CCEP Test Dump 2024 Past Paper PDF

**Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of training based upon risk assessment findings?** A. Reducing the organization\'s legal exposure B. Educating employees on laws and regulations C. Educating the board on the compliance program D. Reducing the organization\'s insurance prem...

**Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of training based upon risk assessment findings?** A. Reducing the organization\'s legal exposure B. Educating employees on laws and regulations C. Educating the board on the compliance program D. Reducing the organization\'s insurance premiums 2. **A compliance and ethics professional investigates a report of sexual harassment. The incident does not constitute sexual harassment but reveals the employee\'s misunderstandings of the harassment policy. Which of the following should be the FIRST step in a corrective action plan?** 3. **Which of the following provides guidance for the development of a compliance program?** A. Sarbanes-Oxley Act B. Federal Sentencing Guidelines C. Security and Exchange Commission D. Office for Civil Rights 4. **Which of the following is the BEST outcome of a compliance and ethics program?** A. Mitigating risk B. Identifying risk C. Prioritizing risk D. Documenting risk 5. **Training on price-fixing is MOST important for which of the following staff**? A. Management B. Sales C. Marketing D. Accounting 6. **A compliance and ethics program should include:** 1\. An employee benefits handbook 2\. Document retention guidelines 3\. Policies regarding confidentiality 4\. A statement about the organization\'s culture A. 1, 2, and 3 only B. 1, 2, and 4 only C. 1, 3, and 4 only D. 2, 3, and 4 only 7. **A US-based retail company has 250 stores in 30 states. Past compliance efforts have included a silo-based approach with minimal oversight and the CEO acting as the Compliance and Ethics Officer. One person in each state posted compliance-related information sent from corporate, but there were no actual educational sessions. Policies and procedures were developed by corporate and reviewed 5 years ago. The organization has decided that a more dedicated approach is needed and hires a Compliance and Ethics Officer. Which of the following actions should the new Compliance and Ethics Officer take FIRST?** A. Conduct a compliance and ethics risk assessment B. Review organization-wide compliance policies C. Perform a statistically valid compliance audit D. Distribute a compliance training packet to employees 8. **An employee discloses to counsel and the compliance and ethics professional that a supervisor has been verbally abusive. An investigation finds that the same supervisor has also been sexually harassing several employees in his department. The compliance program requires that findings of harassment be documented and forwarded by the compliance and ethics professional to the CEO with a recommendation for appropriate discipline. Counsel advises that no report be written because of possible litigation. The compliance and ethics professional\'s BEST course of action is to:** A. Follow counsel\'s advice B. Submit a Written Report C. Ask counsel to prepare the written report D. Recommend disciplinary action against counsel 9. **A compliance and ethics professional is evaluating an organization\'s employee handbook. A conflict exists between the Code of Conduct and the employee handbook. HR is responsible for the employee handbook. The documents have been approved by the board of directors. Which of the following actions should the compliance and ethics professional take FIRST?** A. Post revised documents on the organization\'s website B. Schedule a time during the next board meeting to present revised documents C. Schedule a meeting with HR, general counsel, and the board to discuss the issue D. Contact HR to determine if the inconsistencies between the documents can be resolved 10. **A company\'s Code of Conduct has not been reviewed for over 2 years. HR recommended adding content that would double its size. The compliance committee members expressed concern that adding a significant amount of content could negatively impact its effectiveness. Which of the following is the compliance and ethics professional\'s NEXT step before consolidating revisions?** A. Request guidance from the board of directors B. Contract with a consultant to rewrite the Code of Conduct C. Compare the content outline with other organizations D. Rewrite the content based on Federal Sentencing Guidelines 11. **Which of the following is the MOST convincing demonstration of the effectiveness of a company\'s ethical standards?** A. Implementation of an anonymous reporting and feedback system B. Termination of an executive who embezzled a small amount of money C. Suspension of an employee who failed to complete compliance training D. Production of the organization\'s professional printed Code of Conduct 12. **A compliance and ethics professional has developed a policy intended to prohibit employees from paying, offering, or promising to pay officials of other countries for the purpose of obtaining or maintaining business. This policy will help the organization comply with the:** A. Sherman Act B. USA Patriot Act C. Anti-Money Laundering Act D. Foreign Corrupt Practices Act 13. **A company receives a federal subpoena from the government requesting all of the company\'s documents from 1990 to the present. The company\'s compliance and ethics professional has been asked to respond to the subpoena and to advise the company\'s employees on their role in the process. Which of the following should the company\'s compliance and ethics professional do FIRST?