) contains kinetic energy penetra- CBU-107 tors (KEP) arranged into "packs" of varying sizes? which of these is a 500-pound practice bomb? BDU-50 You can reinstall the safety clip in which BDU-33B/B configura- those equipped with a CXU-2/B spotting charge tion? the B61 suspension lug spacing is how many inches? 30 the strike enabling plug is on which subassembly of the B61 bomb preflight When the B61 nuclear bomb is released the actuator lug located firing the bomb's spin rocket on the tail assembly is pulled up, the time-to-arm (TA) and time-to- burst (TB) settings on the B83 access door on the aft assembly are behind the How are bomb fuzes classified? Position and method of arming. A typical operating range for time fuzes is how many seconds? 5 to 92 Proximity fuzes will produce airbursts at heights between how 20 to 125 many feet above ground? the M904 mechanical nose fuzes' firing delay time begins after the bomb has impacted what must you do when changing the arming time settings on the depress the timing lock M905 tail fuze? which of these is the only safety device on the FMU-124A/B fuze? pin what supplies electrical power to operate the FMU-139/B fuze? FZU-48/B initiator the FZU-39/B proximity sensor has how many selectable height 10 range functions? which of these bombs may use the FMU-143/B, A/B fuze? BLU-109 and GBU-24 which initiator provides electrical power to the FMU-152 tail fuze? FZU-55/B which component inside the guidance window of the AGM-65 humidity indicator must be checked before loading After loading and during flight the AGM-65 missile is held on the shear pin LAU-88 launcher by the the AGM-65 can be configured with two warheads, a 125 pound 300 pound blast/fragmentation warhead shaped charge or a which component protects the pins of the umbilical connector on shielding cap the AGM-65 until just before loading which aircraft carries the AGM-88 high-speed anti-radiation mis- F-16 sile (HARM)? the AGM-158 uses what class of warhead 1000 pound Which AGM-86 components are the attach points to mate it to its forward and aft clevises ejector rack? The AGM-86 warhead's arming device can be safed either electrically or mechanically the AIM-9 L/M series of missile are designed to be launched from rail-type what kind of launchers? Which AIM-9 L/M section contains the four canards? Guidance and control section Which missile component is the main connection between the an umbilical cable AIM-9 L/M missiles and the aircraft? How are the guidance canards of the AIM-9 L/M missiles con- electrically trolled? 6 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov the AIM-9 L/M warhead is normally detonated upon impact with a target, but may also be detonated when there's a near miss by influence fuze/target detector the Which AIM-9X component provides enhanced maneuverability over older types of Sidewinders missiles by deflecting rocket jet vein control motor thrust to aid in turning? the device that provides connection between the umbilical and the buffer connector launcher umbilical of the AIM-120 is a/an what is displayed on the indicator if the rocket motor's arm/fire a white "S" on a green background device (AFD) is in the safe condition? Rockets that are used during combat are classified as service rockets which type of rocket warhead produces blast, fragmentation, and high explosive mining effects? which type of rocket is used for the target marking or incendiary white phosphorus effects? when can you remove the shielding tape from a rocket motor? immediately before loading Which ammunition round component expands in and seals the barrel's chamber to keep gas from escaping to the rear when the cartridge case cartridge is fired? Which ammunition component actually starts the chain reaction primer to fire the round? Small particles may self-ignite when exposed to the friction and what does the term pyrophoric mean? heat of a munitions strike. which precautions must you take to prevent exposure to harmful there are no additional protective measures required beyond radiation when working around unfired munitions containing de- those standards for all munitions pleted uranium? a normal round with the primer and propellant removed is called dummy round a what distinguishes 20mm high explosive incendiary with tracer ring of red Ts stenciled around the projectile (HEIT) rounds from high explosive incendiary (HEI) rounds? Which type of projectile has a hollow body? Target practice (TP) You must be extremely careful when handling linked ammo to getting cut or pinched keep from Ammunition should never be needlessly subjected to sunlight prolonged exposure to heat will affect its ballistics because what are the two basic types of impulse cartridges? explosive and non-explosive which of these impulse cartridges is not case grounded? BBU-63/B Which impulse cartridge component normally provides a ground case for the electrical firing circuit? what do you use to place scribe markings on the closure disc of indelible ink marker an impulse cartridge? How many insertion markings constitute the end of service life for impulse cartridges that are used in breeches with spring-loaded 10 firing pins? forcibly hold the time-and release mechanism on the flare housing which action do you take if the timer knob of a LUU_2/B flare to prevent ejection of the timer and release mechanism; then tape is accidentally pulled during ground handling and the timer cycle the mechanism on the flare housing and mark if for disposal once starts? the timer completes its cycle on the LUU-2A/B flare what limits timer travel between safe and pin 500 feet? a F-15 and F-16 aircraft uses which type of flare magazines? MJU-12 what aircraft uses the MJU-17 flare magazines? F-15 and F-16 7 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov How many flare magazines can be loaded on the F-22? 