Astro Final MCQs PDF

PRACTICE MCQS Chapter 1 A Universe of Life? 1) The discovery of any kind of life beyond the Earth would A) cause a profound change in perspective of the whole of humanity B) be of interest to all scientists, but of little interest to the wider public C) be of no interest to anyone at all D) only b...

PRACTICE MCQS Chapter 1 A Universe of Life? 1) The discovery of any kind of life beyond the Earth would A) cause a profound change in perspective of the whole of humanity B) be of interest to all scientists, but of little interest to the wider public C) be of no interest to anyone at all D) only be on interest to biologists 2) The portrayal of nearly all aliens in movies and on TV as being humanoid is A) based on the fact that it would be impossible for us to understand anything that wasn't very similar to a human B) realistic because the human form has several unique qualities that make it a good choice for any advanced civilization C) based on the fact that the human form is the only possible form for an advanced civilization D) probably unrealistic because the human form is most likely a result of the particular conditions and events that occurred on the Earth 3) Extraterrestrial life elsewhere in the universe A) will be unrecognizable B) could be similar to life on Earth or might be completely different C) will be identical to life on Earth D) will be completely different than life on Earth 4) Extraterrestrial life is defined to be A) life found beyond the Earth which is based on the same biology and chemistry as life on Earth B) advanced life forms that have visited the Earth C) any kind of life found beyond the Earth D) advanced life found on Earth-like planets around other stars 5) Humanity has been thinking about the possibility of extraterrestrial life A) since the first reports of unidentified flying objects in the 1940's B) since reports of canals on Mars were first made in the 1870's C) throughout human history since the time of the ancient Greeks 6) Which three branches of science are most important in our study of life in the universe? A) physics, mathematics, and astronomy B) astronomy, planetary science, and biology C) planetary science, biology, and mathematics D) biology, mathematics, and physics 7) For most of human history it was believed that the Earth was at the center of the universe. This idea is referred to as A) heliocentric B) egocentric C) geocentric D) stellocentric 1 8) Astronomy has shown us that the Earth A) occupies a special location in the universe so that life elsewhere is unlikely B) is the only planet in the universe with any kind of life C) is the only planet in the universe with advanced life D) is just one planet orbiting an ordinary star in a vast universe 9) Astronomy has shown us that the fundamental laws of physics are A) the same everywhere in the universe B) the same in our solar system but different beyond the solar system C) completely random and unpredictable D) different on other planets in our solar system 10) The discovery of extrasolar planets indicates that planets around other stars are A) all Earth-like B) nonexistent C) common D) relatively rare 11) A habitable world is defined to be one that A) is identical to the Earth B) is in orbit about a solar-type star C) has an atmosphere D) has conditions suitable for life 12) The fact that the life on Earth seems to have appeared quite rapidly suggests that life A) can arise on most habitable worlds B) can only appear soon after a planet forms C) on any kind of planet is inevitable D) is only possible on Earth-like planets 2 13) The molecular building blocks of life have been found A) only on the Earth B) on the Earth, in interstellar clouds, and in meteorites C) on the Earth and in meteorites D) on the Earth and on Mars 14) Biologists have found that life on Earth can A) survive over a wide range of environmental conditions B) only survive on the surface of the Earth C) survive over only a very narrow range of environmental conditions D) survive only in the presence of sunlight 15) If life exists on Mars today it will most likely be found A) everywhere—on the surface, beneath the surface, and in its atmosphere B) on the surface C) beneath the surface D) in its atmosphere Answer: C 16) Among the other planets, probably the most likely place to find evidence for life either now or in the past is on A) Venus B) Mercury C) Jupiter D) Mars 17) Beneath the surface of which moon of Jupiter is there the strongest evidence for the existence of a subsurface ocean of liquid water? A) Io B) Callisto C) Europa D) Ganymede 18) On the surface of which moon of Saturn are liquids observed to exist? A) Enceladus B) Mimas C) Iapetus D) Titan 3 19) Beneath the surface of which moon of Saturn is there evidence for the existence of a subsurface ocean of liquid water? A) Titan B) Enceladus C) Dione D) Helene 20) Using current spacecraft, how long would it take to reach the nearest stars? A) hundreds of thousands of years B) millions of years C) only a few years D) thousands of years 21) Currently, our best hope of finding life on extrasolar worlds is A) by interstellar travel B) by searching with telescopes C) by listening to extraterrestrial radio broadcasts D) contact with alien visitors to the Earth 22) The Search for Extraterrestrial Intelligence (SETI) program currently involves A) broadcasting signals for other advanced civilizations to receive B) listening for signals broadcast by advanced civilizations C) searching for life on planets around other stars D) searching for life in our solar system 23) The study of life in the universe is best described by the term A) astrochemistry B) bioastronomy C) astrobiology D) exobiology 24) The scientific discipline of astrobiology is A) one of the oldest branches of science B) a relatively young branch of science C) a similar age to other fundamental disciplines like physics and chemistry D) a hypothetical branch of science which has yet to be established 4 25) Astrobiology as a field of scientific research, includes contributions from A) only astronomers and biologists B) biologists with an interest in astronomy C) astronomers with an interest in biology D) many different scientific disciplines 26) At its most fundamental level, the goal of astrobiology is to A) discover the connection between life and the places it is found B) find how life on Earth originated C) find life beyond the Earth D) understand the biological makeup of other life forms 27) The modern view of our place in the universe suggests that life elsewhere may be A) this view gives us no clue of the likelihood of life elsewhere B) rare C) common D) at the center of another, parallel universe 28) The ancient view of an Earth-centered geocentric universe suggested that life elsewhere should be A) common B) rare C) this view gives us no clue of the likelihood of life elsewhere D) at the center of another, parallel universe 5  Chapter 2 The Science of Life in the Universe 1) The possibility of extraterrestrial life was first considered A) after the invention of the telescope B) only during the past few decades C) thousands of years ago during ancient times D) at the turn of the 20th century 2) Historical evidence suggests that the methods of modern science were originated by the A) Mayans B) Egyptians C) Greeks D) Babylonians 3) Most ancient cultures believed that the Earth was A) spherical and moving through space B) flat and moving through space C) spherical and motionless D) flat and motionless 4) The astronomical object in our sky which plays the most fundamental role in our lives is the A) Sun B) Moon C) nearest star D) most massive planet in our solar system, Jupiter 5) The astronomical object in our sky which is directly connected to the tides is the A) Sun B) Moon C) nearest star D) most massive planet in our solar system, Jupiter 6) Careful observations of the sky by ancient cultures served the practical purpose of A) keeping track of time B) improving night vision C) religious worship D) keeping track of the changing position of the Earth around the Sun 1 7) The first detailed astronomical observations were made by the A) Mayans B) Egyptians C) Chinese D) Babylonians 8) The first ancient civilization able to predict eclipses were the A) Mayans B) Egyptians C) Chinese D) Babylonians 9) The origins of Greek science can be traced back to the philosopher A) Plato B) Thales C) Aristotle D) Anaximander 10) The Greek approach to understanding the universe relied mostly on A) observations B) experiments C) thought and intuition D) preconceived ideas 11) Which of the following was NOT a contribution made by the Greeks in the development of modern science? A) The willingness to challenging new ideas B) The use of mathematics to explore new ideas C) The willingness to discard ideas if they didn't work D) The willingness to prove preconceived ideas 12) In science, conceptual representations of observed phenomena are referred to as A) facts B) hypotheses C) models D) beliefs 2 13) The circular shape of the Earth's shadow on the Moon during a lunar eclipse suggested to the Greeks that the Earth was A) cylindrical in shape B) at the center of the Universe C) flat D) spherical in shape 14) The geocentric model of the Greeks consisted of a A) flat Earth at the center of the universe surrounded by a dome-shaped sky B) flat Earth at the center of the universe surrounded by a celestial sphere C) spherical Earth at the center of the universe surrounded by a dome-shaped sky D) spherical Earth at the center of the universe surrounded by a celestial sphere 15) Which of the following is NOT a planet visible to the naked eye? A) Saturn B) Neptune C) Mercury D) Jupiter 16) The seven days of the week are related to the A) Sun, Moon and five naked eye planets B) seven brightest stars in the sky C) seven planets known at the end of the 19th century D) seven most prominent constellations that the Sun, Moon and planets pass through 17) Most of the time, planets are observed to A) be stationary with respect to background stars B) move eastward with respect to background stars C) move due south with respect to background stars D) move westward with respect to background stars 18) Apparent retrograde motion occurs when a planet appears to A) be stationary with respect to background stars B) move eastward with respect to background stars C) move due north with respect to background stars D) move westward with respect to background stars 3 19) The Ptolemaic model has planets moving in A) elliptical orbits about the Sun B) a simple circle about the Earth C) a simple circle about the Sun D) small circles, the centers of which move in a larger circle about the Earth 20) In the Ptolemaic model, retrograde motion is due to A) relative motion between the Earth and another planet in its orbit B) the Earth reversing the direction of its orbit about the Sun C) a planet moving backwards in its smaller circular circle, the center of which moves in a larger circular orbit around the Earth D) a planet reversing the direction of its orbit about the Sun 21) The first person to suggest that the Earth moved around the Sun was A) Aristarchus B) Newton C) Copernicus D) Galileo 22) In the heliocentric (Sun-centered) model, apparent retrograde motion is due to A) relative motion between the Earth and another planet in its orbit B) the Earth reversing the direction of its orbit about the Sun C) a planet moving in a small circle, the center of which moves in a larger circle about the Earth D) a planet reversing the direction of its orbit about the Sun 23) Stellar parallax is the apparent A) shift in position of nearby stars as the Earth moves around the Sun B) westward motion of a planet with respect to the background stars C) shift in position of nearby stars as the Sun moves about the center of the galaxy D) shift in position of nearby stars as the Earth rotates on its axis 24) Stellar parallax provides concrete proof that the A) Earth rotates on its axis B) Earth is