CCSK v5 Sample Questions PDF

CCSK v5 Sample Questions Check your knowledge before taking the exam Domain 1: Cloud Computing Concepts & Architectures Q1: Which of the following accurately defines the primary responsibility difference for IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS? In PaaS, the user manages the hardware and network infrastruct...

CCSK v5 Sample Questions Check your knowledge before taking the exam Domain 1: Cloud Computing Concepts & Architectures Q1: Which of the following accurately defines the primary responsibility difference for IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS? In PaaS, the user manages the hardware and network infrastructure In SaaS, the user is responsible for managing and updating the application itself In IaaS, the user manages applications, data, runtime, and OS In IaaS, the provider manages both the infrastructure and applications Justification: In the IaaS model, infrastructure management primarily lies with the user, except for the underlying hardware. Q2: What does ISO/IEC 22123-1:2023 define cloud computing as? A scalable and elastic pool of shareable resources A static and local set of dedicated resources A fixed and isolated pool of private resources A static and flexible collection of isolated resources Justification: This definition specifically highlights scalability, elasticity, and resource sharing, which are fundamental aspects of cloud computing as defined by ISO/IEC 22123-1:2023. Q3: Which characteristic of cloud computing can potentially increase security risks when compared to traditional on-premises infrastructure? Elasticity Broad network access Resource pooling Multi-tenancy © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 1 Justification: Multi-tenancy allows multiple users to share the same physical resources, increasing the attack surface and potential for data leaks between tenants. Q4: Which of the following best describes the composition of a cloud computing resource? It can include processors, memory, networks, databases, and applications It is limited to only raw infrastructure components like processors and memory It solely comprises high-level software resources such as databases and applications It consists primarily of physical servers and storage devices Justification: Cloud computing resources are flexible and cover a range of components, not limited to just hardware or software. Q5: What is the main purpose of abstraction in virtualization? Improving encryption protocols for data Creating virtual machines from physical servers Optimizing application software performance Increasing physical server storage capacity Justification: Abstraction in virtualization simplifies hardware resources into virtualized components. Domain 2: Cloud Governance Q6: What is involved in CSA STAR Attestation? Independent audits by third-party firms Automated compliance tools Self-assessments against CSA CCM Penetration testing Justification: CSA STAR Attestation includes self-assessments conducted using the Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM). Q7: Why are policies important in a cybersecurity framework? They provide a detailed implementation plan for security controls They serve as a reference for legal compliances They outline technical standards for system architectures They translate guidelines into actionable security requirements © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 2 Justification: Policies ensure that the high-level guidelines are enforceable and actionable. Q8: How does enterprise governance align IT capabilities with business objectives? By ensuring IT initiatives support overall business strategy By centralizing all IT decisions within the IT department By isolating IT from business processes to maintain security By focusing exclusively on technical efficiency Justification: Enterprise governance ensures that IT efforts contribute to the main goals and strategic direction of the organization. Q9: What is a key component for ensuring effective cloud governance? Using multiple cloud service providers Reducing cloud service costs Implementing strong frameworks and policies Focusing solely on compliance Justification: Strong frameworks and policies form the foundation of effective cloud governance, as they provide structure and guidelines. Domain 3: Risk, Audit & Compliance Q10: Which risk treatment strategy involves taking proactive steps to reduce the impact or likelihood of a risk? Transfer Mitigation Avoid Accept Justification: Mitigation involves developing actions to reduce the impact or likelihood of a risk. Q11: Which of the following actions is most effective in establishing a robust cloud risk profile for your organization? Rely solely on vendor certifications and assurances Deploy an extensive set of firewall rules Conduct regular risk assessments and security audits Adopt a one-time compliance assessment approach © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 3 Justification: Regular risk assessments and security audits help identify potential risks and vulnerabilities continuously, enabling proactive risk management. Q12: Which step in the assessment process involves analyzing the cloud service provider's policies and reports? Review CSP documentation Business requests Map to data classification Define required and compensating controls Justification: This step