Biochemistry Key Choices Cycle 1-5 PDF
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This document contains multiple choice questions covering various topics in biochemistry, including proteins, nucleic acids, and protein synthesis.
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BIOCHEMISTRY Key Choices Cycle 1 : Test 1-6 : Page 2 Cycle 2 : Test 7-11 : Page 22 Cycle 3: Test 12-17: Page 37 Cycle 4: Test 18-23: Page 51 Cycle 5: Test 24-28 : Page 66 Test 1 1. Β-sheet structures of proteins: 1. Is the example of tertiary structure of proteins 2. Is insensitive on action of dena...
BIOCHEMISTRY Key Choices Cycle 1 : Test 1-6 : Page 2 Cycle 2 : Test 7-11 : Page 22 Cycle 3: Test 12-17: Page 37 Cycle 4: Test 18-23: Page 51 Cycle 5: Test 24-28 : Page 66 Test 1 1. Β-sheet structures of proteins: 1. Is the example of tertiary structure of proteins 2. Is insensitive on action of denaturing factors 3. May exists in structures of oligomeric structures A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 2. If pI is equal to 4,6 this is a protein: 1. Which in pH of plasma equal to 7,4 will be an anion 2. Which contains more acidic groups 3. Which in pH= 4,6 exists in unionized form A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 3. Tyrosine 1. Contains aromatic ring in the side chain (R) 2. Participates in the formation of thyroid hormone 3. Its OH group participates in the regulation of activity of some enzymes A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 4. Disulfide bonds: 1. Is created as a result of oxidation of sulfhydryl groups 2. Is a covalent bond that stabilize the secondary structure of proteins 3. Is created between to residues of Cysteine and Methionine A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 5. Beta-thalassemia is caused by defect of: 1. Aggregation of B-Amyloid in neuron 2. Impair the synthesis of one of polypeptide subunit of hemoglobin 3. Bovine spongiform encephalopathy A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3?? E. None 6. Ornithine and Citrulline: 1. Are L-Amino acids 2. Are present in structural proteins 3. Participate in Urea Synthesis A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 7. At pI (Isoelectric point): 1. Amino acids can’t exists in ionized form 2. Aspartic acids exists in cation 3. Lysine exists in anion A. 2,3 B. 1,3 C. 3 D. Neither of these 8. Collagen: 1. Is a globular protein 2. Undergoes a posttranslational modification 3. Is especially rich in aspartic acid A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 2 D. 3 E. 1 E. 1,2,3 9. In polypeptide chain the presence of some amino acid(s) can disrupt the conformation of alpha helix. These amino acids are: 1. Glycine 2. Glutamic Acid 3. Proline A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1 D. 1,3 E. Neither of these 10. Pathologic prion related proteins (PrPsc) 1. Like physiologic prion-related proteins are insoluble 2. Are intracellular proteins forming protease-resistant aggregates 3. Are rich in β-sheet structures A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 11. Which of following are non-covalent bonds? 1. Peptide bonds 2. Salt bridges 3. Disulfide bridges 4. Hydrophobic interactions A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3 C. 2,4 D. 2 E. 4 12. Glutamate 1. Contains additional NH2 group in the side chain (R) 2. Plays an important role in neurotransmitter biosynthesis 3. In pH below 1,5 exists in solution as cation A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1??? D. 1,2,3 E. None 13. All amino acids occur in proteins: 1. Are L-α amino acids 2. Possess at least one chiral carbon 3. Contains at least two functional groups A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 14. Genetic disorders of collagen biosynthesis may cause: 1. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome 2. Scurvy 3. Alzheimer’s disease 4. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 1,3 15. In solution of pH value much higher than pI of a protein: 1. The protein bears a positive net charge 2. The protein bears a negative net charge 3. The proteins bears no net charge 4. The protein is poorly soluble A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,4 E. 2,4 16. As a result of the action of denaturing agents: 1. A Protein becomes more soluble 2. A protein loses its primary structure 3. A protein undergoes conformational changes leading to conversion of alpha-helix to beta-sheet. A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 1 D. 3 E. None 17. Glycine 1. May destabilize Helix alpha structure in proteins 2. Is every third amino acid residue in collagen 3. Has chiral carbon substituted by two atom of hydrogen A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,2,3 18. Which of the sentence(s) are true? 1. The α-R groups of amino acids determine the properties of amino acids 2. In isoelectric point, protein exists in unionized form 3. Genetic disorders of collagen biosynthesis may cause Alzheimer’s disease A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1 D. 1,2,3 E. 2 19. Amino acids which destabilize the structure of Alpha helix are: 1. Glycine 2. Histidine 3. Proline 4. Alanine A. 1,2,3 B. 3,4 C. 1,2 D. 1,3 E. 2,3 20. Which of the sentence is true? N1 1. Genetic disorders of collagen biosynthesis causes scurvy 2. Β- thalassemia’s are caused by impairment of the synthesis of one of hemoglobin subunits 3. Alzheimer’s disease are result of prion action A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 21. Disulfide bonds are: 1. One of the weak forces which stabilize quaternary structure of proteins 2. Formed between two methionine residues 3. Created by oxidation of the cysteinyl sulfhydryl group A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,2,3 22. Ornithine and Citrulline: N3 1. Belong to D-α Amino acids 2. Do not occur in protein structure 3. Can act as neurotransmitters A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 23. Collagen 1. Contains high amount of glycine and Glutamate 2. In its secondary structure prevails the alpha helix 3. Can undergo posttranslational modification A. 1,2,3 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2 24. In pH equal to pI: N4 1. Amino acids have no ionized group 2. Amino acids are electrically neutral 3. Amino acids can’t move in electric field A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 25. Denaturation of protein: Destroy its primary structure Is always reversible Decreases in solubility A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 E. 3 D. 2 Test 2 Nucleotides & Nucleic Acids 1. Anhydride bond exist in the molecule of 1. ADP 2. cytosine 3. Adenosine A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 1,3 D. 1 E. 1,2,3 2. Denaturation (melting) of DNA: 1. Result in the effect of hypochromicity 2. Is a irreversible process 3. Occurs faster in G-C pairs A. 2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 3. The rho (p) factor 1. Recognize nonsense codon (terminal signal) on mRNA strand 2. Is a ATP-dependent helicase 3. Activates promoter A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 4. Riboflavin is a component of 1.. NAD 2. FAB 3. Coenzyme A 4. 6-oxopurine 5. 8-adenosylmethionine 5. Which of following statements is correct: 1. All tRNA molecules contain four main arms 2. Exonucleases act exclusively in one direction 3. Some ribosomer are involved in the RNA splicing A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None is correct 6. Which of the sentences are true? 1. In tRNA molecules may exist in doublestranded structure 2. Some of rRNA may posess catalytic properties 3. Some of rRNA are nucleoproteins A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D.1,2,3 E. None 7. Which of the sentences are true? 1. Caffeine is dimetylated derivative of xanthine 2. cAMP is a second messenger of information within the cell 3. Cytidine is nitric base belongs to pyrimidines A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 8. The sigma factor 1. Is a catalytic subunit of RNA polymerase 2. Recognizes stop signal during transcriptation 3. Modifies specificity of recognation of promotor by RNA polymerase A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. None 9. Which of the sentences are true 1. Most types of rRNA are processed from a single precursor molecule 2. Some of rRNA may possess catalytic properties 3. Some of rRNA are nucleoproteins A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 10. Okazaki fragments 1. Are synthesized on the lagging strang by reverse transkriptase 2. Are always synthesized in replication bubbles on the same strand of DNA 3. Are synthesized from 3´to 5´direction A. 1,3 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 12. Reverse transcriptase 1. Is characteristic enzyme for HIV-virus 2. Is RNA-dependent DNA polymerase 3. Transcribes DNA of virus on to RNA A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 13. Which of the sentences are true? 1. Most types of rRNA are processed from a single precursor RNA molecule 2. Some of rRNA may possess catalytic properties 3. Some of rRNA are nucleoproteins A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 14. Which of the sentences is true 1. Human cytoplasmic molecules of mRNA are exactly the same molecules which are synthesized on DNA template 2. The cyclic phosphodiester cAMP functions as intracellular second messenger 3. Caffeine is trimethylated derivates of purine – xanthine A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 15. In DNA molecule 1. Amount of cytosine is equal to amount of guanine 2. Supercoils of DNA molecule are inserted by reverse transkriptase 3. The region rich in G-C pairs are more resistant to denaturation A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 16. The following structure represents A. Xanthine B. Uric acids C. Hypoxanthine D. Adenine E. Guanine 17. Pantothenate is a component of: A. NAD B. FAD C. Coenzyme A D. 6-oxopurine E. S-Adenosylmethionine 18. Sequence 5’ CGAAGG 3’ on coding strand is complementary to the sequence: 1. 5’GCTTCC3’ on template strand 2. 5’CCTTCG3’ on noncoding strand 3. 5’GCUUCC3’ on RNA transcript A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 19. Anhydride bond exists in the molecule of 1. GDP 2. ATP 3. Adenosine A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 20. The coding strand and primary transcript 1. Have the same sequence of guanine and cytosine 2. Are complementary to each other 3. Are complementary to the template strand A. 1,3 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 1 E. None 21. Adenine 1. Belongs to the heterocyclic compounds 2. Contains 4 nitrogens atoms in its structure 3. Is a component of secondary messenger A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 22. Phosphodiester bond in DNA: 1. Can be easily non enzymatic hydrolyzed 2. Exist in nucleosides 3. Is more stable in RNA A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 13. Sequence 5’ CGAAGG 3’ on coding strand is the same like the sequence: 1. 5’GCTTCC3’ on template strand 2. 5’GCUUCC3’ on primary transcript 3. 5’CCTTCG3’ on template strand A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 24. Anhydride bond exists in the molecule of: 1. AMP 2. Cytydine 3. GDP A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. 1,2?? 25. Denaturation (melting) of DNA 1. Means decrease of optical absorbance of purine and pyrimidine 2. Is a reversible process (renaturation) 3. Occurs faster in rich A-T pairs A. 2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None?? 26. Ribozymes 1. Are nucleoproteins 2. Catalyze peptide bond formation 3. Some of them participate in RNA splicing A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 27. Reverse transcriptase 1. Is characteristic for HIV-virus 2. Is RNA-dependent DNA polymerase 3. Transcribes DNA of virus on to RNA A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 E. 1,2,3 D. 2,3 28. The rho factor 1. Recognizes nonsense codon (termination signal) on mRNA strand 2. Is ATP-dependent helicase 3. Activates promoter A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 29. Pantothenic acids is a component of: N1 & N5 A. NAD B. FAD C. NADP D. S- Adenosylmethionine E. None of mentioned above 30. The following structure represents: A. Xanthine B. Uric Acids C. Hypoxanthine D. 6-mercaptopurine E. Guanine 31. Which of the sentences is true: N3 1. Cytarabine is used during organ transplantation to suppress immunological reaction 2. ADP- Means – phosphate of adenosine dinucleotide 3. UDP- Glucuronic acid participates in biosynthesis of sphingomyelin 32. Small nuclear RNAs: 1. Form imperfect RNA-RNA duplexes within 3’UTR regions 2. Some of them are involved in intron removal from primary transcripts 3. Belongs to group of small rRNA A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. None 33. β-N-Glycosidic bond exists in: N4 1. Adenosine 2. Cysteine 3. Uridine 4. Guanosine triphosphate A. 1,2 B. 1,2,3,4 C. 3,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,4 34. Sequence of template strand is: 5’-AGCTG-3’. Sequence of RNA transcript is: 1. 5’-UCGAC -3’ 2. 5’- CAGCU-3’ 3. 3’-UCGAC -5’ A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. Neither of these Test 3- Protein Biosynthesis 1. Puromycin 1. Is not clinically usefull 2. Disturb the initiation of protein synthesis 3. Is a structural analog of Phenylalanyl-tRNA A.1,2 B. 1 C. 1,2,3 D. 1,3 E. 2,3 2. Correct sentences are: 1. eIF-2 factor is activated after phosphorylation. 2. Suppresor mutations occours in tRNA 3. eIF-4F factor is a component of eIF-4E factor A.1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. 