Geriatric Nursing Multiple Choice Questions PDF

some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) based on the theory of aging in geriatrics for nurses: --- 1. Which of the following best defines the biological theory of aging? a) Aging is a pre-determined process regulated by genetic factors. b) Aging occurs due to the wear and tear of tissues over time. c) Aging is a social construct that impacts how individuals perceive themselves. d) Aging occurs due to increased wisdom and experience with age. --- 2. Which theory of aging suggests that cells can only divide a limited number of times? a) Wear and Tear Theory b) Free Radical Theory c) Cellular Senescence Theory d) Programmed Longevity Theory --- 3. The Free Radical Theory of aging suggests that: a) Cells stop dividing after a certain point, leading to aging. b) Damage from unstable molecules called free radicals leads to cellular damage and aging. c) Proteins accumulate and cause the body to age. d) The immune system becomes hyperactive and starts damaging the body's tissues. --- 4. Which theory suggests that aging is caused by the body's immune system losing its ability to differentiate between self and non-self? a) Immunologic Theory b) Wear and Tear Theory c) Free Radical Theory d) Neuroendocrine Theory --- 5. Which of the following best describes the Programmed Longevity Theory? a) Aging results from the progressive accumulation of cellular damage. b) Aging is the result of programmed biological mechanisms that determine the lifespan. c) Aging occurs because of a decline in the body's immune response. d) Aging is due to hormonal changes that reduce cellular efficiency. --- 6. The Wear and Tear Theory of aging suggests that: a) Cells and tissues gradually wear out from repeated use, leading to aging. b) Hormonal imbalances lead to the decline of organ function. c) Aging is a result of genetic mutations over time. d) Psychological stress is the main driver of the aging process. --- 7. According to the Neuroendocrine Theory of aging, what is the main cause of aging? a) Cellular damage from external factors b) Decline in the regulation of hormones from the hypothalamus and other endocrine glands c) Increased levels of oxidative stress d) Decline in the immune system’s ability to protect the body --- 8. The Cross-Linking Theory of aging proposes that: a) Accumulation of metabolic by-products interferes with cell division, leading to aging. b) Aging is caused by the cross-linking of proteins, which causes tissues to lose elasticity. c) The immune system develops auto-antibodies that attack healthy cells. d) Aging is due to the breakdown of the nervous system. --- 9. Which of the following is NOT a key theory of biological aging? a) Neuroendocrine Theory b) Immunologic Theory c) Continuity Theory d) Free Radical Theory --- 10. The Theory of Stochastic Aging suggests that: a) Aging occurs randomly due to the accumulation of errors in genetic material and cellular processes. b) Aging is a result of predetermined genetic programming. c) Aging occurs due to hormonal changes and imbalances. d) Psychological factors play a major role in aging. --- some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to geriatric nursing: --- 1. Which of the following is the most common cause of hospitalization in the elderly? a) Hypertension b) Dementia c) Falls and fractures d) Pneumonia --- 2. Which of the following is an important consideration when administering medications to elderly patients? a) Elderly patients require higher doses due to increased body fat. b) Age-related changes in kidney and liver function can affect drug metabolism and excretion. c) Elderly patients have a reduced risk of side effects. d) Medications are always absorbed faster in elderly patients. --- 3. Which condition is characterized by the gradual loss of cognitive function, including memory and reasoning? a) Delirium b) Dementia c) Depression d) Anxiety --- 4. The primary goal of geriatric nursing is to: a) Promote independence and improve quality of life. b) Prevent aging-related diseases. c) Cure chronic illnesses. d) Focus only on acute care. --- 5. Which of the following is true regarding the care of elderly patients with dementia? a) They benefit from frequent changes in their routine. b) Maintaining a structured, consistent routine helps reduce confusion. c) Communication should be minimal to avoid overstimulation. d) Cognitive function can be fully restored with treatment. -- 6. When assessing pain in elderly patients, which tool is most appropriate? a) Visual Analog Scale (VAS) b) Numeric Rating Scale (NRS) c) Verbal Descriptor Scale (VDS) d) All of the above --- 7. Which of the following is a common cause of delirium in older adults? a) Hypoglycemia b) Acute infection c) Dehydration d) All of the above --- 8. Which is a key element of a falls prevention strategy in the elderly? a) Encouraging bed rest to prevent falls b) Conducting regular home safety assessments c) Discontinuing all medications d) Limiting fluid intake --- 9. Polypharmacy in the elderly is defined as: a) Taking more than one medication for a chronic condition b) Taking more than five medications simultaneously c) Taking herbal supplements along with prescribed medications d) Using medications from different pharmacies --- 10. The "Geriatric Giants" include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Immobility b) Incontinence c) Insomnia d) Intellectual impairment --- 11. Elderly patients are more prone to drug toxicity because: a) They have increased kidney function. b) They metabolize drugs faster. c) They have decreased liver and kidney function, which slows drug clearance. d) They have a stronger immune response to medications. --- 12. Which of the following nutritional interventions is most appropriate for elderly patients at risk of malnutrition? a) Restricting calorie intake to prevent weight gain b) Encouraging small, frequent, nutrient-dense meals c) Providing a high-sugar diet to increase energy d) Limiting protein intake to protect kidney function --- 13. What is the most effective intervention to prevent pressure ulcers in elderly patients? a) Applying topical antibiotics to prevent infection b) Using specialized mattresses and regular repositioning c) Reducing fluid intake to prevent swelling d) Limiting movement to avoid skin tears --- 14. Which of the following describes age-related changes in the cardiovascular system? a) Increased cardiac output and stronger heart muscles b) Thickening of the heart walls and stiffening of arteries c) Increased flexibility of blood vessels d) Decreased risk of hypertension --- 15. Which symptom is often an early indicator of dehydration in the elderly? a) Sunken eyes b) Confusion or mental status changes c) Low blood pressure d) Fever --- some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) related to gerontology: --- 1. What is the primary focus of gerontology? a) The treatment of diseases in the elderly b) The study of aging and its effects on individuals and society c) The prevention of age-related diseases d) The management of healthcare for older adults 2. Which of the following theories suggests that aging is a result of the accumulation of damage to cells and tissues over time? a) Programmed Aging Theory b) Free Radical Theory c) Activity Theory d) Continuity Theory 3. Which of the following is NOT considered one of the "Gerontological Giants"? a) Immobility b) Intellectual impairment c) Incontinence d) Insomnia -- 4. The term "successful aging" refers to: a) Living a long life without any chronic illnesses. b) Adapting to age-related changes and maintaining a high quality of life. c) Avoiding the use of medical interventions during old age. d) Achieving financial stability before retirement. 5. Which of the following is true regarding the demographic trends of aging populations? a) The number of elderly individuals is expected to decrease in most developed countries. b) The proportion of older adults in the global population is increasing. c) Life expectancy has significantly decreased over the last century. d) The population of elderly individuals is increasing only in low-income countries. 6. The Activity Theory of aging suggests that: a) Older adults should disengage from social roles as they age. b) Continued social interaction and activity contribute to successful aging. c) The aging process is biologically predetermined. d) Aging is a result of genetic mutations and cellular damage. 7. Which of the following theories of aging emphasizes the importance of maintaining consistency in one's behavior and activities throughout life? a) Disengagement Theory b) Continuity Theory c) Social Exchange Theory d) Wear and Tear Theory 8. What is ageism? a) The process of aging slowly over time b) The societal preference for youth over old age c) The stereotyping and discrimination against individuals or groups based on age d) A theory that explains biological aging processes 9. In gerontology, "compression of morbidity" refers to: a) Reducing the lifespan of individuals to reduce healthcare costs b) Delaying the onset of chronic illness and disability to the end of life c) Shortening the period of time that individuals spend in retirement d) Increasing the number of years spent living with chronic diseases 10. Which theory of aging proposes that older adults should gradually withdraw from social roles and responsibilities? a) Activity Theory b) Disengagement Theory c) Continuity Theory d) Socioemotional Selectivity Theory 11. Which of the following factors is most likely to contribute to healthy aging? a) Isolation from friends and family b) Regular physical activity and social engagement c) Decreased caloric intake without exercise d) Avoiding all stress, both physical and mental 12. Which of the following best describes "gerotranscendence"? a) A biological theory that focuses on cellular aging b) A psychosocial theory that suggests older adults move towards more existential and spiritual perspectives c) A theory suggesting older adults withdraw from all social activities d) The process of accepting inevitable cognitive decline 13. The term "frailty" in gerontology refers to: a) A physical decline characterized by weakness, weight loss, and decreased physical activity b) The mental decline that occurs with advanced age c) A specific disease affecting only elderly individuals d) The inability to perform any activities of daily living 14. Which of the following is a key component of geriatric assessment? a) Focusing solely on the medical history b) Evaluating the patient’s cognitive, physical, emotional, and social well-being c) Only assessing acute illnesses in the elderly d) Avoiding questions about social support and environment 15. Which of the following is a common psychological issue faced by older adults? a) Anxiety disorders b) Depression c) Bipolar disorder d) Schizophrenia some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on cognitive changes: 1. Which of the following is a normal cognitive change associated with aging? a) Severe memory loss b) Difficulty learning new information at a slower pace c) Inability to recognize familiar people d) Loss of basic reasoning skills 2. Which cognitive function is most commonly affected by aging? a) Long-term memory b) Problem-solving skills c) Short-term memory d) Language comprehension 3. Which of the following is NOT considered a normal part of aging? a) Occasional forgetfulness b) Decreased ability to multitask c) Confusion and disorientation d) Slower processing of information 4. Mild Cognitive Impairment (MCI) differs from dementia in that: a) MCI does not affect daily functioning significantly. b) MCI is a more advanced form of dementia. c) MCI leads to immediate loss of independence. d) MCI always progresses to Alzheimer's disease. 