** A. Obtain documents and determine which to release B. Consult with the company\'s general counsel C. Gather documents and turn them over to the government D. Notify all employees that all documents must be retained 14. **Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining how a company prioritizes its risk?** A. Historical data B. Policies and procedures C. Incentive program D. Market competition 15. **In which of the following would an employee\'s obligation to report misconduct MOST likely be discussed?** A. Job interview B. Manager\'s meeting C. New employee orientation D. Audit committee meetings 16. **According to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, which of the following corporate employees can be employed by a corporation\'s audit firm during the 1-year period preceding an audit?** A. CEO B. Controller C. Chief Accounting Officer D. Compliance and Ethics Professional 17. **Which of the following departments in a large drug manufacturing company is MOST likely to have the highest risk of non-compliance?** A. Transportation B. Customer service C. Compliance and Ethics Professional D. Repair and Maintenance 18. **A compliance and ethics professional should be perceived as the company\'s:** A. Legal resources B. Ethical conscience C. Employee champion D. Enforcement authority 19. **A compliance and ethics professional is auditing the organization\'s compliance with the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Which of the following audit findings indicates a violation?** A. The public accounting firm providing audit services has had the same audit partner reviewing the audits for the past 6 years. B. The previous public accounting firm was the past employer of the company\'s current controller who participated in an audit 4 years ago. C. The previous public accounting firm is providing bookkeeping related to the accounting records and financial statements that they once audited. D. The public accounting firm providing audit services has been contracted 20. **Under In re Caremark Int\'l., the basic fiduciary duty of care principle is characterized as acting in good faith with:** A. Reasonable care of management under similar circumstances B. Reasonable care of an organization under similar circumstances C. The care of an ordinary prudent person under similar circumstances D. The care of another compliance and ethics professional under similar circumstances 21. **Which of the following BEST describes the primary role of a compliance and ethics professional?** A. Ensures that risks are appropriately prioritized B. Performs background checks on new employees C. Includes compliance and ethics questions in exit interviews D. Promotes a culture of compliance and ethics throughout the organization 22. **Which of the following is a key component of a compliance and ethics program?** A. On-going training B. Employee surveys C. Monthly employee meetings D. Company newsletter 23. **A CFO discovers the CEO is using company funds for personal expenses. The CFO buried this information in the company\'s financial reports. The compliance and ethics professional learns of the situation through the company\'s hotline. Which of the following should be the compliance and ethics professional\'s FIRST response?** A. Retain outside counsel B. Recommend suspension of the CEO C. Investigate to verify the allegation D. Disclose the issue and terminate the CEO 24. **A compliance structural policy differs from a substantive policy in that a structural policy should:** A. Describe the risk areas to the organization B. Describe how to operate within the regulations C. Define the regulations that apply to the organization D. Define the framework the program should operate within 25. **According to the Federal Sentencing Guidelines, \"substantial authority personnel\" MOST likely refers to the:** A. Production line manager B. Purchasing supervisor C. Internal audit secretary D. HR benefits associate 26. **Adherence to the compliance and ethics program should be incorporated as an element in evaluations of supervisors who:** A. Are new to the company within the last 12 months B. Received training during the evaluation period C. Have previously noted compliance violations D. Are in all levels of the organization 27. **Which of the following do the Federal Sentencing Guidelines require of an organization\'s governing authority**? A. Reasonable oversight of the compliance and ethics program B. Responsibility for the development of the compliance and ethics program C. Day-to-day operational responsibility for the compliance and ethics program D. Periodic reporting of the effectiveness of the compliance and ethics program 28. **A supervisor is informed that a subordinate employee has lodged a complaint against the company through the hotline. Which of the following documents should the compliance and ethics professional review with the supervisor FIRST?