2,3 3. Substitution of Adenine into Cytosine is recognized as: 1. Transition 2. Transversion 3. Point mutation 4. Frameshift mutation A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 2,3 E. 2,4 4. Which of the following statements is correct: 1. The nucleotide sequences are always written from 3' - end to the 5'end 2. UUA is a termination codon 3. AUG is the initiation codon A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. 3 5. Formation of Aminoacyl-tRNA: 1. Need 2 moles of ATP and 1 mol of AMP 2. Depends of recognition TΨC arm of tRNA by aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase 3. Takes place in ribosomes A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 6. Which of sentences is true 1. Peptide bonds are formed in presence of peptidyltransferase, elongation factor 2 and GTP 2. Cucloheximide is the best antibiotic for inhibition of translation in bacteria 3. Recognition of mRNA cap structure by cap binding protein complex os a rate-limiting step in translation A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 7. Phosphorylation: 1. Of eIF-2 factor leads to its inactivation 2. Of 4E-BP proteins leads to stimulation of protein synthesis 3. Of tRNA leads to formation of aminoacyl-tRNA A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 2 E. None 8. Chloramphenicol 1. Is not clinically useful 2. Is a structural analog of tyrosinyl-tRNA 3. Inhibits termination of protein synthesis A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,2,3 D. 3 E. None 9. Termination occurs when: 1. Changes of the nucleotide sequence if DNA become unacceptable 2. A nonsense codon is recognized 3. A peptide chain is to long A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. 1,2 10. Which of the following statements is correct 1. The nucleotide sequence are always written from 3'end to 5'end 2. UUA is a termination codon 3. Gene expression os most commonly reulatied at the translation A.1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None is correct 11. Posttranslational modification of collagen rest on: 1. Phosphorylation of serine and tyrosine group of collagen 2. Hydroxylation and oxidation of specific amino acid residues within the procollagen molecule 3. Cleavage of amino acid terminal peptides A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 12. Peptidyl transferase: 1. Example of ribozyme 2. Plays a role in termination of biosynthesis 3. Is responsible for displacing the peptidyl-tRNA from A site to P site A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 13. Antibiotic chloramphenicol inhibits: 1. Ribosome translocation of eukaryotes 2. Prokaryotes peptidyl transferase activity 3. Protein syntheses in both eukaryotes and prokaryotes 4. Termination of protein synthesis in eukaryotes A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None 14. Elongation of protein synthesis involves 3 steps. Choose the well-ordered answer: 1. Peptide bond formation – formation of 80S complex –Ribosomal dissociation 2. Initiation –Binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to A site –Ribosomal dissociation 3. Binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to A site –Peptide bond formation –translocation 4. Translocation –Peptide bond formation –Ribosomal dissociation 5. All mentioned above are false 15. Which of the following statements are true: 1. Direction of reading the anticodon is 5’-3’ 2. GTP is needed in process of elongation 3. rRNA is peptidyl transferase A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. None 16. Which of sentences is true? 1. The sequence of nucleotides in primary transcript are complementary to the template of DNA 2. Specific functional groups of amino acids have high affinity for mRNA 3. Human genetic code is different than codes in prokaryotes A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 17. Degeneracy of genetic code means that: 1. For giving specific codon, only one amino acid is indicated 2. Giving single amino acid can be coded by multiple codons 3. Three nonsense codons are present on the genetic code A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 18. Aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase: 1. Join amino acid to the tRNA by phosphdiester bonds 2. Need GTP as energy source 3. Is specific for both amino acid and tRNA A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 19. eIF- 4E: N1 1. In phosphorylated form increases initiation of protein biosynthesis 2. Is inactivated by insulin 3. Is active after binding with 4E-BP A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,2,3 D. 2 E. 1 20. Elongation of polypeptide chain: 1. Goes from the amine to carboxylic end 2. Need 1 GTP molecule 3. Need action of ribozyme A. 1,3 B. 1 C. 1,2,3 D. 2 E. Neither 21. Aminotransferases: N3 1. Belong to the first class of the enzymes 2. Are non-functional plasma enzymes 3. Their activity increase in pancreas inflammation A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 22. Lactate dehydrogenase: 1. Is coded by 4 genes 2. Is a ligase 3. Catalyzes reaction in the plasma A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. Neither of these 23. Which of the sentences is true? N4 1. Aminoacyl-tRNA bind to the ribosome by TΨ arm 2. Altered reading frame can be the result of deletion of one codon 3. During translation the genetic information on mRNA is reading from 3’ to 5’ end A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 24. Translocation: 1. Is catalyzed by peptidyl transferase 2. Needs energy for hydrolysis of GTP to GMP and phosphate 3. Is inhibited by chloramphenicol A. 1 B.2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 25. Elongation of protein synthesis involves three steps. Choose the well-ordered answers: N5 A. Peptide bond formation – Formation of 80S complex – Ribosomal dissociation B. Initiation – Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the A site – Ribosomal dissociation C. Binding of aminoacyl tRNA to the A site – Peptide formation – Translocation D. Translocation – Peptide bond formation – Ribosomal dissociation E. All mention above are wrong 26. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Direction of reading the anticodon is 5’ to 3’ 2. GTP is needed in the process of elongation 3. rRNA is peptidyltransferase A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. None Test 4 Enzyme kinetics 1. Michaelis constant 1. Is equal to the half of maximal velocity of reaction 2. Its value allows to estimate maximal velocity of reaction 3. Increases in presence of enzyme poisons A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. None 2. Isozymes may differ from each other by the 1. Type of catalyzed reaction 2. Substrate affinity 3. Sensitivity for regulatory factors A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. None 3. Lysases: 1. Catalyze geometric change within a substrate molecule 2. Cleavage the covalent bonds for example C--‐C 3. Catalyze joining together of two molecules A. 1 B. 3 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. None 4. Michaelis constant: 1. Depends on maximal velocity of reaction 2. Define the concentration of enzyme that is necessary to achieve the half of max velocity 3. Decreases in presence of noncompetitive inhibitors A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 5. Which of the sentences is true: 1. Coenzyme A is a carrier of Acyl group 2. Riboflavin is a component of FAD 3. Pantothenic acid is a component of NAD A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 2,3 6. Lactate dehydrogenase: 1. Is composed of 5 subunits 2. Has higher activity in plasma in acute pancreatitits 3. Its isoenzyme catalyze different reactions in muscle and heart A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 7. Kinetic data of enzymatic reaction Vmax –100mM/min, Km--‐10^--‐3M. After addition of inhibitor these data are: Vmax--‐50mM/min, Km –1010^--‐3M. Describe: 1. Type of inhibition 2. Similarity between structure of substrate and inhibitor 3. Place of binding of inhibitor 8. Isozymes: 1. Can catalyze different type of reaction 2. Can have different Km for the same substrate 3. Can have different isoelectric point A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 1,2,3 D. 1,2 E. 3 9. Lactate dehydrogenase 1. Is coded by 4 genes 2. Can form 5 isozymes 3. Is a functional plasma enzyme A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2,3 E. 1,3 D. 2,3 10. Indicate (+, - , 0) the effect of enzyme on ΔG0 Equillibrium constant Activiation energy Velocity of reaction 11. Compeptitive inhibitor: 1. Does not change Vmax of enzymatic reaction 2. Binds in active site of enzyme 3. Its structure is similar to a structure of enzyme A. 1,3 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 1 E. 1,2,3 12. Aminotransferases 1. Belongs to hydrolases 2. Their activity in plasma can serve as an indicator of some diseases 3. Their activity in plasma increase in pancreatic disease A. 2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1 E. 1,2,3 13. Covalent catalysis 1. Means that the enzyme catalyzes breaking of covalent bonds 2. Is a kind of acid-base catalysis 3. Is a Mechanism of action of chymotrypsin A. 1 B. 1,3 C. 3 D. 2 E. 1,2,3 14. Aminotransferases 1. Perform no physiologic function in cells 2. Belongs to the second class of the enzymes 3. Their activity increase in acute pancreatitis A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1 E. 2 15. The michaelis constant: N1 1. Depends on Vmax of reaction 2. Characterizes the substrate specificity of enzyme 3. Depends on presence of noncompetitive inhibitor in an environment of reaction A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 16. Enzymes: 1. Decide about direction of reaction 2. Change the equilibrium constant 3. Decrease energy barrier of reaction A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 17. Activity of what enzymes you should measure to diagnose: Acute pancreatitis___________________________________________________________________ Myocardial Infarction_______________________________________________________________ Viral Hepatitis_______________________________________________________________________ Metastatic Carcinoma of prostate__________________________________________________ 18. Aminotransferases: N3 1. Belongs to the first class of the enzymes 2. Are nonfunctional plasma enzymes 3. Their activity increase in pancreatic inflammation A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 19. Lactate dehydrogenase 1. Is coded by 4 genes 2. Is a ligase 3. Catalyzes reaction in the plasma A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. Neither of these 20. A value of the Michaelis constant: N4 1. Of an enzyme with high affinity for a substrate is low 2. Of hepatic glucokinase for glucose is high 3. Can be increased by competitive inhibitors A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None is correct 21. Pepsin belongs to: Oxidoreductase Transferases Hydrolases Isomerases Lyases 22. A value of the Michaelis constant: N5 1. Of an enzyme with high affinity for a substrate is high 2. Of a hepatic glucokinase for glucose is low 3. Can be increased by noncompetitive inhibitors A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. None is correct 23. Amylase belongs to: Oxidoreductase Transferases Hydrolases Isomerases Lyases TEST 5 1. Allosteric Enzymes 1. Frequently contain multiple subunits 2. May be conformationally changed by allosteric effectors that alter Km or Vmax 3. Are usually insensitive to the action of the end-products of the biochemical pathway A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. 1 2. Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. Phosphorylation- dephosphorylation is associated with serine, threonine or tyrosine residues of the enzyme. 2. HMG-CoA reductase is active in dephosphorylated form 3. Phosphate groups are removed from phosphorylated enzyme by the action of protein phosphorylases. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,3 3. Activity of existing enzyme may be decreased by: 1. Covalent modification 2. Repression 3. Allosteric effect A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,3 4. Which of the following statements is/are true? 1. Ubiquitin is a small protein. 2. Feedback inhibitors are frequently small molecules 3. The Km values for most enzymes are frequently lower to the average intracellular concentration of their substrances A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 1 D. 2 E. None 5.Inducers: 1. Stimulate synthesis of inducible enzymes 2. It's the product of the enzyme (no, bur for the substrate) 3. Have 2 kinds of specificity – one for the enzyme and one for the repressor 6.Catalytic capacity can be influenced by: 1. Repression mechanism 2. Second messengers 3. Increased rate of degeneration 7. ACTase: 1. It's feedback inhibited product (no, but it's endproduct) 2. It's activated by ATP 3. It's activated by limites proteolysis 8. Rate limiting reaction: 1. Usually is catalyzed by regulatory enzymes 2. Usually fastest in biochemical pathways 3. Usually target for action of drug A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 9. Constitutive enzymes: 1. Are insensitive for inducers 2. Their synthesis decrease in the presence of inhibitors 3. Their synthesis increase in the presence of activators A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 1 D. 1,2 E. Neither of these 10. Amount of enzymes ca be regulated: 1. By inducing and repression mechanisms 2. By increasing rate of its synthesis 3. By decreasing rate of its synthesis A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 11. Allosteric regulation: 1. Is energy independent process 2. Needs kinases phosphatases 3. Is involved in feedback inhibition process A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,3 12. