Blood Module Midterm PDF

Blood Module Midterm 1. Which of the following is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that directly inhibits factor Xa? a) Warfarin b) Rivaroxaban c) Aspirin d) Clopidogrel 2. Lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax drains into the: a) Thoracic duct b) Right lymphatic...

Blood Module Midterm 1. Which of the following is a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) that directly inhibits factor Xa? a) Warfarin b) Rivaroxaban c) Aspirin d) Clopidogrel 2. Lymph from the right arm and the right side of the head and thorax drains into the: a) Thoracic duct b) Right lymphatic trunk c) Cisterna chyli d) Left lymphatic trunk 3. Which of the following is a fibrinolytic drug that converts plasminogen to plasmin? a) Heparin b) Warfarin c) Urokinase d) Aspirin 4. A patient presents with a deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following would be most appropriate to break down the existing clot? a) Aspirin b) Heparin c) Urokinase d) Rivaroxaban 5. Which part of the eosinophil is responsible for the release of major basic protein, a key component in the immune response against parasites? a) Nucleus b) Tail c) Granules d) Cell membrane 6. Which clotting factor acts as a carrier protein for factor VIII and mediates platelet adhesion? a) Factor IX b) Factor X c) von Willebrand factor d) Fibrinogen 7. Which anticoagulant acts by binding to antithrombin III and accelerating its activity? a) Warfarin b) Heparin c) Rivaroxaban d) Apixaban 8. A patient presents with an increased number of immature myeloid cells in the bone marrow and peripheral blood. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia b) Acute myeloid leukemia c) Multiple myeloma d) Hairy cell leukemia 9. Which type of leukemia is characterized by the presence of smudge cells on a peripheral blood smear? a) Acute myeloid leukemia b) Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia c) Chronic myeloid leukemia d) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia 10. Which tonsil is located at the back of the nasopharynx? a) Palatine tonsil b) Lingual tonsil c) Pharyngeal tonsil d) Tubal tonsil 11. A patient presents with a Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)). Which of the following hematologic malignancies is most likely associated with this finding? a) Acute myeloid leukemia b) Chronic myeloid leukaemia c) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia d) Hodgkin lymphoma 12. A child presents with a rapidly growing tumor in the jaw. Microscopic examination reveals a "starry sky" pattern. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a) Hodgkin lymphoma b) Burkitt lymphoma c) Follicular lymphoma d) Diffuse large B-cell lymphoma 13. Which immunosuppressant drug inhibits the production of interleukin-2, thus preventing T cell activation and proliferation? a) Azathioprine b) Prednisone c) Cyclosporine d) Mycophenolate mofetil 14. Which type of lymphocyte is crucial for initiating the immune response against intracellular pathogens and activating other immune cells? a) B lymphocyte b) NK cell c) T helper cell d) Cytotoxic T cell 15. Which virus is associated with infectious mononucleosis and is implicated in the development of certain lymphomas? a) HIV b) CMV c) EBV d) HPV 16. Which enzyme is crucial for the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin in the coagulation cascade? a) Factor Xa b) Prothrombin c) Thrombin d) Plasmin 17. Which plasma protein is responsible for transporting copper in the blood and plays a role in iron metabolism? a) Albumin b) Alpha 2 globulin c) Gamma globulin d) Fibrinogen 18. A patient with a history of cirrhosis presents with elevated alpha-fetoprotein levels. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? a) Hepatitis B b) Hepatocellular carcinoma c) Hemochromatosis d) Wilson's disease 19. In the lymph node, where do macrophages and plasma cells reside, playing a critical role in antigen presentation and antibody production? a) Germinal centers b) Medullary cords c) Cortex d) Paracortex 20. Which type of cell is responsible for the production and secretion of antibodies? a) T lymphocyte b) Macrophage c) Plasma cell d) Neutrophil 21. A patient presents with painless lymphadenopathy, fever, night sweats, and weight loss. A biopsy reveals Reed-Sternberg cells. What is the most likely diagnosis? a) Non-Hodgkin lymphoma b) Hodgkin lymphoma c) Leukemia d) Multiple myeloma 22. Which bacterium is a common cause of skin infections, such as impetigo