roughly spherical C) Earth moves around the Sun D) Moon moves around the Earth 4 25) Which Greek school of thought suggested that life elsewhere in the universe might be common? A) the Aristotelians B) the Platonists C) the stoicists D) the atomists 26) Which Greek school of thought believed that life on Earth was unique? A) the Aristotelians B) the Platonists C) the stoicists D) the atomists 27) Copernicus A) provided strong observational evidence that the Earth moved about the Sun B) proved that the orbital shapes of the planets were ellipses and not circles C) was the first person to suggest the Earth moved around the Sun D) revived Aristarchus's suggestion of a Sun-centered solar system and described it mathematically 28) One fundamental consequence of the Copernican model which many people had difficulty accepting at the time it was proposed was that the Earth A) must be moving through space B) was rotating on its axis C) must be stationary in space D) must be smaller than the Sun 29) Even though the heliocentric model of Copernicus had many advantages over the Ptolemaic model, it suffered from the assumption that the A) planets moved in ellipses about the Sun B) planets moved in perfect circles about the Sun C) planets moved in perfect circles about the Earth D) Earth was not rotating on its axis 30) Tycho Brahe A) developed a theory of gravity to explain the motions of the planets B) obtained the first observational evidence suggesting the Earth moved about the Sun C) showed that the orbits of the planets were ellipses and not circles D) made detailed measurements of the motions of the planets in the sky 5 31) Johannes Kepler A) developed a theory of gravity to explain the motions of the planets B) obtained the first observational evidence suggesting the Earth moved about the Sun C) made detailed measurements of the motions of the planets in the sky D) showed that the orbits of the planets were ellipses and not circles 32) Kepler's First Law of planetary motion states that A) an imaginary line joining the Sun and planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times B) the further a planet is from the Sun, the faster it moves in its orbit C) the orbits of planets are ellipses D) the further a planet is from the Sun, the slower it moves in its orbit 33) A planet is closest to the Sun in its elliptical orbit when it is at A) perigee B) aphelion C) apogee D) perihelion 34) A planet is furthest from the Sun in its elliptical orbit when it is at A) apogee B) aphelion C) perigee D) perihelion 35) The semi-major axis, a, of an elliptical planetary orbit is equal to the A) width of the ellipse B) distance between the planet and the Sun at perihelion C) average distance between the planet and the Sun D) distance between the planets and the Sun at aphelion 36) Kepler's Second Law of planetary motion states that A) an imaginary line joining the Sun and planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times B) the further a planet is from the Sun, the faster it moves in its orbit C) the further a planet is from the Sun, the slower it moves in its orbit D) the orbits of planets are ellipses 6 37) According to Kepler's Second Law of planetary motion, a planet moves fastest in its orbit when it is A) undergoing retrograde motion B) in between perihelion and aphelion C) at perihelion D) at aphelion 38) Kepler's Third Law of planetary motion states that A) the further a planet is from the Sun, the faster it moves in its orbit B) an imaginary line joining the Sun and planet sweeps out equal areas in equal times C) the further a planet is from the Sun, the slower it moves in its orbit D) the orbits of planets are ellipses 39) The astronomical unit (AU) is defined to be equal to the A) average distance between the Earth and Sun B) average distance between the Sun and the planet Pluto C) distance between the Sun and the nearest star D) diameter of the Earth 40) Galileo Galilei A) developed a theory of gravity to explain the motions of the planets B) obtained the first observational evidence suggesting the Earth moved about the Sun C) showed that the orbits of the planets were ellipses and not circles D) made detailed measurements of the motions of the planets in the sky 41) The observations of sunspots on the Sun and craters on the Moon by Galileo contradicted the commonly held belief that the universe was A) spherical B) unchanging C) infinite D) perfect 42) The discovery of a supernova by Tycho Brahe in 1572 contradicted the commonly held belief that the universe was A) unchanging B) spherical C) infinite D) perfect 7 43) The discovery of four moons in orbit about Jupiter by Galileo suggested that A) the Earth moved about Jupiter B) the Earth moved about the Sun C) Jupiter moved about the Sun D) bodies could stay in orbit about a moving Jupiter 44) Galileo discovered that Venus goes through a cycle of phases like the Moon. This suggested that A) Venus moved about the Sun B) Venus moved about the Earth C) the Sun moved about the Earth D) the Earth moved about the Sun 45) Asteroid 13681 Monty Python has an orbit with a semi-major axis, a, of 2.99 AU. According to Kepler's 3rd Law, what is its orbital period? A) 2.08 years B) 2.99 years C) 6.34 years P^2=a^3 D) 5.17 years 46) The recently dwarf planet Eris has an orbital period about the Sun, P, of 557 years. According to Kepler's 3rd Law, what is the semi-major axis, a, of its orbit? A) 55.7 AU B) 38.4 AU C) 72.1 AU D) 67.7 AU 47) What is the relationship between Newton's three laws and Kepler's three laws? A) Newton's laws can be derived from Kepler's laws B) Newton's laws and Kepler's laws are identical C) Kepler's laws are general and apply to any motion, while Newton's laws apply only to planetary motion in the solar system D) Newton's laws are general and apply to any motion, while Kepler's laws apply only to planetary motion in the solar system 48) Newton's 1st Law of Motion states that A) action and reaction are equal and opposite B) force equals mass times acceleration C) an object moves at a constant velocity unless a force acts D) the force of gravity decreases with increasing distance 49) Newton's 2nd Law of Motion states that A) action and reaction are equal and opposite B) force equals mass times acceleration C) an object moves at a constant velocity unless a force acts D) the force of gravity decreases with increasing distance 8 50) Newton's 3rd Law of Motion states that A) action and reaction are equal and opposite B) force equals mass times acceleration C) an object moves at a constant velocity unless a force acts D) the force of gravity decreases with increasing distance 51) In the scientific method a hypothesis is another name for A) an observation B) an educated guess C) a test D) a theory 52) In the scientific method, what immediately follows a prediction? A) a hypothesis B) an observation C) a question D) a test 53) An astronomer surveying the sky toward a random region of the sky finds, by chance, the most distant galaxy ever detected. This is an example of A) nonscience B) discovery science C) hypothesis-driven science D) pseudoscience 54) A scientist intuitively believes that a higher power must be present in the universe. However, she can provide no experimental data to support her belief. This is an example of A) pseudoscience B) hypothesis-driven science C) nonscience D) discovery science 9 55) A person claims to have been abducted by aliens and subjected to painful medical procedures that left scarring. However, he refuses to allow interested scientists to study his scars. This is an example of A) hypothesis-driven science B) discovery science C) nonscience D) pseudoscience 56) A scientist tries to determine why a particular car is getting a much lower gas mileage than claimed by the manufacturer by systematically designing experiments to test possible causes for the problem. This is an example of A) discovery science B) nonscience C) hypothesis-driven science D) pseudoscience 57) Modern science attempts to seek explanations for phenomena that are based on A) new subjective laws that are yet to be confirmed experimentally B) intuitive expectations C) the views of leading scientists D) the known laws of nature 58) If a scientific model generates a prediction that is not confirmed experimentally, A) the experimental data must be modified to be consistent with the model B) it must be initially revised and eventually abandoned if it continues to be inconsistent with experiments C) it must be assumed that there are errors in the experiment D) it must immediately be abandoned 59) Occam's Razor states that if we have two models that agree equally well with observations, we choose the one that A) is simplest B) is most complex C) has been around the longest D) is accepted by most scientists 60) A scientific model is considered valid if it is consistent with A) a single observation by an individual scientist B) the opinions of experts in the field C) repeated observations made by an individual scientist D) independent observations made by different scientists 61) The general pattern of thought that is accepted by the majority of scientists at a particular point in time is referred to as a A) methodology B) theory C) paradigm D) consensus 10 62) Scientists always try to A) be as subjective as possible B) be as objective as possible C) disagree with the current paradigm of the time D) agree with the current paradigm of the time 63) Scientific models supported by a large, compelling body of evidence are referred to as A) facts B) ideas C) theories D) hypotheses 64) In science, the tendency of an experiment to produce a particular result is referred to as A) a deviation B) bias C) an error D) an uncertainty 65) In science, a range of possible values resulting from a measurement is referred to as A) a deviation B) bias C) an error D) an uncertainty 66) In science, an unexpected change in a series of measurements is referred to as A) a deviation B) bias C) an error D) an uncertainty 11 67) In science, the difference between a measured value and its true value referred to as A) a deviation B) bias C) an error D) an uncertainty 68) Two asteroids are found at the same distance from the Sun. However, one asteroid is twice as massive the other. According to Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation the force of gravity exerted by the Sun and the more massive asteroid is A) twice as large as the force exerted on the less massive asteroid B) four times as large as the force exerted on the less massive asteroid C) half as large as the force exerted on the less massive asteroid D) exactly the same as the force exerted on the less massive asteroid 69) Two asteroids have identical masses. However, one asteroid is twice as far from the Sun than the other. According to Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation the force of gravity exerted by the Sun on the more distant asteroid is A) the same size as the force exerted on the closer asteroid B) one-quarter of the size of the force exerted on the closer asteroid C) twice as large as the force exerted on the closer asteroid D) one-half of the size of the force exerted on the closer asteroid 70) What was one of the first observations that hinted at limitations in Newton's theory of gravity? A) deviations in the motion of the planet Uranus in the sky B) deviations in the motion of the planet Mercury in the sky C) shifts in position of stars close to the Sun during solar eclipses D) failure to explain why all objects fall at the same rate in a gravitational field 71) How are Newton's and Einstein's theories of gravity related? A) Newton's theory applies only to planetary motion while Einstein's theory applies only to black holes B) Einstein's theory is an approximation of Newton's theory C) the two theories are identical D) Newton's theory is an approximation of Einstein's theory 12 72) Which of the following observations is explained by Einstein's General Theory of Relativity but NOT Newton's Universal