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Allosteric effectors are always feedback inhibitors 2. Allosteric effects may be on Km but never in Vmax 3. Second messengers are specialized allosteric effectors A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None is correct 13. Partial Proteolysis: 1. Often results in conformational change that create the catalytic site of an enzyme 2. Is a common mechanism of activation of zymogens in the interior of cells 3. Is always irreversible A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None is correct 14. HMG-CoA reductase 1. Is active in phosphorylated form 2. Cannot be covalently modified 3. Is an example of enzymes whose activity is regulated by selective proteolysis A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None is correct 15. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Certain blood clotting factors are synthetized in the form of proproteins 2. Protein kinases phosphorylate most often the hydroxyl groups of seryl, threonyl and tyrosyl residues in proteins 3. The concentration of substrate for most enzymes are usually close to their Km A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 16. Which of the following enzymes is active in phosphorylated form: 1. Glycogen Synthase 2. HMG-CoA Reductase 3. Citrate Lyase 4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase A. 1,2 B. 1,4 C. 3,4 D. 3 E. None of mentioned above 17. Which of the following statements is correct 1. Phosphorylation – dephosphorylation are mainly associated with serine, threonine or thyrosine residues of enzymes 2. All proteins are subject to phosphorylation 3. Phosphoryl groups are removed from phosphorylated enzymes by the action of phosphorylases A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,3 18. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase 1. Is active in dephosphorylated form 2. Is the rate limiting enzyme for fatty acid biosynthesis 3. Is inactivated by the AMP-activated protein kinase A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 19. Ubiquitin: 1. Is attached covalently by E3 ligases to target proteins 2. Belongs to proteolytic enzymes 3. Proteasome pathway dysfunction may cause neurodegenerative disease A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1 E. None 20. Rate limiting reaction: 1. Usually is the slowest reaction in biochemical pathways. 2. Is characteristic, for example, in cholesterol biosynthesis 3. Is useful target for regulatory intervention by drugs A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 21. Inducer 1. Exhibits high affinity both to the operator gene and to the repressor 2. Increases catalytic efficiecy of the enzyme 3. Is the substrate of inducible enzyme A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 22. Aspartate transcarbamoylase (ATCase): 1. Is regulated by allosteric mechanism 2. Is an oligomeric enzyme 3. Is activated by limited proteolysis A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. None 23. Catalytic efficiency of enzyme can depend on: 1. Repression mechanism 2. Increasing rate of degradation 3. Concentration of second messengers in a cell A.1,2 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 24. Acetyl-CoA carboxylase: 1. Is active in dephosphorylated form 2. Is the rate-controlling enzyme for fatty acid biosynthesis 3. Is inactivated by the AMP-activated protein kinase A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 25. Ubiquitin: Is attached covalently by E3 ligases to target proteins Belongs to proteolytic enzymes Proteasome pathway dysfunction may cause neurodegenerative disease A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1 E. None 26. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Certain blood-clotting factors are synthetized in the form of proproteins 2. Protein kinases phosphorylate most often the hydroxyl groups of seryl, threonyl and tyrosyl residues in proteins 3. The concentration of substrate for most enzymes are usually close to their Km A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 27. Efficiency of rate limiting reaction may be depend on: 1. Enyzme concentration 2. Action of inducer 3. Second messenger concentration A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 E. None 28. Markings (recognition) the proteins that are designed for degradation 1. needs action of E3 Ligases 2. may be regulated by covalent modificattions of proteins 3. needs ubiquitin action A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 29. Enzyme synthesis: 1. undergo the depression in presence of inducer 2. increase in presence of CAP-cAMP complex 3. decrease in presence of gratuitous inducer A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 30. Phosphorylation of enzyme 1. may be modulate ist sensitivity for proteolysis 2. may cause the inactivation of enzyme 3. may modulate its sensitivity on allosteric ligands A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 31. Selective proteolysis: 1. Is the example of postranslational modification of enzymes 2. Needs using ADP 3. Is characterisitic for aspartate transcarbamoylase A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 32. Catalytic capacity of rate limiting reaction can be depend on 1. Enzyme concetration 2. Action of repressor 3. Inhibiting by drugs A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 E. None 33. Constitutive enzymes 1. Are insensitive for inducers 2. Their concentration are influenced by dietary factors 3. Their synthesis decrease in presence of ubiquitin A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. None 34. Catabolite repression of lac operon in E. coli ist the result of high concentration of: 1. Glucose 2. cAMP 3. CAP protein A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 35. Selective proteolysis (N1 this year) 1. Often results in conformational changes that create allosteric site of enzyme 2. Is a common mechanism of activation of zymogens in the inferior of the cell 3. Is always reversible A, 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None is correct 36. HMG- CoA reductase 1. Is active in dephosphorylated form 2. Cannot be covalently modified 3. Is an example of enzymes whose activity is regulated by selective proteolysis A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None is correct 37. Which of the sentences is true: (N3) 1. Catabolite repression of Lac operon in E. coli is the result of high concentration of cAMP 2. Synthesis of constitutive decrease is presence in ubiquitin 3. Glucose is gratuitous inducer of Lac Operon A. 1,3 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 38. Feedback regulation: 1. This is allosteric mechanism of regulation the enzyme catalytic efficiency 2. This if feedback inhibition of catalytic efficiency of enzyme by its product 3. This is the repression of the synthesis of enzyme by its product A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 39. Underline correctly: Influence of inhibitors on kinetics of allosteric enzymes: K-series of allosteric enzymes V-series allosteric enzymes Km Vmax Km Vmax Increase Increase Increase Increase Decrease Decrease Decrease Decrease No change No change No change No change 40. Partial proteolysis is similar to phosphorylation because: (N4 test) 1. It does not need energy 2. It need enzymes 3. It is irreversible A. 1 B. 1,3 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 E. 2 41. When E.coli is exposed to both lactose and glucose 1. Repressor is activated 2. Lac Z, Lac Y, Lac A genes are transcribed 3. Lactose is degraded A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,2,3 D. 2,3 E. None 42. Underline the following enzymes, which are active in dephosphorylation state: (N5) 1. Pyrovate dehydrogenase 2. HMG-CoA reductase 3. Glycogen synthase 4. Citrate lyase 5. Acetyl- CoA carboxylase 6. Glycogen Phosphrylase Test 6 Protein Digestion 1. Which of the following triplets of amino acids is nonessential in the diet A.Methionine, glycine and asparagine B. Tyrosine, threonine and cysteine C. Proline, valine and serine D. Glutamine, glutamate and phenylalanine E. Alanine, serine and tyrosine 1. Action of trypsin 1. Is followed by the action of carboxypeptidase B 2. Takes place in the intestinal brush border 3. Requires basic pH A. 1, 2 B. 1, 3 C. 2, 3 D. 1 E. None 2.Which of the following processes takes place in the gastric lumen 1. Hydrochloric acid is formed in 2. Pepsin is secreted to 3. Leucine and glutamate A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,3 1. Action of trypsin 1. Is followed by the action of carboxypeptidase B 2. Takes place in the brush border 3. Requires basic pH A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1 E. None 3. The following are nonessential amino acids except A. Threonine B. Glycine C. Serine D. Tyrosine E. Asparagine 4. Negative nitrogen balance 1. Is defined as the positive difference between output and intake of nitrogen 2. Is always observed in vegetarians 3. Cannot be observed in childhood A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 1. Tyrosine may be released by the following enzymes 1. Carboxypeptidase A 2. Aminopeptidase 3. Carboxypeptidase B 4. Dipeptidase A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 1,2,4 E. 1,4 2. Which of the following triplets of amino acids is nonessential in the diet A. Methionine, glycine and asparagine B. Tyrosine, threonine and cysteine C. Alanine, serine and tyrosine D. Glutamine, glutamate and phenylalanine E. Proline, valine and serine 3. Positive nitrogen balance 1. Is defined as the positive difference between intake and output of protein 2. Is always observed in pregnant women 3. Cannot be observed in adults A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 4. Which of the following sequence of events is properly arranged A. Acetylcholine – muscarine receptor – increase of cytosolic calcium concentration – increase of proton secretion B. Histamine – H12 receptor – activation of adenylyl cyclase – increase of cytosolic cAMP – increase of proton secretion C. Gastrin – gastrin receptor – decrease of cytosolic calcium concentration – increase of proton secretion D. Acetylcholine – muscarine receptor – activation of adenylyl cyclase – increase of cytosolic cAMP – increase of proton secretion E. None of the mentioned above 1. HCL: 1. Exists in oxyntic cells in concentration 10^-2 – 10^-1 M 2. Facilitates action of pepsin because of denaturation of protein 3. For its formation, action of carbonic anhydrase on gastric lumen is needed A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 2. Nitrogen balance: 1. Is negative when the excretion of proteins is higher than intake 2. Can be depend on the quality of ingested proteins 3. Is always positive in high caloric diet A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. 1,2,3 3. Mention essential amino acids: a. with sulphur: b. with hydroxyl group: c. acidic: d. basic: e. aromatic: 4. Carboxipeptidase B: a. activation: b. optimum pH: c. localization: d. specificity: e. products: 1. Which of the following sequence of events is properly arranged A. Acetylcholine – muscarine receptor – decrease of cytosolic calcium concentration – increase of proton secretion B. Histamine – H(1)2 receptor – activation of adenylyl cyclase – increase of cytosolic AMP – increase of proton secretion C. Gastrin – gastrin receptor – activation of adenylyl cyclase – increase of cytosolic cAMP – increase of proton secretion D. Acetylcholine – muscarine receptor – activation of adenylyl cyclase – increase of cytosolic cAMP – increase of proton secretion E. None of the mentioned above 2. Which of the following statements is (are) true 1. Carbonic anhydrase catalyes dissociation of carbonic acid 2. Serine is released as a product of the action of elastase 3. Histamin increase the rate of H+ secretion from oxyntic cells A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 2 E. None 3. Which of the following is (are) secreted to the gastric lumen 1. potassium ions 2. Protons 3. Pepsin 4. Histamin A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3 C. 4 D. 3 E. 2 1. The following are nonessential amino acids except A. Threonine B. Glycine C. Serine D. Tyrosine E. Asparagine 2. Negative nitrogen balance 1. Is defined as the positive difference between output and intake of nitrogen 2. Is always observed in vegetarians 3. Cannot be observed in childhood A. 1 B 1,2 C 2,3 D. 3 E. None 1. Add the essential amino acids to its characteristic features of side chain: 1. Aliphatic 2. Aromatic 3. SH 4. OH 5. Basic 1. Which of the sentences is true? N4 1. Oligopeptides and tripeptides aresubstrates for aminopeptidases 2. Enteropeptidase secreted by intestinal muscosal cells activates trypsinogen 3. Leucine and glutamate can be the product of pepsin A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 2. HCl 1. Its product increases the concentration of H+ in oxyntic cells to 10-3M/L 2. Its hyperproduction causes cachexia 3. It’s the product of carbonic anhydrase A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 3. Which of the sentences is true? 1. If the intake of the protein is greater than requirements there will always be positive nitrogen balance 2. Nitrogen balance is the ratio: intake of nitrogenous compounds/ output of nitrogenous metabolites from the body 3. In positive nitrogen balance the excretion of nitrogenous metabolites is less than the dietary intake of nitrogenous compounds A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 2. Which of the following statements are correct? N5 1. Protein leaves stomach as mixture of undigested proteins (60%) and long-chain peptides (40%) 2. The final product of protein digestion in the intestinal lumen is: free amino acid, dipeptides, tripeptides, and oligopeptides 3. Absorption of relatively large peptides leads to allergic reactions of food A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None are correct 3. Which of the following internal peptide bonds would be cleaved by pepsin (choose nr) 1. –Met --- Phe2. –Cys---Thr3. –Ala---Tyr4. –Leu---Gln5. –Gln---Trp6. Asn---Glu4. Underline those not secreted by pancreas: 1. Pepsinogen 2. HCO33. Enteropeptidase 4. H+ 5. Proelastase 6. Trypsinogen 7. Proaminopeptidase TEST 7 Plasma proteins 1. Which of the sentences are true: 1. Metallothioneines help in zinc transportation in plamsma 2. Copper plays important role in cellular respiration 3. Characteristic symptoms in Wilsen disease is low level of ceruloplasmin in plasma A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E none 2. Albumin 1. makes up approx. 