** A. Code of conduct B. Confidentiality policy C. Non-retaliation policy D. Compliance manual 29. **A company\'s compliance and ethics professional receives an anonymous hotline call alleging that the CFO has embezzled millions of dollars. The caller states the money is from an identifiable account. Which of the following should the compliance and ethics professional do FIRST?** A. Report the matter to the company\'s Board of Directors B. Contact local law enforcement immediately C. Verify the money has been misappropriated D. Self-disclose to the appropriate governmental agency 30. **The compliance and ethics professional is discussing safeguard policies related to the security rule. What type of safeguard is MOST closely related to policies regarding access controls, audit controls, integrity controls, and transmission security?** A. Mental safeguards B. Technical safeguards C. Administrative safeguards D. Physical safeguards. 31. **Why must CEPs be careful when it comes to conflicts of interest within the employing organization?** A. Conflicts of interest may cause too many employees to become CEPs B. Conflicts of interest may create divided loyalties C. Conflicts of interest may create bonded loyalties D. Conflicts of interest may cause too few people to become CEPs 32. **A compliance manager is recommending resources to ensure that the compliance and communication is implemented correctly. What would be recommended?** A. Code of conduct B. Disciplinary action C. Online reporting system D. Screening 33. **A compliance officer needs feedback on a training program. When would this be asked for?** A. Before the program is created B. During the training C. After the training is complete D. All of the above 34. **When measuring the effectiveness of the compliance program, it is important to make sure the metrics and indicators meet the SMART format. What does \"S\" stand for**? A. Specific B. Suitable C. Screenable D. Separate. 35. **The compliance and ethics professional is discussing ethics hotlines. He stated that all of the following are common names for the hotline, except:** A. Forced hotlines B. Employee hotlines C. Whistleblower hotlines D. Compliance hotlines 36. **What goal should investigators keep in mind when interviewing employees?** A. Fulfilling ethical obligations B. Preserving confidentiality C. Obtaining truthful information D. All of the above 37. **The compliance and ethics professional is working with the initial reports from a compliance investigation. Which of the following is true for the compliance and ethics professional?** A. The professional must ensure they are written and maintained to preserve attorney client privileges B. The professional must ensure they are written and maintained to eliminate attorney client privileges C. The professional must ensure they are not kept in written form to preserve attorney client privileges D. The professional must ensure they are available to all members of the hospital. 38. **When compliance risks have been identified and measured, they need to be prioritized. Some risks will require more effort and resources to address than others, due to the nature of their severity. Those risks are ideally categorized as:** A. Low risk items B. Ideal risk items C. Mid-level risk items D. High risk items 39. **The compliance officer is discussing risk assessment and documentation that is effective in recognizing risk areas. Of the following, which would be effective in doing so?** A. SOX B. OIG audit reports C. External audit reports D. All of the above 40. **Compliance and ethics programs serve a critical role in helping to [ ] and [ ] misconduct at and by organizations and to promote ethical business environments.** A. Prevent & Detect B. None of the above C. All of the above 41. **The development and rigorous implementation of effective compliance and ethics programs protects [ ] , [ ] , the [\_\_] and the [ ] at large. Compliance and ethics professionals (CEPs) understand that the services we provide require the highest standards of \_\_ [ ] , [ ] and \_\_\_\_ [ ].** A. Investors, consumers, the business community and the public at large. B. Professionalism, integrity and competence. C. None of the above D. All of the above 42. **The Code of Ethics consists of two kinds of standards: [ ] and [ ].** A. Principles and Rules of Conduct. B. Investment Expenditure C. Data architecture D. All of the above 43. **What are broad standards that provide a framework for the more detailed Rules of Conduct?** A. Visualization B. Denormalization C. Batch ingestion D. Principles 44. **What are specific standards that prescribe the minimum level of professional conduct expected of CEPs?** A. Virtual firewalls B. Work items C. Cultural debt D. Rules of Conduct 45. **What should abide by and promote compliance with the spirit and the letter of the law governing their employing organization's conduct and exemplify the highest ethical standards in their professional conduct in order to contribute to the public good?** A. Data stewards B. Project\'s lead C. Intelligence Solution D. Compliance and ethics professionals (CEPs) 46. **What are not expected to be experts in every field of knowledge that may contribute to an effective compliance and ethics program?