APK 5133 Pathophysiology Semester Quizzes PDF

Question 1 - In the time course for recovery after injury which stage involves organization and reorganization of type 1 collagen? A.) inflammatory B.) proliferative C.) maturation/remodeling Question 2 - All of the following events occur during the proliferative phase of soft tissue repair, EXCEP...

Question 1 - In the time course for recovery after injury which stage involves organization and reorganization of type 1 collagen? A.) inflammatory B.) proliferative C.) maturation/remodeling Question 2 - All of the following events occur during the proliferative phase of soft tissue repair, EXCEPT: A.) fibrinolysis B.) platelet aggregation C. angiogenesis D. fibroplasia E. collagen synthesis Question 3 - Approximation of wound ends during wound contraction is attributed to the activity of which cell? A.) leukocyte B.) fibroblast C.) lymphocyte D.) granulocyte E.) myofibroblast Question 4 - Increased strength of type I collagen is attributed largely to an increased number of: A.) fibrin B.) calcium ions C.) blood vessels D.) neutrophils E.) interfibrillary cross links Question 5 - What is the primary stimulus for linear collagen fiber orientation? A.) mechanical loading B.) external compression C.) cryotherapy D.) Calcium ion flux E.) immobilization Question 6 - Which one of the following terms BEST characterizes an athlete who feels they have very little control over their risk for sustaining an injury and how long it will take to recovery? A.) external locus of control B.) trait anxiety C.) psychosocial deviance D.) internal locus of control Question 7 - Treating the whole person and not just the injury along with providing emotional first aid to an athlete after an injury is referred to as? A.) subliminal treatment B.) psychosocial intervention C.) Good Samaritanism D.) adjunctive therapeutic support E.) complementary and alternative therapy Question 8 - How an athlete deals with an injury is largely dependent upon which? A.) intelligence level B.) sport that the athlete participants C.) age of the athlete D.) type of pain experienced (sharp or dull) E.) coping mechanisms Question 9 - Which type of stimulus causes the majority of dull-aching and persistent pain after injury? A.) mechanical pressure from swelling B.) chemical irritation from prostaglandins C.) Thermal irritation from release of heat energy Question 10 - Localization, or determination of the anatomical origin of a pain stimulus, is primarily a function of the brain stem? A.) True B.) False Question 11 - Which white blood cell is most responsible for secondary injury following soft tissue injury? A.) Macrophage B.) Neutrophil C.) Lymphocyte D.) Monocyte E.) Mastocye Question 12 - In the time course for recovery after injury which stage involves organization and re-organization of collagen? A.) maturation/remodeling B.) proliferative C.) inflammatory Question 13 - Which one of the following chemical mediators supports platelet function during hemostasis? A.) prostaglandin B.) phospholipase C.) Histamine D.) thromboxane E.) Cyclo-oxygenase Question 14 - According to information presented in the lecture, formation of a temporary hemostatic plug (primary hemostasis) in traumatized blood vessels is due primarily to: A.) margination of white blood cells B.) clot retraction C.) formation of a fibrin clot D.) platelet aggregation E.) release of thromboplastin Question 15 - The second stage of the coagulation cascade (secondary hemostasis, or clotting, is primarily characterized by: A.) formation of a threadlike, fibrin network B.) platelet adherence and aggregation C.) conversion of prothrombin into thrombin D.) vascular contraction and vasoconstriction E.) release of tissue thromboplastin Question 16 - Which of the following most accurately characterizes the acute inflammatory stage of soft tissue healing after injury? A.) collagen synthesis B.) fibroplasia C.) angiogenesis D.) phagocytosis E.) scar maturation Question 17 - Which of the following terms is used to describe the movement of WBCs through the vascular wall as the result of increased capillary permeability? A.) aggregation B.) angiogenesis C.) transmigration​ D.) margination E.) chemotaxis Question 18 - The term "chemotaxis" is used to describe: A.) movement of WBCs through the vascular wall B.) neutralization of phagocytosis by chemical enzymes C.) irritation of free nerve ending by prostaglandins D.) chemical attraction of WBCs to injured area E.) margination of WBCs in small blood vessels Question 19 - During recovery from injury, regeneration involves replacement of damaged tissue by _ tissue while repair involves replacement of damaged tissue with tissue? A.) scar, fibrin clot B.) hbrin clot/scar C.) identical, scar D.) scar, identical E.) granulocytes, myofibroblasts Question 20 - Enzyme responsible for breaking down (degrading) fibrin clot: A.) fibrinogen B.) fibronectin C.) thromboxane D.) plasmin E.) Opsonin Question 21 - Which of the following is not involved with secondary tissue damage? A.) Fibrosis B.) Tissue Hypoxia C.) Ischemia D.) Phagocytosis