60% of proteins synthesized in liver 2. is stabilized by 17 disulfide bonds 3. contains three domains with different function A 1,2 B 2,3 C1,3 D1,2,3 E none 3. Mention the immunoglobins which have properties mentioned below: 1. Complement fixation ……………………….. 2. Antigen recepter on B cells ……………………. 3. Opsonization……………………. 4. Transplacental passage………………….. 4. Ceruloplasmin 1. Conatins terminal sialic acid, which can be remoced by neruaminidase 2. Is responsible for copper transport from the intestine to liver 3. Exhibits ferroxidase activity A 1,2 B1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E none 5. Which of the following statements is correct 1. Albumin is a glycoprotein 2. Metallothioneins have a high content of methionine 3. CH domains have four hypervariable regions A1 B2 C3 D 1,2 E none 7. Connect the number and letters properly 1. IgG a. Exist always in the form of monomer 2. IgA b. Passes through placenta 3. IgE c. Fices complement 4. IgD d. Exists in serium in concentration lower the 150mg/dl 5. IgM e. Is found in secretions 8. Osmotic pressure 1. Is higher in arterioles the venules 2. In venules is higher than hydrostatic pressure 3. Depends on the concentration of plasma proteins A 1,3 B 2,3 C 1,2,3 D3 E 1,2 9. Albumin 1. Possess quaternary structure 2. Does not possess cysteine in their structure 3. Exists mainly in the plasma A 1,2 B1,3 C3 D 1,2,3 E none 10. A complete IgG molecule contains 1. Two antigen-binding regions 2. One k light chain and one λ light chain 3. Disulfide bonds between the two heavy chains A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D1 E none 11. Albumin 1. Is a glycoprotein 2. Provides 60% of the oncotic pressure of plasma 3. Is initially synthesiced as a preprotein A1 B3 C 1,2 D3 E2,3 12. Which of the following are causes of hyperproteinemia 1. analbuminemia 2. macroglobulinemia 3. liver insufficiency 4. cryglobulinemia A 1,3 B 2,4 C 1,2,4 D2 E none 13. Which of the following statements is correct: 1. Fibrinogen has a higher molecular mass that albumin 2. Orosomucoid belongs to acute phase proteins 3. Hemopexin is a B1-globulin A 1,2 B2 C3 D 1,2,3 E 1,3 14. Haptoglobin: 1. Half-life time = 5days 2. Because of binding of free heme protects the body against loosing of iron in urin 3. Low level in plasma is a reason of haemolytic anemia A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2 D. 1 E. 1,2,3 15. Protein deficiency in diet can be a reason of 1. Decreasing of oncotic pressure and edema 2. Decreasing of oncotic pressure and increasing of hydrostatic pressure 3. Decreasing of plasma proteins concentration A.1 B. 1,2 C1,3 D2,3 E. 1,2,3 16. A complete IgG molecule contains: 1. Two antigen bindings regions 2. On K light chain and one λ light chain 3. Two disulfide bonds between light chains A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D.1 E. None 17. Which of the following are not causes of hyperproteinemia 1. Fever 2. Macroglobulinemia 3. Starvation 4. Cryoglobulinemia A. 1,3 B. 2,4 C. 1,2,4 D.2 E.none 18. Albumin 1. Is present in plasme in higher amounts than in extracellular space 2. Is synthesices after interleukin 1-stimulation 3. Copper plays and important role in the synthesis of connective tissues A. 1,2 B1,3 C2,3 D1,2,3 E none 19. Which of the sentences is true 1. Familial amyloidosis results from accumulation of mutated … transthyretin 2. α2-macroglobulin comprises 25% of the total plasma proteins in human 3. Copper plays important role in synthesis of C.T. A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C.2,3 D.1,2,3 Enone 20. Which of the following are causes is hyperproteinemia 1. fever 2. macroglobulinemia 3. starvation 4. cryoglobulinemia A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 2 E. 3 21. Which of the proteins below , transport steroid hormones 1. B2-macroglobulin 2. Albumin 3. Transcortin 4. A1-fetoprotein A1 B 2,3 C3 D 1,4 E none 22. Which of the sentences is true: 1. Methallothioneines help in zinc transportation in plasma 2. Copper plays important roles in cellular respiration 3. Characteristic symptom in Wilson disease is low level of ceruloplasmin in plasm A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. none 23. Mention immunoglobins that have properties menitioned below: a. Complement fixation_______________________________________ b. Antigen receptor for B cells_________________________________ c. Opsonisation_________________________________________________ d. Transplacental passage_____________________________________ 24. Immunoglobuline molecule 1. Contains 2 types of Lchains 2. In plasma is digested by pepsin and papain 3. Binds to antigen by carbony end og H and L chains A 1,2 B1,3 C 2,3 D2 Enone 25. Oncotic pressure 1. Is higher in arterioles than venules 2. Depends on Starling forces 3. Its increase can be a reason of edema A. 2,3 B. 2 C. 1,3 E none D. 1,2,3 26. Electrophoresis of cellulose acetate 1. Can separate all of plasma proteins 2. Is more sensitive method of separation of plasma proteins than salting out method 3. Can determine propotrions between fraction of plasma proteins A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2 E. 1,2,3 37. Which of the sentences is true? N1 1. Albumin possess tre domains which have different functions 2. Plasma proteins which have ellipsodial shape increase hte velocity of the plasma 3. The one of characteristics feature of Wilson disaese is low level of ceruloplasmin in plasma A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. 2,3 38. IgM: 1. Is the main antibody in secondary response 2. Is the antigen receptor on the surface of B cells 3. Posseses four constant regions on heavy chain A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 29. The concentration of total plasma protein in human plasma is: N3 1. 7,0 – 7,5% 2. 70 – 75 g/dL 3. 7,0 – 7,5 g/L 4. 0,7 – 0,75/% A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 1,3 D. 4 E. 2,4 30. Molecule of immunoglobulin 1. Contains two types of L chains 2. Is digested in plasma by pepsin and papain 3. binds with antigen by C-end of H and L chains A. 1,3 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 E. Neither 31. Ceruloplasmin: N4 1. Carries 10% of the copper present in plasma 2. Concentration in plasma is increased in Wilson disaese 3. Exhibits ferrochelatase activity A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 32. Which of the following statements is correct? N5 1. Albumin does not contain sugar residues 2. hemopexin is an α1-globulin that binds free heme 3. CH domains have four hyperactive regions A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 1,2 E. None 33. Nuclear factor kappa B 1. Is a plasma protein 2. Exists in an inactive form in the nucleus 3. Is involved in the expression of cytokines and chemokines A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 E. 3 34. Plasma proteins: 1. Are syntheszed exclusively in the liver 2. Exerts the oncotic pressure equals to 37 mmHg 3. Can undergo posttranslational modification A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 35. Albumin 1. Is responsible for bilirubin transport in plasma 2. Is the principal determinant of intravascular oncotic pressue 3. Has higher concentration in extracellular space than in plasma A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,2,3 D. 2 E. 3 36. IgD 1. Has a heavy chain composed of 4 constant regions 2. Has the lowest concentration in plasma of all amminoglobulins 3. does pot fix complement A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 37. Starling forces: 1. Are responsible for the proper distribution of fluid between plasma and the interstitial spaces 2. are pressures exerted by the plasma proteins 3. Can be measured by the use of electrophoresis A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 Test 8 Biosynthesis of Amino acids 1. Asparagine synthetase 1. AMP is one of the products of catalysed reaction 2. Use glutamate as substrate 3. Convert oxalocetate to asparagine A. 1,3 B. 1,2,3 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1 2. Glutamate can be: 1. Substrate in reductive amination (amidation) 2. Product of glutamate dehydrogenase 3. Substrate for aminotransferase A. 1,3 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 3. Glycine does not play any role in biosynthesis: 1. GABA 2. purines 3. δ-aminolevulinate 4. Serine A. 2,4 B. 3 C. 1,4 D. 1 E. none 4. Propyl hydroxylase needs as a substrate: 1. Succinate 2. Molecular oxygen 3. Free proline A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 5. Glycine does not play a role in biosynthesis: 1. Purines 2. δ-aminolevulinate 3. Serine 4. GABA A. 2,4 B. 3 C. 4 D. 1,3 E. None 6. Product of polyamine oxidase is: 1. Spermidine 2. Spermine 3. Putrescine A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 7. Glutamate can be: 1. Substrate in reductive amination (amidation) 2. Product of glutamate dehydrogenase 3. Substrate for aminotransferase A. 1,3 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 8. Which of the sentences are true: 1. Biosynthetic pathway of glycine requires present of serine and choline 2. Synthesis of tyrosine requires nonessential amino acids as substrate 3. Glutamate is a substrate of biosynthesis of both glutamine and proline A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 9. Putrescine, spermidine and spermine: 1. Needs methionine and ornithine for initial step of their synthesis 2. Contain same number of carbons 3. Finally are degraded into carbon and ammonia 10. This is structure of: (Phenylalanine) 1. Nonessential amino acid 2. Substrate for dopa decarboxylase 3. Substrate for mixed-function oxygenase A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. None 11. Glycine does not play any role in biosynthesis: 1. Purines 2. δ-aminolevulinate 3. Serine 4. GABA A. 2,4 B. 1,3 C. 4 D. 2 E. none 12. Product of polyamine oxidase is: 1. Spermidine 2. Spermine 3. Putrescine A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2 E. 1,2,3 D. 2,3 13. Glycine serves as a substrate in all of the following processes with the exception of: A. Synthesis of Heme B. Synthesis of purines C. Synthesis of γ- aminobutyrate D. Synthesis of δ-aminolevulinate E. Synthesis of creatinine 14. Dopamine β-oxidase: 1. Requires Vitamin C 2. Requires Pyridoxal phosphate 3. Requires Copper ions A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. none 15. Beta-alanine: 1. May be produced from cytosine 2. Is a substrate for carnosine synthetase 3. It is a major fraction of free amino acids in plasma A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. 1 16. This is a structural formula of: A. melatonin B. epinephrine C. dopamine D.creatinine 17. Glycine: 1. may be synthesized from glyoxylate and glutamate 2. is a substrate in irreversible reaction catalysed by serine hydroxymethyltransferase 3. is needed in liver for creatinine biosynthesis A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 1,2,3 D. 3 E. none 18. Which of the following is correct? N1 1. Arginine provides nitrogen of nitric oxide 2. Histidine compunds present in the human body include carnosine, ergothioneine and dietary anserine 3. Taurine is derived from cysteine A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 19. Connect properly : 1. S-adenosylethionine 2. Carnosine 3. Cysteine 4. Serine A. participates in the biosynthesis of sphingosine B. participates in the biosynthesis of CoA C. Principal source of methyl groups D. Activator f myosin ATPase 20. Which sentences are true? N3 1. Glutamate is involved in biosynthesis of both glutamine and proline 2. Synthesis of cycteine requires dietary essential amino acids as a substrate 3. Selenocysteine is present at the active site of glutathione peroxidase A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 21. S-Adenosylmethionine 1. Is essential in in γ-aminobutyrate synthesis 2. Is a source of methyl groups in biosynthesis of epinephrine 3. Is the derivative of purine nucleotide A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. None Β-alanine: N4 1. Is a component of putrescine 2. Is a component of anserine 3. Is a component of homocarnosine A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 Phenylalanine hydroxylase: A. Need NADH for action B. Needs Dihydrobiopterin C. Catalyzed reversible reaction D. Water is one of the product of the reaction E. All of the above E. 1,2,3 Test 9 Catabolism of Amino Acid Nitrogen 1. Which of the following Amino Acids are involved in the Urea Cycle? 1. Ornithine 2. Asparagine 3. Argininosuccinate 4. N- Acetylglutamate A. 1,2 B. 3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,2,3,4 2. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Reaction catalyzed by glutamate synthetase is the most common way of ammonia detoxication in the body 2. Glutamate deamidation is irreversible 3. Alanine is the predominant form of Ammonia transport in blood. A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 3. Ammonia is initially detoxified into: A. Carbamoyl Phosphate B. Glutamate Glutamine C. Aspartate D. Urea 4. Amino acids involved in Urea cycle are the following except: A. Aspartate B. Fumarate C. Ornithine D. Arginine E. N- Acetylglutamate 5. Which of the following enzymes produce ammonia? 1. Glutaminaste 2. Glutamine Synthetase 3. Carbamoyl phosphate synthease 1 4. AMP- deaminase 5. Glutamate dehydrogenase A. 1,2,4 B. 1,4,5 C. 1,2,3,5 D. 2,3 E. 1,4 6. Which of the following statements are true? 1. ATP – dependent enzymes involved in Urea cycle convert ATP to AMP 2. Glutamate dehydrogenase is a mitochondrial enzyme 3. All amino acids with exception of lysine and tyrosine participate in transamination’s A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 2 D. 3 E. None 7. Ammonia present in portal veins in produced by: 1. Glutamate dehydrogenase in liver 2. Bacterial urease in the intestinal lumen 3. AMP – Deaminase in working muscle A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 2,3 8. Which of the following Amino Acids are involved in the Urea Cycle? 1. Ornithine 2. Arginine 3. Adenylosuccinate 4. N-Acetylglutamate A. 1,2 B. 3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 1,2,3,4 E. 1,2,3 9. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Reaction catalyzed by Glutaminase is the most common way of ammonia detoxication in the body 2. Transamination are usually irreversible 3. Renal production of Ammonia increases in metabolic alkalosis A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 10. Ubiquitin 1. Is required for degradation for regulatory proteins 2. Acts in ATP-independent processes of protein degradation 3. Is a part of Proteasome A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 11. Glutamine 1. Is a product of Aminotransferase 2. Plays a role in Acid-Base Homeostasis 3. Takes a part in interorgan nitrogen flux A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 2 E. None 12. About Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase: 1. Cytosolic isoenzyme uses glutamine as a substrate 2. Defect in mitochondrial isoenzyme are responsible for for Hyperammonemia type 1 3. Both isoenzymes are regulated by N-Actylglutamate A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 13. The following structure represents: H2N- CO-NH-CH2- CH2- CH2-CHNH2-COOH Aspartate Citrulline Arginine Argininosuccinate Ornithine 14. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Amino Acids are stored in tissues in form of protein 2. Uric acid is major end-product of Nitrogen catabolism in birds 3. Urea biosynthesis occurs in 4 stages A. 1,2 B. 1,2,3 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. None 15. Ammonia may be released in reaction catalyzed by: 1. Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase 1 2. Aspartate aminotransferase 3. Glutamine synthetase 4. Glutamate aminotransferase A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,4 D. 1,3,4 E. None 16. Which sentences is true? 1. Ammonia can be product of Alanine Aminotransferase 2. Defect of mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is responsible for Hyperammonemia type 1 3. Ornithine is potent competitive inhibitor of arginase A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 17. Which set of metabolites mentioned below may be the substrate of Glutamate Dehydrogenase? 1. NH3, ATP, α-ketoglutarate 2. α-ketoglutarate, NH3, Glutamate 3. NH3, ADP, imino acid 4. Glutamate, Flavin, α-ketoglutarate A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None 18. Extracellular proteins are degraded: 1. By ATP- independent process 2. By Ubiquitin 3. By lysosomal proteases A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 3 E. 1,3 19. Glutamate: 1. Accumulates all the Amino Nitrogen from the Amino Acids that undergo transamination 2. Play important role in ammonia detoxification 3. Can be substrate for aminotransferase A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,2,3 20. The enzymes of Urea cycle: 1. Act in the cytoplasm and mitochondria 2. All of them exist in all tissues 3. All catalyze the condensation reactions A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,3 21. Extracellular proteins are degraded: 1. By ATP-independent process 2. By proteins termed cathepsins 3. By Ubiquitin A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 3 E. 1,3 22. In Urea cycle: (N1 this year) 1. Mitochondrial enzymes are cytruline transcarbamoylase and Carbamoylornitine synthase 2. Aspartate is a donor of nitrogen 3. Alanine is used A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. 1,2 23. Glutamate synthase 1. Catalyzes irreversible reaction 2. Is a cytosolic enzyme 3. Is activated by N-acetylglutamate A. 1,3 B. 1 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 24. Ubiquitin: (N3 this year) 1. Targets many intracellular proteins for degradation in lysosomes 2. Is a large protein with highly conserved primary structure 3. Is present in all eukaryotic cells A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 26. Ammonia may be released in reaction catalysed by: 1. AMP- Deaminase 2. Aspartate Aminotransferase 3. Urease 4. Glutamine synthetase A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,4 D. 1,3,4 E. None 27. Which of the sentences are true? (From N4) 1. Glutamate can be product of aminotransferases 2. Defect of mitochondrial carbamoyl phosphate synthetase is responsible for HHH syndrome 3. Glutamate, Flavin and α-Ketoglutarate can be the substrates of glutamate dehydrogenase A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 28. Ubiquitin: 1. Is a protease that hydrolyzes intracellular proteins 2. Acts as ATP-independent process of protein degeneration 3. Is the enzyme characteristic for Lysosomes A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. None 29. Ubiquitin: (N5 this year) 1. Targets many intracellular proteins for degradation in lysosomes 2. Is a large protein with highly conserved primary structure 3. Is present in all eukaryotic cells A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 30. A deficiency of ornithine transcarbamoylase produces: 1. Hyperammonemia 1 2. Hyperammonemia 2 3. Hyperornithinemia 4. Citrullinemia 31. Ammonia may be released in reaction catalysed by: 1. Carbamoyl Phosphate Synthetase 1 2. Aspartate aminotransferase 3. Glutamine synthetase 4. Glutamate aminotransferase A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,4 D. 1,3,4 E. None TEST 11 Krebs cycle 1. This metabolite: 1. Are oxidized in Krebs cycle 2. May be a substrate of aconitase 3. Is the product of alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,3 2. Which of the mentioned enzymes catalyze anaplerotic reaction: 1. Aconitase 2. Pyruvate carboxylase 3. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase A 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. none 3. Which of the following amino acids enters the Krebs cycle through succinyl-CoA: 1. Methionine 2. Histidine 3. Valine 4. Tyrosine A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 2,3 D. 1,4 E. None 4. FADH2 Is formed in the citric acid cycle in reaction catalized by A. Thiophorase B. malate dehydrogenase C. fumarase D. succinate dehydrogenase E. succinyl- CoA synthetase 5. This is the structural formula of the: 1. substrate of oxidative decarboxylation reaction 2. substrate of malate dehydrogenase 3. substrate of glutamate aminotransferase A 1,2 B 2,3 C 1,3 D1 E none 6. Which of these sentences are true: 1. high concentration of ATP and NADH inhibits the activity of Krebs cycle 2. the product of alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is high energy metabolite 3. succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the synthesis of succinyl-CoA A 1,2 B 2,3 C 1,3 D 1,2,3 E none 7. Which of the following statements is correct: 1. Aconitase may be inhibited by fluorocitrate 2. Valine enters the citric acid cycle through succinyl-CoA 3. Riboflavin is a component of coenzyme for alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase complex A 1,2 B1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E none 8. Which of the following enzymes are not enzymes of the citric acid cycle: 1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 2. Pyruvate carboxylase 3. Diphosphonucleoside kinase A 1,2 B1 C2 D3 E? 9. Krebs cycle participates in the synthesis of fatty acids because of: 1. Synthesis of acetyl-CoA, substrate of their biosynthesis 2. Delivery of reducing equivalents for their synthesis 3. Synthesis of citrate A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 1 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 10. Which of the following amino acids can enter into krebs cycle via pyruvate: 1. Glycine 2. Serine 3. Alanine A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 11. Adenylyl kinase: 1. Catalyzes irreversible reaction 2. Both product and substrate of this enzyme contain high energy phosphate 3. Product of the catalyzed reaction can be allosteric regulator of some enzymes A. 1,3 B. 3 C. 1,2 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 12. The α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase 1. Needs acetyl-CoA as a cofactor 2. Is catalyzed by NADH-H+ 3. Catalyzes irreversible reaction A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. 1,2 13. Which of the metabolized below belongs to phosphagens? N1 1. Glucose 1-phosphate 2. Creatine phosphate 3. Phosphoenolpyruvate 4. Pyrophosphate A. 1,4 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 14. The word “amphibolic” describes: 1. Reactions that maintain an adequate concentration of Krebs cycle intermediate 2. Both acidic and alkali features of each intermediate of Krebs cycle 3. Dual role of Krebs cycle – in catabolic and anabolic pathways 4. The reaction catalyzed by pyruvate carboxylase A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None 15. Which of the sentences is true? 1. Adenylyl kinase catalyzes reaction: ATP + UDP ADP + UTP 2. Methionine enters into the Krebs cycle by conversion into succinyl-CoA 3. Glutamate is important anaplerotic substrate A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 16. The oxaloacetate is the substrate of reaction catalyzed by: 1. Pyruvate carboxylase 2. ATP-citrate lyase 3. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 17. Which of the following statements are correct? N5 1. Oxalosuccinate belongs to decarboxylic acids 2. Sulfur containing amin acids enter the citric acid cycle through syccinyl CoA 3. GTP formed in the citric acid cycle is emidiately converted to ATP by diphosphonucleoside isomerase A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,2,3 D. 2,3 E. None 18. Compound given below: 1. Undergoes hydration in the citric acid cycle 2. Is formed from icocitrate 3. May be either a substrate or a product of the same enzyme A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None Respiratory chain 1. Complex III of respiratory chain: 1. Reduces CoQ 2. Oxidizes cytochrome c 3. Contains cytochromes a and a3 A 1,3 B1 C3 D1,2 E none 2. H2O2 may be a product of the action of: 1. Oxidases 2. Peroxidases 3. Catalase 4. Superoxide dismutase A. 2,3 B. 1,4 C. 2 D. 1,3,4 E none 3. Oligomyosin 1. Prevents entry? of hydrogen ions into the mitochondrial matrix 2. Inhibits the respiratory chain of complex III 3. Is an antibiotic A1 B 1,2 C 1,3 D 1,2,3 E none 4. The inner mitochondrial membrane 1. Lacks an NADH transporter 2. is rich in c....? 3. is impermeable to... small ions A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E none ? 5. Transport of reducing equivalents from the cytosol into the mitochondria needs: 1. Action of creatine kinase 2. Action of malate dehydrogenase 3. Energy from ATP A1 B 1,2 C2 D 1,3 E none 6. 2,4-dinitrophenol: 1. Inhibit F0 subcomplex of ATP synthase 2. Activate the proton pumps in respiratory chain 3. Inhibit enzyme complexes of respiratory chain A1 B2 C3 D 1,3 E none 7. Which of the sentence is true: 1. Fe-S proteins are hemoproteins of respiratory chain 2. In presence of uncouplers more heat is released during the cell respiration 3. The intensity of electrons flow along respiratoy chain depends on ADP availability A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D none E 1,2,3 8. Hydrogen peroxide 1. is a substrate of catalases, peroxidases and oxidases 2. Can be produced in higher amounts in peroxisomes 3. Is the one of products of cyt. P-450 A1 B 2,3 C2 D 1,2,3 E none 9. Hydrogen peroxide: 1. can be a substrate and product of oxidoreductase 2. is a product of action of catalase 3. is a substrate for peroxidase A 2,3 B 1,2,3 C 1,3 D3 E none 10. Oligomycin: 1. Inhibits both oxidation of NADH and oxidative phosphorylation 2. Acts on complex III 3. In a presence of uncouplers, inhibits oxidation but not phosphorylation A 1,2 B2 C1 D 1,3 E3 11. Complex III of respiratory chain: 1. Reduces CoQ 2. Oxidizes cytochrome c 3. Contains cytochromes a and a3 A 1,3 B1 C3 D1,2 E none 12. Transport of reducing equivalents to mitochondrion: 1. Via glycerol-phosphate shuttle needs ATP 2. Can use aminotransferases 3. Needs ATP/ADP transporter A 1,3 B2 C 2,3 D3 E none 13. Hydrogen peroxide: 1. Can be a substrate and product of oxidoreductase 2. Is a product of action of catalase 3. Is a substrate for peroxidase A 2,3 B 1,2,3 C 1,3 D3 E none 14. In respiratory chain: 1. Oxidative phosphorylation is connected with reduction of oxygen 2. In a presence of uncouplers, more heat is generated 3. Intensity of electron flow depends on availability of ADP A1 B 1,3 C3 D 1,2,3 E 2,3 15. Oxidoreductases: 1. Can use oxygene as an acceptor of hydrogen 2. Are always hemoproteins 3. Can catalyze reversible reaction A2 B 2,3 C 1,3 D 1,2 E 1,2,3 16. Oligomycin: 1. Inhibits both oxidation and oxidative phosphorylation 2. Acts on complex III 3. In a presence of uncouplers, inhibits oxidation but not phosphorylation A 1,2 B2 C1 D 1,3 E3 17. Glycerol-phosphate shuttle: 1. Needs ATP 2. Makes proton gradient 3. Is inhibited by atractyloside A1 B 1,2 C 2,3 D 1,3 E neither of these 18. 