** A. Team-managed board B. Scrum board C. Content Analyzer D. CEPs 47. **CEPs shall not disclose without consent or compulsory legal process confidential information about the business affairs or technical processes of any present or former employing organization?** A. Operational data store B. Consistent with Rule 2.6 C. Early adopters D. Execution Plan 48. **When CEPs shall not make any statements concerning other CEPs that are defamatory in nature?** A. In order to promote collegiality and civility in the profession B. In order to promote Software project C. In order to promote Community edition D. In order to promote Dashboard 49. **What are the name the seven essential elements of compliance?** A. Written policies and procedures B. Designated compliance officer and compliance committee C. Effective training and education D. Effective lines of communication E. Internal monitoring and auditing F. Enforcement and discipline G. Corrective actions to detected problems H. All of the above 50. **What are the two types of compliance policies and procedures that should be developed by every organization?** A. Structural (framework) B. Substantive (define applicable regulations) C. None of the above D. All of the above 51. **Who do most compliance officers report to?** A. Disks B. Service offering C. Reporting D. Board 52. **How many minimal hours of compliance education should be required for all employees?** A. Minimum of one hour B. Minimum of two hour C. Minimum of three hour D. Minimum of five hour 53. **What two things must be documented and reported?** A. Auditing and monitoring activities B. Consumer groups C. Default assignee D. Associated issues 54. **What are the typical five disciplinary action steps?** A. Verbal warning B. Written warning C. Suspension D. Fine E. Termination F. None of the above 55. **The government encourages [ ] of suspected fraud.** A. Project lead B. Data lineage C. Component lead D. Reporting 56. **What are six ways to save on future costs of compliance?** A. Embed quality into existing processes B. Centralize common processes and controls C. Focus on corporate culture D. Improve information system processes E. Emphasize training F. Monitor marketing and compensation. G. All of the above 57. **Before you launch your compliance program company-wide, what is one of the most important foundation stones you need to have in place?** A. Established code of conduct. B. Workflow schemes C. Private Key D. Data Science 58. **All compliance department staff should have job [ ].** A. Company-managed projects B. API lifecycle C. Incentives D. Job descriptions in place. 59. **Name the four main objectives of the baseline audit (risk assessment.)** A. Outlines current operational standards B. Identifies real and potential weaknesses C. Offers recommendations D. Provide baseline against future performance can be measured E. Early adopters 60. **A tried and true quality management technique is: PDCA approach**: A. Discovery scans B. Problem management C. Service level management D. Plan---Do---Check---Act 61. **What are the three C\'s of communication?** A. Clear B. Concise C. Creative D. All of the above 62. **If the compliance program includes [ ] and the program is active and making a difference, it can be considered effective.** A. B. C. D. 63. **According to the government, the compliance officer must have [ ] to access any and all [ ] that are relevant to compliance activities.** A. Full authority B. Documents C. Problem management D. Relationship management 64. **What are the three principles addressed by the Code of Ethics for Compliance Professionals?** 65. **Name the two approaches to auditing**. 66. **Audits and reviews must be [ ] and [ ].** 67. **The letters OIG stand for [ ].** 68. **Several [ ] compliance programs have arisen as preemptive strategies by different government departments\' OIG to reduce fraud and abuse.** 69. **All posted materials regarding the compliance program implementation should be visible for no less than [ ] days.** A. 20 B. 60 C. 40 D. 80 70. **Having support from the Board, Management, and Staff is very important for any compliance program. True/False** 71. **You can assess the effectiveness of your hotline by the number of calls you receive. True/False** 72. **The code of conduct should include a detailed outline of procedures for handling questions about compliance or ethical issues, beginning with a description of chain of command. True/False** 73. **For reporting methods to be effective, employees must accept that there will be no retaliation for coming forward. True/False** 74. **Compliance programs increase incentives for qui tam lawsuits against the company, as employees realize the fiduciary responsibility of management. True/False** 75. **Compliance Program Guidance?** A. Promoting ethical and lawful conduct in the healthcare industry B. Preventing, detecting, and resolving issues that do not conform to C. federal and state law, healthcare program requirements, and ethical D. business practices E. Creating effective compliance programs comprised of the so-called F. \"Seven Elements" G. All of the above 76. **Offering incentives for organizations to detect and prevent crime?