5. Which of the following conditions is the most common cause of dementia? a) Parkinson's disease b) Alzheimer's disease c) Vascular dementia d) Lewy body dementia 6. Which of the following is a key feature of cognitive decline in Alzheimer's disease? a) Sudden memory loss and rapid onset b) Gradual memory loss that interferes with daily life c) Complete loss of motor skills d) Temporary confusion due to medication 7. Which cognitive ability typically remains stable in healthy aging? a) Working memory b) Processing speed c) Vocabulary and knowledge d) Executive function 8. Delirium differs from dementia in that: a) Delirium develops slowly over time, while dementia is acute. b) Delirium is usually reversible, while dementia is progressive. c) Dementia affects only memory, while delirium affects speech. d) Delirium is common in younger adults, while dementia only occurs in the elderly. 9. Which of the following interventions can help manage cognitive decline in the elderly? a) Isolation and reduced social interaction b) Regular cognitive exercises and physical activity c) Limiting physical and mental stimulation d) Avoiding new learning experiences 10. Which type of memory is typically the most affected in early stages of Alzheimer's disease? a) Procedural memory b) Episodic memory c) Semantic memory d) Sensory memory 11. Which of the following factors can negatively impact cognitive function in older adults? a) Regular physical exercise b) Social isolation and loneliness c) Balanced diet and hydration d) Mental engagement through learning new skills 12. What is the hallmark symptom of vascular dementia? a) Sudden cognitive decline following a stroke or series of mini- strokes b) Gradual memory loss and disorientation c) Difficulty with language and comprehension d) Rapid decline in motor coordination 13. Which cognitive change is typically seen in patients with Lewy body dementia? a) Hallucinations and fluctuations in attention b) Memory loss with no other symptoms c) Complete loss of ability to speak d) Permanent disorientation and confusion from onset 14. Executive function includes all of the following EXCEPT: a) Planning and organizing tasks b) Emotional regulation c) Language processing d) Problem-solving and decision-making 15. Which of the following lifestyle factors is most beneficial for maintaining cognitive health in aging adults? a) A sedentary lifestyle b) Continuous learning and mental stimulation c) High-fat diet d) Limited social interaction some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on integumentary changes due to aging: 1. Which of the following is a common integumentary change associated with aging? a) Increased elasticity of the skin b) Thinning of the skin c) Increased oil production d) Faster wound healing 2. What causes wrinkles and sagging skin in older adults? a) Increased collagen production b) Loss of elastin and collagen fibers in the dermis c) Increased subcutaneous fat d) Overhydration of the skin 3. Which of the following is a typical change in hair associated with aging? a) Increased melanin production b) Thickening of hair strands c) Hair thinning and graying d) Faster hair growth 4. Which skin condition is more likely to develop in older adults due to reduced oil gland activity? a) Acne b) Dry and itchy skin (xerosis) c) Oily skin d) Excessive sweating 5. Age-related changes in the nails often include: a) Increased nail growth speed b) Brittle, thickened, and yellowish nails c) Nails becoming more flexible d) Increased nail pigmentation 6. Which of the following is true regarding the skin’s ability to heal as we age? a) The skin heals faster with age b) Wound healing is delayed due to decreased blood flow and cell regeneration c) Healing time remains the same throughout life d) Elderly skin produces more fibroblasts, which speed up healing 7. Why are elderly individuals at higher risk of developing pressure ulcers? a) Increased skin thickness b) Loss of subcutaneous fat and reduced blood supply to the skin c) Higher activity levels in old age d) Excessive skin moisture 8. What change in the integumentary system increases the risk of skin tears and bruising in older adults? a) Increased collagen production b) Reduced thickness of the epidermis and dermis c) Higher production of skin oils d) Increased melanocyte activity 9. What role does reduced melanocyte activity play in the aging process of the skin? a) It causes the skin to become darker with age. b) It leads to the development of age spots and uneven skin tone. c) It increases protection from UV radiation. d) It speeds up the regeneration of skin cells. 10. Which of the following is a factor contributing to an elderly person’s increased risk of skin infections? a) Increased sweat production b) Reduced barrier function due to thinning skin c) Increased collagen production d) Decreased exposure to the environment 11. Which type of lesion is commonly seen in older adults as a benign skin growth? a) Squamous cell carcinoma b) Melanoma c) Seborrheic keratosis d) Psoriasis 12. Older adults are more prone to developing skin cancers due to: a) Increased melanin production b) Cumulative sun exposure and reduced skin repair mechanisms c) Higher elasticity of the skin d) A stronger immune system 13. What is a common age-related change in the sweat glands of older adults? a) Increased sweating b) Decreased ability to sweat, leading to difficulty in thermoregulation c) Increased number of sweat glands d) Increased body odor due to excessive sweating 14. Why are elderly individuals at greater risk for heat-related illnesses? a) Decreased ability of sweat glands to cool the body b) Increased skin moisture retention c) Higher metabolic rate d) Overproduction of skin oils 15. Which of the following is an age-related pigmentation change in the skin? a) Formation of cherry angiomas b) Development of vitiligo c) Hyperpigmentation and the appearance of age spots (lentigines) d) Uniform darkening of the skin --- some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on musculoskeletal changes with aging: 1. Which of the following is a common musculoskeletal change associated with aging? a) Increase in bone density b) Loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia) c) Improved joint flexibility d) Faster muscle regeneration 2. What is the primary cause of osteoporosis in older adults? a) Increased calcium absorption b) Increased bone turnover with insufficient bone formation c) Excessive physical activity d) High intake of vitamin D --- 3. Which of the following is a normal age-related change in the joints? a) Improved cartilage thickness b) Decreased joint flexibility due to cartilage degeneration c) Increased range of motion in all joints d) Increased synovial fluid production --- 4. What is sarcopenia? a) The loss of bone density with age b) The age-related decline in muscle mass and strength c) The inflammation of joints d) The process of bone hardening with age --- 5. Which of the following contributes to age-related height loss? a) Strengthening of the spinal vertebrae b) Dehydration of intervertebral discs and vertebral compression c) Growth of the spinal column d) Thickening of the bones --- 6. Which of the following is a risk factor for developing osteoarthritis in older adults? a) Excessive calcium intake b) Long-term wear and tear on joints c) High levels of physical inactivity d) Increased collagen production in joints --- 7. Age-related loss of muscle strength increases the risk of: a) Weight gain b) Falls and fractures c) Improved endurance d) Reduced joint stiffness --- 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of bone changes in older adults? a) Increased bone formation b) Decreased bone density and increased fragility c) Thickening of bones d) Enhanced bone repair after injury --- 9. Why are older adults more prone to fractures? a) Increased flexibility of the bones b) Reduced bone mass and weaker muscles c) Higher bone density d) Increased collagen content in the bones --- 10. Which of the following interventions can help slow musculoskeletal decline with aging? a) Sedentary lifestyle b) Weight-bearing exercises and strength training c) Avoidance of physical activity d) Reduction of calcium and vitamin D intake --- 11. Which joint disorder commonly affects older adults due to cartilage wear and tear? a) Osteoarthritis b) Rheumatoid arthritis c) Gout d) Osteomyelitis --- 12. Which of the following musculoskeletal changes is often responsible for a hunched posture (kyphosis) in older adults? a) Overgrowth of spinal vertebrae b) Weakening of the back muscles and loss of bone density in the spine c) Thickening of the intervertebral discs d) Shortening of the spine --- 13. What is a common feature of age-related changes in tendons and ligaments? a) Increased flexibility and elasticity b) Decreased elasticity and increased stiffness c) Faster tendon repair after injury d) Decreased chance of injury --- 14. How does aging affect the healing process of bone fractures? a) Bones heal more quickly as people age. b) Fracture healing is slower due to decreased bone cell activity and reduced blood flow. c) Healing times remain the same regardless of age. d) Aging has no impact on fracture healing. --- 15. Which vitamin is essential in maintaining bone health in older adults, and its deficiency may contribute to bone weakening? a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin C c) Vitamin D d) Vitamin E --- some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on respiratory changes associated with aging: 1. Which of the following is a common respiratory change associated with aging? a) Increased lung elasticity b) Decreased lung compliance c) Increased vital capacity d) Improved gas exchange efficiency --- 2. What happens to the alveoli in the lungs as a person ages? a) They increase in number. b) They become larger and less elastic. c) They shrink and become more flexible. d) They regenerate at a faster rate. --- 3. Which of the following is an effect of aging on the respiratory muscles? a) Respiratory muscles become stronger b) Respiratory muscles weaken, making breathing less efficient c) The diaphragm becomes more flexible d) The chest wall expands more easily --- 4. Which of the following best describes the change in lung capacity with aging? a) Residual volume decreases while total lung capacity remains the same b) Vital capacity decreases, and residual volume increases c) Total lung capacity increases due to lung expansion d) Vital capacity and residual volume both increase --- 5. Why are older adults more prone to respiratory infections such as pneumonia? a) Increased lung elasticity b) Weakened immune response and impaired ciliary function c) Enhanced lung function d) Reduced production of mucus in the airways - 6. How does aging affect the chest wall? a) The chest wall becomes more flexible and expands easily. b) The chest wall stiffens, reducing the ability to expand during breathing. c) The