2,4 dinitrophenol: 1. Can cause proton leak across inner membrane 2. Makes oxidative phosphorylation go faster 3. Activates proton pump A1 B 1,2 C 1,3 D 2,3 E 1,2,3 19. NADH dehydrogenase: 1. Is a complex I of respiratory chain 2. Contains FAD as a coenzyme (prosthetic group) 3. Contains also iron and sulfur atoms A 1,2 B1 C 1,3 D2 E 1,2,2 20. Complex III of respiratory chain: 1. Contains of cytochrome c as a prosthetic group 2. Is engaged in creation of gradient of protons across the membrane 3. Is inhibited by antimycin A1 B2 C 1,3 D 2,3 E 1,2 21. Transport of reducing equivalents from cytoplasm into the mitochondria: N3 1. Needs the presence in the inner mitochondrial membrane the active transporter for NADH 2. Sometimes needs the action of enzymes such as oxidases 3. Is more universal by using the malate shuttle A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 22. Uncouples: 1. Inhibits F0 subcomplex of ATP synthase 2. Activate the proton pumps in the respiratory chain 3. Cause the respiration to be uncontrolled A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. None 23. NADP-linked dehydrogenase 1. Needs the presence of niacin for its activity 2. Are connected with fatty acids synthesis 3. Are needed in Krebs cycle A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2 E. None 24. Oxidative phosphorylation: 1. Can take place with the participation of such enzymes like: ceatine kinase, ATP synthase monooxygenase 2. Take place mainly in mitochondria and sometimes in cytoplasm 3. Can be inherited by vasomyocin A. 1,2 B. 1 C. 1,2,3 D. 3 E. None 25. Coenzyme Q – N4 1. Is soluble (can diffuse) in lipids of mitochondrial membrane 2. Transfer electrons from flavoprotein to cytochorome c via complex II 3. Quinol is its reduced form A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 2,3 E. 2 26. 2,4 dinitrophenol 1. Inhibits respiratory chain 2. Make inne mitochondrial membrane impermeable for protons 3. Dissociates respiratory chain from phosphorylation A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 2 E. 1 27. Products of reaction catalyzed by oxidase are: 1. Oxidized substrate and water 2. Hydroxy derivative and substrate 3. Oxidixed substrate hydrogen peroxide A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. 2,3 28. Complex I of respiratory chain 1. Has an enzymatic activity 2. Transfer 4 H+ into mitochondrial membrane 3. Is inhibited by antimycin A. 2 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 1 E. 1,2,3 29. Complex IV of the respiratory chain: N5 1. Passes the electrons on to molecular oxygen 2. May be easly inhibited by KCN 3. Is a hemoproteins A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 30. Oligomycin: 1. Facilitates reentry of hydrogen ions into the mitochondrial matrix 2. Belongs to uncouplers 3. Is also called 2,4 dinitrophenol A. 1 B.1,2 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 31. FNM 1. Is formed in the body from riboflavin 2. Serves as prosthetic group in flavoproteins 3. Is a component of complex II of the respiratory chain A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. None 32. Malate shuttle system: 1. Is of more universal utility than glycerophosphate shuttle 2. Requires aspartate aminotransferase activity 3. Is deficient in heart muscle A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None Test 12-13 Acid base 1. HCO3 of plasma increases as a result of compensation of: 1. Respiratory acidosis 2. Metabolic acidosis 3. Respiratory alkalosis 4. Metabolic alkalosis A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. None 2. H2CO3 - derived H+ secretion in distal tubule: 1. Is equal to HCO3- production 2. Is totally dependent on activity of carbonic anhydrase 3. Is Na+ dependent A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. none 3. Hyperkalemia may be reason of: 1. Alkalosis 2. Acidosis 3. Increase of intracellular pH A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 4. Ammonia synthesis in kidney: 1. Increases during metabolic alkalosis 2. Is performed by glutaminase 3. Is a source of titratible acids A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 1 E. none E. 1,2,3 5. During metabolic alkalosis: 1. HCO3- increases 2. pCO2 can increase as a compensatory response of lung 3. Secretion of protons in distal tubule increases A. 1,3 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 6. The effect of primary hyperkalemia is: 1. Extracellular acidosis 2. Increased secretion of H+ into tubular fluid 3. Decreased pH of the urine A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 7. H+ are excreted in the urine in the form of: 1. H2PO42. HPO4,23. NH4+ 4. 4. H+ 5. HCO3A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 2,4,5 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,4,5 8. Buffer capacity depends on: 1. The concentration of the buffer 2. The proportions of the buffer components 3. The dilution of the buffer 4. All of the mentioned above A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1,3 E. None 9. Ammonia synthesis in kidney epithelial cells: 1. Is a source of titrable acids in urine 2. Is catalyzed by glutaminase and glutamate dehydrogenase 3. Can be pH-dependent A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 10. HCO3- of plasma increases as a result of compensation of: 1. Respiratory acidosis 2. Metabloic acidosis 3. Respiratory alkalosis 4. Metabolic alkalosis A1 B2 C3 D4 E None 11. Which of the following are stimulators of HCO3- reabsorption? 1. Hyperkalemia 2. Hypochloremia 3. Hypokalemia 4. Increase in pCO2 5. Decrease in pCO2 A 125 B 24 C 234 D 35 E 14 12. Buffer capacity depends on: 1. The concentration of the buffer 2. The proportions of the buffer solution 3. The dilution of the buffer A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. 3 13. Ammonia synthesis in kidney: 1. Decreases during metabolic alkalosis 2. Is performed by glutamine synthetase 3. Is a source of titratible acids A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1 E. None of these 14. During metabolic alkalosis: 1. [HCO3-] increases 2. pCO2 can increase as a compensatory response of lung 3. secretion of protons in distal tubule increases A. 1,3 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 15. During metabolic acidosis: (N1) 1. [HCO3-] decrease 2. pCO2 can increase as compensatory response of lung 3. Ssecretion of protons is distal tubule decrease A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 17. The pH of buffer: (N3) 1. Decrease when the dilution of buffer increases 2. Is equal the pK of buffer when the ratio of A-/HA is equal 0 3. Depends of dissociation constant of acid A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1 D. 3 E. None 18. The concentration of H+ in plasma at pH 7,40 is equal to 40mmol/liter. Write what concentration of H+ in plasma will be: a/ at pH 7,35……………….. b/ at pH 7,48………………. 20. Fill in(N4 –N5) a. Sulfuric acid highly dissociates in water while carbonic acid only weakly (partially) dissociates. Which are stronger acids?.............................................................................................................................. b. What is the major purpose of buffer action?.................................................................................. ………………………………………………. c. Which reaction is catalyzed by carbonic anhydrase?...................................................................... 21. H+ are excreted in urine in form of mentioned below except: 1. H2PO4+ 2. H+ 3. NH4+ 4. HCO3A. 1,2,4 B. 2,3,4 C. 2,4 D. 4 E. All are forms of H+ excretion TEST 14 Carbohydrate and Glycogen Metabolism and 1. Which enzyme of mentioned below catalyze an irreversible reaction? 1. Glycokinase 2. Phosphoglucomutase 3. Phosphodiesterase A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. None 2. Synthesis of substrate for synthesis of glycogen: 1. Needs high energy compound 2. Need formation of 1,4 glycosydic bonds 3. Needs glycose-6-phosphate A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. None 3. Glycogenolysis: 1. Is the reverse of glycogenesis 2. In muscles is stimulated by glucagon 3. In liver is stimulated by increasing activity of protein phosphatase-1 A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 2 D. 3 E. None 4. Muscle phosphorylase b is different than liver one because: 1. Is sensitive for allosteric effectors 2. Is activated by Ca2+ 3. Is activated by phosphorylation A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1 E. 1,2,3 5. Which of the sentences is true? 1. Insulin increase the activity of phosphodiesterase in liver 2. Free glucose is an inhibitor of phosphorylase a in muscle 3. ATP is an allosterically inhibitor of phosphorylase a in both muscle and kidney A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None (zadne) 6. Glucose-6-phosphate: 1. Can be a product of phosphoglucomutase 2. Can be dephosphorylated to glucose in liver and muscle cells 3. Is an activator of muscle protein phosphatase A. 1 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 7. Glucose-6-phosphate: 1. May be a product of phosphoglucomutase 2. May be dephosphorylated in liver and muscle cells 3. Is an allosteric activator of muscle synthase b A. 1 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 8. Calcium in muscle: 1. Is an activator of phosphorylase b 2. Is a stimulator of glycogenolysis 3. Is an activator of phosphorylase kinase b A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 9. Inhibition of protein phosphatase-1: 1. Is a result of increased concentration of cAMP 2. Stimulates glycogenolysis 3. Is a result of covalent modification of inhibitor-1 A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 10. Enzyme that needs for action, high energetic compounds is (are): 1. UDPGlc pyrophosphorylase 2. Phosphorylase 3. Phosphorylase kinase 4. Protein phosphatase-1 A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1,3,4 E. 1,3 11. Insulin: 1. Activates phosphodiesterase 2. Decreases glycogen synthesis 3. Inactivates glycogen phosphorylase a A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 12. Phosphorylase kinase in muscle: 1. May be activated by calcium-calmodulin complex 2. May be inactivated by protein phosphatase 1 3. Is activated by AMP in the case of anoxia A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 13. G – 6 P 1. Can be substrate for glucokinase and phosphoglucomustase 2. Can be dephosphorylated in muscle and liver 3. Is an inhibitor of phosphorylase kinase A. 1 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 14. Phosphorylase b: 1. In muscle is activated by AMP 2. Is converted to phosphorylase a by dephosphorylation 3. Is substrate for cAMP dependent protein kinase A. 1 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 15. Glycogenesis is stimulated: 1. By epinephrine in muscle 2. By decreasing level of cAMP 3. By activation of phosphorylase kinase A. 1 B. 1,3 C. 2 D. 1,2,3 E. 2,3 16. Protein phosphatase: 1. Is active in phosphor- form 2. Can activate glycogenesis 3. Converts synthase a to inactive form A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 3 E. 1,3 17. Inhibition of protein phosphatase -1 1. Is a result of increased concentration of cAMP 2. Stimulate glycogenolysis 3. Is a result of covalent modification of inhibition -1 A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 18. Phosphorylase b 1. In muscle is allosterically activated by cAMP 2. Contains subunits which can bind calcium 3. Is an allosterically inhibitor of protein phosphatase -1 A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 19. Transport of glucose across the intestinal epithelium: 1. Occurs against a concentration gradient 2. Is coupled to the Na+ - K+ pump 3. May be Na+ - independent A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 E. None 20. Epinephrine 1. Stimulates glycogenolysis in liver 2. Inhibits the insulin secretion from pancreatic β- cells 3. Stimulates releasing of glucose from muscle A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 21. Galactose and glucose are: 1. Aldose –ketose isomers 2. Epimers 3. Optical isomers 4. D and L isomers 5. Anomers 22. Insulin 1. Activates Phosphodiesterase 2. Decreases glycogen synthesis 3. Inactivates glycogen phosphorylase a A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 23. Phosphorylase kinase in muscle 1. May be activated without phosphorylation by calcium- calmodulin complex 2. May be inactivated by protein phosphatase 1 3. Is activated by AMP in case of anoxia A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 24. True of False- (N1) L-xylolose is excreted in the urine in essential pentosuria Branching enzymes is deficient in Tarui’s desease Insulin activated phosphorylase kinase by increasing formation of G6P Most oligosaccharides are not digested by human enzymes False - True False - True False – True False – True 25. Which of the following is correct? 