Bio 113 questions.pdf

Chapter 22 1. Why was Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection considered revolutionary? A) It provided a scientific explanation for the existence of different planets in the solar system. B) It suggested that species were created independently of each other and never change....

Chapter 22 1. Why was Darwin and Wallace's theory of evolution by natural selection considered revolutionary? A) It provided a scientific explanation for the existence of different planets in the solar system. B) It suggested that species were created independently of each other and never change. C) It proposed that species evolve over time through a process of natural selection, challenging traditional views on the origin of species. D) It argued that humans were the only species capable of evolution. Correct Answer: C 2. The Greek philosopher Plato claimed that every organism was an example of a perfect essence created by God, and that they were unchanging. What type of thinking is Plato's description of species? A) Evolutionary thinking B) Typological thinking C) Natural selection D) Genetic drift Correct Answer: B 3. What are homologous traits? A) Traits that serve the same function but evolved independently in different species. B) Traits that arise due to random mutations in unrelated species. C) Traits that are similar in different species because they were inherited from a common ancestor. D) Traits that are unique to a single species and have no similarities with other species. Correct Answer: C 4. The presence of giant sloths in the fossil record that can no longer be found in nature suggests that? A) Giant sloths evolved into modern-day species without changing significantly. B) Giant sloths were never a real species, as fossils are unreliable. C) Giant sloths have gone extinct, meaning they no longer exist in the modern world. D) Giant sloths migrated to a different part of the world where they can still be found today. Correct Answer: C 5. Many crustaceans (e.g., lobsters, shrimp, and crayfish) use their tails to swim, but crabs have reduced tails that curl under their shells and are not used in swimming. This is an example of? A) A homologous trait B) A vestigial trait C) An adaptive trait D) A convergent trait Correct Answer: B 6. Similar gill pouches in embryos of a chick, human, and cat are an example of? A) Convergent evolution B) Homology C) Genetic drift D) Analogous traits Correct Answer: B 7. A farmer uses triazine herbicide to control pigweed in his field. For the first few years, the triazine works well and almost all the pigweed dies; but after several years, the farmer sees more and more pigweed. Which of these explanations best explains what happened? A) The herbicide caused mutations in the pigweed that made it resistant to the triazine. B) New species of pigweed migrated into the field and were unaffected by the herbicide. C) Natural selection favored the triazine-resistant pigweed, which survived and reproduced, leading to a population that is resistant to the herbicide. D) The farmer used too much herbicide, which made the pigweed grow stronger. Correct Answer: C 8. DDT was once considered a "silver bullet" that would permanently eradicate insect pests. Instead, DDT is largely useless against many insects. Which of these would have prevented the evolution of DDT resistance in insect pests? A) Using larger quantities of DDT when applying it to crops B) Rotating DDT with other insecticides to reduce selective pressure for resistance C) Increasing the dosage of DDT over time to maintain its effectiveness D) Only applying DDT to insects that are already resistant to it Correct Answer: B 9. If the bacterium Staphylococcus aureus experiences a cost for maintaining one or more antibiotic-resistance genes, what would happen in environments that lack antibiotics? A) The bacterium would evolve to become more resistant to other types of stress. B) The frequency of antibiotic-resistant bacteria would likely decrease, since those without the resistance genes would have a fitness advantage. C) The bacterium would still maintain its resistance genes, even if it reduces its survival. D) The bacterium would transfer its resistance genes to other species, making the entire environment resistant to antibiotics. Correct Answer: B 10. Biological fitness is best defined as? A) The ability of an individual to survive and live a long life. B) The physical strength and health of an organism. C) The ability of an individual to produce offspring that survive and reproduce. D) The ability of a species to adapt to its environment. Correct Answer: C 11. How did Aristotle's "Great Chain of Being" differ from Plato's concept of the origin of organisms? A) Aristotle believed species could change, while Plato thought they were static. B) Aristotle organized species in a hierarchical structure from lower to higher forms, while Plato saw all species as unchanging and perfect. C) Aristotle emphasized natural selection, while Plato focused on divine creation. D) Aristotle believed all species were equally important, whereas Plato ranked species based on their usefulness to humans. Correct Answer: B 12. Lamarck developed