Law of Gravitation? A) how gravity acts at a distance B) planets periodically undergo apparent retrograde motion C) all objects fall to Earth at the same rate D) planets move faster in their orbits when they are closer to the Sun 73) In Einstein's General Theory of Relativity, gravity is explained as A) action at a distance B) the curvature of spacetime C) a basic component of the atom D) a force-carrying particle called the graviton 13  Chapter 3 Part 1: The Universal Context of Life 1) In the context of life in the universe, which of the following discoveries of astronomy suggests that enormous numbers of habitable worlds may exist in the universe? A) the laws of physics are the same everywhere B) the universe is very old C) the universe is very large D) the building blocks of life are common 2) In the context of life in the universe, which of the following discoveries of astronomy suggests that there has been plenty of time for life to have appeared and evolved elsewhere? A) the universe is very large B) the universe is very old C) the laws of physics are the same everywhere D) the building blocks of life are common 3) In the context of life in the universe, which of the following discoveries of astronomy suggests that extraterrestrial life may be constructed in a similar fashion to life on Earth? A) the universe is very large B) the universe is very old C) the laws of physics are the same everywhere D) the chemical elements that make up life on Earth are common 4) In the context of life in the universe, which of the following discoveries of astronomy suggests that the processes that formed life on Earth could have occurred elsewhere? A) the universe is very old B) the laws of physics are the same everywhere C) the universe is very large D) the chemical elements that make up life on Earth are common 5) Which of the following places the structures in our own part of the universe in order of increasing (smallest to largest) scale? A) Solar System, Local Group, Milky Way Galaxy, Local Supercluster B) Local Supercluster, Local Group, Milky Way Galaxy, Solar System C) Solar System, Milky Way Galaxy, Local Supercluster, Local Group D) Solar System, Milky Way Galaxy, Local Group, Local Supercluster 6) Approximately how many stars are there in the Milky Way galaxy? A) a few hundred million B) a few hundred thousand C) more than a hundred billion D) a trillion or more 1 7) Huge collections of stars in space containing anywhere form a few hundred million to more than a trillion stars are referred to as A) island universes B) galaxy clusters C) star clusters D) galaxies 8) The Local Group is an example of a A) galaxy cluster B) galaxy C) supercluster D) planetary system 9) Which of the following words best describes the sum total of all matter and energy that exists? A) supercluster B) universe C) multiverse D) macrocosm 10) The light-year is defined to be the A) time it takes light to travel from the Sun to the Earth B) time it takes for light to travel from the nearest star to the Earth C) distance light travels in one year in space D) average distance between the Earth and the nearest star 11) The nearest star is at a distance of 4.4 light-years. Given that light travels at 300,000 km/s in space, how far away is the nearest star in kilometers (km)? A) 4.2 1013 km B) 2.7 1015 km C) 3.0 108 km D) 9.5 1012 km 12) If the size of our solar system were scaled down to a radius of 1 kilometer, approximately how far away would the nearest stars be on this scale? A) several hundred kilometers B) several million kilometers C) several thousand kilometers D) several billion kilometers 13) If we had detected a signal from an advanced civilization in 2013 which was located at a distance of 7 light-years from the Sun, in what year was the signal actually transmitted? A) 2007 B) 2013 C) 2020 D) 2006 2 14) If we had sent a radio signal to an advanced civilization in 2006 which is located in the zeta reticuli star system approximately 39 light-years away, when would the signal arrive at its destination? A) 2006 B) 2051 C) 2039 D) 2045 15) If we had sent a radio signal to an advanced civilization in 2006 which is located in the zeta reticuli star system approximately 39 light-years away and the signal was immediately replied to, when would the reply arrive back at Earth? A) 2084 B) 2012 C) 2045 D) 2039 16) Due to the vast scale of the universe, when we observe a star in the night sky, we are seeing it A) not as it is now, but as it will be in the future B) as it was at the moment the universe formed C) as it is right now D) not as it is now, but as it was in the past 17) Approximately how long does it take light to travel across the diameter of the Milky Way? A) 27,000 years B) 100,000 years C) 200,000 years D) 1 million years 18) Most of the mass of the Milky Way is in the form of A) stars B) gas clouds C) black holes D) dark matter 19) Most of the mass of the universe is in the form of A) stars B) gas clouds C) black holes D) dark matter 20) The mysterious component if the universe which appears to be pushing galaxies apart is referred to as A) dark energy B) anti-gravity C) dark matter D) inflation 3 21) Ordinary matter in the form stars and planet makes up approximately what proportion of the total mass and energy in the universe? A) about 70 percent B) a few percent C) about 25 percent D) nearly a 100 percent 22) According to current theories, the universe appears to be made A) of dark matter B) of dark energy C) mostly of ordinary matter in the form of stars and galaxies D) of an equal mixture of dark matter and dark energy 23) Telescopic observations of distant galaxies have shown that the universe is A) expanding B) contracting C) static and unchanging D) infinite in size 24) The point in time when the expansion of the universe began is referred to the A) big crunch B) cosmic detonation event C) big bang D) big blowup 25) According to current astronomical data, approximately how old is the universe? A) 65 million years B) 6000 years C) 4.6 billion years D) 14 billion years 26) The strongest piece of evidence that supports the Big Bang is the A) fact that the universe is expanding B) detection of dark matter in galaxies C) fact that stars have finite lifetimes D) detection of the cosmic microwave background radiation left over from the formation of the universe 27) The Big Bang predicts that after the universe was born it A) consisted of an equal mixture of all the chemical elements B) was completely empty C) consisted of mostly hydrogen and helium D) consisted of mostly carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen 4 28) The expansion of the universe is due to the A) motion of galaxies through space B) expansion of space within galaxies C) expansion of stars within galaxies D) expansion of space between galaxies 29) If we compress the entire history of the into one year, each month represents A) about a billion years B) a few tens of millions of years C) a few hundred years D) a few million years 30) If we compress the entire history of the universe into one year, each day represents A) about a billion years B) a few tens of millions of years C) a few hundred years D) a few million years 31) When we make an observation of a distant galaxy 10 billion light-years away, we are seeing this galaxy as it A) is right now B) was when the universe was only 10 billion years old C) was when the universe was formed D) will be in 10 billion year's time 32) The part of the universe we can see is referred to as the A) observable universe B) Milky Way C) entire universe D) multiverse 33) We are located at the A) edge of our entire universe B) center of our observable universe C) edge of our observable universe D) center of our entire universe 34) Due to the incredible size of the universe, our search for extraterrestrial life will probably be limited to within our A) Local Group of galaxies B) Local Supercluster of galaxies C) Milky Way galaxy D) solar system 5 35) Which subatomic particle or particles is/are found in the nucleus of an atom? A) protons and neutrons B) protons only C) neutrons and electrons D) electrons and protons 36) Which subatomic particle or particles have no charge? A) electrons and neutrons B) all subatomic particles have no charge C) neutrons only D) neutrons and protons 37) Atoms are held together by A) the electrostatic force of attraction between the protons in the nucleus and the surrounding electrons B) the combined electrostatic force of attraction between the protons and neutrons in the nucleus and the surrounding electrons C) the force of gravitational attraction between the protons in the nucleus and the surrounding electrons D) the electrostatic force of attraction between the neutrons in the nucleus and the surrounding electrons 38) The number of protons in the nucleus of an tom is referred to as its A) atomic mass number B) average atomic mass C) proton number D) atomic number 39) The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus of an tom is referred to as its A) atomic mass number B) average atomic mass C) proton number D) atomic number 40) An isotope of the element Manganese (Mn) has an atomic number of 25 and a mass number of 55. Assuming the atom is neutral, this means it has A) 55 protons, 55 electrons, and 25 neutrons B) 25 protons, 25 electrons, and 30 neutrons C) 25 protons, 30 electrons, and 25 neutrons D) 25 protons, 25 electrons, and 55 neutrons 55-25=30 41) How many electrons are present in the ion of the isotope of oxygen, 18O3- if oxygen has an atomic number of 8? A) 18 B) 5 C) 8 D) 11 6 42) Isotopes have the same number of A) protons and neutrons B) protons but a different number of electrons C) neutrons but a different number of protons D) protons but a different number of neutrons 43) Compared to its neutral atom, an ion has the same number of A) protons and neutrons B) protons but a different number of neutrons C) protons but a different number of electrons D) neutrons but a different number of protons 44) What kind of energy does gasoline possess? A) mechanical B) kinetic C) potential D) radiative 45) The energy content of matter itself which was discovered by Albert Einstein in his Special Theory of Relativity is called A) thermal energy B) radiative energy C) mass-energy D) kinetic energy 46) The energy associated with random atomic and molecular motion is known as A) thermal energy B) radiative energy C) mass-energy D) potential energy 47) Visible light is an example of A) a compression wave B) an electromagnetic wave C) a seismic wave D) a gravitational wave 48) Electromagnetic radiation has the properties of A) waves only B) particles only C) neither waves or particles D) both waves and particles 49) The distance between adjacent peaks of an electromagnetic wave is referred to as its A) speed B) frequency C) energy D) wavelength 7 50) The number of vibrations per second of an electromagnetic wave is referred to as its A) energy B) frequency C) speed D) wavelength 51) How does the speed (in a vacuum) of a high-frequency electromagnetic wave compare with a low-frequency electromagnetic wave? A) the lower-frequency wave has the higher speed because speed is inversely related to frequency B) the two waves have the same speed because the speed of light is constant C) the lower-frequency wave has the higher speed because it has the longest wavelength D) the higher-frequency wave has the higher speed 52) How does the wavelength (in a vacuum) of a high-frequency electromagnetic wave compare with a low-frequency electromagnetic wave? A) it is impossible to tell because frequency and wavelength are not related B) the lower-frequency wave has the longer wavelength because frequency and wavelength are inversely proportional to each other C) the two waves have the same wavelength because the wavelengths of all electromagnetic waves are the same D) the higher-frequency wave has the longer wavelength because frequency and wavelength are directly proportional to each other 53) Photon A has a