** A. Parallel sprints B. Problem management C. Change management D. Deterrence 77. **How to develop policies and procedures to correct fraud, waste and abuse?** A. Technology B. Academic research C. Internal experience D. Medicare Part D Compliance 78. **It is the needless, careless and cavalier?** A. expenditure of funds or the B. consumption of property that results C. from deficient practices, judgments or D. controls in the areas of responsibility E. and accountability F. All of the above 79. **These practices may directly or?** A. indirectly result in unnecessary costs to B. an insurance program, improper C. payment, or payment for services that D. fail to meet professional standards of E. care or are medically unnecessary F. None of the above 80. **Prescriber is offered, paid, solicits or receives unlawfully to induce or reward the prescriber to write prescriptions (kickback)?** 81. **Cash or other benefits offered to prescribe one drug over another?** 82. **Writing prescriptions for drugs that are not medically necessary, often in mass quantities, and often for persons who are not the prescriber\'s patients?** 83. **Violation to knowingly present or cause to be presented a fraudulent to the federal government?** 84. **What are a network or group of healthcare providers and hospitals that Provide care together AND Share responsibility for the costs and quality for that care** 85. **Manufacturers are required to enter into a pharmaceutical agreement as a condition of Medicaid covering and paying?** 86. **Replaces 50-state patchwork of requirements with one federal traceability solution for drugs Phased-in over a 10-year period?** 87. **Prohibits a person from defrauding the federal government Fraud includes?** 88. **An employee who exposes unethical or illegal conduct within the federal government or one of its contractors?** 89. **If the government decides to pursue the suit brought by the whistleblower, the whistleblower can be entitled to how much of the award or settlement?** 90. **If the government declines to pursue the matter, the whistleblower can still move forward with the suit in which case they are entitled to how much of the award or settlement?** 91. **Deficit reduction act does allow CMS to adjust payments for hospital acquired infections. Included is an amendment to the Social Security act that requires all organizations receiving over \$5 million in annual Medicaid payments to provide detailed information to employees, in the form of written policies, regarding:** A. The federal false claim act B. The administrative remedies for false claims C. Any state laws pertaining to civil or criminal penalties for false claims D. Whistleblower protections under these federal and state laws E. The roles of these laws in preventing and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse F. All of the above 92. **What are the Benefits of a compliance program?** A. Providing concrete demonstration that your organization is committed to ethical corporate conduct B. Increasing the likelihood of identifying and preventing unethical or unlawful conduct C. Prompting you and other employees to be vigilant for compliance violations D. Providing a mechanism to encourage employees to report potential problems and allow for appropriate internal inquiry and corrective actions E. Improving the quality, efficacy, and consistency of care and services F. Helping to reduce you and your organizations exposure to civil damages, penalties, and criminal sanctions G. All of the above 93. **What are the elements of a compliance program?** A. Developing compliance policies and procedures including standards of conduct B. Designating a compliance officer and committee C. Developing open lines of communication D. Conducting effective training and education E. Developing internal auditing and monitoring systems F. Enforcing standards through disciplinary guidelines G. Responding to detected offenses through the development of a plan of correction H. All of the above 94. **What are the fraud, waste, and abuse?** A. **[Waste:]** at the beginning of the continuum is waste. Waste is an unintentional overutilization, under utilization, or misuse of resources. Waste also includes incurring unnecessary costs because of inefficient or ineffective practices, systems, or controls B. **[Abuse:]** further down the continuum of improper acts is abuse. Abuse covers practices that are inconsistent with sound fiscal, business, or medical practices resulting in unnecessary costs, improper payment, or payment for services that failed to meet professional standards of care or they are medically unnecessary C. **[Fraud:]** at the far end of the continuum is fraud. Fraud is the intentional deception or misrepresentation made by a person with the knowledge that the deception or misrepresentation could result in benefit to said person or another person. It includes violations of the false claims act D. None of the above Fraud includes false representation of fact, making false statements, or by concealment of information. Waste: thoughtless or careless expenditure, mismanagement, or abuse of resources to the detriment (or potential detriment) of the U.S. government. 