involves analyzing the cloud service provider's policies and reports to ensure they meet contractual and regulatory requirements. Q13: What is a primary reason that effective cloud risk management is critical for an organization? To reduce the cost of cloud services To enhance employee productivity To eliminate the need for internal IT staff To mitigate potential data breaches and ensure regulatory compliance Justification: Effective cloud risk management helps protect sensitive data and ensures the organization adheres to relevant laws and regulations. Q14: Which of the following best mitigates the risk of an unauthorized access incident in a cloud environment? Relying solely on strong passwords Implementing multi-factor authentication (MFA) Encrypting data at rest Regularly updating software Justification: MFA requires multiple forms of verification to access an account, which significantly reduces the risk of unauthorized access. © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 4 Domain 4: Organization Management Q15: What is the primary purpose of implementing centralized logging in a shared security services model? To enable comprehensive monitoring and quick identification of security incidents To reduce the overall cost of log storage To improve user authentication processes To simplify the deployment of applications Justification: Centralized logging gathers logs from various sources to facilitate monitoring and quick incident response. Q16: Which tool is best suited for ensuring secure API traffic in a SaaS environment? Federated Identity Brokers CASBs (Cloud Access Security Brokers) API Gateways IAM (Identity and Access Management) Justification: API Gateways act as a management tool that controls the way applications use APIs, ensuring secure API traffic handling. Q17: Which of the following is a core security capability provided by Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) to help manage access and permissions? Logging and Monitoring IAM (Identity and Access Management) Encryption-at-Rest DDoS Protection Justification: IAM is a critical security capability that helps manage user identities and their access to resources within the cloud environment. Q18: How do organization-level security controls differ from controls in individual deployments? They provide granular control for specific applications They focus solely on physical security measures They are less important compared to individual deployment controls They establish overarching policies and controls for the entire organization © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 5 Justification: Organization-level security covers broad policies that affect all departments to ensure a standardized security posture. Q19: What is the scope level at which policies can be applied within an organization? Organization-wide, group-level, or deployment-level Department-level, project-level, or team-level Region-level, unit-level, or task-level Enterprise-level, section-level, or role-level Justification: The policies can indeed be applied at an organization-wide, group-level, or deployment-level, ensuring flexibility in policy management. Domain 5: Identity and Access Management Q20: Which statement best describes Policy-Based Access Control (PBAC)? PBAC grants access based on user roles without any policy document PBAC defines extensive access requirements in a policy document PBAC relies on multi-factor authentication for resource access PBAC is a type of encryption algorithm used to secure data Justification: PBAC specifies access policies in documents, detailing the conditions under which resources can be accessed. Q21: Which of the following is considered a soft token in Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)? A physical USB device that generates a random code An SMS message with a one-time password sent to a registered phone A fingerprint scan used to unlock a secure application A smartphone app generating a time-based one-time password (TOTP) Justification: Soft tokens are usually software-based and can be implemented as apps on smartphones generating TOTPs. Q22: Why is Identity and Access Management (IAM) considered the new perimeter in cloud-native security environments? IAM ensures secure access to resources in a decentralized and dynamic cloud environment IAM is used solely for user authentication in on-premises environments © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 6  IAM replaces traditional network perimeter defenses entirely IAM is only relevant for managing large cloud infrastructure Justification: IAM controls who has access to what, ensuring that only authorized users can interact with resources, which is crucial in a cloud-native environment. Q23: What is the primary benefit of implementing IAM between organizations and cloud providers? Increased physical security of data centers Reduced need for encryption Centralized access control and management Enhanced performance of cloud services Justification: Centralized IAM allows organizations to maintain control over access policies and manage identities efficiently across various platforms. Q24: Which primary principle does Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) utilize to grant access? Uses specific attributes like user role, environment, and resource Uses the username and password only Grants access based on IP