6 the F-22 countermeasure stations are located just aft of the left and right side weapons bays How many RR196/AL chaff bundles may be loaded in the ALE-52 18 magazines used in the F-22? AN/ALE-50 decoys can be deployed by the F-16 and the B-1 How many AN/ALE-50 decoys can the B-1 carry? 8 the heavy stores adapter beam can carry how many ADM-160B 8 miniature Air Launched Decoys (MALD)? which navel mine uses the MK 82 GP bomb as its warhead? MK 62 all navel mine casings are painted gold which aircraft is capable of deploying the MK 65 quickstrike mine? B-52H only Before operating bomb bay door systems for check out, you must all personnel and equipment have been cleared from the area of make sure operation the noise intensity of jet aircraft is greatest in the rear of the engines at an angle of 45° on either side. What symptom can a person expect to experience before suffering there are no symptoms before damage occurs organ damage from radio frequency radiation exposure? which Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) form has an entry identi- 781A, maintenance discrepancy and work document fying the types and quantities of munitions loaded on an aircraft? what information is the topic of Air Force Manual (AFMAN) explosive safety standards 91-201? from which side of an aircraft do you fight a fire when possible? upwind general purpose bombs normally detonate within how long after two to four minutes being engulfed in flames? Personnel line badges are classified as what type of foreign object metals damage (FOD)? what is the foreign object damage (FOD) walk? An organized inspection and physical pickup of foreign objects primed and top coated due primarily to its low resistance to cor- Anytime you see magnesium, how will it always appear? rosion Aluminum's formation of a tightly adhering oxide film provides increased resistance under mild corrosive conditions How does corrosion appear on nickle- or chrome-plated steel small spots on the plated surface surfaces? Piano hinges are prime spots for corrosion because they are dissimilar metal contact between the steel pin and the aluminum natural traps for dirt, salt, and moisture and hinge tangs an important part of corrosion control is detecting and treating the earliest corrosion when it is in what stage? Which cockpit panel allows electrical power to be distributed aircraft power panel throughout the entire aircraft electrical system? the energizing and de-energizing of bomb rack solenoids at se- main armament control panels lected weapons stations normally is performed through the What panel works in conjunction with the special weapons control panels to facilitate all of the functions needed to release a special main armament control panel weapon? What display or panel contains lights to advise you or the pilot of master caution light panel the status of all aircraft systems? which aircraft use integrated keyboards to select information for B-52, B-1B, B-2, and AC-130 display on the video displays? Basic system functions contained in the analog stores manage- release, and weapons selection ment system are arming, how would you best describe the typical analog system? hardwired 8 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov what component of an analog system is responsible for distribut- primary bus ing power to the aircraft's main armament circuit breaker panel? in digital stores management systems, what component acts as a multiplex terminal for signals being sent to or coming from interface unit weapons stations? The functions of a digital stores management system are initiated operator by the which aircraft employs all three stores management systems B-52 (SMS)? in a fault isolation system using built-in-test (BIT) checks, the subsystem or system results of the test should narrow a fault down to a Radar navigation systems associated with the weapons systems missiles normally facilitate the computerized release of onboard which mechanical bomb rack is the only one presently in use? B-11 During release, what component of the B-11 bomb shackle caught arming hook by the arming wire? Which gas-operated bomb racks are nuclear capable? MAU-12, BRU-44, and BRU-47. How many arming solenoids are normally found on gas-operated three bomb racks? Nuclear capable bomb racks are equipped with an in-flight safety lock. What permits the release units used on cluster bomb racks to be trip screw released manually? the conventional bomb module may be installed in which B-1B forward, aft, and intermediate weapons bay? Rotating of the bomb module swing arms is enabled by cartridge-powered actuators How many MK-82 500-pound bombs can be carried by the bomb 20 rack assembly? Which rotary launcher is used in the B-52? Common strategic rotary launcher (CSRL). the multipurpose rotary launcher is controlled electrically During ground rotation of the multipurpose rotary launcher rota- 1/8 normal rotation speed tion, speed is When power is initially applied, a loaded triple ejector rack (TER) first loaded station position of the unit will step to the When BDU-33s are carried on a triple ejector rack (TER), to yoke adapter provide alignment of the bomb, you must install a the BRU-57 bomb rack is electrically connected to the aircraft by MIL-STD-1760 cable a Which munition is the BRU-61/A bomb rack capable of carrying? GBU-39 How many munitions is the BRU-61/A bomb rack capable of four carrying? How are the pitch valves set on a BRU-61/A bomb rack? manually What does the aft pivot point provide on a jettisonable pylon? initial nose-down pitch which operating mode of a LAU-106 is always a manual process? latching What launcher is the only pneudraulically operated missile LAU-142 launcher? what system is the only missile system supported by the LAU-142 AIM-120 missile launcher? Normally, what do you use to anodize and coat launcher rail molybdenum disulfide (dry lube) surfaces? 