Question 22 - During the last stage (3) of the coagulation cascade the clot retracts, pulls together and strengthens, this process is referred to as: A.) claudication B.) opsonization C.) diapedesis D.) hemostasis E.) syneresis Question 23 - __________ is the leakage of fluid (blood), plasma proteins and cells from a semi-permeable membrane (capillary)? A.) chemotaxis B.) arthroderma​ C.) lymphedema D.) Ischemia E.) transudation Question 24 - Transition from the acute inflammatory stage to the proliferative stage would be best characterized by which of the following: A.) deposition of type I collagen B.) chemotaxis and margination of WBCS C.) neutrophil infiltration D.) a decrease in number of fibroblasts in the affected tissues E.) degradation, or lysis, of the fibrin clot in the zone of injury Question 25 - __________ is a signal protein that stimulates the formation of new capillary beds after soft tissue injury? A.) vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) B.) fibrogenic growth factor (FGF) C.) plasmin D.) platelet derived growth factor (PDGF) E.) transforming growth factor Question 26 - Which of the following is most closely aligned with the ethical issue related to the delivery of sports medicine services to student-athletes? A.) The hiring of qualified medical personnel (e.g. ATC) B.) Having an obligation to provide sports medicine services, regardless of the cost C.) Preventing litigation due to negligence Question 26 - Which of the following athletes have unlimited access to health care? 1.​ High School 2.​ Professional (Football, Baseball, Basketball) 3.​ US Olympic 4.​ College Recreational 5.​ Varsity intercollegiate A.) 2,3 & 5 B.)1&4 C.) 3&4 Question 27 - After a certified athletic trainer (ATC) evaluates and determines that an unstable fracture of the distal fibula exists, he/she improperly. splints the affected area. As a result, the fractured bone severs the tibial artery. From a liability standpoint, this is an example of: A.) An Act of Commission B.) Malfeasance C.) Nonfeasance D.) Misfeasance E.) An Act of Omission Question 28 - What is the PRIMARY objective of the pre-participation physical examination (PPE)? A.) Gauge an athlete’s readiness for participation B.) Help athletes plan a proper diet C.) Obtain “assumption of risk waiver D.) Make athletes aware of the rules and regulations for participation E.) Obtain a psychological profile of the athletes Question 29 The MAIN objective of the primary survey is to: A.) Call EMS B.) Rule out life-threatening injuries C.) Classify injury D.) Assess limb movement E.) Perform head to toe evaluation Question 30 - _________ research tracks the distribution of sports injuries and attempts to identify causative agents or risk factors which contribute to a particular injury: A.) Observational B.) Cross-sectional C.) Case D.) Epidemiological E.) Longitudinal Question 31 - When a sports-related liability case goes to court, the plaintiff (injured athlete) is often found to be responsible for his/her injury in part, or in whole. This is known legally as: A.) Proximate or legal cause B.) Risk Management C.) Assumption of risk D.) Contributory negligence E.) “in loco parentis” Question 32 - In a court of law, negligence cannot be the verdict unless which of the following points are clearly presented: 1.​ the health care provider had a duty or obligation to act 2.​ that a "foresee ability of harm" existed 3.​ a breach of duty to act 4.​ the breach of duty caused harm to the victim 5.​ demonstration of the resulting harm or damage A.) 1,2 & 4. B.) 0 1, 2, 3 & 4 C.) 01&5 D.) 1, 3, 4 & 5 Question 33 - Taping and bracing can be used as a pro-active and retro-active injury prevention strategy? A.) True B.) False Question 34 - Compression is recommended as an adjunct to cryotherapy for treating an acute injury. What is the main reason compression is used? Increases tissue temperature A.) Provides added insulation B.) Decreases pain C.) Decrease the amount of post-injury swelling D.) Helps protect injured area Question 35 - In order to gauge the distance of an approaching thunderstorm (with lightning) athletic trainers use the A.) Flash to bang rule B.) Lighting strike index C.) Echo test D.) Florida lighting scale test Question 36 - Concerning a health care worker's approach to caring and preventing athletic injuries, the ultimate priority should be for the health and safety of the athlete. This is referred to as: A.) Professional ethics B.) Standard of care C.) Tort law D.) Legal liability Question 37 - The process of implementing training "cycles" in order to reduce the risk for injury and maximize athletic performance is known as: A.) Periodization B.) Cycle sequestration C.) Functional Overload Progression (FOP) D.) Compartmentalization Question 38 - With reference to diagnosing an injury, an athlete will display a recognizable set of signs and symptoms during examination. Signs are considered to be changes that a clinician can observe and usually measure? A.) Systemic B.) Objective C.)Subjective D.) Homeostatic E.) Diagnostic Question 39 - Which type