address Uses predefined group policies Justification: ABAC makes decisions based on various attributes like user role, environment conditions, and resources for access control. Domain 6: Security Monitoring Q25: What does Cascading Log Architecture involve in the context of log management? Distributed log storage Log replication Hierarchical log management Dynamic log partitioning Justification: Cascading Log Architecture is designed to streamline and organize logs hierarchically. © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 7 Q26: Why is centralization of logs and configuration crucial for distribution and segregation? It reduces the load on server hardware It ensures consistent monitoring and quick detection of anomalies It improves the physical security of data centers It eliminates the need for regular security audits Justification: Centralization allows for uniform monitoring, making detection and response to anomalies more efficient. Q27: Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of Cloud Security Posture Management (CSPM)? Managing cloud service subscriptions Optimizing cloud service performance Providing cloud cost management solutions Continuous monitoring and assessing cloud security Justification: CSPM is designed to continuously monitor and assess cloud security to identify and rectify vulnerabilities. Q28: Which type of log contains activities from console, API, or CLI access? Data Plane Logs Application Logs Management Plane Logs Security Logs Justification: Management Plane Logs monitor activities initiated through console, API, or CLI access. Q29: Which primary function of logs is vital for ensuring comprehensive monitoring and debugging of system activities? Optimizing system performance Providing detailed records of all system activities Blocking unauthorized access attempts Automating routine maintenance tasks Justification: Logs record every system activity, offering comprehensive monitoring and debugging capabilities. © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 8 Domain 7: Infrastructure & Networking Q30: Which technology improves security posture by assuming network traffic is untrusted until identity verification? Zero Trust Network Access (ZTNA) Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) Virtual Private Network (VPN) Firewall Justification: ZTNA operates on the principle that no user or device is trusted until proven otherwise, enhancing security by requiring identity verification before granting access. Domain 8: Cloud Workload Security Q31: Which section of a report would you typically find credit given to lead authors and contributors? Cloud Workload Security Detailed Contents Reviewers Acknowledgments Justification: Acknowledgments are typically where credit is given to lead authors, contributors, and reviewers. Q32: What is a key practice in securing container orchestration systems? Regularly applying patches and updates Disabling unused ports Ignoring CSP tools Avoiding security policy implementation Justification: Keeping software up-to-date is crucial for mitigating vulnerabilities and ensuring system security. Q33: Which principle should be prioritized when managing IAM for serverless applications to minimize security risks? Broad permissions Static roles © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 9  Least privilege access Manual access control Justification: Least privilege access ensures users and applications only have permissions necessary for their tasks, minimizing potential abuse. Q34: Why is the cloud preferred for AI workloads? Cloud is more secure for AI workloads Cloud reduces the cost of hardware Cloud services are always faster Cloud enables dynamic scaling for data and computational needs Justification: AI requires extensive data processing and computing power, both of which are efficiently handled by cloud's dynamic scaling capabilities. Domain 9: Data Security Q35: Which function of Data Loss Prevention (DLP) tools helps secure sensitive data in the cloud? Monitoring and protecting data Encrypting all network traffic Managing user access controls Blocking all unauthorized websites Justification: DLP tools aim to identify, monitor, and protect sensitive data, including in cloud environments. Q36: Which method provides security for specific data items by encrypting data at the application layer? Network level encryption Application level encryption File system encryption Database encryption Justification: Application level encryption secures specific data items at the application layer, enhancing data confidentiality. © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 10 Q37: What is one of the main advantages of using non-relational databases (NoSQL) over traditional relational databases? Enhanced ACID transaction support for all operations Highly scalable and flexible data storage formats Data is strictly structured in tables and rows Better suitability for small-scale applications Justification: Non-relational databases (NoSQL) are designed to scale horizontally and accommodate various data formats. Q38: Which of the following is NOT a common component of PaaS storage? Logging services Message queues In-memory databases Firewall rules setup Justification: Firewall rules setup is related to security configurations and networking, not storage services in PaaS. Q39: Why is data security imperative