higher energy than photon B. Given this information, which of the following statements is true? A) Photon A has a longer wavelength than photon B B) Photon A travels faster in a vacuum than photon B C) Photon A has a higher frequency than photon B D) Photon A has a lower frequency than photon B 54) Which of the following sequence of electromagnetic radiations is in order of increasing wavelength? A) radio, infrared, UV, gamma ray B) gamma ray, UV, radio, microwave C) X-ray, visible, infrared, radio D) UV, infrared, visible, microwave 55) Human beings mostly emit which kind of electromagnetic radiation? A) ultraviolet B) visible C) microwave D) infrared 8 56) The nuclei of radioactive isotopes can sometimes give off A) visible radiation B) UV rays C) gamma rays D) X-rays 57) The longest wavelength electromagnetic radiation is A) radio waves B) gamma rays C) microwaves D) infrared 58) When electromagnetic radiation is destroyed it is said to be A) refracted B) absorbed C) reflected D) emitted 59) When electromagnetic radiation is created it is said to be A) reflected B) emitted C) refracted D) absorbed 60) When photons of electromagnetic radiation bounce off of a surface they are said to be A) emitted B) refracted C) absorbed D) reflected 9  Chapter 4: The Habitability of Earth 1) The Earth owes its habitability primarily to A) the chemical composition of its surface B) a combination of its size and its distance from the Sun C) its size only D) its distance from the Sun only 2) Which of the following statements correctly describe the word geology? A) The study of worlds with solid surfaces B) The study of the Earth C) The study of the processes and features that shape worlds D) All of the statements describe the word geology 3) Which of the following processes is believed to have been an important source of the Earth's atmosphere? A) outgassing by volcanoes on the Earth's surface B) gas trapped from the solar nebula C) matter blasted from the surface of the Moon D) charged particles trapped from the Sun 4) Which component of Earth's geology is believed to have been largely responsible for the long- term climate stability that has allowed life to evolve? A) global magnetism B) seismic activity C) plate tectonics D) erosion and weathering 5) Which component of Earth's geology has helped to shield the Earth's atmosphere from energetic particles of solar wind from the Sun which would have gradually stripped it away into space? A) volcanism B) seismic activity C) plate tectonics D) global magnetism 6) What do we mean by the "geological record"? A) rocks from earlier periods of the Earth's history B) samples of meteorites that fell to Earth early in its history C) remains of ancient organisms preserved in rocks D) an album by the Rolling Stones 7) What do we mean by the "fossil record"? A) rocks from earlier periods of the Earth's history B) samples of meteorites that fell to Earth early in its history C) remains of ancient organisms preserved in rocks D) an album by the Rolling Stones 1 8) How are the "geological record" and the "fossil record" related? A) the geological and fossil records are completely unrelated B) the fossil record is part of the geological record C) the geological record is part of the fossil record D) the geological record and the fossil record are just different names for the same thing 9) Rocks are found on the surface of another planet which appear to have been formed from the solidification of molten lava. Given this, they are most likely to be classified as A) meteoritic B) metamorphic C) sedimentary D) igneous 10) Rocks are found on the surface of another planet which appear to have been formed at the bottom of an ancient ocean. Given this, they are most likely to be classified as A) metamorphic B) igneous C) meteoritic D) sedimentary 11) When heat and pressure are applied to a sedimentary rock it turns into A) a metamorphic rock B) a meteorite C) another sedimentary rock D) an igneous rock 12) When heat and pressure are applied to an igneous rock it turns into A) another sedimentary rock B) an igneous rock C) a meteorite D) a metamorphic rock 13) When an igneous rock is eroded and then becomes deposited at the bottom of an ocean it turns into A) a metamorphic rock B) a meteorite C) another igneous rock D) a sedimentary rock 14) When a metamorphic rock is eroded and then becomes deposited at the bottom of an ocean it turns into A) a meteorite B) an igneous rock C) a sedimentary rock D) another metamorphic rock 2 15) Mineralogical analysis of a rock can tell us A) the detailed geological history of the rock B) what the rock is made of C) when the rock formed D) the temperature and pressure conditions under which it formed 16) Chemical analysis of a rock can tell us A) when the rock formed B) the detailed geological history of the rock C) what the rock is made of D) the temperature and pressure conditions under which it formed 17) Isotopic analysis of a rock can tell us A) what the rock is made of B) the detailed geological history of the rock C) the temperature and pressure conditions under which it formed D) when the rock formed 18) The method of dating the ages of rock and fossils using isotopic abundances is referred to as A) radiometric dating B) speed dating C) dendrochronology D) radiochronology 19) A radioactive isotope is A) an unstable nucleus that gives off radio waves B) a nucleus that formed from the fusion of two other nuclei C) a stable nucleus that is formed from the fission of a large unstable nucleus D) an unstable nucleus that spontaneously breaks apart 20) In radioactive decay, the original nucleus before decay is referred to as the A) daughter isotope B) parent isotope C) mother-in-law isotope D) progenitor isotope 21) In radioactive decay, the changed nucleus after decay is referred to as the A) daughter isotope B) parent isotope C) mother-in-law isotope D) progenitor isotope 22) In alpha decay, A) a proton turns into a neutron B) a neutron turns into a proton C) a proton turns into an electron D) a helium nucleus is ejected 3 23) In beta decay, A) a neutron turns into a proton B) a helium nucleus is ejected C) a proton turns into an electron D) a proton turns into a neutron 24) A radioactive isotope with an atomic number of 92 undergoes alpha decay. What is the atomic number of the daughter nucleus? A) 93 B) 90 C) 91 D) 94 25) A radioactive isotope with an atomic number of 90 undergoes beta decay. What is the atomic number of the daughter nucleus? A) 89 B) 91 C) 92 D) 88 26) A radioactive isotope with an atomic number of 37 undergoes electron capture. What is the atomic number of the daughter nucleus? A) 35 B) 34 C) 38 D) 36 27) The radioactive isotope 226Ra (atomic number 88) decays to the isotope 222Rn (atomic number 86). What type of radioactive decay is this? A) beta decay B) electron ionization C) electron capture D) alpha decay 28) The radioactive isotope 7Be (atomic number 4) decays to the isotope 7Li (atomic number 3). What type of radioactive decay is this? A) electron capture B) beta decay C) electron ionization D) alpha decay 29) The radioactive isotope 131I (atomic number 53) decays to the isotope 131Xe (atomic number 54). What type of radioactive decay is this? A) electron capture B) electron ionization C) beta decay D) alpha decay 4 30) The geological record contains fewer older rocks than younger rocks because older rocks A) are mostly found deep within the Earth B) have been transformed by life processes that have occurred inside them C) have been destroyed by geological processes like plate tectonics and erosion D) have been destroyed by recent meteorite impacts 31) Fossils typically contain little or no organic matter because A) the organic matter has been destroyed when the rock containing the fossil was melted deep within the Earth's crust B) over time inorganic minerals have gradually replaced the organic matter C) the organic matter has radioactively decayed into inorganic matter D) ancient organisms contained little organic matter 32) Although fossils can be made in numerous ways, only a tiny fraction of living organisms leave behind any kind of fossil remnant because A) most minerals that replace organic material are soluble in water and so dissolve away B) the vast majority of dead organisms decay long before any mineral replacement can occur C) the organic material is destroyed by radioactivity D) they are destroyed by geological processes before mineral replacement can occur 33) The division of the geological history of the Earth into sets of distinct intervals is referred to as the geological A) time scale B) record C) spectrum D) ladder 34) The Earth's geological time scale is divided into four main A) epochs B) periods C) eras D) eons 35) The Earth's geological history is divided into how many eons? A) 4 B) 1 C) 3 D) 2 36) In which eon of Earth's history did the heavy bombardment occur? A) Hadean B) Archean C) Phanerozoic D) Proterozoic 5 37) At the start of which eon of Earth's history do we find the earliest evidence of life? A) Phanerozoic B) Proterozoic C) Archean D) Hadean 38) In which eon of Earth's history did life originate? A) Proterozoic B) Phanerozoic C) Archean D) Hadean 39) In which eon of Earth's history did dinosaurs and mammals first appear? A) Hadean B) Archean C) Phanerozoic D) Proterozoic 40) The Phanerozoic eon is divided into three main A) epochs B) periods C) eras D) ages 41) Geological eras are subdivided into A) eons B) periods C) epochs D) ages 42) The earliest geological period in the Phanerozoic eon was the A) Cambrian B) Triassic C) Tertiary D) Permian 43) In the geology, the term "Precambrian" refers to A) the eon immediately preceding the Phanerozoic eon B) all eons preceding the Phanerozoic eon C) the eon immediately preceding the Proterozoic eon D) all eons preceding the Proterozoic eon 6 44) The oldest intact rocks found on Earth date back to approximately A) 4.57 billion years ago B) 3.85 billion years ago C) 4.38 billion years ago D) 4.02 billion years ago 45) Tiny grains of zirconium silicate (zircons) found embedded in sedimentary rocks have been radiometrically dated to what age? A) 4.57 billion years ago B) 3.85 billion years ago C) 4.38 billion years ago D) 4.02 billion years ago 46) An estimate of the minimum age of the solar system can made by measuring the ages of A) zircon crystals B) meteorites C) comets D) asteroids 47) Isotopic analysis of meteorites suggests the Earth and the rest of the solar system formed A) 3.85 billion years ago B) 4.57 billion years ago C) 4.38 billion years ago D) 4.02 billion years ago 48) What do we currently believe was the main source of the Earth's oceans and atmosphere? A) impacts by icy planetesimals B) outgassing by volcanoes C) material directly accreted from the solar nebula D) melting and vaporization of polar glaciers 49) The composition of the early atmosphere of the Earth was dominated by A) hydrogen (H2) B) nitrogen (N2) C) carbon dioxide (CO2) D) oxygen (O2) 50) The first few hundred million years of the solar system's history is referred to as the A) heavy bombardment B) big bang C) Hadean eon D) early pelting 7 51) Most of the craters on the highlands of the Moon were formed A) approximately 65 million years ago B) at the end of the Hadean eon approximately 3.85 billion years ago C) fairly recently during the last million years or so D) during the period of early bombardment constituting the first few hundred million years of the Earth's history 52) Given the Earth's larger size and strong gravity, the Earth's surface should have more impact craters than the Moon. However, it has very few. Why is this? A) the Moon acted like a shield, protecting the Earth from most impacts B) the Earth's surface was almost completely molten during the Hadean Eon so no impact craters were formed C) almost all impacts occurred in the oceans so no impact craters were formed D) geological processes like plate tectonics, volcanism, and erosion have erased them 53) Analysis of rocks returned from