of bone cell is responsible for the formation of the osteoid or extracellular matrix during bone growth and repair? A.) Osteoblast B.) Macrophage C.) Osteoclast D.) Fibroblast Question 40 - At what stage of fracture healing does the internal and external callus unite or bridge? A.) Remodeling B.) Hematoma C.) Soft Callus D.) Hard Callus Question 41 - Primary bone healing involves which of the following? (check all that apply) A.) callus formation at fracture site B.) longer healing time C.) rigid internal fixation D.) approximation of bone ends E.) no rigid internal fixation Question 42 - "Joints are innervated by articular branches of the nerves supplying muscles that cross the joint" is known as Law? A.) Ruffini’s B.) Smith’s C.) Placebo’s D.) Hilton’s E.) Johnson’s Question 43 - Secondary bone is best described as.....? A.) woven B.) provisional C.) compact D.) spongy E.) fiber Question 44 - In a non-union fracture, bone segments fail to re-unite during repair? A.) epiphysitis B.) avascular osteonecrosis C.) canaliculitis D.) rigid internal fixation E.) cubitus varus Question 45 - The change in length or rate of change in length of a muscle fiber is detected by which mechanoreceptor? A.) muscle spindle B.) Pacinian corpuscle ' C.) golgi tendon organ D.) Ruffini ending Question 46 - Intramembranous ossification requires the formation of a cartilage model? A.)True B.) False Question 47 - Subcortical brain regions such as the basal ganglia are responsible for planning, organizing and initiating our a voluntary movements? A.) True B.) False Question 48 - A "silver-fork" deformity can after fracture repair from a broken distal radius (wrist). This type of deformity is an example of which type of abnormal bone healing? A.) non-union B.) delayed union C.) malunion Question 49 - Post-traumatic osteoarthritis (PTOA) is a form of degenerative joint disease where wear and tear causes joint inflammation. Which of the following is most responsible for causing joint inflammation? A.) Collagen breakdown B.) Irritation of the synovial lining C.) Eburnation D.) Chondrocyte dysfunction Question 50 - During the early stages of post-traumatic osteoarthritis the articular surface will develop fine cracks or which increase in size and numbers. A.) Horn attachments B.) Synoviocytes C.) Coronary ligaments D.) Dendritic Spines E.) Fissures Question 51 - Which of the following characteristics apply to an individual with a torn major ligament (e.g.; ACL) who experiences feelings of the joint giving out (shifting and buckling) during functional activities? (check all that apply) A.) diminished neuromuscular control B.) mechanical instability C.) repetitive micro-trauma D.) functional instability Question 52 - Radial tears of the meniscus are usually repairable because they develop in the outer third region? A.) True B.) False Question 53 - During the reparative stage of fracture healing "clinical union" is associated with all of the following, except: A.) substitution of fibrocartilage with bone B.) early mineralization C.) union of the internal and external callus D.) primary or woven bone formation E.) no movement of bone segments at fracture site Question 54 - What is considered to be the basic functional unit of a muscle fiber (hint: the unit that generates tension)? A.) epimysium B.) sarcolemma C.) endomysium D.) sarcoplasmic reticulum E.) sarcomere Question 55 - Which term is used to describe intratendinous degeneration? A.) Tenosynovitis B.) Paratenonitis C.) Tendinitis D.) Tendinosis Question 56 - When tendon is stretched or elongated microfailure will begin to occur at __% strain while macrofailure will begin at ____% strain? A.) 1,4 B.) 8, 12 C.) 0 2,4 D.) 0 14,20 E.) 4,8 Question 57 - Myocitis ossificans traumatica is a condition where calcium deposits (AKA heterotopic bone formation) form within a muscle to protect it from repeated contusional forces. From a mechanistic perspective, the calcium deposits are formed because the contusional forces are causing the adjacent bone to grow a "bone stalk" which invades the muscle to protect it from trauma? A.) True B.) False Question 58 - With acute stretching (stretching before exercise), what is the evidence-based recommended frequency (cycles) and duration(s) of stretch to a muscle (e.g. hamstring) in order to achieve optimal length? A.) 3-5 cycles, 15-30s/cycle B.) 5-7 cycles, 60s/cycle C.) 10-12 cycles, 30s/cycle D.) 1 cycle, 120s/cycle E.) 5-7 cycles, 105/cycle Question 59 - Skeletal muscle regeneration is suppressed due to the overproduction of which cytokine (myokine): A.) IL-1beta1 B.) TGF-beta 1 C.) TNF-alpha D.) IGF-1 E.) IL-6 Question 60 - Decreased tension within the muscle when it is placed at a constant length is referred to as: A.) hysteresis B.) stress relaxation C.) excitation contraction coupling D.) creep Question 61 - The principle which holds that a more pronounced stretching effect can be brought about when the athlete contracts the hamstring (antagonist) isometrically and holds the stretch for 4 sec, then relaxes the hamstring and a partner applies force to further