a hypothesis to explain the inheritance of traits that is often referred to as the "inheritance of acquired characters." How does this idea differ from prior means of organizing living things? A) Lamarck's idea suggested that organisms could not change and were fixed in their forms, similar to previous beliefs. B) Lamarck proposed that organisms evolved over time through divine intervention, unlike previous concepts. C) Lamarck's hypothesis suggested that organisms could pass on traits they acquired during their lifetime, which challenged the idea that species were fixed and unchanging. D) Lamarck believed that traits were inherited randomly, without any connection to the environment, which contradicted earlier hierarchical classifications. Correct Answer: C 13. What observations would cast the most doubt on the relationships depicted by an evolutionary tree? A) Discovering traits that are shared by species closely related on the tree B) Finding that the DNA sequences of species depicted as closely related are significantly different C) Observing similar embryological development in species grouped closely on the tree D) Noticing that fossil records support the timing of evolutionary splits shown on the tree Correct Answer: B 14. The same basic internal organs (kidneys, stomach, heart, and lungs) are found in frogs, birds, snakes, and rodents. This is primarily an example of? A) Homology B) Convergent evolution C) Genetic drift D) Vestigial traits Correct Answer: A 15. What must be TRUE of any organ described as vestigial? A) It is completely non-functional in all species. B) It is homologous to a fully functioning organ in a related species. C) It has evolved through convergent evolution. D) It performs the same function as it did in the species' ancestors. Correct Answer: B 16. Which evidence supports the hypothesis that cetaceans (whales) evolved from terrestrial mammals as opposed to some aquatic organisms? A) The presence of gills in cetacean embryos. B) The discovery of fossils showing transitional forms with limbs and characteristics suited for life on land. C) The fact that cetaceans can hold their breath underwater for long periods. D) The observation that cetaceans have streamlined bodies, similar to fish. Correct Answer: B 17. After the drought of 1977, researchers on the island of Daphne Major hypothesized that medium ground finches with large, deep beaks survived better than those with smaller beaks because they could more easily crack and eat the tough Tribulus cistoides fruits. If this hypothesis is correct, what would you expect to observe if a population of these medium ground finches colonizes a nearby island where T. cistoides is the most abundant food for the next 1000 years? A) The finches will evolve smaller beaks to better eat other types of seeds. B) The finch population will not change because beak size is not heritable. C) The finch population will evolve larger, deeper beaks over time due to natural selection favoring individuals that can crack T. cistoides fruits more efficiently. D) The finches will develop an entirely new feeding behavior to avoid T. cistoides fruits. Correct Answer: C 18. What happened to beak size of finches on the island of Daphne Major during prolonged drought? A) Beak size decreased because smaller beaks were better at finding scarce food. B) Beak size increased because finches with larger beaks were better able to crack tough seeds and survive. C) Beak size stayed the same because the drought did not affect food availability. D) Beak size fluctuated randomly due to the changing environment. Correct Answer: B 19. There is a population of beetles that typically have black wings. A scientist studying these beetles knows that their eggs hatch in early spring, the young insects grow through the late spring and summer, they lay eggs in the early fall, and they die in the early winter. Recently, some beetles have been born with white wings. Early in life, the black- and white-winged beetles seem to be very similar in number of mating events, eggs laid, and survival rates, but shortly after laying their eggs, the white beetles die, and there are only black-winged beetles during the late fall. Which of the following is a TRUE statement about the beetles? A) White-winged beetles are less biologically fit than black-winged beetles because they die earlier in the year. B) White-winged beetles are more biologically fit than black-winged beetles because they produce the same number of eggs earlier in life. C) White-winged beetles are more biologically fit because they produce offspring, even though they die earlier. D) White-winged beetles are genetically identical to black-winged beetles and their wing color does not impact their survival. Correct Answer: A 20. If you say that a ground squirrel has greater evolutionary fitness than another ground squirrel in the same population, what does this mean? A) The squirrel is physically stronger and healthier than the other squirrel. B) The squirrel has a longer lifespan than the other squirrel. C) The squirrel has more offspring that survive and reproduce than the other squirrel. D) The squirrel is better at finding food and avoiding predators