chest wall becomes more elastic, improving breathing efficiency. d) Aging has no effect on the chest wall. --- 7. What is the primary reason for reduced oxygen exchange in the elderly? a) Increased number of alveoli b) Thickening of alveolar walls and reduced surface area for gas exchange c) Increased lung capacity d) Faster respiratory rate --- 8. How does aging affect the respiratory rate and pattern? a) Breathing becomes more rapid and deep b) Breathing becomes slower and more shallow c) Respiratory rate increases but remains deep d) There is no significant change in respiratory rate --- 9. What is a common change in airway function with aging? a) Airways become more flexible, leading to increased airflow b) Airways become stiffer, making it harder to exhale completely c) Airway resistance decreases, improving airflow d) Airway walls thicken, increasing air exchange efficiency --- 10. Why does the risk of developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) increase with age? a) Improved lung regeneration with aging b) Accumulation of lifetime lung damage and loss of elasticity c) Decreased exposure to environmental pollutants d) Faster healing of lung tissues -- 11. Which of the following changes occurs in the cilia lining the respiratory tract with aging? a) Cilia become more active, increasing mucus clearance b) Cilia become less effective, reducing the ability to clear mucus and pathogens c) Cilia regenerate more quickly, improving respiratory health d) Cilia function is unaffected by aging --- 12. How does aging affect the cough reflex in older adults? a) The cough reflex becomes stronger b) The cough reflex weakens, leading to decreased ability to clear airways c) Coughing becomes more frequent and productive d) The cough reflex remains the same --- 13. Which of the following respiratory volumes tends to increase with age? a) Vital capacity b) Tidal volume c) Residual volume d) Inspiratory reserve volume 14. As a person ages, the efficiency of gas exchange in the lungs decreases primarily due to: a) Increased oxygen-binding capacity of hemoglobin b) Decreased lung surface area and less effective alveolar function c) Thinning of the alveolar walls d) Reduced amount of carbon dioxide in the blood --- 15. Which of the following is a major contributor to the decreased ability to exercise in older adults? a) Increased lung volume b) Reduced respiratory muscle strength and decreased lung function c) Improved oxygen exchange efficiency d) Increased chest wall flexibility --- multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on neurological changes associated with aging: --- 1. Which of the following is a common neurological change associated with aging? a) Increased neuron regeneration b) Decreased brain size and weight c) Improved synaptic plasticity d) Faster cognitive processing speed --- 2. What is the most common age-related change in the brain’s white matter? a) Increase in white matter volume b) Loss of white matter integrity, leading to slower cognitive processing c) Faster signal transmission between neurons d) Regeneration of white matter pathways ----- 3. Which neurotransmitter decreases with age, often contributing to slower reaction times and motor control? a) Dopamine b) Serotonin c) Acetylcholine d) Glutamate --- 4. Which of the following is a characteristic of age-related cognitive decline? a) Rapid memory loss in all individuals b) Slower retrieval of stored information and decreased processing speed c) Complete loss of long-term memory d) Enhanced ability to multitask --- 5. Which of the following neurological changes contributes to balance problems in older adults? a) Increased number of neurons in the cerebellum b) Degeneration of the cerebellum and vestibular system c) Improved proprioception d) Strengthening of the motor cortex --- 6. What happens to the reflexes as a person ages? a) Reflexes become more rapid b) Reflexes remain the same c) Reflexes become slower due to reduced nerve conduction speed d) Reflexes become exaggerated --- 7. Which cognitive function is least likely to decline with normal aging? a) Short-term memory b) Vocabulary and language skills c) Attention span d) Problem-solving skills --- 8. Which age-related change in the nervous system increases the risk of falls in older adults? a) Enhanced motor control b) Decreased proprioception and slower reaction times c) Increased muscle tone d) Improved sensory perception --- 9. What is a common change in the autonomic nervous system with aging? a) Increased responsiveness to stress b) Decreased ability to regulate blood pressure, leading to orthostatic hypotension c) Enhanced thermoregulation d) Improved control of heart rate variability --- 10. Which of the following describes the change in sleep patterns in older adults? a) Increased duration of deep sleep b) Longer sleep periods at night c) More frequent awakenings and lighter sleep stages d) Enhanced sleep efficiency --- 11. What type of memory tends to be most affected by aging? a) Episodic memory (memory of specific events) b) Semantic memory (general knowledge) c) Procedural memory (skills and tasks) d) Implicit memory (unconscious memory) --- 12. What is a significant change in the peripheral nervous system as people age? a) Increased sensation in extremities b) Reduced nerve conduction speed and loss of sensation, especially in the hands and feet c) Enhanced motor control of muscles d) Growth of peripheral nerves --- 13. Why do older adults often experience slower motor coordination? a) Increased muscle mass b) Decline in the basal ganglia function and slower dopamine production c) Faster nerve conduction in the peripheral nervous system d) Enhanced brain plasticity --- 14. Which neurological change is commonly seen in older adults and increases their vulnerability to developing dementia? a) Growth of new neurons b) Accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles c) Increased brain plasticity d) Faster cognitive processing --- 15. Which of the following changes in sensory function is commonly associated with aging? a) Enhanced ability to detect fine details in vision b) Decreased sense of smell (olfactory function) c) Increased hearing acuity d) Improved tactile sensitivity --- some multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on musculoskeletal changes with aging: --- 1. Which of the following is a common musculoskeletal change associated with aging? a) Increase in bone density b) Loss of muscle mass (sarcopenia) c) Improved joint flexibility d) Faster muscle regeneration --- 2. What is the primary cause of osteoporosis in older adults? a) Increased calcium absorption b) Increased bone turnover with insufficient bone formation c) Excessive physical activity d) High intake of vitamin D --- 3. Which of the following is a normal age-related change in the joints? a) Improved cartilage thickness b) Decreased joint flexibility due to cartilage degeneration c) Increased range of motion in all joints d) Increased synovial fluid production --- 14. Which neurological change is commonly seen in older adults and increases their vulnerability to developing dementia? a) Growth of new neurons b) Accumulation of amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles c) Increased brain plasticity d) Faster cognitive processing --- 15. Which of the following changes in sensory function is commonly associated with aging? a) Enhanced ability to detect fine details in vision b) Decreased sense of smell (olfactory function) c) Increased hearing acuity d) Improved tactile sensitivity --- multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on special senses changes with aging: 1. Which of the following is a common age-related change in vision? a) Increased ability to see in low light b) Decreased accommodation and presbyopia c) Improved peripheral vision d) Increased production of tears --- 2. Presbycusis, a common age-related change, affects which sense? a) Vision b) Hearing c) Taste d) Smell --- 3. Which part of the eye undergoes stiffening with age, leading to difficulty focusing on near objects? a) Retina b) Lens c) Cornea d) Optic nerve --- 4. Which of the following describes a typical change in hearing with aging? a) Increased sensitivity to high-pitched sounds b) Difficulty hearing low-frequency sounds c) Loss of high-frequency hearing (Presbycusis) d) Improved auditory discrimination in noisy environments --- 5. Which of the following taste changes is common in older adults? a) Increased sensitivity to salty and sweet flavors b) Decreased sensitivity to bitter and sour tastes c) Diminished taste perception due to loss of taste buds d) Enhanced taste perception due to increased taste buds --- 6. Which age-related eye condition results in clouding of the lens, leading to blurry vision? a) Glaucoma b) Cataracts c) Macular degeneration d) Retinitis pigmentosa --- 7. What is the most common age-related change affecting the sense of smell? a) Hyposmia (reduced ability to smell) b) Hyperosmia (increased sense of smell) c) Enhanced sensitivity to strong odors d) Complete loss of smell --- 8. Which of the following is a characteristic of age-related changes in the sense of taste? a) Loss of taste buds in all areas of the tongue b) Increased sensitivity to all tastes c) Increased sweetness detection but reduced salt detection d) Decreased ability to perceive salty and bitter tastes --- 9. How does aging typically affect the function of the vestibular system (balance and spatial orientation)? a) It becomes more responsive to head movements b) There is a decline in the sensitivity of the vestibular system, leading to balance issues c) Improved sense of balance d) The vestibular system is unaffected by aging --- 10. What happens to the pupil's ability to respond to light as people age? a) The pupil becomes larger, improving light sensitivity b) The pupil becomes smaller and less responsive to changes in light c) The pupil dilates faster in low light d) The pupil's response to light improves with age --- 11. Age-related macular degeneration primarily affects which part of the vision? a) Peripheral vision b) Central vision c) Night vision d) Color vision --- 12. Which of the following is a typical age-related change in the cornea? a) Thickening of the cornea b) Thinning of the cornea c) Increased transparency of the cornea d) Development of arcus senilis (gray or white ring around the cornea) --- 13. Which part of the ear is primarily affected in age-related hearing loss (presbycusis)? a) Eardrum b) Middle ear ossicles c) Cochlea (inner ear) d) Auditory nerve --- 14. How does aging affect the production of tears, and what condition may result? a) Tear production increases, causing chronic tearing b) Tear production decreases, leading to dry eye syndrome c) Tear production remains the same d) Tears become thicker and more lubricating --- 15. Which of the following is a common effect of aging on depth perception and spatial awareness? a) Improved depth perception b) Difficulty judging distances, increasing the risk of falls c) Enhanced ability to navigate complex environments d) Increased peripheral awareness --- multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on cardiopulmonary changes associated with aging: --- 1. Which of the following is a typical age-related change in the heart? a) Increased elasticity of the heart muscle b) Thickening of the heart