the lunar maria during the Apollo program suggest they formed A) during the period of early bombardment constituting the first few hundred million years of the Earth's history B) fairly recently during the last million years or so C) roughly 65 million years ago D) between 3.9 and 3.0 billion years ago 54) Which of the following geological processes has shaped the surface of the Earth? A) plate tectonics B) volcanism C) erosion D) all of these 55) Geological processes on the Earth's surface are directly related to A) the reflectivity of its surface B) the composition of its atmosphere C) the rate of impacts D) internal heat 56) One observation that suggests that the Earth has a dense central core is that A) the Earth has plate tectonics B) surface rocks have the same density as the overall density of the planet C) surface rocks have a lower density than overall density of the planet D) surface rocks have a higher density than the overall density of the planet Answer: C 57) The internal structure of the Earth is investigated mainly by A) studying seismic waves generated from earthquakes B) deep drilling C) remote sensing satellites D) measuring changes in the Earth's magnetic field 8  CHAPTER 5 THE NATURE OF LIFE ON EARTH 1) What can be said about the presence of order in living organisms? A) it is a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition for life B) it is a sufficient condition, but not a necessary condition for life C) it is both a necessary condition and a sufficient condition for life D) it is neither a necessary condition nor a sufficient condition for life 2) Bacteria reproduce by the process of cell division. This kind of reproduction is referred to as A) sexual B) unsexual C) asexual D) agamic 3) All organisms have finite lifetimes and eventually die. Which of the basic characteristics of life corrects for this? A) energy utilization B) response to the environment C) evolutionary adaptation D) reproduction 4) A mule is an example of an exception to which of the fundamental characteristics of life? A) response to environment─mules cannot respond to changing environmental conditions and that is why they are stubborn B) evolutionary adaptation─because mules are sterile they cannot evolve and adapt C) growth and development-mules being sterile do not grow and develop like other life forms D) reproduction─a mule is sterile and cannot reproduce even though it is the product of reproduction between two closely related animals (a horse and a donkey) 5) Traits passed from parents to offspring are referred to by biologists as A) inheritance B) heredity C) adaptation D) heraldry 6) The property of growth and development appears to be A) a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition for life B) a sufficient condition, but not a necessary condition for life C) both a necessary condition and a sufficient condition for life D) neither a necessary condition nor a sufficient condition for life 7) Nearly all life on Earth passes on its heredity using A) lipids B) RNA C) DNA D) proteins 1 8) Energy utilization appears to be A) a sufficient condition, but not a necessary condition for life B) both a necessary condition and a sufficient condition for life C) neither a necessary condition nor a sufficient condition for life D) a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition for life 9) Energy utilization in living organisms is A) one of the most basic requirements of life, without which organisms could not maintain order, grow, and reproduce B) only important for organisms like plants which receive their energy directly from the Sun C) neither a necessary nor a sufficient condition for life D) not important for organisms that have adapted to survive extremely low temperatures (psychrophiles) 10) The second law of thermodynamics states that A) energy cannot be created or destroyed B) matter cannot be crated or destroyed C) the energy in a system undergoes changes that lead to increasing disorder D) the energy in a system undergoes changes that lead to increasing complexity 11) The property of response to the environment appears to be A) a necessary condition, but not a sufficient condition for life B) a sufficient condition, but not a necessary condition for life C) both a necessary condition and a sufficient condition for life D) neither a necessary condition nor a sufficient condition for life 12) When humans get hot, they sweat in order to reduce their body temperature. Which of the key properties of life is this an example of? A) growth and development B) reproduction C) response to environment D) order 13) When humans get cold, they shiver in order to increase their body temperature. Which of the key properties of life is this an example of? A) growth and development B) reproduction C) order D) response to environment 14) Species are groups of organisms A) with a common ancestor B) that are genetically distinct C) that look similar D) that are capable of interbreeding with one another 2 15) Humans are scientifically classified as Homo sapiens. In this system, the word Homo refers to the A) family B) genus C) order D) species 16) Humans are scientifically classified as Homo sapiens. In this system, the word sapiens refers to the A) genus B) species C) order D) family 17) Of the six basic properties of life, biologists consider the most fundamental to be A) response to environment B) reproduction C) order D) evolutionary adaptation 18) The first person to introduce the concept of evolution was the A) English scientist Charles Darwin B) Greek scientist Anaximander C) American scientist Stephen Jay Gould D) the French scientist Jean Baptiste Lamarck 19) What is the main factor that drives Darwinian evolution? A) the competition for finite resources B) the need to have sex C) the ability of an organism to harness the energy of the Sun D) the size of an organism 20) According to Darwin, in the struggle for survival, those individuals whose traits best enable them to survive and reproduce will, on average, leave the largest number of offspring that in turn survive to reproduce. This is the basic idea behind his theory of A) natural selection B) creationism C) differential evolution D) artificial selection 3 21) The different species of finches found on the Galapagos islands are evidence of Darwin's theory of natural selection because A) all species are competing for the same resources B) they are capable of interbreeding with each other C) they have all evolved adaptations from a common ancestor to suit the environmental conditions found on different islands D) some species are more successful than others 22) Evolutionary adaptations are related to changes that occur through time in A) lipids B) carbohydrates C) proteins D) DNA 23) What is the unifying theme of all modern biology? A) zoology B) ecology C) evolution D) biochemistry 24) The most basic definition of life which takes account of the relative importance of the six fundamental properties of living things is that life is something that can A) grow and develop B) respond to environmental changes C) utilize energy D) reproduce and evolve through natural selection 25) Most likely, before biological evolution there was A) chemical evolution B) physical evolution C) geological evolution D) no evolution of any kind 26) The basic biological structures of life on Earth are called A) cells B) bacteria C) molecules D) atoms 27) The walls of cells are referred to by biologists as A) linings B) coats C) shells D) membranes 4 28) The fact that all cells used in life on Earth are based on the same biochemistry suggests that A) life originated from a variety of sources B) life on Earth was created by some omnipotent being C) all life on Earth shares a common ancestor D) the biochemistry of life on Earth is universal 29) More than 96% of the mass of living cells are made of A) carbon and hydrogen B) carbon C) carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen D) hydrogen and oxygen 30) Which is the MOST important property of the element carbon that makes it ideal as a fundamental building block of biological molecules? A) it is a very stable element B) it is the only element capable of bonding to itself C) it is a common element D) it readily forms chemical bonds with itself and other elements, allowing a wide variety of complex molecules to form 31) What is the maximum number of atoms that carbon can bond to? A) 4 B) 2 C) 3 D) 1 32) Chemists refer to molecules containing carbon atoms as A) carbonic B) organic C) carbonaceous D) inorganic 33) Simple molecules containing only carbon and hydrogen are referred to as A) carbon hydrides B) hydrocarbons C) carbohydrides D) hydrogen carbides 34) Why might we think that silicon would be an obvious alternative to carbon as a building block for biological molecules? A) it forms the basis of some life forms on Earth B) it has a similar abundance on Earth to carbon C) it forms complex molecules like carbon D) it has a similar electronic structure to carbon, forming a maximum of four bonds and, hence, should have a similar chemistry 5 35) Silicon forms its strongest chemical bonds with A) itself B) carbon C) oxygen D) hydrogen 36) Which is NOT a reason that silicon is unsuitable as a building block for life compared to carbon? A) silicon—silicon bonds are much weaker than carbon—carbon bonds B) silicon does not form multiple bonds with itself, limiting the complexity of molecules it can form C) silicon does not bond with many other elements D) silicon dioxide is a high melting point solid and, hence, cannot be used to transfer silicon atoms like gaseous carbon dioxide can be used to transport carbon atoms 37) What is the MOST important role that carbohydrates play in living organisms on Earth? A) long-term energy storage and cell structure B) information storage C) basic functioning of living organisms D) short-term energy storage 38) What is the MOST important role that nucleic acids play in living organisms on Earth? A) long-term energy storage and cell structure B) basic functioning of living organisms C) the storage and transfer of information D) short-term energy storage 39) What is the MOST important role that lipids play in living organisms on Earth? A) basic functioning of living organisms B) long-term energy storage and cell structure C) short-term energy storage D) information storage 40) What is the MOST important role that proteins play in living organisms on Earth? A) basic functioning of living organisms B) short-term energy storage C) information storage D) long-term energy storage and cell structure 41) Lipids are more commonly known as A) enzymes B) sugars C) fats D) organic acids 6 42) Enzymes are catalysts which means that they A) speed up biochemical reactions which would normally occur too slowly B) slow down biochemical reactions which would normally occur too quickly C) prevent unwanted biochemical reaction occurring D) destroy harmful chemical species 43) Perhaps the most fundamental role that enzymes play in living cells is A) attacking foreign bodies like bacteria and viruses B) carrying oxygen across cell membranes C) facilitating the replication of DNA and the reading of the genetic code D) the breaking down of more complex molecules 44) The basic molecular building blocks of proteins are A) nucleotides B) fatty acids C) amino acids D) monosaccharides 45) Which of the following observations is consistent with the hypothesis that all life on Earth has a common ancestor? A) different organisms use the same set of amino acids B) different organisms use different sets of amino acids C) all proteins are made of amino acids D) some organisms don't use amino acids at all 46) Organisms whose cells lack a nucleus are called A) prokaryotes B) eukaryotes C) non-nucleotes D) karyokes 47) Eukaryotes A) are made of two cells fused together B) are all unicellular C) can be unicellular or multicellular D) are all multicellular 48) Bacteria are examples of A) unicellular prokaryotes B) unicellular eukaryotes