than the other squirrel. Correct Answer: C 21. What are examples of fitness trade-offs (compromise)? A) A bird that can fly long distances but has a slow reproduction rate. B) A plant that grows taller than others but has weaker roots. C) An animal that has excellent camouflage but reduced speed. D) All of the above. Correct Answer: D 22. Over long periods of time, many cave-dwelling organisms have lost their eyes. Tapeworms have lost their digestive systems. Whales have lost their hind limbs. How can natural selection account for these losses? A) Natural selection only favors traits that improve survival and reproduction, so structures that are no longer useful may diminish or disappear over time. B) Natural selection actively removes genes associated with unnecessary traits, leading to their elimination. C) Natural selection does not affect traits once an organism is fully adapted, so these structures were lost randomly. D) Natural selection favors the loss of traits to conserve energy in all organisms. Correct Answer: A 23. A proficient engineer can easily design skeletal structures that are more functional than those currently found in the forelimbs of such diverse mammals as horses, whales, and bats. The actual forelimbs of these mammals do NOT seem to be optimally arranged because ________. A) Natural selection is limited to modifying structures that were present in previous generations, rather than designing structures from scratch. B) Natural selection creates perfectly designed structures that are ideal for every species. C) Forelimbs are designed to meet only one function in each species, resulting in less functional diversity. D) Mutations prevent natural selection from optimizing structures in all organisms. Correct Answer: A Chapter 23 1. What can cause evolution in a population of sea turtles? A) Random mating within the population B) A stable environment with no changes C) Genetic mutations, natural selection, gene flow, and genetic drift D) The population reaching its carrying capacity Correct Answer: C 2. Which of the following terms refers to the hypothetical grouping of all of the alleles from all the gametes produced in each generation by a group of organisms? A) Gene pool B) Genotype C) Genetic drift D) Phenotype Correct Answer: A 3. For biologists studying a large flatworm population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is most difficult to meet? A) No genetic drift B) No mutation C) No gene flow D) Random mating Correct Answer: B 4. Why doesn't inbreeding depression, by itself, cause evolution? A) It reduces the population size too quickly for evolution to occur. B) It changes only allele frequencies, not genotype frequencies. C) It decreases genetic variation without changing allele frequencies. D) It increases the frequency of beneficial alleles. Correct Answer: C 5. Currently, the only predators of Galápagos marine iguanas are Galápagos hawks. Iguana body size is not correlated with risk of hawk predation, although small iguanas can sprint faster than large iguanas. If predators (e.g., cats) that preferentially catch and eat slower iguanas are introduced to the island, iguana body size is likely to ________ in the absence of other factors; the iguanas would then be under ________ selection. A) Decrease; disruptive B) Increase; stabilizing C) Decrease; directional D) Increase; directional Correct Answer: C 6. Which of the following is most likely to produce an African butterfly species in the wild whose populations show two strikingly different color patterns? A) Stabilizing selection B) Genetic drift C) Disruptive selection D) Directional selection Correct Answer: C 7. Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Starlings producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this situation? A) Disruptive selection B) Directional selection C) Stabilizing selection D) Sexual selection Correct Answer: C 8. In some animals, females select males as mates based on their ability to ward off infection as indicated by traits that the males possess. This is an example of? A) Stabilizing selection B) Artificial selection C) Sexual selection D) Disruptive selection Correct Answer: C 9. Male peacocks have an extravagant train of tail feathers, whereas female peahens lack this trait. This difference between the males and females of this species is referred to as? A) Stabilizing selection B) Sexual dimorphism C) Disruptive selection D) Genetic drift Correct Answer: B 10. The cause of genetic drift is sampling error. This occurs when ________. A) Only certain alleles are passed to the next generation due to small population size or random chance B) Natural selection favors one allele over another C) Large populations randomly select mates without regard to allele frequency D) New mutations are introduced into the population Correct Answer: A 11. For a biologist studying a small fish population in the lab, which Hardy-Weinberg condition is easiest to meet? A) No genetic drift B) No natural selection C) No mutation D) No gene flow Correct Answer: D 12. When nonrandom mating occurs in a population so that individuals prefer to mate with similar individuals, allele frequencies should? A) Remain