and folliculitis? a) Streptococcus pyogenes b) Staphylococcus aureus c) Escherichia coli d) Pseudomonas aeruginosa 23. Which protozoan parasite is transmitted by the sandfly and causes visceral leishmaniasis, also known as kala-azar? a) Plasmodium falciparum b) Trypanosoma cruzi c) Leishmania donovani d) Toxoplasma gondii 24. Which bacterial enzyme converts fibrinogen to fibrin, contributing to the formation of a protective barrier around the bacteria? a) Streptokinase b) Hyaluronidase c) Coagulase d) Catalase 25. Which class of drugs is used in the treatment of acute lymphoblastic leukemia to interfere with DNA synthesis? a) Alkylating agents b) Inhibitors of purine synthesis c) Antibiotics d) Topoisomerase inhibitors 26. A patient receiving thrombolytic therapy for a myocardial infarction develops hematuria and epistaxis. Which of the following is the most likely cause? a) Allergic reaction to the drug b) Bleeding from Fibrinolytic drug c) Underlying bleeding disorder d) Drug-induced thrombocytopenia 27. What is the normal range for white blood cell count in adults? a) 1000 to 4000 count b) 4000 to 11000 count c) 15000 to 25000 count d) 30000 to 50000 count 28. In the spleen, which area is rich in T lymphocytes and plays a crucial role in the immune response to blood-borne antigens? a) Red pulp b) White pulp c) Marginal zone d) Periarteriolar lymph sheath 29. What is the primary function of B lymphocytes in the immune system? a) Phagocytosis of pathogens b) Cell-mediated cytotoxicity c) Antibody production d) Release of histamine 30. Which type of granulocyte is involved in allergic reactions and releases histamine and heparin? a) Neutrophil b) Eosinophil c) Basophil d) Monocyte 31. Which parasitic nematode is transmitted by mosquitoes and causes lymphatic filariasis, leading to elephantiasis? a) Ascaris lumbricoides b) Wuchereria bancrofti c) Onchocerca volvulus d) Loa loa 32. A patient experiences intense pain and vasoconstriction following a deep laceration. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism responsible for these immediate responses? a) Release of histamine from mast cells b) Activation of the complement cascade c) Nerve Reflex due to pain from Traumatized tissue d) Production of antibodies by plasma cells 33. Which of the following is a common cause of lymphocytosis, characterized by an increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood? a) Bacterial infections b) Viral infections c) Parasitic infections d) Fungal infections 34. Which cell is the precursor to all lymphoid cells, including T cells, B cells, and NK cells? a) Myeloblast b) Lymphoblast c) Hematopoietic stem cell d) Megakaryocyte 35. A young adult presents with mediastinal lymphadenopathy. A biopsy shows lacunar cells and fibrous bands dividing the lymph node into nodules. Which subtype of Hodgkin lymphoma is most likely? a) Mixed cellularity b) Lymphocyte-rich c) Lymphocyte-depleted d) Nodular sclerosis of hodgkin lymphoma 36. Which type of white blood cell is the most abundant in the peripheral blood and plays a crucial role in phagocytosis and the destruction of bacteria? a) Lymphocytes b) Monocytes c) Eosinophils d) Neutrophils 37. Which cell is the hallmark of Hodgkin lymphoma and is characterized by its large size and bilobed or multilobulated nucleus with prominent nucleoli? a) Smudge cell b) Reed-Sternberg cell c) Auer rod d) Hairy cell 38. A patient undergoes hip replacement surgery. Low molecular weight heparin is prescribed postoperatively. What is the primary reason for this treatment? a) To reduce pain and inflammation b) To prevent infection c) Preventing thrombus and lung embolism d) To promote wound healing 39. How is the parasite that causes lymphatic filariasis, leading to elephantiasis, typically transmitted to humans? a) Contaminated food or water b) Female mosquto bite c) Direct contact with infected soil d) Animal bite 40. Which type of leukemia is characterized by the presence of "hairy" cells with cytoplasmic projections and is often associated with splenomegaly? a) Acute myeloid leukemia b) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia c) Hairy cell leukemia d) Acute lymphoblastic leukemia Answer Key: 1. b 2. b 3. c 4. c 5. b 6. c 7. b 8. b 9. b 10. c 2. b 12. b 13. c 14. c 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. b 19. b 20. c 3. b 22. b 23. c 24. c 25. b 26. b 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. c 4. b 32. c 33. b 34. b 35. d 36. d 37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c Done