C) multicellular eukaryotes D) multicellular prokaryotes 7 49) An amoeba is an example of a A) multicellular prokaryote B) multicellular eukaryote C) unicellular prokaryote D) unicellular eukaryote 50) Human beings are examples of A) multicellular eukaryotes B) unicellular prokaryotes C) unicellular eukaryotes D) multicellular prokaryotes 51) The most numerous life on Earth is A) insects B) plants C) human beings D) microbes 52) The tree of life A) traces back the evolution of all mammals to a common ancestor B) classifies organisms according to their physical appearance C) illustrates the biochemical and genetic relationships between the different domains of life D) is a name for the first organism from which all life originated 53) In the tree of life A) animals are members of the domain Eukarya, while plants are members of the domain Archaea B) animals are members of the domain Archaea, while plants are members of the domain Eukarya C) both plants and animals are members of the domain Archaea D) both plants and animals are members of the domain Eukarya 54) Branch lengths in the tree of life are a measure of the A) rate of evolution between different species B) size difference between species C) life expectancy difference between species D) amount of genetic difference between different species 56) At the root of the tree of life A) is the common ancestor of all life on Earth B) is the common ancestor of all mammals C) are viruses D) are human beings 8 57) Metabolism is a term that describes the A) breaking down of complex organic molecules by bacteria B) rate at which molecules travel across cell membranes C) chemical processes that occur inside cells D) rate of cell division of bacteria 58) All living cells use the molecule adenosine triphosphate (ATP) A) to carry oxygen into cells B) to catalyze biochemical reactions C) as a building block for nucleic acids D) to store and release energy for biochemical processes 59) The basic requirement for metabolism inside cells is A) a source of carbon and a source of energy B) a source of carbon only C) a source of energy only D) the presence of ATP 60) A chemoheterotroph gets is energy from A) chemical reactions and its carbon from its environment B) the Sun and its carbon from its environment C) chemical reactions and its carbon from other organisms D) the Sun and its carbon from other organisms 61) A photoheterotroph gets its energy from A) chemical reactions and its carbon from other organisms B) the Sun and its carbon from other organisms C) the Sun and its carbon from its environment D) chemical reactions and its carbon from its environment 62) A photoautotroph gets its energy from A) the Sun and its carbon from other organisms B) chemical reactions and its carbon from other organisms C) chemical reactions and its carbon from its environment D) the Sun and its carbon from the its environment 63) A chemoautotroph gets its energy from A) chemical reactions and its carbon from its environment B) the Sun and its carbon from other organisms C) chemical reactions and its carbon from other organisms D) the Sun and its carbon from its environment 9 64) Plants get their energy directly from the Sun and their carbon from the atmosphere. Given this, they can be classified metabolically as A) photoheterotrophs B) chemoheterotrophs C) chemoautotrophs D) photoautotrophs 65) Life on Earth can use a variety of different carbon and energy sources. However, the one thing that no organism on Earth can survive without is A) water in any form: solid, liquid, or gas B) oxygen C) a liquid solvent of any kind D) liquid water 66) The search for Earth-like extraterrestrial life is essentially a search for A) energy B) liquid water C) oxygen D) carbon 67) The two strands making up the double helix of DNA are said to be A) paired B) corresponding C) matching D) complementary 68) DNA is copied via a process called A) imitation B) reproduction C) replication D) duplication 69) A section of DNA that corresponds to a particular protein is known as a A) codon B) chromosome C) gene D) genome 70) The complete set of genetic information that makes up an organism is known as a A) genome B) codon C) chromosome D) gene 10 71) How is RNA different from DNA? A) its monomers do not contain nucleotide bases B) it is single stranded rather than consisting of a double helix C) it consists of a triple helix rather than a double helix D) its strands are much longer than DNA 72) Any change in the base sequence of an organism's DNA is referred to as a A) malformation B) transmutation C) distortion D) mutation 73) At a molecular level, evolution proceeds via a process of A) transcription B) translation C) replication D) mutation 74) One of the most remarkable discoveries by biologists over recent decades is that life can A) survive in an astonishing variety of environments B) only exist in a very narrow range of environments C) only exist under conditions that exist on Earth D) survive in any and every environment, however harsh 75) Organisms which have evolved to survive under severe environmental conditions are referred to as A) tortuophiles B) acutophiles C) extremophiles D) extremophobes 76) Organisms that are found living close to volcanic vents on the ocean floor are referred to as A) calorophiles B) hypothermaphiles C) thermophiles D) psychrophiles 77) Organisms that are found living kilometers beneath Earth's crust are referred to as A) asthenophiles B) magmaphiles C) sublithophiles D) endoliths 78) Organisms that can survive at very low temperatures are referred to as A) frostophiles B) freezophiles C) hypothermaphiles D) psychrophiles 11 79) The discovery of extremophiles on Earth suggests that A) life elsewhere will only be found under conditions that are similar to those of Earth B) life elsewhere will only be possible over a much narrower range of conditions than initially thought C) life elsewhere may be possible over a much wider range of conditions than initially thought D) extraterrestrial life will exist only under extreme conditions 80) The theory of evolution satisfies the standards of science because it is A) able to explain the geological record and the observed relationship among species B) has enabled the development and testing of models C) has made predictions which were testable D) all of these are true 12  CHAPTER 6 THE ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION OF LIFE ON EARTH 1) Why have studies of the geological record not enabled us to determine how life on Earth originated? A) the first living organisms would have left absolutely no trace of their existence B) life was planted on the Earth by an advanced civilization so there is no evidence in the geological record to find C) the geological record does not extend back to the time that life originated D) the oldest rocks are too deep inside the Earth for us to retrieve 2) The first life to originate on Earth must be A) at least as old as the oldest fossils B) exactly the same age as the oldest fossils C) younger than the oldest fossils D) much older than the oldest fossils 3) Stromatolites are A) fossils of the first organisms to introduce oxygen into the atmosphere B) fossils of the first multicellular organisms C) layers of sediment that once contained colonies of ancient microbes D) fossils of the first eukaryotes 4) Stromatolites date back to approximately A) 4.6 billion years ago B) 3.5 billion years ago C) 3.85 billion years ago D) 4.0 billion years ago 5) Modern day living stromatolites which resemble ancient stromatolites very closely have been found in A) the Yucatan peninsula, Mexico B) South West Greenland C) Western Australia D) Yellowstone National Park, U.S.A. 6) Microfossils are A) fossilized microbes B) the remains of very small dinosaurs C) the remains of the very first multicellular organisms D) the remains of the tiny organisms which were first to colonize onto land 7) Why is the claim of the discovery of microfossils controversial? A) they are found in rocks from the Hadean Eon B) it is not clear whether they are of biological or mineral origin C) the rocks they are found in are probably contaminated by terrestrial bacteria D) they are too small to be of biological origin 1 8) Currently, the strongest evidence for microfossils dates to approximately A) 4.0 billion years ago B) 3.5 billion years ago C) 3.4 billion years ago D) 3.9 billion years ago 9) Microfossils found in northwestern Australia in 2011 appear to have been A) photoheterotrophs B) chemoheterotrophs C) photoautotrophs D) chemoautotrophs 10) Microfossil evidence suggests that life A) originated when the Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago B) originated about 3.4 billion years ago C) existed 3.85 billion years ago D) existed and was well established by 3.4 to 3.5 billion years ago 11) Why can studies of carbon isotopes be used to detect the presence of past biological activity in rocks? A) living organisms absorb only the most common carbon isotope B) living organisms remove all carbon from rocks C) living organisms absorb certain carbon isotopes more easily than others D) carbon isotopes are found only in living organisms 12) Where in the "Tree of Life" will current organisms be located that are most closely related to the common ancestor of all life on Earth? A) at the branch between animals and plants B) very close to the root C) at the branch between Archaea and Eukarya D) very far from the root 13) Organisms close to each other on the "Tree of Life" A) are genetically very different B) look very similar to the eye C) are genetically identical D) are genetically very similar 14) Organisms far from each other on the "Tree of Life" A) are genetically very similar B) are genetically very different C) look very similar to the eye D) are genetically identical 2 15) Life probably did not originate on the land surface because A) impacts would have destroyed any life that appeared B) water was not plentiful on land C) there was no ozone layer to shield out harmful UV rays D) organic materials were not present on the land 16) In the 19th century, Charles Darwin suggested that life may have originated A) in shallow ponds on land B) deep beneath the oceans C) beneath the surface of the Earth D) in the atmosphere 17) Current evidence suggests that life on Earth A) originated in shallow ponds on land B) was delivered from elsewhere in meteorites C) was deliberately planted by an advanced civilization D) originated close to deep-sea volcanic vents or underground 18) In order for organic molecules to have formed on the early Earth, what do we know could not have been present in the atmosphere in significant quantities? A) oxygen (O2) B) nitrogen (N2) C) carbon dioxide (CO2) D) argon (Ar) 19) In the original Miller—Urey experiment it was assumed that carbon and nitrogen in the early atmosphere were present as A) carbon dioxide (CO2) and nitrogen (N2) B) carbonates (CO3-) and nitrates (NO3-) C) methane (CH4) and ammonia (NH3) D) carbon and nitrogen atoms 20) Which of the following was an important source of prebiotic molecules (e.g., amino acids) on the early Earth? A) molecules produced on the surface by impacts B) molecules produced by chemical reactions near deep-sea ocean vents C) molecules transported to the surface by impacts D) all of these 21) The transition from chemistry to biology occurred A) gradually in a number of distinct steps B) very quickly in in one single step C) very quickly in a number of distinct steps D) gradually in one single step 3 22) The first self-replicating molecule was probably A) a simple carbohydrate B) DNA C) a simple protein D) RNA 23) What is the "chicken-and-egg" type problem we face when trying to decide which came first–proteins or nucleic acids? A) proteins and nucleic acids probably looked very different before the origin of life B) nucleic acids cannot replicate without proteins, and proteins cannot be made without nucleic acids C) early proteins and nucleic acids were very similar to each other