the same, but homozygosity will increase. B) Change to increase heterozygosity. C) Remain the same, but heterozygosity will increase. D) Change to decrease homozygosity. Correct Answer: A 13. Wikelski and Romero (2003) found that large marine iguanas had higher reproductive success than smaller iguanas. However, the large iguanas were generally in poor body condition because they could not eat enough; at higher temperatures, their foraging efficiency improved, allowing them to eat more. Thus, Wikelski and Romero hypothesized that iguana size will ________ as global climate change increases air and water temperatures in the Galápagos Islands. A) Decrease B) Stay the same C) Increase D) Fluctuate randomly Correct Answer: C 14. European whitefish (Coregonus lavaretus) show heritable variation in gill raker length related to differences in their diets. Longer gill rakers appear to function better for capturing open-water (pelagic) prey, while shorter gill rakers function better for capturing shallow-water (benthic) prey. Which of the following types of selection is most likely to be found in a large lake (open water in the middle and shallow water around the sides) with a high density of these fish? A) Stabilizing selection B) Directional selection C) Disruptive selection D) Sexual selection Correct Answer: C 15. In seedcracker finches from Cameroon, small- and large-billed birds specialize in cracking soft and hard seeds, respectively. If long-term climatic change resulted in all seeds becoming hard, what type of selection would then operate on the finch population? A) Stabilizing selection B) Directional selection C) Disruptive selection D) Balancing selection Correct Answer: B 16. In some animals, females select males as mates based on their ability to ward off infection as indicated by traits that the males possess. This is an example of? A) Stabilizing selection B) Disruptive selection C) Artificial selection D) Sexual selection Correct Answer: D 17. In a small population of alpine foxes, you observe increased ear length over a 10-year period. Can you conclude that the increase in ear length is advantageous in this population? A) Yes, because any change in a trait over time is due to natural selection. B) No, because the increase in ear length could be due to genetic drift, not natural selection. C) Yes, because the longer ears must have provided some survival benefit. D) No, because ear length is not subject to natural selection. Correct Answer: B 18. Genetic drift occurs in a population. What are the possible impacts of this drift? A) Increased genetic variation within the population B) Random changes in allele frequencies, potentially leading to a loss of genetic variation C) Evolution of traits that are adaptive and beneficial to the population D) Stable allele frequencies and increased population size over time Correct Answer: B 19. An earthquake decimates a ground squirrel population, killing 98 percent of the squirrels. The surviving population happens to have broader stripes, on average, than the initial population. If broadness of stripes is genetically determined, what effect has the ground-squirrel population experienced during the earthquake? A) Directional selection B) Disruptive selection C) Genetic drift via a bottleneck effect D) Gene flow Correct Answer: C 20. Although each of the following evolutionary processes has a better chance of influencing gene frequencies in small populations than in large populations, which one most consistently requires a small population as a precondition for its occurrence? A) Natural selection B) Gene flow C) Genetic drift D) Mutation Correct Answer: C 21. Which of the following is the most predictable outcome of increased gene flow between two populations? A) Increased genetic difference between the two populations B) Decreased genetic difference between the two populations C) Increased mutation rates in both populations D) Increased genetic drift within both populations Correct Answer: B 22. Mutation is the only evolutionary mechanism that? A) Decreases genetic variation in a population B) Increases genetic drift within a population C) Introduces new alleles into a population D) Decreases the fitness of individuals in a population Correct Answer: C 23. Swine are vulnerable to infection by bird flu virus and human flu virus, which can both be present in an individual pig at the same time. When this occurs, it is possible for genes from bird flu virus and human flu virus to be combined. If the human flu virus contributes a gene for Tamiflu resistance (Tamiflu is an antiviral drug) to the new virus, and if the new virus is introduced to an environment lacking Tamiflu, then what is most likely to occur? A) The Tamiflu resistance gene will increase in frequency because it provides an advantage. B) The Tamiflu resistance gene will decrease in frequency because it is no longer advantageous in an environment without Tamiflu. C) The new virus will become more deadly regardless of Tamiflu presence. D) The new virus will become resistant to all antiviral drugs. Correct Answer: B Chapter 24 1. Which of the following statements about species, as defined by the biological species concept, is (are) correct? I. Biological species are defined by reproductive isolation. II. Biological species are the model used for grouping extinct forms of life. III. All members of a species can potentially interbreed. A) I only B) I and II C) I and III D) I, II, and III Correct Answer: C 2. What does the biological species concept use as the primary criterion for determining species boundaries? A) Morphological differences B) Genetic similarity C) Reproductive isolation D) Geographic distribution Correct Answer: C 3. A small number of birds arrive on an island from a neighboring larger island. This small population begins to adapt to the new food plants available on the island as selection favors those birds with larger beaks. About twice a year, one or two more birds from the neighboring island arrive. These new arrivals ________. A) Speed up the adaptation of the resident population to the new food plants B) Tend to slow adaptation to the new food plants by introducing new alleles to the population C) Represent a new species D) Have no effect on the resident population Correct Answer: B 4. Which of the following could be a vicariance event? A) A mutation that causes a new trait to emerge in a population B) The rise of a mountain range that divides a population of alpine plants C) Migration of a bird population to a new geographic area D) A sudden change in climate that affects the food supply of a species Correct Answer: B 5. Which of the following does NOT tend to promote speciation? A) Natural selection B) Gene flow C) Genetic drift D) Reproductive isolation Correct Answer: B 6. Most causes of speciation are relatively slow, in that they may take many generations to see changes, with the exception of ________. A) Natural selection B) Polyploidy C) Genetic drift D) Vicariance Correct Answer: B 7. Which of the following statements explains why animals are less likely than plants to speciate by polyploidy? A) Animals rarely self-fertilize, so diploid gametes are less likely to lead to successful reproduction. B) Polyploidy only occurs in plants due to environmental factors. C) Animals can only reproduce through sexual reproduction, which prevents polyploidy from occurring. D) Polyploidy in animals does not lead to reproductive isolation. Correct Answer: A 8. Male frogs give calls that attract female frogs to approach and mate. Researchers examined mating calls of closely related tree frogs in South America. If reinforcement is occurring, what would you expect if you compare the calls of the two species in zones of sympatry versus zones of allopatry? A) Calls would be more similar in zones of sympatry than in zones of allopatry. B) Calls would be less similar in zones of sympatry than in zones of allopatry. C) Calls would not differ between zones of sympatry and allopatry. D) One species would stop calling in zones of sympatry to avoid competition. Correct Answer: B 9. Reinforcement is most likely to occur when ________. A) Gene flow is high between two populations B) Hybrids have lower fitness than either parent population C) Natural selection favors hybrids over parent species D) Two populations are geographically isolated Correct Answer: B 10. In hybrid zones where reinforcement is occurring, you should see a decline in ________. A) Genetic differences between the two populations B) The fitness of the parent species C) The number of hybrids D) Reproductive isolation between species Correct Answer: C 11. Two populations of birds with somewhat different coloration live on opposite sides of a peninsula. The habitat between the populations is not suitable for these birds. When birds from the two populations are brought together, they produce young whose appearance is intermediate between the two parents. These offspring will breed with each other or with birds from either parent population, and all offspring of these pairings appear intermediate to various degrees. What keeps the two populations separate? A) Behavioral isolation B) Postzygotic barriers C) Temporal isolation D) Habitat isolation Correct Answer: D 12. Three populations of crickets look very similar, but the males have courtship songs that sound different. What function would this difference in song likely serve if the populations came in contact? A) Temporal isolation B) Postzygotic isolation C) Behavioral isolation D) Mechanical isolation Correct Answer: C 13. Many songbirds breed in North America in the spring and summer and then migrate to Central and South America in the fall. They spend the winter in these warmer areas, where they feed and prepare for the spring migration north and another breeding season. Two hypothetical species of sparrow, A and B, overwinter together in mixed flocks in Costa Rica. In spring, species A goes to the east coast of North America, and species B goes to the west coast. What can you say about the isolating mechanisms of these two species? A) They are likely isolated by behavioral isolation. B) They are likely isolated by temporal isolation. C) They are likely isolated by habitat isolation. D) They are likely isolated by mechanical isolation. Correct Answer: C 14. The peppered moth provides a well-known example of natural selection. The