95. **What are the risk areas for improper conduct?** A. Quality of care B. Billing C. Documentation D. Kickbacks E. Gifts F. None of the above 96. **A C&E professional investigates a report of sexual harassment. The incident, not constitute SH, reveals the employee\'s misunderstanding of the harassment policy? Which of following should be FIRST in the corrective action plan?** A. Consult outside counsel B. Disclose the incident to the EEOC C. Provide education and training on the policy D. Survey employee\'s understanding of the policy 97. **The BEST way to promote ethics and compliance standards to third-party vendors is to require:** A. contractual agreements B. mandatory vendor credentialing C. vendor code of conduct certifications D. audit and monitoring E. All of the above 98. **Several news outlets have reported on multiple sexual harassment claims in an organization. An internal investigation shows no channels for reporting were used. What should the C&E P do FIRST?** A. reinforce company values with employees B. educate all employees on the responsibility to report violations C. Conduct an internal investigation of the alleged violations in the press D. Investigate who knew about the violations 99. **Which of the following is the MOST convincing demonstration of the effectiveness of a company\'s ethical standards?** A. implementation of an anonymous reporting and feedback system B. termination of an executive who embezzled a small amount of money C. suspension of an employee who failed to complete compliance training D. production of a professional printed CoC 100. **Which of the following is MOST helpful in determining how a company prioritizes it\'s risk?** A. historical data B. policies and procedures C. incentive programs D. market competition 101. **According to the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, which of the following corporate employees can be employed by a corporation\'s audit firm during the 1-year period preceding the audit?** A. CEO B. CFO C. Chief Accounting Officer D. C& E P 102. **A compliance and ethics professional in auditing the organization\'s compliance with the Sarbanes-Oxley Act. Which of the following findings indicates a violation?** A. The public accounting firm providing audit services has had the same audit partner reviewing the audits for the past 6 years B. The previous public accounting firm was the past employer of the company\'s current controller who participated in an audit 4 years ago C. The previous public accounting firm is providing bookkeeping related to the accounting records and financial statements they once audited D. The public accounting form providing audit services has been contracted to provide tax services and the engagement was pre-approved by the boar 103. **Who do you work with record retention/ management with?** 104. **Who do you work with non-retaliation policies with?** 105. **Which of the act refers to a landmark U.S. law that banned businesses from colluding or merging to form a monopoly?** 106. **Notification from a tax authority concerning revocation of status as employees were at a political rally while where their work uniforms. What is the FIRST action?** A. contact a tax consultant B. identify the employees involved C. discuss with internal auditors D. notify the board of directors. 107. **What BEST describes the purpose of training based upon risk assessment findings?** A. reduce the organization\'s legal exposure B. educate employees on laws and regulations C. educate the board on the compliance program D. reduce the organization\'s insurance 108. **A problem was found in a routine accounting audit. Corrective action was taken and the policies and procedures were updated. Which of the following is the next step in the audit process?** 109. **Dodd-Frank Wall Street Reform Act** 110. **What are the 4 Aggravating factors for FCPA?** A. Upper level employee \"participated, condoned or willfully ignorant of offense B. Repeat offense C. Hinderance to government investigation D. Pervasive Tolerance and awareness of violation E. All of the above FCPA the four mitigating factors for the Foreign Corrupt Practices Act (FCPA) enforcement: 1. **Implementation of an effective compliance and ethics program** 2. **Self-disclosure** 3. **Cooperation with the investigation** 4. **Remedial actions** 111. **What are the 4 mitigating factors for FCPA?** A. Compliance program in effect B. Prompt reporting of violation C. Cooperation with government investigation D. Accept responsibility for violation E. None of the above 112. **What are the examples of structural policies?** A. Written policies and procedures B. Designated compliance officer and compliance committee C. Effective training and education D. Effective lines of communication E. Internal monitoring and auditing F. Enforcement of standards through well-publicized disciplinary guidelines G. Prompt response to detected problems through corrective action H. All of the above 113. **Qui Tam is?** 114. **How much to budget for compliance is based on?** A. Need based risk assessment B. Virtual firewalls C. Cultural debt D. Project keys 115. **A company uses 5,000 third parties to accomplish business tasks. Which of the following steps should the compliance and ethics professional take to require third parties to comply with the company\'s ethics and compliance standards?