9 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov on the LAU-88 missile launcher, what component keeps the shear lock nut pin from backing out during flight? on AIM-9 and AIM-120 capable rail launchers, what component prevents the missile from leaving the rail if the rocket motor fires an in-flight lock (IFL) inadvertently? What missile launcher is the only rail launcher that automatically modified M299 engages the missile umbilical during loading? Built-in-test (BIT) units in rail launchers automatically check for proper voltage tolerances in the launcher electrical units what number is the rocket capacity of the LAU-131 rocket launch- 7 er? what mechanism within the LAU-131's tubes restrains the rockets Detents against normal flying loads? How is the LAU-131 rocket pod safed? Electrically with a shorting pin. How many flares are contained in the SUU-25 flare dispenser? 8 What aircraft-generated computer signal allows the AIM-120 mis- release consent sile to begin its launch cycle? What armament system circuits are normally disabled during mechanical fuzing selective jettison? which aircraft does not have pylon jettisoning capability? F-16 how often are operational and functional checks normally done? 30 or 60 days who has the authority to change time constraints of opera- local commander tional/functional checks? A rotary-based gun system allows for a much higher rate of fire over either revolver-based or non-rotating-based multi-barrel simultaneously systems because all steps of the firing cycle take place which condition is detrimental effect of barrel heating? excessive barrel wear and warping to complete the firing cycle, recoil operated guns use force applied face of the bolt to the In gas-operated, single-barrel automatic guns, the force from the operating rod expansion chamber is transferred to the bolt face by the How is the GAU-2 automatic gun driven? electrically What number of rounds is the maximum firing rate of the GAU-2 4,000 rounds automatic gun? on the M61A1 rotary gun, the position of the bolt on the rotor is main cam and clearing cam path determined by the bolt shaft engaging the what component of the M61A1 rotary gun breech bolt makes firing pin electrical contact with the primer of the round? What number of rounds is the firing rate of the 25 millimeter (mm) 1,800 (+-100) rounds per minute (rpm) gun? the ammunition storing and handling system (ASHS) moves at 1/2 the gun speed what speed compared to the gun? What number of rounds is the firing rate of the GAU-8/A 30 3,900 rpm millimeter (mm) gun when it is installed in the A-10 aircraft? Into how many parts is the GAU-8/A 30 millimeter (mm) gun rotor two assembly divided? What GAU-8/A 30 millimeter (mm) gun component secures each interrupted locking lugs barrel into the rotor? During the GAU-30 millimeter (mm) gun firing cycle, what should the firing pin spring drives the firing pin forward to detonate the happen when the cocking pin is released from the cam at the sear primer of the round point? 10 / 11  CDC 2W151B set Study online at https://quizlet.com/_a74cov which direction does the M240 machine gun eject expended bottom brass? the M240 machine gun operates under the open bolt concept how many steps are there in the M240 machine gun cycle of 8 operation? the GAU-18 machine gun is operated by recoil which direction does the GAU-18 machine gun eject expended bottom brass? What ammunition feed system is used to supply the M2A1 40 mm clip automatic gun? What M137A1 105 millimeter (mm) howitzer assembly component wedge-shaped bosses acts as a secondary stop in case of recoil mechanism failure? what component of the M137A1 105 millimeter (MM) howitzer is recoil mechanism composed of the sleigh and recuperator assemblies? Depending on the particular system, the ammunition boxes of the 100 to 4,500 rounds link-fed system normally hold How are the ammunition cans of link-fed systems normally loaded by hand and unloaded? which aircraft does not make use of a linear linkless ammunition F-16 storage system? how many different gun gas scavenge designs are used on air- two craft? what aircraft makes use of a movable door covering the firing port F-22 for the projectiles to exit the aircraft? what two types of operational/functional checks are used for gun mechanical and electrical systems? When using the boresight method of harmonization, the boresight 1,000 inches from the nose wheel axle target normally is placed Where is the adjustment made on the gun when boresighting? gun mounts the use of ground interphones during aircraft functional check is mandatory In addition to a 5-gallon container of clean water and butyl rubber gloves, what must be available at a loading site where practice a protective mask bombs with CXU-1/B spotting charges are being loaded? If you find breech cartridge retainers installed, safety wired, or impulse cartridges are not installed sealed this certifies the in what loading step is the serviceability of the munition loading aircraft preperation stations determined? Which load crew performs aircraft safe for maintenance proce- both dures during a dual loading operation (DLO)? During a concurrent servicing operation, what servicing action oxygen cannot be performed while refueling? During a concurrent servicing operation, a concurrent servicing fueling is not being performed supervisor (CSS) is not required when 11 / 11