for an organization? It ensures organizational integrity, confidentiality, customer trust, and regulatory compliance It mainly helps in software development and deployment Data security primarily aims to enhance user interfaces It prevents internal communication failures Justification: The core aspects of data security are essential for maintaining the trust and legal standing of an organization. Domain 10: Application Security Q40: What is a key consideration when managing security in a cloud environment with the shared responsibility model? Client-controlled physical hardware must be isolated User authentication settings are exclusively client responsibility Provider-controlled libraries must be monitored and audited Network encryption is solely the client's responsibility © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 11 Justification: Ensuring security requires attention to components managed by the provider to prevent vulnerabilities. Q41: Which of the following best describes the importance of understanding infrastructure vulnerabilities in scalable applications? To ensure that security measures can handle increased load and complexity To minimize the costs associated with infrastructure upgrades To streamline the deployment process regardless of security To reduce the number of required compliance audits Justification: Understanding vulnerabilities helps in adapting security measures to support application scalability efficiently. Q42: Which of the following is crucial for ensuring application security in a cloud computing environment? Lowering network latency Implementing redundant power supplies Prioritizing bandwidth allocation Implementing robust access controls Justification: Robust access controls are essential to secure sensitive data and enforce user authentication in cloud environments. Q43: What is a crucial phase in application security that involves addressing vulnerabilities from early design to maintaining live applications? Only during initial development All stages from early design to live maintenance Only during testing phase Only during post-deployment maintenance Justification: Application security must be integrated from the initial design phase through continuous maintenance to ensure comprehensive protection. Q44: How can DevOps introduce risk, but also benefit application security? DevOps reduces the need for security testing DevOps focuses solely on automating deployment processes Faster deployment cycles can improve response times but may introduce untested code DevOps practices inherently guarantee secure applications © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 12 Justification: DevOps enables rapid deployment, which helps respond quickly to threats but may unintentionally introduce vulnerabilities. Domain 11: Incident Response & Resilience Q45: When establishing a cloud incident response program, what access do responders need to to effectively analyze incidents? Persistent read access and controlled write access for critical situations Unlimited write access for all responders at all times Full-read access without any approval process Access limited to log events for incident analysis Justification: It is essential for cloud incident response teams to have persistent read access to all deployments to review resources and configurations involved in an incident. Domain 12: Related Technologies & Strategies Q46: In the context of securing a PaaS model, which of the following is the most critical security control to implement? Securing the hardware Securing user access Updating software frequently Implementing firewalls Justification: User access controls ensure that only authorized individuals can interact with sensitive components of the PaaS, mitigating risks of unauthorized access. Q47: Which approach improves consistency and simplification in managing access control across multiple access requests? Using multiple access control policies for each request Granting administrative privileges by default Implementing unified access control models Applying access control only to sensitive data Justification: Unified access control models provide a consistent framework, reducing complexity and enhancing manageability. © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 13 Q48: According to the CISA ZT Maturity Model, what is the highest level of maturity an organization can achieve? Advanced Initial Traditional Optimal Justification: The Optimal stage is the highest in the CISA ZT Maturity Model, indicating complete integration and optimization. Q49: Which feature is characteristic of an optimal security stage in automation maturity? Manual oversight with automated alerts Fully automated and adaptive functions Semi-automated processes with manual intervention Static rule-based automation Justification: An optimal stage in automation maturity involves systems that can fully automate processes and adapt to new threats or changes dynamically. Q50: Which strategy is crucial to minimizing security risks by ensuring users only have access necessary for their job functions? Continuous authentication Implemented firewalls Enforcing least privilege principles Strict access controls Justification: Least privilege limits user access strictly to what is required, reducing potential misuse or breaches. © Copyright 2024, Cloud Security Alliance. All rights reserved. 14