** A. Read the third party\'s code of conduct. B. Include the standards in the third-party contract. C. Conduct due diligence on the third party. D. Communicate the standards to the third part 116. **When auditing compliance issues, the person must be?** A. external. B. an internal auditor. C. certified. D. independent 117. **Which of the following is the MOST effective way a compliance and ethics professional can evaluate compliance and ethics audit findings?** E. Investigate only those allegations received from mid-level management. F. Conduct trend analysis on identified risk areas and benchmark results against industry standards. G. Track the number of sexual harassment allegations received by HR that are substantiated. H. Review the number of hotline calls received and provide the information to the CFO 118. **After an internal investigation, a plant manager is found to have willfully disregarded environmental regulations to reach production goals. HR and the plant manager\'s supervisor agree that the plant manager should be terminated. After a month, the plant manager has not been terminated. Which of the following should be the compliance and ethics professional\'s FIRST action?** A. Terminate the plant manager immediately. B. Remind the supervisor that he agreed to terminate the plant manager. C. report the lack of disciplinary action to the board of directors. D. Require HR to terminate the plant manager 119. **A risk assessment indicated that finance and purchasing were high-risk areas. Subsequent risk assessments focused only on these departments. A routine audit identified that employees in a different department violated the company\'s policies and procedures. Future risk assessments should be done?** A. across the entire organization. B. on an as-needed basis throughout the organization. C. randomly throughout the organization. D. on a priority basis within the organization. 120. **An HR director owns several pieces of rental property close to corporate headquarters. As part of the new-hire package, a list of rental properties, including the HR director\'s properties, is provided to new employees. To determine whether the inclusion of the HR director\'s properties on this list is appropriate, the compliance and ethics professional should FIRST?** A. require the properties be removed from the list. B. evaluate if the rent is competitive. C. discuss the issue with senior leadership. D. review the conflict of interest policy. 121. **A compliance and ethics professional discovers a new hire is the nephew of one of the company\'s directors. The director is the chairperson of the compensation committee. When the CEP asks the CEO if he was aware of this situation, the CEO explains that the new hire is the \"best in the business.\" Which of the following should the CEP do FIRST?** A. Monitor the new hire\'s performance to ensure that the employee is as valuable as promised. B. Review the conflict of interest policy to determine if an action plan is necessary. C. Research the new hire\'s credentials to determine if he is the most qualified. D. Revise the corporate code of conduct to reflect the CEO\'s decision. 122. **Because of a pending lawsuit, a company\'s lawyer advises the compliance and ethics professional not to conduct any audits, risk assessment or program evaluations because they could be used against the company. Recently, there has been a big increase in hotline calls from three offices in France requiring audits. The CEP\'s best action is to?** A. discuss with the lawyer how to best conduct the audits. B. obey the lawyer\'s directions to not conduct any audits. C. conduct the audits, but withhold the results until the lawsuit is concluded. D. delay the audits until after the lawsuit is concluded 123. **A hotline call was received regarding a golf trip involving a sales representative and a client that allegedly violated company policy. An internal investigation was conducted and appropriate disciplinary action was taken. Which of the following should the compliance and ethics professional do NEXT?** A. Provide training on the company\'s conflict of interest policy. B. Notify the audit committee chairperson of the violation. C. Recommend terminating the relationship with the client. D. Engage employees to draft a compliance and ethics policy. 124. **A hotline caller alleges that a business manager in the purchasing department is accepting gifts from a vendor in violation of company policy. The compliance and ethics professional investigates the allegation and interviews several employees. During the course of the interviews, an employee admits that she called the hotline, but requests to remain anonymous. The CCEP should inform the employee that her name will** A. remain anonymous in the investigation. B. be provided to senior management. C. be kept confidential to the extent possible. D. not be released if an official demand is received 125. **Which of the Compliance and Ethics Policies and procedures must exist?** A. Non-Retaliation B. Record Management C. Conflict of Interest D. Privacy E. Security F. Confidentiality G. All of the above 126. **Which of the following individuals should be included any time a team is assembled to investigate an ethics violation?