D) proteins and nucleic acids are always present together at the same time 24) Why do we think that RNA was probably the first self-replicating molecule? A) it is able to replicate at high temperatures found near deep-sea ocean vents B) it is much simpler than DNA C) in laboratory studies researchers have shown that it is able to catalyze its own replication D) it is able to replicate using carbohydrates rather than proteins 25) RNA catalysts in cells are referred to as A) enzymes B) ribozymes C) ribosomes D) chemzymes 26) Why do we think that DNA was probably NOT the first self-replicating molecule? A) it is able to replicate using carbohydrates rather than proteins B) it is far to complex to have been the first self-replicating molecule C) it is able to replicate at high temperatures found near deep ocean vents D) laboratory have shown that it is able to catalyze its own replication 27) The first molecules of RNA were probably made A) on the surfaces of clays or other minerals B) deep within the earth C) in the atmosphere D) in space and then transported to the Earth in meteorites 28) Why are clay surfaces good at promoting the formation of biological polymers? A) they are the only types of material monomers will stick to B) they bring monomers close together, allowing them to react with each other C) they are very common on the Earth D) clays are made of biological polymers 4 29) What is one reason that early life formed cells? A) only cells can replicate B) cell walls prevent heat from escaping C) cells help to protect fragile biological molecules from the outside environment D) biological reactions can occur only within cells 30) One type of early protocell (pre-cells) probably consisted of small droplets of A) water B) clay C) concentrated amino acids D) nucleic acids 31) One type of early protocell (pre-cells) probably consisted of small droplets of A) water B) clay C) lipids D) nucleic acids 32) What was one reason that RNA was eventually replaced by DNA as the molecule of choice for storing genetic information? A) the bases that make up DNA became much more common B) DNA is far more stable than RNA C) DNA can catalyze its own replication D) the double helix of DNA is better able to correct errors in replication 33) One theory for the origin of life suggests that life was transported to Earth in meteorites. This is referred to as A) naturism B) intelligent design C) panspermia D) chemical evolution 34) For microbes to survive the journey in a meteorite from another solar system body to the Earth they would have to survive the A) impact that blasted the rock off of the surface of its home world B) high energy particles and radiation in space C) entry through our atmosphere D) all of these 35) One theory for the origin of life suggests that life formed spontaneously from increasingly complex chemical reactions on the Earth. This is referred to as A) intelligent design B) naturism C) panspermia D) chemical evolution 5 36) Based on current scientific evidence, the theory that has been most successful at explaining the origin of life on Earth is A) naturism B) panspermia C) intelligent design D) chemical evolution 37) Why is the chemical evolution model preferred by scientists over other theories for the origin of life on Earth? A) it is the theory that best fits the available data B) because we have been able to create Life in the laboratory C) because it was written down in ancient scriptures D) because the other theories have been shown to be incorrect 6  CHAPTER 7 SEARCHING FOR LIFE IN OUR SOLAR SYSTEM 1) If life does indeed exist elsewhere in our solar system it will most likely take the form of A) human beings B) plants C) birds D) microbes or other simple life 2) Habitability generally refers to an environment capable of sustaining A) human life B) plant life C) microbial life only D) any kind of life 3) The necessary chemical elements of life should A) only be found on the Earth and Mars B) be widespread in the solar system but not elsewhere in our Milky Way galaxy C) be widespread throughout the universe D) be widespread in our Milky Way galaxy but not in other galaxies 4) Given that organic molecules need to react in order to produce life, this suggests we should search for worlds in the solar system that have A) either an atmosphere, or a surface or subsurface liquid medium such as water, or both. B) organic molecules on their surfaces C) an atmosphere D) rocky surfaces 5) Photosynthetic life existing on a planet farther from the Sun than the Earth would most likely be A) smaller, less efficient at collecting solar radiation or have a faster metabolism than photosynthetic life on Earth B) identical to photosynthetic life on Earth C) larger, more efficient at collecting solar radiation or have a slower metabolism than photosynthetic life on Earth D) impossible 6) All of the most likely alternatives to water as a biological solvent are liquids at A) higher temperatures B) lower temperatures C) lower pressures D) similar temperatures 7) Which of the following is an advantage that liquid water has as a biological solvent compared to other alternatives? A) when it freezes it becomes less dense B) it is a liquid over a wide temperature range and remains liquid at higher temperatures C) it is able to dissolve many things D) all of these are advantages 1 8) Which one of the following properties is unique to water? A) it has a high heat capacity B) it is a good solvent C) it is a liquid over a wide temperature range D) it expands on freezing 9) If ice were denser than water, during winter lakes and ponds would A) completely freeze B) remain liquid C) freeze on the surface but remain liquid beneath D) freeze on the bottom but remain liquid at the surface 10) Which of the following alternatives to water has a wider temperature range over which it is a liquid? A) ammonia B) methanol C) methane D) ethane 11) Even though ethane (C2H6) has a liquid temperature range almost as wide as water, it is not as good a biological solvent as water because it is a liquid at A) much higher temperatures which would result in the breakdown of fragile biological molecules B) very high pressures that are unlikely to be found elsewhere C) very low pressures that are unlikely to be found elsewhere D) much lower temperatures which would result in extremely slow metabolic reactions 12) What happens to the rate of most chemical reactions as the temperature decreases? A) the rate of reaction drops rapidly B) the rate of reaction drops only slightly C) the rate of reaction increases rapidly D) the rate of reaction stays the same 13) Molecules like water in which electrons are distributed unevenly within the molecule are referred to as A) bipolar B) ionic C) charged D) polar 14) The strong forces of attraction that exist between water molecules and are responsible for many of its unique properties as a solvent are called A) dispersion forces B) ionic bonds C) hydrogen bonds D) covalent bonds 2 15) If we place living cells in a nonpolar solvent like methane or ethane, A) their membranes will thicken, preventing molecular transport across the membrane B) they will rapidly explode due to pressure caused by the solvent building up inside the cell C) their membranes will most likely dissolve as cell membranes are also nonpolar D) they will function in much the same way as they do in water 16) Which of the following is NOT a basic requirement for chemically based life? A) a liquid medium to transport biological molecules B) a source of molecules from which to build living cells C) oxygen from photosynthesis D) a source of energy to fuel metabolism 17) In searching for life in the solar system, which basic requirement of life is the most fundamental and the one we always look for? A) the presence of organic matter B) the presence of an energy source C) the presence of a liquid medium, most likely water D) the presence of oxygen 18) The search for life in the solar system that is similar to life on Earth is essentially a search for A) organic molecules B) liquid water C) molecular oxygen D) energy sources 19) Mercury and the Moon are probably the least-habitable bodies in the solar system because they A) are unlikely to have liquids anywhere B) have never had carbon compounds on their surfaces C) do not have atmospheres containing oxygen D) do not receive any sunlight 20) How does the surface temperature and atmospheric pressure on Venus compare with the Earth? A) higher temperatures and pressures B) lower temperatures but higher pressures C) lower temperatures and pressures D) higher temperatures but lower pressures 21) Most of the carbon dioxide on the Earth A) is dissolved in the oceans, forming carbonate rocks B) has frozen out in the polar regions C) has escaped into space D) is still present in the atmosphere Answer: A 3 22) Most of the carbon dioxide on Venus A) has frozen out in the polar regions B) is dissolved in oceans of liquid water, forming carbonate rocks C) is still present in the atmosphere D) has escaped into space 23) Venus may have been more Earth-like in the past because A) it was rotating more rapidly B) the Sun was dimmer, putting out less solar radiation C) it was not as close to the Sun D) its atmosphere was thinner 24) Although very unlikely, if life exists on Venus today, it will most likely be found A) at the center of the planet B) just beneath the surface C) on the surface D) floating high in the atmosphere 25) If life exists on Mars today, it will most likely be found A) on the surface B) at the center of the planet C) beneath the surface where liquid water may still exist D) floating high in the atmosphere 26) Mars may have been more Earth-like in the past because A) its atmosphere was thicker and warmer B) it was rotating more rapidly C) the Sun was dimmer, putting out less solar radiation D) it was not as close to the Sun 27) What would probably be the most likely source of energy for life in Jovian atmospheres? A) sunlight B) chemical reactions powered by lightning C) meteoroid impacts D) solar wind particles from the Sun 28) The biggest obstacle to life being present in the atmospheres of Jupiter and Saturn is the A) absence of liquid water in their atmospheres B) high levels of solar radiation that would destroy any biological molecules C) strong vertical wind speeds that would rapidly carry organisms into the hot interior where they would be destroyed D) very low temperatures at the tops of the clouds where water would not be liquid 29) In order for life to survive in the atmospheres of Jupiter and Saturn it would have to A) be high in the atmosphere where it could collect solar radiation B) be at the center, close to the rocky core where a rocky surface exists C) be large and buoyant, allowing it to maintain a stable altitude in the atmosphere D) float on the surface of the layer of liquid metallic hydrogen 4 30) If life exists in Uranus and Neptune, it will most likely be found A) in the oceans of liquid ices beneath the surface B) floating on the surface of a layer of liquid metallic hydrogen C) high in the atmosphere where it could collect solar radiation D) at the center, close to the rocky core where a rocky surface exists 31) Some Jovian moons may have liquid water A) beneath their surfaces B) at their centers C) on their surfaces D) in their atmospheres 32) Europa may have a subsurface ocean of liquid water due to A) the insulating properties of its icy surface B) tidal heating from Jupiter and the other Galilean moons C) internal heat left over from its formation D) tidal heating from the Sun 33) Which of the following is NOT property of a dwarf planet? A) symmetrical shape B) orbits the Sun C) intermediate in size between an asteroid and a small terrestrial planet D) irregular shape 5  CHAPTER 8 MARS 1) What color does the planet Mars appear to the naked eye in the sky? A) yellow B) white C) blue D) red 2) Who was the one of the first scientists to suggest that Mars may be inhabited? A) William Herschel B) Percival