light-colored form of the moth was predominant in England before the Industrial Revolution. In the mid-nineteenth century, a dark-colored form appeared. The difference is produced by a dominant allele of one gene. The dark- and light-colored forms readily interbreed with each other. By about 1900, approximately 90 percent of the moths around industrial areas were dark colored, whereas light-colored moths were still abundant elsewhere. Apparently, birds could readily find the light moths against the soot-darkened background in industrial areas and, therefore, were eating more light moths. Recently, use of cleaner fuels has greatly reduced soot in the landscape, and the dark-colored moths have been disappearing. Should the two forms of moths be considered separate species? A) Yes, because they occupy different habitats in industrial and non-industrial areas. B) Yes, because natural selection has led to differences in coloration. C) No, because they can interbreed and produce fertile offspring. D) No, because the change in moth coloration is only due to environmental factors. Correct Answer: C 15. The common edible frog of Europe is a hybrid between two species, Rana lessonae and Rana ridibunda. The hybrids were first described in 1758 and have a wide distribution, from France across central Europe to Russia. Both male and female hybrids exist, but when the hybrids mate with other hybrids or with adults of either species, they are rarely successful in producing offspring. What can you infer about the barrier to gene flow in these species? A) Behavioral isolation prevents gene flow between the species. B) The species are isolated by habitat, preventing gene flow. C) Postzygotic isolation reduces hybrid fertility, preventing successful reproduction. D) Temporal isolation keeps the species from breeding with each other. Correct Answer: C 16. Dog breeders maintain the purity of breeds by keeping dogs of different breeds apart when they are fertile. This kind of isolation is most similar to which of the following reproductive isolating mechanisms? A) Habitat isolation B) Temporal isolation C) Behavioral isolation D) Mechanical isolation Correct Answer: A 17. Rocky Mountain juniper (Juniperus scopulorum) and one-seeded juniper (J. monosperma) have overlapping ranges. Pollen grains (which contain sperm nuclei) from one species are unable to germinate and make pollen tubes to bring the sperm nuclei to the female ovules (which contain egg cells) of the other species. These two juniper species are kept separate by ________. A) Temporal isolation B) Mechanical isolation C) Gametic isolation D) Behavioral isolation Correct Answer: C 18. Males of different species of the fruit fly Drosophila that live in the same parts of the Hawaiian Islands have different elaborate courtship rituals. These rituals involve fighting other males and making stylized movements that attract females. What type of reproductive isolation does this represent? A) Temporal isolation B) Habitat isolation C) Behavioral isolation D) Mechanical isolation Correct Answer: C 19. Bird guides once listed the myrtle warbler and Audubon's warbler as distinct species. Recently, these birds have been classified as eastern and western forms of a single species, the yellow-rumped warbler. Which of the following pieces of evidence, if TRUE, would be cause for this reclassification? A) The two forms live in similar habitats and eat similar food. B) The two forms have similar markings and coloration. C) The two forms interbreed often in nature, and their offspring are viable and fertile. D) The two forms share many of the same predators. Correct Answer: C 20. Which of the following describes the most likely order of events in allopatric speciation? A) Genetic isolation, divergence, and then genetic drift B) Genetic isolation, divergence, and then reproductive isolation C) Genetic drift, divergence, and then geographic isolation D) Natural selection, genetic drift, and then genetic isolation Correct Answer: B 21. There is an island in the middle of a large river that houses a large population of ants. Damming of the river causes the island to flood and only the highest points of the island are now above water. The ants cannot swim, so are now in multiple isolated populations. Which of the following best describes this event? A) Dispersal leading to sympatric speciation B) Vicariance leading to allopatric speciation C) Gene flow leading to reproductive isolation D) Temporal isolation preventing speciation Correct Answer: B 22. Two researchers experimentally formed tetraploid frogs by fertilizing diploid eggs from Rana porosa brevipoda with diploid sperm from Rana nigromaculata. When they mated these tetraploid frogs with each other, most of the offspring that survived to maturity were tetraploid, with chromosome sets of both diploid parent species. Based on these results, if this type of tetraploid formed in the wild, what would be the result? A) The tetraploid frogs would be reproductively isolated from both parent species and could become a new species. B) The tetraploid frogs would interbreed with both parent species, leading to hybrid offspring. C) The tetraploid frogs would be unable to