** A. an internal auditor B. an external consultant C. a compliance and ethics professional D. a member of the board\'s audit committee 127. **An organization conducts a compliance risk assessment. Once the findings are available, which of the following should the compliance and ethics professional do FIRST?** A. Have internal audit conduct an audit on all identified material risk areas. B. Convene the policy review committee to update policies on all identified risks. C. Publish risk areas in an annual report distributed to shareholders. D. Develop an action plan to mitigate identified risks that pose greatest liability 128. **Which of the following departments should be the HIGHEST priority for training on anti-corruption laws?** A. accounts payable B. sales and marketing C. risk management D. internal audit 129. **When a new regulation that affects an organization is passed, a compliance and ethics professional should?** A. request a summary from the agency responsible for enforcement. B. seek review of the new regulation from outside counsel. C. develop a training plan for affected employees. D. provide a copy to the board of directors for review. 130. **To avoid serious organizational consequences from a recent compliance violation, a compliance and ethics professional should coordinate with management to?** A. ensure corrective action is taken. B. identify responsible individuals. C. perform a risk assessment. D. conduct an internal audit 131. **When conducting a compliance investigation, it is important to?** A. maintain related documentation. B. publicize the name of the reporter. C. publicize each step as it progresses. D. maintain investigative subjectivity. 132. **An employee seeks guidance on an outside consulting arrangement that has been offered to him. Which of the following should the compliance and ethics professional do FIRST?** A. Document the request in the employee\'s personnel file. B. Refer the employee to the conflicts of interest committee. C. Recommend that the employee decline the opportunity. D. Discuss the conflict of interest policy with the employee 133. **Which of the following is MOST important for an organization to do to ensure an effective compliance and ethics program?** A. Allow management access to allegations that are reported through the hotline. B. Delegate sensitive compliance issues and investigations to the board of directors. C. Monitor and audit the business units and document findings in the annual financial report to the shareholders. D. Promote an organizational culture that encourages compliance and ethical conduct 134. **An annual risk assessment plan has been completed and approved by the board of directors. Three months into the fiscal year, five new issues have surfaced that could significantly impact the company. The compliance and ethics department does not have additional budgeted resources to address these new risks. Which of the following should the compliance and ethics professional do FIRST?** A. Reprioritize the risks and review with the appropriate leadership. B. Delegate to the board of directors for action. C. Address the new risks in next year\'s audit Work plan. D. Ask HR if any resources are available from other departments. 135. **Which of the following is the MOST important element in a compliance and ethics professional\'s job description?** A. entrepreneurial skills B. independence C. public speaking D. legal knowledge 136. **Senior management identified four risk areas: sensitive data destruction, contract management system, warehouse inventory, and timely expense reimbursements. Which of the following areas should the compliance and ethics professional categorize as the HIGHEST priority risk for the organization?** A. contract management system B. sensitive data destruction C. timely expense reimbursements D. warehouse inventory 137. **Which of the following should be included in the compliance and ethics professional\'s review to evaluate whether discipline is appropriate and consistent across the organization?** A. initial hotline reports B. employee evaluations C. department meeting minutes D. termination records 138. **Which of the following does a compliance and ethics professional generally coordinate with the HR department?** A. drafting a policy on conducting self-disclosure B. conducting credit checks on third parties C. approving an annual salary adjustment plan D. screening key personnel within applicable laws 139. **A regulator requests information on the level of compliance training. The company is not legally required to provide this information, but it can help in the relationship with the regulator. Which of the following should a compliance and ethics professional do?** A. Provide the requested information if the company has a robust training program. B. Refuse to provide the information if training is minimal. C. Discuss the pros and cons of responding to the request with management. D. Politely decline the request 140. **Which of the following compliance policies relates to the compliance and ethics professional\'s ability to perform the job objectively?** A. conflict of interest B. no retaliation C. harassment D. privacy