Lowell C) Giovanni Schiaparelli D) Angelo Secchi 3) The first person to claim to see linear features on the surface of Mars was A) Angelo Secchi B) Percival Lowell C) Giovanni Schiaparelli D) William Herschel 4) What did the Martian surface look like from the Viking lander sites? A) a dry, dusty, boulder-strewn desert B) a huge canyon stretching out to the horizon C) flat, dark volcanic rocks out to the horizon D) very mountainous with huge volcanoes in the distance 5) The first rover to explore Mars in 1997 was called A) Opportunity B) Spirit C) Sojourner D) Curiosity 6) Compared to the atmospheric pressure at sea level on Earth, the atmospheric pressure on Mars is A) about the same B) just slightly lower C) much higher D) much lower 7) The atmosphere of Mars is made mostly of A) nitrogen B) carbon dioxide C) hydrocarbons D) ammonia 1 8) Liquid water cannot exist for very long on the surface of Mars today because A) it gets rapidly destroyed by intense solar radiation B) its surface temperature is too high C) it rapidly reacts with the Martian surface to form peroxides D) its atmosphere is too thin 9) Seasons on Mars A) are similar to those on the Earth but are nearly twice as long B) are exactly the same at the Earth C) are more intense than on the Earth but the same length D) are similar to those on the Earth but half as long 10) Seasonal variations on Mars are due A) only to its changing distance from the Sun B) only to its axis tilt C) to changes in the amounts of energy emitted by the Sun D) both to its axis tilt and its changing distance from the Sun 11) Due to its elliptical orbit, Mars is closer to the Sun on average during summer in the Southern Hemisphere. This means Southern Summer on Mars will be A) short and hot B) long and hot C) long and mild D) short and mild 12) Due to its elliptical orbit, Mars is closer to the Sun on average during winter in the Northern Hemisphere. This means Northern Winter on Mars will be A) short and hot B) long and mild C) long and cold D) short and mild 13) Due to its elliptical orbit, Mars is farther from the Sun on average during winter in the Southern Hemisphere. This means Southern Winter on Mars will be A) long and mild B) short and hot C) long and cold D) short and mild 14) Due to its elliptical orbit, Mars is farther from the Sun on average during summer in the Northern Hemisphere. This means Northern Summer on Mars will be A) long and mild B) short and hot C) long and hot D) short and mild 2 15) The residual polar caps on Mars are made of A) carbon dioxide ice B) methane ice C) water ice D) a uniform mixture of water and carbon dioxide ices 16) The seasonal polar caps which appear and disappear with the seasons on Mars are made of A) methane ice B) carbon dioxide ice C) water ice D) a uniform mixture of water and carbon dioxide ices 17) During winter, the northern polar cap of Mars is made of A) a layer of carbon dioxide ice B) a layer of water ice C) carbon dioxide ice overlaying water ice D) water ice overlaying carbon dioxide ice 18) During summer, the northern polar cap of Mars is made of A) carbon dioxide ice overlaying water ice B) a layer of carbon dioxide ice C) a layer of water ice D) water ice overlaying carbon dioxide ice 19) Compared to the summer, the atmospheric pressure above a Martian polar cap in winter is A) lower B) about the same C) slightly higher D) much higher 20) During winter at a particular pole on Mars, some of the carbon dioxide in the atmosphere A) freezes out onto the surface B) escapes into space C) condenses into liquid on the surface D) is destroyed by ultraviolet radiation from the Sun 21) The Southern hemisphere of Mars is at A) an average elevation and is covered with impact craters B) a higher than average elevation and is relatively smooth C) a higher than average elevation and is covered with impact craters D) a lower than average elevation and is relatively smooth 22) The Northern hemisphere of Mars is at A) a higher than average elevation and is covered with impact craters B) a higher than average elevation and is relatively smooth C) an average elevation and is covered with impact craters D) a lower than average elevation and is relatively smooth 3 23) The geological history of Mars is divided into different A) eons B) eras C) periods D) epochs 24) The middle era of the geological history of Mars is called the A) Noachian B) Hesperian C) Amazonian D) Phanerozonian 25) The southern highlands of Mars date to which geological era? A) Amazonian B) Hesperian C) Cenozoic D) Noachian 26) The most important geological process that has removed craters from the northern plains of Mars is A) plate tectonics B) wind erosion C) volcanism D) water erosion 27) The most important geological process occurring on Mars today is A) water erosion B) plate tectonics C) volcanism D) wind erosion 28) The Tharsis region of Mars was most likely formed A) from sediment that piled up due to past water erosion B) by plate tectonics C) by a plume of molten mantle material rising to the surface forming a bulge D) from compressions in the Martian crust as the planet cooled and contracted 29) In the Tharsis region of Mars we find A) a huge impact basin B) heavily cratered highlands C) smooth rolling plains D) huge shield volcanoes like Olympus Mons 4 30) What is the most likely origin of the Valles Marineris on Mars? A) it is a fissure in the surface carved out by a giant impact B) it is a tectonic fracture associated with the formation of the adjacent Tharsis bulge C) it is a huge canyon system formed by water erosion D) it was formed from the separation of two tectonic plates 31) The most important factor which contributed to the thinning of the Martian atmosphere was probably the A) blasting of gas into space by impacts B) loss of the planet's protective magnetic field as it rapidly cooled C) chemical reactions with surface rocks D) formation of the polar caps 5  CHAPTER 9 LIFE ON JOVIAN MOONS 1) The first Jovian moons were discovered by A) Galileo B) Tycho C) Huygens D) Cassini 2) The Jovian moons Ganymede and Titan are A) larger than the Earth B) larger than Mercury but smaller than the Earth C) larger than the Moon but smaller than Mercury D) about the same size as Mars 3) The Jovian moons Io, Europa, Callisto and Triton are A) larger than Pluto but smaller than Mercury B) smaller than Pluto C) about the same size as Pluto D) larger than Pluto but smaller than the Moon 4) Which of the following is NOT a moon of Jupiter? A) Ganymede B) Callisto C) Titan D) Io 5) Which of the following is a moon of Neptune? A) Titan B) Triton C) Europa D) Ganymede 6) The fact that many of the larger Jovian moons orbit nearly in the equatorial plane of their host world, moving in the same direction as their planet's spin, suggest that they A) formed from a rotating disk of gas and dust like a miniature solar system B) were spun out from the rapidly spinning host world as it formed C) formed elsewhere in the solar system and were later captured D) were formed from a giant impact between the host world and another body 1 7) Many of the smallest Jovian moons are most likely A) captured asteroids and comets B) captured objects from outside the solar system C) small clumps of gas left over from the formation of the host planet D) fragments of other moons 8) What is an indication that a planetary moon may have been captured? A) it revolves in retrograde direction, opposite to the direction of planetary spin B) it has a highly elliptical orbit C) it has an orbit which is inclined to the equator of the host planet D) all of these are indications 9) The largest Jovian moon that appears to have been captured is A) Titania, the moon of Uranus B) Io, the moon of Jupiter C) Triton, the moon of Neptune D) Titan, the moon of Saturn 10) Triton, the largest moon of Neptune was probably once A) a Kuiper Belt Object B) a planet C) an asteroid D) a comet 11) Jovian moons are typically made of A) solid ice B) ice and rock C) rock and iron D) solid rock 12) Compared to the moons of Jupiter, the moons of the more distant Jovian planets A) contain a higher proportion of rock B) are made of a mixture of rock and methane ice C) contain higher overall proportions of water ice as well as methane and other ices D) are made completely of methane ice 13) Like our own moon, many Jovian moons exhibit what is called synchronous rotation. This means that they rotate at the same rate A) that their host planet rotates B) as all other moons around the host planet C) that the host planet orbits about the Sun D) that they orbit their host planet Answer: C 2 14) Which Galilean moon of Jupiter is volcanically active? A) Io B) Europa C) Ganymede D) Callisto 15) Tidal heating is not important for which of the following Galilean moons? A) Callisto B) Io C) Europa D) Ganymede 16) Europa is most likely made of A) pure water ice B) rock and water ice C) rock and iron D) pure rock 17) Which of the features is seen on the surface of Europa? A) impact craters B) giant cracks C) water ice D) all of these are seen 18) Perhaps the MOST convincing piece of evidence suggesting that Europa has a subsurface ocean is the A) fact that the magnetic field of Jupiter is able to induce a magnetic field in Europa consistent with a salty ocean beneath its crust B) fact that calculations suggest that there is enough internal heat to keep the ice melted beneath the crust C) lack of impact craters on its surface D) observation of iceberg-like features on its surface 19) Which of the three key environmental requirements for life might Europa possess? A) a source of elements and molecules from which to build living organisms B) a source of energy for metabolism and growth C) a liquid medium for transporting the molecules of life D) all of these 20) The possibility of life in a Europan ocean probably rests on the question of A) whether there is enough energy in a useful form to support biology B) whether there is enough water present C) whether there is enough raw materials to build biological molecules D) the level of salinity present 3 21) Energy to support an origin of life in a Europan ocean would probably come from A) deep-sea volcanic vents B) sunlight filtering through the ice C) meteoroid impacts on the surface D) heat generated from Jupiter's magnetic field 22) Life in the subsurface ocean of Europa will most likely consist of A) creatures similar to seals and penguins which enter the ocean through holes in the icy crust B) plants on the ocean floor C) simple single-celled organisms D) fish and other complex aquatic organisms 23) Which is the largest moon in the solar system? A) Titan B) the Earth's moon C) Ganymede D) Triton 24) Which of the following is the most convincing observation that suggests that like Europa, Ganymede may also have a subsurface ocean? A) the detection of salts on the surface that may have been brought up from below the crust B) the presence of young grooved terrain that may be the result of cryovolcanism C) the fact that it is the largest moon in the solar system and, hence, should have plenty of internal heat to maintain liquid water beneath its surface D) in addition to its internal magnetic field, Ganymede has a magnetic field induced by Jupiter which is consistent with a salty ocean beneath its crust 25) Which Galilean moons of Jupiter show evidence for subsurface oceans of water beneath their icy crusts? A) Europa and Ganymede B) all four show evidence for subsurface oceans C) Europa D) Europa, Ganymede, and Callisto 26) Which of the four Galilean moons is least likely to harbor life beneath its surface? A) Europa B) Io C) Callisto D) Ganymede 27) The most abundant component of Titan's atmosphere is A) methane B) carbon dioxide C) nitrogen D) oxygen 4 28) How is Titan, the moon of Saturn, similar to the Earth? A) like the Earth, Titan has an atmosphere made mostly of molecular nitrogen B) Titan, like the Earth, has an internal magnetic field C) like the Earth, Titan has oceans of liquid water on its surface D) Tit