walls and stiffening of the heart muscle c) Faster heart rate at rest d) Increased ability of the heart to pump blood during exertion Answer: b) Thickening of the heart walls and stiffening of the heart muscle --- 2. As people age, the heart’s ability to pump blood efficiently decreases due to: a) Decreased peripheral resistance b) Increased cardiac output c) Reduced contractility and elasticity of the myocardium d) Increased ventricular compliance 3. What happens to the blood vessels with aging? a) Blood vessels become more elastic b) Blood vessels stiffen, increasing peripheral resistance c) Blood vessels expand, reducing blood pressure d) Blood flow through arteries becomes faster --- 4. Which of the following is a common change in the pulmonary system associated with aging? a) Increased lung compliance b) Decreased vital capacity and increased residual volume c) Improved gas exchange d) Reduced airway resistance --- 5. What age-related change contributes to the increased risk of hypertension in older adults? a) Decreased stroke volume b) Increased flexibility of the arteries c) Stiffening of the arteries and increased peripheral resistance d) Reduced blood viscosity --- 6. With aging, what is the effect on the baroreceptor response, which regulates blood pressure? a) The baroreceptor reflex becomes more sensitive b) The baroreceptor response weakens, increasing the risk of orthostatic hypotension c) Baroreceptors become more responsive to changes in blood pressure d) Blood pressure regulation improves with age --- 7. Which age-related change in the lungs leads to a decline in gas exchange efficiency? a) Increased alveolar surface area b) Thickening of alveolar walls and decreased lung elasticity c) Increased number of alveoli d) Thinning of the alveolar walls --- 8. What happens to the respiratory muscles as people age? a) Respiratory muscles strengthen, improving breathing b) Respiratory muscles weaken, reducing the effectiveness of breathing c) There is no change in respiratory muscle function d) The diaphragm becomes more flexible, improving lung capacity --- 9. Which of the following best describes the change in cardiac output with aging? a) Cardiac output increases due to enhanced heart function b) Cardiac output decreases, especially during physical activity c) Cardiac output remains stable throughout aging d) Cardiac output increases during rest but decreases during activity --- 10. How does aging affect the pulmonary system's ability to respond to exercise? a) Increased lung capacity during exertion b) Reduced oxygen uptake and decreased ability to increase ventilation c) Enhanced gas exchange during physical activity d) Faster respiratory rate during exercise --- 11. Why are older adults more prone to respiratory infections? a) Increased function of the immune system in the lungs b) Decreased mucociliary clearance and weakened immune defense c) Enhanced airway clearance mechanisms d) Increased production of antibodies in the lungs --- 12. Which of the following is a typical cardiovascular change related to aging? a) Increased elasticity of the aorta b) Thickening of the aortic wall, reducing elasticity c) Improved conduction through the sinoatrial (SA) node d) Increased production of red blood cells --- 13. What effect does aging have on heart rate during exercise? a) The heart rate increases more rapidly during exertion b) Maximum heart rate during exercise declines c) Maximum heart rate remains unchanged d) The heart rate decreases less during rest after exercise --- 14. Which of the following age-related changes in the heart increases the risk of arrhythmias? a) Enhanced electrical conduction b) Decreased number of pacemaker cells in the SA node c) Reduced risk of atherosclerosis d) Increased muscle mass in the heart --- 15. How does aging affect the oxygen levels in the blood? a) Blood oxygen levels increase with age b) Blood oxygen levels decrease due to reduced lung function c) Oxygen levels remain stable throughout life d) Increased lung perfusion maintains oxygen levels --- These MCQs cover various cardiopulmonary changes associated with aging. GIT Which of the following gastrointestinal changes is most commonly associated with aging? A) Increased saliva production B) Decreased gastric motility C) Enhanced taste sensation D) Increased absorption of nutrients What physiological change affects the elderly's ability to perceive taste and smell? A) Increased olfactory sensitivity B) Xerostomia (dry mouth syndrome) C) Enhanced gustatory responses D) Improved salivary secretion Which gastrointestinal disorder is more prevalent in older adults? A) Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) B) Appendicitis C) Crohn's disease D) Celiac disease What is a common consequence of aging on the gastrointestinal tract? A) Increased appetite B) Decreased nutrient absorption C) Enhanced digestive enzyme secretion D) Improved gut microbiome diversity Which factor contributes to malnutrition in the elderly related to gastrointestinal changes? A) Increased thirst sensation B) Enhanced food cravings C) Reduced fluid intake due to diminished thirst sensation D) Improved oral health What is a common dental change associated with aging? A) Increased enamel thickness B) Decreased saliva production C) Enhanced gum health D) Increased tooth sensitivity Answer: B) Decreased saliva production. Which condition is primarily responsible for tooth loss in older adults? A) Tooth decay B) Periodontal disease C) Enamel wear D) Oral cancer What happens to tooth enamel as people age? A) It becomes thicker and stronger B) It wears away, making teeth more vulnerable C) It remains unchanged throughout life D) It becomes more resistant to decay How does aging affect the gums? A) Gums become thicker and healthier B) Gums recede and may thin out C) Gums remain unchanged D) Gums become less sensitive What oral condition is characterized by a dry mouth in older adults? A) Gingivitis B) Xerostomia C) Halitosis D) Oral thrush Urinary what is a common change in kidney function associated with aging? A) Increased kidney weight B) Decreased glomerular filtration rate C) Enhanced ability to concentrate urine D) Increased nephron count How does aging affect bladder capacity? A) Bladder capacity increases significantly B) Bladder capacity remains unchanged C) Bladder capacity decreases D) Bladder capacity doubles What change occurs in the urethra of older women? A) Lengthening of the urethra B) Thickening of the urethral lining C) Shortening and thinning of the urethra D) Increased elasticity of the urethra Which condition is commonly associated with an enlarged prostate in aging men? A) Urinary incontinence B) Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia (BPH) C) Kidney stones D) Urinary tract infections What is a typical urinary change in older adults regarding urination frequency? A) Decreased frequency of urination B) Increased frequency of urination C) No change in urination frequency D) Complete loss of urination control Abuse what is a common form of elder abuse? A) Financial exploitation B) Increased social interaction C) Enhanced caregiving D) Improved health outcomes Which factor increases the risk of elder abuse? A) High social support B) Caregiver role strain C) Strong family relationships D) Regular medical check-ups What type of elder abuse involves withholding basic needs? A) Physical abuse B) Emotional abuse C) Neglect D) Financial abuse Which of the following is NOT a recognized type of elder abuse? A) Sexual abuse B) Psychological abuse C) Neglect D) Dietary abuse What is a significant indicator that an older person may be at risk for abuse? A) High independence B) Financial dependence on others C) Active social life D) Good mental health What is a common psychological adjustment challenge faced by older adults? A) Increased social engagement B) Coping with loss of loved ones C) Enhanced cognitive function D) Improved physical health Which physiological change can affect dietary habits in the elderly? A) Increased hunger and cravings B) Decreased saliva production C) Enhanced digestion efficiency D) Improved taste sensitivity What is a typical urinary change in older adults that requires adjustment? A) Increased bladder capacity B) Decreased ability to delay urination C) Enhanced urine flow rate D) Reduced frequency of urination How do hormonal changes impact the appetite of older adults? A) They increase appetite significantly B) They lead to decreased feelings of hunger C) They have no effect on appetite D) They enhance cravings for sweets What is a common adaptation older adults may need to make regarding physical activity? A) Engaging in high-intensity workouts B) Increasing sedentary behavior C) Modifying exercises to accommodate reduced mobility D) Participating in competitive sports Osteoporosis in Geriatrics - MCQs Question 1 What is the primary pathophysiological mechanism leading to osteoporosis in older adults? A) Increased osteoblast activity B) Decreased osteoclast activity C) Increased osteoclast activity D) Hypercalcemia --- Question 2 Which of the following is a common risk factor for osteoporosis in elderly women? A) Male gender B) Long-term corticosteroid use C) High physical activity D) Low calcium intake during adolescence --- Question 3 What is the recommended daily intake of calcium for older adults to help prevent osteoporosis? A) 500 mg B) 800 mg C) 1000 mg D) 1200 mg --- Question 4 Which diagnostic tool is commonly used to assess bone mineral density (BMD) for osteoporosis? A) MRI B) X-ray C) CT scan D) DEXA scan --- Question 5 Which of the following medications is NOT typically used in the treatment of osteoporosis? A) Bisphosphonates B) Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) C) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) D) RANK ligand inhibitors --- Question 6 What is a significant complication of osteoporosis that nurses should monitor for in elderly patients? A) Hyperkalemia B) Fractures C) Hypertension D) Anemia --- Question 7 Which lifestyle modification can best help reduce the risk of osteoporosis in elderly patients? A) Increasing alcohol consumption B) Smoking cessation C) Reducing physical activity D) Increasing caffeine intake --- Question 8 In terms of patient education, which statement should a nurse emphasize regarding osteoporosis management? A) "You can stop exercising once you reach your medication goals." B) "Weight-bearing exercises are essential for maintaining bone density." C) "All calcium supplements are equally effective." D) "Osteoporosis is only a concern for women." --- Question 9 What is the most common type of fracture associated with osteoporosis? A) Humerus B) Vertebral C) Pelvic D) Ankle --- Question 10 Which of the following populations is at highest risk for developing osteoporosis? A) Elderly Asian women B) Elderly Caucasian men C) Young African American women D) Middle-aged Hispanic men --- Question 1 What is the primary pathological feature of Paget's disease of bone? A) Decreased bone density B) Disorganized bone remodeling C) Increased calcium absorption D) Osteonecrosis --- Question 2 Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of Paget's disease in elderly patients? A) Joint stiffness B) Bone pain C) Increased fracture risk D) All of the above --- Question 3 What diagnostic tool is most commonly used to confirm a diagnosis of Paget's