1. Glycogenin is an enzyme 2. Insulin increases the activity of Phosphodiesterase in the liver 3. Muscle phosphorylase may be converted to its active “a” from by 5’AMP A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 1,2,3 D. 2,3 E. None 26. UDPGlc pyrophosphorylase and glycogen synthetase a: (N3) two possible answers are correct 1. Are inactive in phosphorylated form 2. As a substrate use high energy compound 3. A product of the first one is substrate for the second A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 27. Glycogenolysis: (N4) 1. Is the reverse of glycogenesis 2. In muscles is stimulated by epinephrine 3. In the liver it is stimulated by decreasing activity of protein phosphatase -1 A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 2 D. 3 E. None 28. Glycogenin: (N5) 1. Is a protein that is glycosylated on a specific threonine residue 2. Remains attached in the center of the glycogen molecule in muscle 3. Is an enzyme, which catalyzes formation of glycogen primer A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 29. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Glycophorin is a major integral membrane glycolipid inhuman erythrocytes 2. Nearly all carbohydrate in food are converted to glucose for further metabolism 3. Trehalose is the main sugar of insect hemolymph A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 30. Galactose: 1. Is an epimer of maltose 2. Is an anomer of glucose 3. Is cleaved by β-galactosidase in the intestine A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 1,2,3 E. None 31. Ketosis, hypoglycemia, lactic acidemia and hyperlipidemia are biochemical symptoms of: 1. Amylopectinosis 2. Gucose 6-phosphate deficiency 3. Glycogen storage disease type IX 4. Glycogen synthase deficiency 5. McArdle’s syndrome Test 15 Glycolysis and oxidation of pyruvate &Gluconeogenesis 1. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Glucagon inhibits glycolysis by dephosphorylation of pyruvate kinase 2. Lactate serves as a gluconeogenic factor in well fed state 3. Acetyl-CoA is an allosteric activator of pyruvate carboxylation A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 2. Glucokinase: 1. Is separated by glucose from glucokinase regulatory protein in the nucleus 2. Is inhibited directly by fructose-6-phosphate 3. Is activated indirectly by glucose A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 3. Fructose 1,6 – phosphate 1. Can undergo conversion to fructose 2,6 biphosphate by phosphofructokinase-2 2. Is allosteric activator of pyruvate dehydrogenase 3. Is synthesized in all tissues A. 3 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2 E. 1,2,3 4. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 1. Can undergo covalent modification 2. Is inhibited by acetyl-CoA 3. Is activated by NADH+ H+ A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 5. Which of the following are causes of glucose intolerance? 1. Decrease of glucose uptake by hepatocytes 2. Decrease of glucose uptake by adipocytes and myocytes 3. Increase of glucose uptake by enterocytes A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 6. Complete the following statements: A. The entry of glycerol-3-phosphate to gluconeogenesis is catalyzed by ………………………………….. B. ………………………………… is a predominant carbohydrate in the European diet. 7. Phosphofructokinase -2 1. Is active in phosphorylated form 2. Is activated by high level of insulin 3. Is stimulated by fructose-6-phosphate A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. None 8. In which reactions(s) of mentioned below high energy products synthesized: 1. Phosphoglycerate mutase 2. Enolase 3. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase 4. Pyruvate carboxykinase A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 4 D. 2,3,4 E. None 9. Which enzymes of mentioned below catalyze the reversible reactions: 1. Glycerol Kinase 2. Phosphoglycerate kinase 3. PDH kinase 4. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 3,4 D. 2,4 E. 1,3,4 10. All kinases of glycolysis 1. Catalyze irreversible reactions 2. Perform phosphorylation reactions 3. Are regulated by allosteric mechanisms A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 11. Connect correctly the enzymes and their inhibitors: 1/ Pyruvate carboxylase 2/ Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3/ Fructose-1,6 bisphosphatase 12. Phosphofructokinase -2 1. Is active in phosphorylated form 2. Is activated by high level of insulin 3. Is stimulated by fructose-6-phosphate A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 2,3 a/ fructose-2,6-bisphosphate b/ AMP c/ Acetyl-CoA d/ ADP E. None 13. Compare the hexokinase and the glucokinase: Hexokinase 1/ Tissue localization 2/ Specificity 3/ Affinity of glucose 4/ Km value(low/high) 5/ Inhibitors/ activators Glucokinase 14. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate dehydrogenase catalyzes: 1. The conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate on to glycerol-3-phosphate 2. The irreversible reaction in glycolysis 3. The red-ox reaction in gluconeogenesis A. 1 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 15. 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate: 1. Is the product of phosphoglycerate kinase in erythrocytes 2. Decreases hemoglobin affinity for oxygen 3. Increases availability of oxygen for tissues A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. None 16. Connect correctly the enzymes and their inhibitors: 1/ Pyruvate carboxylase 2/ Pyruvate dehydrogenase 3/ Fructose-1,6 bisphosphatase 17. Phosphofructokinase -2 1. Is active in phosphorylated form 2. Is activated by high level of insulin 3. Is stimulated by fructose-6-phosphate A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 3 a/ fructose-2,6-bisphosphate b/ AMP c/ Acetyl-CoA d/ ADP E. None 18. Which enzymes of mentioned below catalyze the reversible reactions: 1. Glycerol kinase 2. Phosphoglycerate kinase 3. Pyruvate carboxylase 4. Glycerol-3-phosphate dehydrogenase A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 3,4 D. 2,4 E. 1,3,4 19. Underline correctly: (N1) Glycolysis takes place in the cytoplasm Insulin induces synthesis of enzymes of gluconeogenesis Inhibition of activity of pyruvate carboxylase leads to total inhibition in the liver 20. Finish sentences: 1. The reaction of phosphoglycerate kinase in erythrocytes can be bypassed by enzymes………………………………………………….. 2. Fructose-2,6 bisphosphata is created by conversion of………………………………………………. ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………..... 3. High energy metabolites created in glycolysis are………………………………………………………………………. ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 21. Dehydrogenases, lactate and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate: 1. Play important role in glycolysis and biosynthesis of glucose 2. Catalyze reversible reactions 3. Are active in both cytoplasm and mitochondrion A. 2,3 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 3 E. None 22. Finish sentences: (N3) 1. What allows hexokinase to function at low glucose levels? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 2. How does pyruvate take part in the regeneration of NAD+? ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….. 3. What is the major precursor of glucose in ruminants? …………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………………. 23. Which of the following statements is correct? 1. Glucose-6-phosphatase in the adipose tissue is activated by glucose 6 phosphate 2. Glucokinase in the liver is inhibited by glucose-6-phospate 3. Hexokinase in extra hepatic tissues is inhibited by fructose-6-phosphate A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 24. Glucokinase (N4) 1. Is inhibited by glucose 6-phosphate 2. Is inhibited indirectly by fructose 6 phosphate 3. Is activated indirectly by glucose A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 25. Which of the following statements are correct? (N5) 1. Failure of gluconeogenesis is usually fatal 2. Excessive gluconeogenesis occurs in type 2 diabetes, contributing to hyperglycemia 3. In the fed state glycerol is used as a substrate for gluconeogenesis in the liver and kidney A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2 D. 1,2,3 E. None TEST 16 Pentose phosphate pathway 1. Dehydrogenase of pentose pathway: 1. Catalyze irreversible reactions 2. Needs NADH + H+ for activity 3. Are induced by glukagon and insulin A2 B 1,3 C 1,2 D1 E 1,2,3 2. Transketolase 1. Exists in adipose tissue 2. Can use pentose and hexose as substrate 3. NADPH + H+ is one of the product of catalyzed reaction A1 B 1,2 C 2,3 D 1,3 E none 3. Fructose is metabolized faster than glucose because: 1. Is phosphorylated by two independent enzymes 2. Bypasses the glycolysis reaction catalyzed by phosphofructokinase 3. Its metabolism is activated by AMP A 1,2 B2 C 1,3 D3 E none 4. NADPH: 1. Is t potent competitive inhibitor of glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase 2. Is needed in NO synthesis 3. Is used in fatty acids and steroids biosynthesis A 1,2 B 2,3 C 1,3 D 1,2,3 E none 5. Dehydrogenases of PPP cycle: 1. Catalyze irreversible reactions 2. Decide about the rate of whole cycle 3. Are stimulated by glucagon A1 B 1,3 C 1,2 D3 E none 6. UDP-galactose: 1. Is essential in diet 2. Is a product of reaction catalyzed by UDP-hexose 4-epimerase 3. Its concentration increase in galactosemia A1 B2 C3 D 1,3 E 1,2,3 7. Common metabolite(s) of pentose phosphate pathway and glycolysis is (are): 1. D-gliceraldehyde 2. Fructose 1-phosphate 3. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate A 1,3 B 1,2,3 C 1,2 D3 E1 8. Galactose 1-phosphate uridyl transferase: 1. Use as a substrate high energy compound 2. Its product can be substrate for uridine diphosphogalactose 4-epimerase 3. Competes for substrate with galactokinase A 1,3 B 1,2 C2 D 2,3 E 1,2,3 9.. Fructokinase: 1. Is unlike glucokinase specific for a single substrate 2. Activity is affected by insulin 3. Occurs in liver, kidney and intestines A. 1,2 B. 3 C. 1,3 D. 1 E. None 10. Galactose 1. Is essential in food 2. Is derived from intestinal hydrolysis of sucrose 3. May be phosphorylated by hexokinase A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,2,3 D. 1,3 E. none 11. The pentose phosphate pathway: 1. Is located in cytosol 2. Generates carbon dioxide 3. Provides reducing equivalents for glutathione reductase in erythrocytes A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E none 12. UDP-glucuronate: 1. Is incorporated into proteoglycans 2. May be produced from D-glucuronate 3. May serve as a substrate for the synthesis of glucose A1 B2 C3 D 1,2 E none 13. Common metabolite(s) of HMP and glycolysis: 1. Fructose-6-phosphate 2. D-glyceraldehyde 3. Phosphodihydroxyacetone A 1,2 B1 C 1,3 D 1,2,3 E none 14. Transaldolase: 1. Needs TPP for activity 2. As a substrate can use trios, tetrose or pentose 3. Transfer three carbon fragment from ketose to aldose or from aldose to ketose A1 B 2,3 C 1,3 D 1,2,3 E none 15. 1-phosphate: 1. Is the only product of galactokinase action on galactose 2. Accumulates in cells of individuals with classic galactosemia 3. Serves as a substrate in formation of UDP-galactose A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E none 16. Which of the following statements is correct: 1. Sorbitol is produced and accumulated in uncontrolled diabetes 2. Insulin decreases glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase gene expression 3. The only source of NADPH n the red blood cells is the pentose phosphate pathway A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E1 17. Which of the following statements is correct: 1. Galactose is not essential in the diet because galactose 1-phosphate uridyltransferase catalyzes a reversible reaction 2. Erythrose 4-phosphate is an aldose 3. Essential fructosuria is benign syndrome A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2,3 E none 18. Which of the following enzymes catalyzes a reversible reaction: 1. UDP-galactose 4-epimerase 2. Phosphoglucomutase 3. Aldose B A 1,2 B 1,3 C 2,3 D 1,2 E none 19. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase 1. May be induced by insulin in fed-state 2. Has a low specifity for glucose 6-phosphate 3. Uses NADP+ or NAD+ as coenzyme 20. Which of the following sentences are true: 1. Major amino sugars are glucosamine, galactosamine and sialic acid 2. Measurement of transaldolase activity in the blood may be used to estimate the degeree of thiamin deficiency 3. Ascorbic acid is required in the diet of human 21. Glucose is present in the structure of: 1. Lactose 2. Maltose 3. Glycogen 22. Which is incorrect about GAG? 1. Are part of mucus and cartilage of joints 2. Are polymers of aminosugars and uronic acids 3. Form several substances, among which is heparine 4. When deaminated, form oligosaccharides 23. Fructose 1. Is only absorbed in gut in simple diffusion 2. Is phosphorylated to fructose 1-phosphate in liver 3. Is substrate for lactose formation in mammary gland 4. Is found in glycoprotein in tissues 24. Vitamin B6 deficiency cases disturbances in the metabolism of 1. Glycolysis 2. Glyconoegenesis 3. Lipogenesis 4. Purine cycle 25. Enzymes competing for pyruvate 1. Pyruvate dehydrogenase 2. Alanine aminotransferase 3. Pyruvate kinase 26. Which of these ketoses are of physiological significance: 1. Ribulose 2. Fructose 3. Sedoheptoluse 27. Key metabolite in the Corich cycle: 1. Glucose 2. Pyruvate 3. Glycerol 4. Lactate 28. Glucose 6-phosphate 1. Is present only in liver (also in kidney) 2. Is a key enzyme in glycolysis and gluconoegenesis 3. Requires ATP 29. Glucose 6-phosphate competes with: 1. Glucokinase 2. Glucose 6-phosphate dehydrogenase 3. Phosphoglucomutase 4. Phosphohexose isomerase 30. Glucoronic acids: (N1) 1. Cannot be a substrate for synthesis of ascorbate because lack of glucuronate dehydrogenase 2. Protect erythrocytes against hemolysis 3. Is a precursor of proteoglycans A. 1,3 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. 