reproduce and would die off. D) The tetraploid frogs would slowly revert to diploid frogs over generations. Correct Answer: A 23. Why is speciation by polyploidy more likely in plants than in animals? A) Plants are more likely to produce mutations. B) Plants can often self-fertilize, allowing polyploid individuals to reproduce. C) Polyploidy occurs only in plants due to environmental factors. D) Animals are less likely to have large populations, which limits the effects of polyploidy. Correct Answer: B Chapter 25 1. On a phylogenetic tree, _____ represent speciation events and ____ represent the taxa. A) Branches; nodes B) Nodes; tips C) Tips; branches D) Nodes; branches Correct Answer: B 2. A derived trait is best defined as? A) A trait shared by all members of a group of organisms. B) A trait that is present in an ancestor and all its descendants. C) A trait that differs from the ancestral form. D) A trait that evolved independently in different species. Correct Answer: C 3. A group on a phylogenetic tree that contains an ancestral population and ALL of its descendants (but no others) is known as? A) A paraphyletic group B) A polyphyletic group C) A monophyletic group D) An outgroup Correct Answer: C 4. A group on a phylogenetic tree that contains an ancestral population but NOT all of its descendants is known as? A) A monophyletic group B) A paraphyletic group C) A polyphyletic group D) A sister group Correct Answer: B 5. Which of the following are methods that can be used to filter / construct phylogenetic trees? A) Maximum parsimony B) Genetic drift C) Gene flow D) Natural selection Correct Answer: A 6. Some beetles and flies have antler-like structures on their heads, much like male deer do. The existence of antlers in beetle, fly, and deer species with strong male-male competition is an example of ________. A) Homology B) Convergent evolution C) Genetic drift D) Sexual selection Correct Answer: B 7. Members of two different species possess a similar-looking structure that they use in a similar way to perform about the same function. Which of the following would suggest that the relationship more likely represents homology instead of convergent evolution? A) The two species live in similar environments and face similar selective pressures. B) The structures are made up of the same proteins and genes. C) The two species share a common ancestor that had a similar structure. D) The structure performs the same function in both species. Correct Answer: C 8. Ichthyosaurs, now extinct, were aquatic reptiles with dorsal fins and tails, similar to those of fish. Their most recent ancestors were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are ________. A) Homologous structures B) Vestigial structures C) Analogous structures D) Derived structures Correct Answer: C 9. The term "homoplasy" is most applicable to which of the following features? A) The fur that covers mammals such as dogs and cats B) The tailbone in humans and other primates C) The wings of bats and the wings of birds D) The similar structure of the forelimbs in humans and whales Correct Answer: C 10. If you were using cladistics to build a phylogenetic tree of dogs, which of the following would be the best outgroup? A) Wolf B) Cat C) Coyote D) Fox Correct Answer: B 11. Which of the following organisms would be most likely to fossilize? A) A rare worm living in a desert B) A common frog living near a river C) A rare bird living in a forest D) A common squirrel living in the mountains Correct Answer: B 12. Both ancestral birds and ancestral mammals shared a common ancestor that was a terrestrial vertebrate. Today, penguins (which are birds) and seals (which are mammals) have forelimbs adapted for swimming. What term best describes the relationship of the bones in the forelimbs of penguins and seals? What term best describes the flippers of penguins and seals? A) Homologous; analogous B) Analogous; homologous C) Vestigial; homologous D) Homologous; vestigial Correct Answer: A 13. Approximately how far back in time does the fossil record extend? A) 500 million years B) 2 billion years C) 3.5 billion years D) 4.5 billion years Correct Answer: C 14. Four of the five choices below are situations/events that can trigger adaptive radiations; what is the exception? A) The colonization of a new habitat B) A mass extinction event C) An increase in available resources D) The introduction of a new predator E) Evolution of key adaptations Correct Answer: D Questions from quizzes Quiz 2 Evolution in a population of sea turtles can be caused by the following agent(s) A) Natural selection B) Genetic drift C) Gene flow D) All of the above can be agents. Correct Answer: D Which of the following refers to the hypothetical grouping of all of the alleles from all of the gametes produced in each population by a group of organisms? A) Gamete pool B) Gene pool C) Punnet square D) Hardy–weinberg equilibrium Correct Answer: B Which of the following is most likely to produce an African butterfly species in the wild whose populations show two strikingly different color patterns? A) artificial selection B) Directional selection C) Stabilizing selection D) Disruptive selection Correct Answer: D