disease? A) X-ray B) MRI C) CT scan D) Bone scan --- Question 4 Which medication is primarily used to treat Paget's disease and reduce bone pain? A) Calcium supplements B) Bisphosphonates C) NSAIDs D) Parathyroid hormone --- Question 5 In elderly patients with Paget's disease, which complication is most concerning for nursing staff to monitor? A) Hearing loss B) Osteosarcoma C) Hypercalcemia D) Kidney stones --- Question 6 What role does calcium and vitamin D play in the management of Paget's disease in the geriatric population? A) They are not important in Paget's disease. B) They help maintain bone health and prevent complications. C) They are used to treat Paget's disease directly. D) They are contraindicated in elderly patients. Question 7 A patient with Paget's disease is being educated about lifestyle modifications. Which of the following is an important recommendation for fall prevention? A) Engage in high-impact exercises B) Use assistive devices as needed C) Avoid calcium-rich foods D) Restrict physical activity --- Question 8 What is the typical age range for the onset of Paget's disease in patients? A) 20-30 years B) 30-40 years C) 50-70 years D) 80 years and older MCQs on Falls in Geriatrics Question 1 Which of the following is the most common cause of falls in elderly patients? A) Dizziness B) Weakness or gait instability C) Poor vision D) Medication side effects --- Question 2 What is a key factor that increases the risk of falls in geriatric patients? A) Regular exercise B) Living alone C) Adequate hydration D) Maintaining a balanced diet -- Question 3 Which assessment tool is commonly used to evaluate fall risk in elderly patients? A) Braden Scale B) Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) C) Timed Up and Go (TUG) Test D) Glasgow Coma Scale --- Question 4 Which environmental modification is most effective in reducing fall risk in geriatric patients at home? A) Installing area rugs B) Removing clutter from walking paths C) Using dark-colored flooring D) Adding extra furniture -- Question 5 Which of the following medications is commonly associated with an increased risk of falls in the elderly? A) Antidepressants B) Antibiotics C) Antihistamines D) All of the above --- Question 6 In the context of fall prevention, what is the primary role of the nurse during patient assessment? A) Prescribe medication B) Identify risk factors for falls C) Provide physical therapy D) Determine patient dietary needs --- Question 7 What intervention is most effective for preventing falls in hospitalized elderly patients? A) Encourage bed rest B) Use physical restraints C) Implement regular toileting schedules D) Limit fluid intake --- Question 8 After a fall occurs, what is the most important nursing action? A) Document the fall B) Conduct a thorough assessment for injuries C) Notify the family D) Change the patient's medication --- MCQs on Nursing Care to Prevent Falls in Geriatrics Question 1 What is the primary nursing intervention to prevent falls in elderly patients in a hospital setting? A) Encourage patients to move independently B) Implement fall risk assessments and care plans C) Limit patient mobility to bed rest D) Allow patients to walk unaccompanied --- Question 2 Which of the following environmental modifications should a nurse recommend to reduce fall risks at home for elderly patients? A) Remove handrails from staircases B) Keep floors clean and dry C) Use low lighting in hallways D) Place loose rugs on the floor --- Question 3 When educating a geriatric patient about fall prevention, which of the following is an important topic to discuss? A) The importance of high-intensity workouts B) How to ignore feelings of dizziness C) Using assistive devices when needed D) Reducing fluid intake to avoid bathroom trips --- Question 4 Which of the following assessments is most critical for identifying a geriatric patient's fall risk? A) Blood pressure measurement B) Medication review C) Vision and hearing assessment D) Mobility and balance evaluation --- Question 5 What is an important nursing action to take when a patient is at high risk for falls? A) Assign the patient to a private room B) Keep the call light within reach C) Limit visitors to reduce distractions D) Provide minimal supervision --- Question 6 Which of the following strategies should a nurse implement to assist a patient with ambulation and prevent falls? A) Encourage fast walking to build strength B) Allow the patient to walk alone after meals C) Use a gait belt during ambulation D) Instruct the patient to avoid using assistive devices --- Question 7 In a long-term care facility, which of the following approaches is most effective in reducing falls among residents? A) Implementing a fall prevention program and staff training B) Increasing the number of staff on duty at night C) Reducing the number of residents in shared rooms D) Limiting residents' mobility for safety -- Question 8 Which type of footwear is most appropriate for preventing falls in elderly patients? A) Flip-flops B) High-heeled shoes C) Non-slip, supportive shoes D) Barefoot 20 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) focused on nursing care for urinary incontinence: 1. Urinary incontinence is best defined as: a) An overproduction of urine b) The inability to completely empty the bladder c) The involuntary leakage of urine d) Frequent urination at night 2. Stress incontinence is typically caused by: a) Bladder overactivity b) Weak pelvic floor muscles c) A urinary tract infection d) Obstruction of the urethra 3. Urge incontinence is characterized by: a) Involuntary leakage of urine during physical exertion b) Leakage when the bladder is overdistended c) A sudden, intense urge to urinate followed by involuntary leakage d) Complete loss of bladder control 4. Overflow incontinence occurs when: a) The bladder is unable to empty properly b) The bladder is hyperactive c) The pelvic muscles contract involuntarily d) A person ignores the urge to urinate 5. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor for urinary incontinence? a) Age b) Obesity c) Gender d) Family history 6. Kegel exercises are primarily used to strengthen which muscle group to help manage urinary incontinence? a) Abdominal muscles b) Pelvic floor muscles c) Quadriceps d) Diaphragm 7. The first-line non-pharmacological treatment for stress urinary incontinence is: a) Bladder surgery b) Anticholinergic medications c) Pelvic floor muscle training d) Use of a catheter 8. Bladder training involves: a) Using a catheter to empty the bladder on a schedule b) Avoiding fluid intake throughout the day c) Gradually increasing the time between urinations d) Performing Kegel exercises after each void 9. A nurse should teach a patient with urge incontinence to: a) Restrict fluid intake b) Avoid caffeine and alcohol, which can irritate the bladder c) Only urinate when absolutely necessary d) Decrease fiber intake 10. Which of the following medications is commonly prescribed for urge incontinence? a) Anticholinergics b) Beta-blockers c) Diuretics d) Antibiotics 11. Overflow incontinence is commonly seen in individuals with: a) Urinary tract infections b) Neurological disorders or prostate enlargement c) Anxiety disorders d) Dehydration 12. Functional incontinence occurs when: a) The bladder overflows with urine b) A physical or cognitive barrier prevents the person from reaching the toilet in time c) The pelvic floor muscles are too weak to hold urine d) A person coughs or sneezes 13. The nurse is caring for an older adult with urinary incontinence. The nurse should prioritize: a) Encouraging fluid restriction b) Assessing skin integrity and preventing breakdown c) Avoiding the use of absorbent pads d) Administering antidiuretic hormones 14. Timed voiding is an effective intervention for: a) Urge incontinence b) Stress incontinence c) Functional incontinence d) Overflow incontinence 15. Which of the following is an appropriate dietary recommendation for a patient with urinary incontinence? a) Decrease fiber intake to reduce bowel pressure on the bladder b) Limit fluid intake to avoid frequent urination c) Avoid bladder irritants such as caffeine and citrus fruits d) Increase caffeine intake to stimulate bladder activity 16. Biofeedback is a technique used to: a) Increase the frequency of urination b) Help patients become more aware of their pelvic floor muscle control c) Reduce fluid intake d) Stimulate bladder emptying through catheterization 17. The nurse should teach the patient with overflow incontinence to: a) Urinate only when they feel a full bladder b) Use a catheter to fully empty the bladder regularly c) Perform bladder retraining exercises d) Avoid drinking water before bedtime 18. A patient with stress incontinence should avoid: a) Constipation by maintaining a high-fiber diet b) Prolonged periods of sitting or lying down c) Lifting heavy objects or performing high-impact exercises d) Drinking fluids regularly 19. Which surgical option is commonly used for severe stress incontinence? a) Urethral sling procedure b) Bladder augmentation c) Nephrectomy d) Prostatectomy 20. In elderly patients with urinary incontinence, a common complication that nurses should monitor for is: a) Skin breakdown and pressure ulcers b) Hypotension c) Seizures d) Hypoglycemia 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) focused on nursing care for diabetes mellitus (DM) in geriatric patients: 1. Diabetes mellitus in the elderly is commonly characterized by: a) Rapid onset of symptoms b) Gradual onset with fewer noticeable symptoms c) Absence of symptoms d) Frequent hypoglycemia 2. One of the most common complications of diabetes in the elderly is: a) Retinopathy b) Neuropathy c) Kidney disease d) Cardiovascular disease 3. A major risk factor for the development of type 2 diabetes in elderly patients is: a) Low sodium intake b) Physical inactivity c) Frequent exercise d) Low body mass index (BMI) 4. The primary goal of nursing care for elderly patients with diabetes is: a) Reducing medication usage b) Preventing acute and chronic complications c) Increasing insulin resistance d) Eliminating the need for dietary modifications 5. Which of the following symptoms is more likely to be atypical or absent in older adults with diabetes? a) Fatigue b) Polyuria c) Polyphagia d) Weight loss 6. A common challenge in managing diabetes in geriatric patients is: a) Increased insulin sensitivity b) Difficulty in managing multiple comorbidities c) Reduced risk of cardiovascular disease d) Lack of need for glucose monitoring 7. Hypoglycemia in elderly patients can be particularly dangerous because it: a) Is easily detected b) Often causes falls and cognitive decline c) Improves appetite d) Increases urine output 8. When teaching elderly patients with diabetes, the nurse should: a) Provide written materials with small print b) Simplify instructions and provide large print materials c) Limit family involvement d) Encourage them to check their blood sugar once a month 9. Which of the following dietary modifications is recommended for elderly patients with diabetes? a) Low-fiber diet b) High-protein diet c) A balanced diet rich in fiber and low in simple sugars d) High-fat, low-carbohydrate diet 10. The HbA1c target for many older adults with diabetes is generally: a) Less than 6% b) Less than 7% c) Between 7-8% d) Greater than 8% 11. Polypharmacy