1,2 31. Which of the sentences is true? (N3) 1. Fructose is a dietary essential sugar 2. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase of erythrocytes is the source of substrate for glutathione peroxidase 3. Glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate can be the substrate for both transketolase and transaldolase A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 32. Fructose: (N4) 1. Can be substrate for hexokinase 2. Undergoes faster glycolysis in the muscle than glucose 3. Can be a product of sorbitol dehydrogenase A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 2 D. 1,3 E. 1,2,3 33. Transaldolase: (N5) 1. Uses four different substrates 2. Requires magnesium ions for activity 3. Allows the transfer of three-carbon unit A. 1,2,3 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. None 34. Essential fructosuria 1. Is caused by aldolase B deficiency 2. Is always fatal 3. May cause hypoglycaemia A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2 E. None D. 3 Test 17 Overview of Glucose Metabolism 1. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Hepatic glycogenolysis is activated in absorptive period 2. Active form of glycerol serves as a glycogenic factor in adipose tissue 3. Glucose is a major factor stimulating insulin secretion A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 2,3 2. Fate of dietary glucose: 1. Conversion of glycogen in the liver 2. Oxidation to CO2 and H2O in extra hepatic tissue 3. Conversion of triacylglycerol’s in the liver A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 3. Glucose: 1. Is the only source of glycerol 3-phosphate in the adipose tissue 2. Is not essential for survival of erythrocytes 3. In excess of that needed to restore glycogen levels is stored as triacylglycerol’s in adipocytes A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 4. In postabsorptive state: 1. Glycogenolysis increases in liver and muscles 2. Gluconeogenesis decreases in liver and kidney 3. Glucose in the only fuel for the brain and liver A. 1,3 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 1 5. Growth hormone: 1. Effect of its action is similar to effect of insulin 2. Increases uptake of glucose by muscle 3. Its secretion of stimulated by hypoglycemia A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2 3. GLUT 2: 1. Plays role in absorption of glucose 2. Acts by facilitated diffusion 3. Is located in intestine A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 3 4. Increased level of fructose 2,6-bisphosphate in the cell: 1. Is a result of stimulation of glycolysis 2. Leads to inhibition of gluconeogenesis 3. Can be a result of high fructose diet A. 3 B. 1,3 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. None E. None E. 1 E. 1,2,3 5. In well fed state: 1. Glycogenolysis increases in liver and muscle 2. Gluconeogenesis decreases in liver and kidney 3. Glucose is the only fuel for the brain and erythrocytes A. 1,3 B. 1,2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 6. Glucose 6-phosphatase 1. Is induced by glucagon 2. Is a crucial enzyme for glycolysis 3. Does not need ATP for activity A. 1,3 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 7. Transport of glucose across the intestinal epithelium 1. Occurs against a concentration gradient 2. Can coupled to the Na+/K+ pump 3. Can be facilitate by Na+ independent GLUT 5 A. 1 B. 2 C. 1,2 D. 1,2,3 E. 1,2,3 E. None 8. UDPGlc: 1. Can be substrate for at least 3 different enzymes 2. Its level increases in galactosemia 3. Can react with galactose 1-phosphate A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. 2 9. Impairment glucose tolerance may occur: 1. In abdominal obesity 2. In hyperactivity of adrenal cortex 3. As a result of insulin resistance A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 10. Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate can be substrate of: 1. Glycerol 3-phosphate dehydrogenase 2. Aldolase B 3. Transketolase 4. Transaldolase A. 1,2,3 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 2,3,4 11. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Hepatic glycogenolysis is activated in absorptive period 2. Active form of glycerol serves as a glycogenic factor in adipose tissue 3. Glucose is a major factor stimulating insulin secretion A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 2,3 12. Fate of dietary glucose: 1. Conversion to glycogen in the liver 2. Oxidation to CO2 and H2O in extra hepatic tissue 3. Conversion of triacylglycerol’s in the liver A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 13. Which of the following are causes of glucose intolerance? 1. Decrease of glucose uptake in hepatocytes 2. Decrease of glucose uptake in adipocytes and myocytes 3. Increase of glucose uptake by erythrocytes A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 14. Fate of dietary glucose 1. Conversion of glycogen in the liver 2. Oxidation to CO2 and H2O 3. Conversion to triacylglyceroles in the liver A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 15. Glucose: 1. Is the only source of 3glycerol-3-phosphate in the adipose tissue 2. Is not essential for survival of Erythrocytes 3. In excess of that needed to restore glycogen levels is stored as triacylglycerol’s in adipocytes A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 16. Insulin receptor 1. Contains two polypeptide chains 2. Possesses enzymatic activity 3. Bind glucose molecules A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 2 E. None 17. Enzymes whose degree of phosphorylation and activity are altered by insulin: 1. Phosphodiesterase- phosphorylation- increase of activity 2. Pyruvate kinase – dephosphorylation- decrease of activity 3. Triacylglycerol lipase- dephosphorylation – decrease of activity A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. 1,2,3 18. Insulin 1. Is degraded mainly in the pancreas 2. Half-life – 1.0 – 1.5 hrs 3. Stimulates lipogenesis, glycogenesis, glycolysis A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None 19. In the liver insulin: 1. Stimulates releasing of glucose into blood 2. Activates Phosphodiesterase and inhibits phosphorylase 3. Stimulates gluconeogenesis A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3 C. 1,2 D. 2,3 E. 2 20. Glucagon stimulates: 1. In the liver glycolysis and glycogenolysis 2. In adipose tissue lipolysis and LPL 3. In muscles glycogenolysis A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. None 21. From given below, underline the enzymes competing for Glucose 6 Phosphate (N1) 1. Phosphoglucomutase 2. Phosphohexose isomerase 3. UDP glucose pyrophosphorylase 4. Glucose 6 phosphatase 5. Glucokinase 6. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase 7. Hexokinase 8. UDP glucose dehydrogenase 22. Glucagon stimulates covalent modification of these enzymes and activates them: 1. Pyruvate kinase 2. Phosphorylase B 3. cAMP dependent protein kinase 4. Phosphofructokinase-2 5. G6P dehydrogenase 23. Fate of dietary glucose: (N4) 1. Conversion of glycogen in the liver 2. Oxidation of CO2 and H2O in extra hepatic tissues 3. Conversion of triacylglycerol’s in the liver A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 24. Glucose 1. Is the only source of glycerol 3 phosphate in the liver 2. Is essential for survival of erythrocytes 3. In excess of that needed to restore glycogen levels is stored as triacylglycerol in adipocytes A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 25. Which of these does not compete for G6P: 1. Phosphoglucomutase 2. Phosphohexose isomerase 3. Glucose 6 phosphatase 4. Glucokinase 5. Glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase 26. Glucose (N5) 1. Can be easily derived from fatty acids 2. Is the only source of glycerol 3 phosphate in the adipose tissue 3. In general circulation of healthy individuals increases in concentration above 180 mg/dL after a rich carbohydrate meal A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. None TEST 18 Lipid physiologic significance, absorption and digestion 1. Phospholipids 1. Frequently have nitrogen containing bases 2. Are the main lipid constituents of membranes 3. May be regarded as derivatives of phosphatidic acid A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 2. Which of the following lipids are present in nervous tissues in high concentration? 1. Gangliosides 2. Glucosylceramide 3. Galactosylceramide 4. Sphingomyelins A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 2,3 E. 3,4 1. Palmitoleic and oleic acids possess: 1. Different numbers of carbons in molecule 2. Different numbers of double bonds 3. Different position of double bond(s) A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,2 E. 1,2,3 2. To unsaturated fatty acids (omega) ω6 belongs acids(s): 1. Linoleic 2. Oleic 3. Arachidonic A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. 2,3 3. Phosphatidtylcholine 1. Can be converted to lysolecithin 2. Contains nitrogen 3. Is important in nervous transmission A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 1,3 D. 2,3 E. 3 1. Glycolipids 1. Contain glycerol 2. Contain phosphoric acid 3. Are important in nerve tissues A. 1,2 B. 1,2,3 C. 2,3 E. 1,3 D. 3 2. Cis form of fatty acids 1. Concern only unsaturated fatty acids 2. Means that the acyl chains are at the opposite sides of double bonds 3. Is prevailing form of naturally occurring fatty acids A. 1,3 B. 1 C. 1,2 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 3. Plasmalogens: 1. Contains sphingosine as alcohol 2. Contain nitrogen in their structure 3. Occur in brain and muscle A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. None 5. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Triacylglycerols are absorbed to the blood stream after binding with albumin 2. Phosphatidic acid is not found in any great quantity in tissues 3. Prostanoids include prostaglandins, prostacyclins and lipoxins A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 6. Which of the following lipids are present in nervous tissue in high concentration: 1. Gangliosides 2. Glucosylcermide 3. Galactosylceramide 4. Sphingomyelins A. 1,2,3 B. 1,3,4 C. 1,2,4 D. 2,3 E. 3,4 1. Phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate 1. May be cleaved into diacylglycerol and inositol triphosphate 2. Is a source of second messangers 3. Is a component of the lung surfactant A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. All 2. Sphingosine 1. Is the acidic component of sphingolipids 2. Is a component of galactosylceramide 3. Is the alcoholic component of sphingomyeline A. 1 B. 1,2 C. 2 D. 2,3 E. 3 3. Connect correctly enterocytes enzymes with their substrates Intestinal lipase a. 2-monoacylglycerol Acyl-CoA synthetase b. Fatty acids Glycerol Kinase c. 1-monoacyglycerol d. ATP 2. Linoleic acid 1. Contains 3 double bounds 2. Is different the oleic acid because number of carbons 3. Belongs to family (omega) ω6 A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 1,3 E. 2,3 3. Glyreol-product of action of pancreatic lipase, in epithelium is: 1. Phosphorylated in epithelium 2. Estrified by fatty acids 3. Incorporated into chylomicron A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. Neither of these 1. Phosphatidylinositol 4,5- bisphosphate 1. May be source of second messengers 2. Is the main component of surfactants 3. Is important constituent of cell membrane A. 1 B. 2,3 C. 2 D. 1,3 E. None 2. Gangliosides 1. Means the same as glucosylceramides 2. Often have receptor functions 3. Contain Sialic acids A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 3. Which sentences are true? 1. Vitamins A, D, E, K are isopreniods 2. The products of glycerol kinase is glycerol 3- phosphate and ADP 3. The final product of intestinal lipase is 1-monoacylglycerol A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1 D. 2 E. None 4. Which of the following statements are true? 1. Triacylglycerols are absorbed in the bloods stream after binding with albumin 2. Phosphaditidic acid is not found in any great quantity in tissues 3. Prostanoids include prostaglandins, prostacyclins, and lipoxins A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 2,3 E. 1,2,3 5. Phospholipids: 1. Frequently have nitrogen containing bases 2. Are the main lipid constituents of membranes 3. May be regarded as derivatives of phosphatidic acid A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. 1,2,3 E. None 1. 1,2-diacylglycerol: 1. May be a product of pancreatic lipase 2. May be substrate for intestinal isomerase 3. In enterocytes may be converted into triacylglycerol via monoacylglycerol pathway A. 1,3 B. 1 C. 2,3 D. 3 E. All 2. Which of mentioned below are compound of sphingomyeline: 1. Ceramide 2. Choline 3. Cephaline 4. Glycerol A. 1,2 B. 2,3 C. 1,2,3 D. 2,4 E. 1,3,4 3. Phosphatidylinositol 4,5 –bisphosphate: 1. May be cleaved into diacylglycerol and inositol triphosphate 2. Is a source of second messengers 3. Is a component of the lung surfactant A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 1,3 D. 3 E. All 1. Lysophospholipids: 1. Contain sphingosine as an alcoholic component 2. Contain only one acyl residue in the C1 position 3. Belong to the large group of sphingomyeline A. 1,2 B. 2 C. 2,3 D. 1,3 E. 3 2. Which of the sentences is true? 1. Tetraenoic arachidonic acid may be a substrate in prostaglandins biosynthesis 2. The product of glycerol kinase is glycerol 3-phosphate and ADP 3. Ergosterol is a precursor of cholesterol esters A. 1,2 B. 2,3