in geriatric patients with diabetes can increase the risk of: a) Improved glycemic control b) Drug interactions and adverse effects c) Better medication adherence d) Reduced healthcare costs 12. When managing diabetes in the elderly, which of the following is a priority to prevent complications? a) Encouraging regular fasting b) Monitoring blood glucose levels regularly c) Avoiding physical activity d) Reducing water intake 13. Foot care is especially important for elderly patients with diabetes because they are at increased risk for: a) Osteoarthritis b) Peripheral neuropathy and foot ulcers c) Ankle sprains d) Flat feet 14. A nurse's priority when caring for an elderly patient with diabetes who is experiencing visual impairment is: a) Encouraging regular insulin injections without assistance b) Ensuring safety and preventing falls c) Advising the patient to avoid reading d) Discontinuing glucose monitoring 15. Which of the following is a typical early sign of diabetic nephropathy in elderly patients? a) Edema b) Proteinuria c) Abdominal pain d) Hypertension 16. The most appropriate nursing intervention to prevent hypoglycemia in elderly patients is: a) Administering a larger dose of insulin b) Encouraging small, frequent meals throughout the day c) Promoting prolonged fasting d) Limiting blood glucose monitoring 17. Exercise recommendations for elderly patients with diabetes include: a) Avoiding exercise altogether b) Low-impact activities like walking and swimming c) High-intensity training d) Fasting before exercise 18. Which complication is most concerning for elderly patients with poorly controlled diabetes? a) Anemia b) Stroke or heart attack c) Hypothyroidism d) Weight gain 19. Cognitive decline in elderly diabetic patients can affect their ability to: a) Exercise regularly b) Adhere to medication regimens c) Socialize with family and friends d) Avoid processed foods 20. For a diabetic elderly patient with limited dexterity, which intervention is helpful? a) Use of syringes with small needles b) Prefilled insulin pens or insulin pumps c) Insulin injections without assistance d) Manual blood glucose monitoring 21. In geriatric patients with diabetic retinopathy, nursing care should focus on: a) Promoting independence b) Improving blood sugar control and regular eye examinations c) Preventing the use of assistive devices d) Reducing fluid intake 22. A patient with poor wound healing related to diabetes should be monitored for: a) Weight gain b) Infection c) Hypercalcemia d) Hypernatremia 23. Which of the following is a sign of hypoglycemia in elderly patients? a) Dry skin and rapid heartbeat b) Confusion, dizziness, and sweating c) Increased thirst d) Weight loss 24. Elderly patients with diabetes are at higher risk for: a) Hypocalcemia b) Dehydration due to polyuria c) Hypermagnesemia d) Hyponatremia 25. When teaching an elderly diabetic patient about foot care, the nurse should emphasize: a) Cutting toenails very short b) Checking the feet daily for blisters, cuts, and sores c) Wearing tight shoes to improve circulation d) Soaking feet in hot water 26. An elderly patient with diabetes is most likely to require insulin therapy when: a) Oral hypoglycemic agents are no longer effective b) They are consistently able to control their diet c) They are younger than 65 years old d) Their blood glucose levels are stable 27. Glycemic control in elderly patients can be more difficult due to: a) Decreased renal function and other comorbidities b) Increased physical activity c) Overproduction of insulin d) Enhanced liver function 28. A nurse should regularly monitor which lab value in elderly diabetic patients to assess kidney function? a) Creatinine b) Potassium c) Sodium d) Hemoglobin 29. A comprehensive diabetes management plan for elderly patients should include: a) Intensive glycemic control without considering comorbidities b) A holistic approach considering diet, exercise, and medication adherence c) Limiting carbohydrate intake to less than 10% of the diet d) Discontinuing blood glucose monitoring 30. When caring for an elderly diabetic patient with cognitive impairment, the nurse should prioritize:a) Encouraging the patient to manage their diabetes independentlyb) Simplifying the medication regimen and involving caregiversc) Focusing solely on dietary modificationsd) Avoiding regular glucose monitoring 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) for nursing care related to Myocardial Infarction (MI), with each question including one correct answer and three distractors. These can help reinforce key concepts in MI management, diagnosis, and patient care. 1. What is the most common cause of myocardial infarction? A) Infection B) Atherosclerosis C) Hypertension D) Heart failure 2. Which of the following is a hallmark sign of MI on an ECG? A) ST-segment elevation B) T-wave inversion C) U-wave D) P-wave flattening 3. Which blood test is most specific for diagnosing MI? A) CK-MB B) Myoglobin C) Troponin D) D-dimer 4. What does the "M" stand for in the acronym MONA for MI treatment? A) Magnesium B) Morphine C) Metoprolol D) Milrinone 5. Which symptom is most characteristic of MI? A) Dull abdominal pain B) Sharp leg pain C) Crushing chest pain D) Lower back pain 6. Which medication is used to prevent platelet aggregation in MI? A) Nitroglycerin B) Furosemide C) Aspirin D) Atorvastatin 7. What is the goal of oxygen therapy in MI patients? A) Increase blood pressure B) Decrease heart rate C) Improve oxygen supply to the heart D) Increase carbon dioxide levels 8. Which of the following is a major complication of MI? A) Renal failure B) Heart failure C) Lung cancer D) Stroke 9. When monitoring a patient after an MI, which finding is concerning? A) Decreased respiratory rate B) Elevated heart rate C) Increased urine output D) Decreased blood pressure 10. Which lifestyle change is recommended to prevent future MIs? A) Increase salt intake B) Increase alcohol consumption C) Smoking cessation D) Increase saturated fats 11. Which of the following medications reduces cholesterol in MI patients? A) Beta-blockers B) ACE inhibitors C) Statins D) Diuretics 12. What type of MI occurs due to a complete blockage of a coronary artery? A) NSTEMI B) STEMI C) Angina D) Silent MI 13. Which assessment finding would suggest left-sided heart failure after MI? A) Jugular vein distention B) Peripheral edema C) Shortness of breath D) Ascites 14. Which dietary modification is advised post-MI? A) High-fat diet B) High-sugar diet C) Low-sodium diet D) High-caffeine diet 15. Which of the following is the primary action of nitroglycerin in MI treatment? A) Reduces heart rate B) Dilates blood vessels C) Increases blood pressure D) Increases oxygen demand 16. What is the priority intervention for a patient experiencing chest pain? A) Call the family B) Administer pain medication C) Perform an ECG D) Offer a warm blanket 17. Which finding might indicate a silent MI? A) Mild jaw pain B) Severe sweating C) Profound chest pain D) Loud snoring 18. In MI care, beta-blockers are used to: A) Increase heart rate B) Decrease blood pressure and heart rate C) Increase blood pressure D) Increase oxygen demand 19. Which of these is a nursing intervention for a patient with chest pain? A) Encourage ambulation B) Administer oxygen C) Start IV fluids D) Withhold all medications 20. A patient is prescribed aspirin post-MI to prevent: A) Infection B) Fever C) Blood clots D) Arrhythmias 21. Which test is used to assess heart function after MI? A) MRI of the brain B) CT scan of the chest C) Echocardiogram D) Liver function test 22. What is the priority goal in managing an MI? A) Relieve pain and restore blood flow B) Reduce fever C) Increase blood glucose D) Increase blood pressure 23. What is cardiogenic shock in the context of MI? A) Increased urine output B) Heart’s inability to pump effectively C) Increased respiratory rate D) Increase in appetite 24. What does an elevated troponin level indicate? A) Respiratory infection B) Liver damage C) Cardiac muscle injury D) Kidney failure 25. Which is a non-modifiable risk factor for MI? A) Smoking B) High blood pressure C) Age D) Obesity 26. Which position is best for a patient experiencing chest pain? A) Flat on back B) Semi-Fowler’s C) Prone position D) Trendelenburg 27. What is the primary action of ACE inhibitors post-MI? A) Lower cholesterol B) Increase heart rate C) Prevent heart remodeling D) Increase blood pressure 28. Which lifestyle factor significantly reduces the risk of MI recurrence? A) Reducing water intake B) Increasing screen time C) Smoking cessation D) Eating more processed foods 29. Which assessment finding suggests successful reperfusion after MI? A) Fever B) Chest pain increases C) Return of ST-segment to baseline D) Blood pressure drops 30. In patient education, which statement about MI recovery is accurate? A) “You should avoid all physical activity indefinitely.” B) “It’s best to ignore minor chest pain.” C) “Lifestyle changes can help prevent future MIs.” D) “You don’t need to take medications once you feel better.” MCQs on Nursing Care for Heart Failure 1. Which of the following is the most common cause of heart failure? A. Hypertension B. Diabetes Mellitus C. Valvular heart disease D. Arrhythmias 2. What is a primary symptom of left-sided heart failure? A. Peripheral edema B. Jugular venous distension C. Pulmonary congestion D. Hepatomegaly 3. Which medication class is commonly used to reduce fluid overload in heart failure patients? A. Beta-blockers B. ACE inhibitors C. Diuretics D. Calcium channel blockers 4. In assessing a patient with heart failure, which of the following findings is most indicative of fluid retention? A. Weight loss B. Elevated blood pressure C. Increased urinary output D. Pitting edema 5. Which laboratory test is most useful in diagnosing heart failure? A. Complete blood count (CBC) B. B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) C. Serum electrolytes D. Liver function tests 6. A patient with heart failure should be taught to monitor their weight daily. What is the primary reason for this? A. To assess dietary intake B. To monitor for fluid retention C. To evaluate exercise tolerance D. To check for muscle wasting 7. Which dietary modification is recommended for patients with heart failure? A. High-sodium diet B. Low-fat diet C. High-protein diet D. Low-sodium diet 8. What is the purpose of administering a beta-blocker to a patient with heart failure? A. Increase heart rate B. Decrease myocardial oxygen demand C. Increase fluid retention D. Promote vasoconstriction 9. Which nursing assessment finding is characteristic of right- sided heart failure? A. Crackles in the lungs B. Orthopnea C. Peripheral edema D. Cyanosis 10. In patients with heart failure, what is the primary goal of nursing care? A. Cure the underlying disease B. Promote patient comfort C. Improve quality of life and prevent complications D. Decrease medication dosage 11. Which of the following symptoms should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider? A. Mild fatigue B. New-onset chest pain C. Weight gain of 1 pound D. Increased exercise tolerance 12. Which position is often recommended for patients with severe heart failure to help alleviate dyspnea? A. Supine B. Prone C. High-Fowler’s D. Lateral 13. What is the most appropriate action for a nurse to take if a patient reports shortness of breath while lying flat? A. Administer oxygen B. Have the patient lie down C. Elevate the head of the bed D. Encourage deep breathing exercises 14. Which complication is most associated with heart failure? A. Stroke B. Respiratory failure C. Myocardial infarction D. Arrhythmias 15. What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors that nurses should monitor? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypotension C. Bradycardia D. Weight gain 16. Which non-pharmacological intervention can help manage symptoms of heart failure? A. Smoking cessation B. Increased fluid intake C. High-intensity exercise D. Excessive sodium consumption 17. For a patient with heart failure, which of the following assessments is most critical to perform daily? A. Blood pressure B. Heart rate C. Weight D. Respiratory rate 18. Which sign indicates worsening heart failure that requires urgent attention? A. Mild ankle swelling B. Increased fatigue C. Rapid weight gain of 3 pounds in a week D. Occasional palpitations 19. When teaching a patient about heart failure management, which of the following should be included? A. Increase fluid intake to 4 liters daily B. Restrict sodium intake and monitor weight C. Avoid all forms of exercise D. Stop taking medications if symptoms improve 20. What is the purpose of using digoxin in heart failure management? A. To increase heart rate B. To improve myocardial contractility C. To decrease blood pressure D. To promote diuresis 21. In educating a heart failure patient about medication adherence, what should the nurse emphasize? A. Take medications only when symptoms worsen B. Consistently take medications as prescribed C. Share medications with family members D. Discontinue medications if side effects occur 22. What should a nurse include in a discharge plan for a patient with heart failure? A. Follow-up appointments and medication management B. No dietary restrictions C. Avoiding all physical activity D. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration 23. Which is a common psychosocial issue faced by patients with heart failure? A. Increased income B. Improved social support C. Anxiety and depression D. Enhanced motivation 24. Which of the following is a key indicator of the effectiveness of heart failure treatment? A. Decreased blood pressure B. Improved exercise tolerance C. Weight gain D. Increased heart rate 25. What is the significance of teaching a patient to recognize early signs of heart failure exacerbation? A. To prevent hospital readmissions B. To increase medication dosages C. To encourage more exercise D. To avoid regular check-ups 26. A nurse observes that a heart failure patient’s urine is dark and concentrated. What does this suggest? A. Increased fluid intake B. Dehydration or poor kidney function C. Normal renal function D. High protein intake 27. Which assessment finding in a patient with heart failure would most likely indicate a need for increased diuretic therapy? A. Dry mucous membranes B. Increased respiratory rate C. Decreased heart rate D. New-onset edema 28. Which lifestyle change is most beneficial for a patient with heart failure? A. Increase alcohol consumption B. Begin a regular exercise program C. Reduce dietary fiber D. Follow a sedentary lifestyle 29. What should the nurse monitor for in a patient receiving furosemide (Lasix)? A. Hyperglycemia B. Hypokalemia C. Hypertension D. Fluid overload 30. A patient with heart failure is experiencing a decrease in activity tolerance. What should the nurse prioritize in the plan of care? A. Increasing the patient's fluid intake B. Assessing for signs of exacerbation C. Encouraging strenuous exercise D. Recommending a high-sodium diet 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) focusing on nursing care for hypertension, covering understanding, symptoms, risk factors, diagnostics, treatments, complications, and nursing interventions. 1. Hypertension is defined as: A. Blood pressure consistently below 120/80 mmHg B. Blood pressure consistently above 140/90 mmHg C. Rapid increase in heart rate D. Irregular heartbeat 2. Primary (essential) hypertension has: A. No identifiable cause B. A specific, known cause C. Only genetic causes D. Is only diagnosed in children 3. Secondary hypertension is caused by: A. Unknown factors B. Lifestyle factors alone C. An identifiable underlying condition, such as kidney disease D. Low cholesterol levels 4. Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor for hypertension? A. Smoking B. Age C. Diet high in sodium D. Sedentary lifestyle 5. Which lifestyle modification is recommended for managing hypertension? A. High-sodium diet B. Weight loss and regular exercise C. Increased caffeine intake D. Limiting water intake 6. A common symptom of hypertension is: A. Headache B. Nausea C. Excessive hunger D. None; it is often asymptomatic 7. Which diagnostic test is primarily used to confirm hypertension? A. Blood glucose test B. Chest X-ray C. Blood pressure measurement D. CT scan 8. What is a hypertensive crisis? A. A rapid increase in cholesterol B. Blood pressure reading above 180/120 mmHg C. A decrease in heart rate D. An increase in body temperature 9. Which class of medications is commonly prescribed for hypertension? A. Antibiotics B. Diuretics C. Antivirals D. Antifungals 10. Beta-blockers are used in hypertension primarily to: A. Increase heart rate B. Decrease heart rate and reduce blood pressure C. Reduce blood glucose D. Increase respiratory rate 11. ACE inhibitors work by: A. Increasing cholesterol levels B. Blocking angiotensin II to relax blood vessels C. Increasing blood sugar D. Constricting blood vessels 12. A patient on antihypertensive therapy should avoid: A. High-fat foods B. Alcohol C. Sedentary lifestyle D. All of the above 13. A diuretic’s main role in hypertension management is to: A. Increase sodium in the blood B. Remove excess fluid and sodium from the body C. Increase potassium levels D. Decrease glucose levels 14. The DASH diet for hypertension emphasizes: A. High sodium and processed foods B. Low sodium, high fruits and vegetables C. High protein intake D. High caffeine intake 15. Which lab test should a nurse monitor in a patient taking diuretics for hypertension? A. Hemoglobin B. Potassium C. Glucose D. Creatinine 16. Which blood pressure reading indicates prehypertension? A. 120/80 mmHg B. 130/85 mmHg C. 140/90 mmHg D. 150/95 mmHg 17. Hypertension can lead to which of the following complications? A. Kidney damage B. Heart failure C. Stroke D. All of the above 18. Orthostatic hypotension is: A. A sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing B. An increase in heart rate upon standing C. A decrease in blood glucose D. Not related to hypertension 19. Which symptom may indicate a hypertensive crisis? A. Sudden severe headache B. Chest pain C. Blurred vision D. All of the above 20. A nurse educating a patient about hypertension management should emphasize: A. Importance of medication adherence B. Avoiding all exercise C. Skipping blood pressure checks D. Eating high-sodium foods 21. A lifestyle modification recommended to prevent hypertension is: A. Reducing salt intake B. Increasing alcohol intake C. Avoiding exercise D. High-sugar diet 22. Calcium channel blockers help manage hypertension by: A. Decreasing blood clotting B. Lowering heart rate and relaxing blood vessels C. Increasing blood sugar D. Constricting blood vessels 23. When measuring blood pressure, the patient should: A. Cross their legs B. Sit with their arm at heart level C. Stand up D. Hold their breath 24. Which complication is most likely to occur in a patient with uncontrolled hypertension? A. Pneumonia B. Myocardial infarction C. Arthritis D. Anemia 25. A nurse should teach a hypertensive patient to monitor which of the following at home? A. Cholesterol levels B. Body temperature C. Blood pressure D. Respiration rate 26. Which of the following food groups is emphasized in a hypertensive diet? A. Processed meats B. Low-fat dairy C. Sugary snacks D. Fried foods 27. Which patient is at highest risk for hypertension? A. A 20-year-old athlete B. A 65-year-old smoker with diabetes C. A 30-year-old vegetarian D. A teenager with a normal BMI 28. An appropriate goal for a hypertensive patient is to: A. Reduce blood pressure to target levels B. Avoid all types of physical activity C. Gain weight rapidly D. Ignore salt intake 29. Which of the following medications is an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB)? A. Amlodipine B. Losartan C. Hydrochlorothiazide D. Metoprolol 30. To manage hypertension, patients should be encouraged to: A. Eat a high-sodium diet B. Participate in moderate aerobic exercise C. Increase their alcohol intake D. Avoid fruits and vegetables 30 multiple-choice questions (MCQs) on nursing care for coronary artery disease (CAD), covering topics such as disease understanding, risk factors, symptoms, diagnostics, treatments, and nursing interventions. 1. What is the primary cause of coronary artery disease (CAD)? A. Genetic mutations B. Plaque buildup in the arteries C. Excessive exercise D. Viral infections 2. Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor for coronary artery disease? A. Smoking B. Hypertension C. Regular physical activity D. High cholesterol 3. Which symptom is most commonly associated with coronary artery disease? A. Joint pain B. Chest pain or angina C. Frequent headaches D. Muscle weakness 4. What does angina indicate in a patient with CAD? A. Reduced blood flow to the heart muscle B. Complete blockage of the artery C. Increased oxygen delivery to the heart D. No significant health concern 5. Which type of angina occurs unpredictably and may happen at rest? A. Stable angina B. Unstable angina C. Nocturnal angina D. Exertional angina 6. What is the main goal of nursing care for a patient with coronary artery disease? A. Decrease blood pressure to below normal levels B. Prevent further plaque buildup and manage symptoms C. Increase cholesterol levels D. Prevent all physical activity 7. Which diagnostic test is commonly used to evaluate the blood flow through coronary arteries? A. ECG B. Echocardiogram C. Coronary angiography D. MRI 8. Which class of medication is commonly prescribed to lower cholesterol in CAD patients? A. Diuretics B. Statins C. ACE inhibitors D. Anticoagulants 9. Beta-blockers are used in CAD patients primarily to: A. Increase heart rate B. Decrease heart rate and reduce oxygen demand C. Decrease blood clotting D. Increase cholesterol levels 10. Nitroglycerin is given to patients with angina because it: A. Constricts coronary arteries B. Relaxes and dilates coronary arteries C. Lowers blood sugar D. Increases heart rate 11. A modifiable risk factor for CAD is: A. Age B. Family history C. Smoking D. Gender 12. The “bad” cholesterol that contributes to plaque buildup in arteries is: A. HDL B. LDL C. Triglycerides D. VLDL 13. A nurse is educating a patient on diet for managing CAD. Which advice is correct? A. Eat a high-sodium diet B. Avoid foods high in saturated fats C. Increase red meat intake D. Avoid fruits and vegetables 14. Which intervention is a priority for a patient experiencing chest pain? A. Elevate the legs B. Administer oxygen, if available C. Encourage deep breathing exercises D. Give the patient water 15. Which test provides a continuous recording of a patient's heart rhythm over 24-48 hours? A. Echocardiogram B. Exercise stress test C. Holter monitor D. MRI 16. Which lifestyle modification is NOT recommended for CAD management? A. Quitting smoking B. Following a low-fat diet C. Engaging in moderate exercise D. High intake of processed foods 17. A side effect of beta-blockers that nurses should monitor in CAD patients is: A. Hypotension B. Hyperglycemia C. Fever D. Headache 18. In CAD, a nurse should assess for which sign of poor cardiac output? A. Flushed skin B. Clear breath sounds C. Decreased urine output D. Increased appetite 19. Which is the primary focus of cardiac rehabilitation for CAD patients? A. Improving strength for vigorous exercise B. Preventing recurrence and improving heart health C. Encouraging long periods of bed rest D. Reducing medication dependency 20. A nurse should encourage CAD patients to avoid: A. Smoking B. Low-impact exercise C. Fiber-rich foods D. Low-salt diets 21. What is the most common complication of CAD? A. Stroke B. Heart failure C. Diabetes D. Liver disease 22. Which of the following foods should be avoided to reduce CAD risk? A. Fresh fruits B. Whole grains C. Red meat D. Leafy greens 23. A common blood test to assess heart muscle damage in CAD is: A. Hemoglobin B. Lipid profile C. Troponin D. Glucose 24. Which patient statement indicates understanding of CAD management? A. "I should rest all day." B. "I will continue smoking since it relaxes me." C. "I will avoid fatty foods." D. "I don’t need medication if I feel okay." 25. An exercise stress test for CAD patients evaluates: A. Liver function B. Oxygen saturation C. Heart response to stress D. Brain activity 26. ACE inhibitors in CAD patients are primarily used to: A. Reduce cholesterol levels B. Increase heart rate C. Decrease blood pressure and reduce heart workload D. Increase cardiac output 27. In CAD, an EKG may reveal: A. Enlarged liver B. Low blood sugar C. Arrhythmias or ischemia D. Increased lung sounds 28. When teaching about CAD, nurses should emphasize the importance of: A. Limiting all physical activity B. High-protein diets C. Medication adherence D. Frequent snacking 29. Which exercise type is most appropriate for CAD patients? A. High-intensity interval training B. Powerlifting C. Moderate aerobic exercise D. No exercise 30. What is the purpose of using aspirin in CAD patients? A. Lower blood pressure B. Increase cholesterol C. Prevent blood clots D. Reduce muscle pain multiple-choice questions (MCQs) focused on Nursing Care about Legal Issues in Geriatric Care: Legal Rights of Older Adults 1. Which of the following is a legal right of older adults? a) Right to informed consent b) Right to refuse treatment c) Protection from abuse or neglect d) All of the above 2. What is a primary responsibility of a nurse regarding the legal rights of older adults? a) Make decisions for the patient without consent b) Educate patients about their rights to make informed decisions c) Ensure patients are not given choices about their care d) Only document patient information when required 3. When a patient refuses recommended treatment, what should the nurse consider legally? a) The healthcare team’s opinion is most important b) The patient has the right to refuse treatment, as long as they are capable of understanding the consequences c) The nurse must ignore the patient’s refusal if it contradicts medical advice d) The patient's family decision overrides the patient’s refusal 4. What should a nurse do to protect both the patient and the healthcare team legally? a) Disregard the patient’s wishes b) Document all interactions regarding informed consent and treatment preferences c) Only document the treatments administered d) Assume that verbal consent is sufficient 5. Which legal document allows a patient to designate a person to make healthcare decisions on their behalf? a) Will b) Power of attorney c) Durable power of attorney for healthcare d) Marriage certificate Answer: c) Durable power of attorney for healthcare Guardianship and Power of Attorney 6. What is the nurse’s role in a situation where a legal guardian or POA disagrees with the healthcare team’s plan? a) Ignore the disagreement b) Act as an advocate for the patient and facilitate communication between the healthcare team and POA/guardian c) Immediately override the guardian or POA’s decision d) Refer the disagreement to the family alone 7. What should a nurse understand about guardianship and power of attorney in geriatric care? a) They have no legal significance b) They differ by jurisdiction and must be followed as per local laws c) Guardianship is only applicable in emergency situations d) Only family members can act as POA 8. In a case of conflict between a family member and the appointed guardian, what should the nurse do? a) Ignore the disagreement b) Continue care as usual and avoid involving others c) Facilitate open discussion to ensure care aligns with the patient’s expressed preferences d) Decide on care without consulting any of the parties Elder Abuse and Neglect 9. Which of the following constitutes elder abuse? a) Financial exploitation b) Emotional abuse c) Neglect d) All of the above 10. If a nurse suspects elder abuse, what is the first step they should take? a) Ignore the suspicion and continue with care b) Report the suspicion according to legal and institutional guidelines c) Speak to the patient’s family about the suspicion d) Wait for the patient to disclose the abuse 11. What should a nurse do when encountering signs of elder abuse, such as unexplained injuries or malnutrition? a) Document the signs and ignore them b) Report the suspicion to the appropriate authorities c) Continue care without addressing the signs d) Only report the signs if the patient gives verbal consent 12. Which of the following is NOT a form of elder abuse? a) Physical abuse b) Emotional support c) Financial exploitation d) Neglect 13. What is the nurse’s legal obligation if elder abuse is suspected? a) To investigate the situation personally b) To provide therapy to the family c) To report the suspected abuse to proper authorities d) To ignore suspicions if they are not confirmed Restraint Use 14. In which situation is the use of physical restraints legally justified? a) To control a patient’s behavior for convenience b) As a last resort to prevent harm or injury, following institutional guidelines c) As a routine intervention to ensure patient safety d) When the nurse or staff member feels it is necessary 15. What must a nurse do before using restraints on a patient? a) Get verbal consent from the patient b) Ensure that all other less restrictive interventions have been exhausted c) Call the family for approval d) Use restraints immediately if the patient is agitated 16. What is an alternative to the use of physical restraints in geriatric care? a) Increased monitoring and environmental modifications b) Ignoring the patient’s needs c) Over-medicating the patient d) Avoiding communication with the patient 17. What should be documented when restraints are used? a) The patient’s behavior alone b) The rationale for restraint use and the duration of application c) The nurse’s personal opinion about the use of restraints d) Only the patient’s resistance to care Malpractice and Negligence 18. Which of the following is considered malpractice in geriatric nursing? a) Administering the correct medication at the right time b) Failure to properly assess a patient’s condition c) Documenting care accurately d) Educating a patient about their condition 19. To avoid malpractice, what should a nurse regularly update and document? a) Only the patient’s medical history b) Assessment findings, care plans, and interventions c) The nurse’s shift schedule d) Patient complaints only 20. How can nurses minimize the risk of negligence in geriatric care? a) By using their own judgment over evidence-based practices b) By neglecting minor changes in the patient’s condition c) By following evidence-based practices and protocols for care d) By delegating all decisions to family members 21. What is one way nurses can ensure they are not liable for malpractice? a) Ignore patient complaints b) Provide care according to established standards and document thoroughly c) Follow only verbal orders without question d) Only care for patients who have minimal needs End-of-Life Decision Making 22. What is an advance directive? a) A legal document outlining healthcare preferences in case the patient is unable to make decisions later b) A healthcare provider’s plan for treatment c) A financial management document d) A form filled out by the family members for treatment decisions 23. When should advance care planning discussions occur? a) Only when the patient is critically ill b) As part of routine care, well before a crisis situation arises c) Only when the patient is under the care of a specialist d) Only during hospital admissions 24. How can a nurse advocate for a patient’s wishes regarding end-of-life care? a) Override the patient’s decisions in the case of a medical emergency b) Ensure that the patient’s advance directives are respected and followed c) Ignore the patient’s advance directives if family members request something different d) Encourage family members to make the final decisions 25. What should a nurse do when a family requests life- sustaining treatment against the patient’s wishes in their advance directive? a) Disregard the advance directive b) Facilitate a discussion with the family, healthcare team, and the patient’s previous wishes c) Follow the family’s wishes immediately d) Ignore the situation if the family disagrees with the directive 26. Which of the following is an example of a decision that may be addressed in advance care planning? a) Whether the patient wants a living will or durable power of attorney for healthcare b) Who will receive the patient’s assets after death c) The patient’s preferences for specific treatments, such as resuscitation or mechanical ventilation d) How to divide the patient’s personal belongings Resource Allocation 27. What ethical issue arises when healthcare resources are limited in geriatric care? a) How to prioritize treatments fairly based on available resources b) Deciding which patients to exclude from treatment c) Only providing care for the wealthiest patients d) Giving preferential treatment to younger patients 28. What is a nurse's role in resource allocation decisions? a) To decide who will receive treatment b) To advocate for equitable access to care for all patients c) To prioritize the most expensive treatments d) To provide care only to those who can afford it 29. How should nurses respond when resources are limited and decisions must be made about treatment? a) Provide treatments solely based on patient age b) Ensure all decisions are ethically justified, considering the patient's quality of life and well-being c) Follow family instructions without question d) Ignore ethical considerations if the treatment is costly 30. Which of the following would be an ethical priority when allocating resources in geriatric care? a) Providing expensive treatments to the elderly first b) Ensuring that treatment decisions do not discriminate based on age c) Limiting treatment options for elderly patients d) Prioritizing care for only the most critically ill patients

Geriatric Nursing Multiple Choice Questions PDF

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