stretch the hamstring is based on the concept of A.) inhibition B.) static C.) dynamic D.) autogenic E.) reciprocal Question 62 Mild (microtraumatic) and severe (macrotraumatic) strain-induced muscle injuries occur as a consequence of concentric-overloading where the muscle over-shortens during forceful contractions? A.) True B.) False Question 63 - Chronic stretching (e.g.; yoga or low-load, prolonged stretch) is used when the goal is to hold a position anywhere between 1 minute to 6-8 hours. This type of stretching uses a low-load, prolonged stretch approach that helps therapeutically to elongate shortened or contracted tissue. This type of stretching uses a --dependent method to promote a creep response in the connective tissues. A.) position B.) time C.) equipment D.) force Question 64 - For muscle injuries (especially strain-induced muscle injuries), anti-fibrotic agents are being developed by pharmaceutical companies to specifically limit the amount of "irregular" collagen that is deposited in the area of injury to prevent the formation of scar tissue. A.) True B.) False Question 65 - Question 11 When skeletal muscle fiber is damaged ______ cells are activated and proliferate (undergo mitotic division) to form ___________ which fuse to form _________? Answer 1 Satellite Answer 2 Myoblasts Answer 3 Myotube Question 66 - Growth and repair of tendon after injury is most efficiently accomplished during rehabilitation by utilizing eccentric-overloading exercise. This process of mechanically loading tendon cells (tendocytes) to promote protein synthesis in the extra-cellular matrix is known as: A.) stress-response facilitation B.) autogenic facilitation C.) reciprocal facilitation D.) mechanotransduction Question 67 - Expanding intracranial lesions (e.g.; subdural hematoma) that are classified as 'focal' are characterized by microscopic damage primarily axonal in nature causing widespread disruption of neural function. A.) True B.) False Question 68 - Concussion research has demonstrated that loss of consciousness, and the length of time an athlete is unconscious after sustaining a cerebral concussion are most predictive of the severity of neurocognitive deficits and outcome (time it takes to recover). A.)True B.) False Question 69 - Forces to the head that cause axial rotation of the brain primarily affect which region? A.) cerebellum B.) brain stem C.) Cerebrum Question 70 - The reticular activating system located in the brain stem is responsible for which of the following? A.) visual acuity B.) emotional learning C.) consciousness D.) short-term memory E.) balance and coordination Question 71 - Second impact syndrome is characterized by all the following, EXCEPT: A.) vasoconstriction and decreased cerebral blood flow B.) 50% mortality rate C.) rapid cerebral edema D.) increased intracranial pressure E.) pupillary dilation Question 72 - Cerebro-spinal fluid (CSF) occupies what area of the meninges? A.) intra-dural B.) subarachnoid C.) supra-arachnoid D.) subdural E.) epidural Question 73 - During concussion assessment, which signs and symptoms are part of the affective domain? Choose all that headaches inability to focus attention sleep disturbances unsteadiness irritability memory and recall deficits visual impairments lack of concentration depression sensitivity to light Question 74 - The time period after a cerebral concussion when athletes are displayng residual or persistent signs and symptoms days, weeks, even months after the conussion is known as the ____ period. A. ) post-concussion B.) lucid C.) second impact D.) decerebrate E.) decorticate Question 75 - During the neurometabolic cascade after a cerebral concussion, all of the following neurophysiological processes occur within the brain, EXCEPT: A.) impaired neurotransmission B.) axonal damage and degeneration C.) increased cerebral blood flow D.) Secondary neuronal damage E.) Impaired neurometabolic function Question 76 - Head impacts in football that were recorded at or above 90G forces using hemet accelerometers (head impact telemetry system) were found to have a concussion rate of ____%? A.)10 B.) 90. C.) 25 D. )60 E.) 75 Question 77 - From a historical perspective looking back at the history of concussion assessment (then and now) which of the following was NOT considered to be a hallmark sign of concussion? A.) altered mental state B.) post-traumatic amnesia C.) double vision D.) loss of consciousness Question 78 - Currently in US tackle football (high school, college and professional) athletes who display a sign or complain of a symptom of a cerebral concussion are placed in A.) cerebral detention B.) concussion protocol C.) post concussion watch D.) cognitive time out Question 79 - Of the 111 brains that were examined in deceased NFL players, 110 were found to have advanced CTE (stage Ill or IV). 44 (40%) of the 110 brains found to have CTE played which position in football? A.) wide receiver B.) linebacker C.) quarterback D.) lineman. E.) defensive back Question 80 - During the post-mortem analysis which protein has be found in various regions of the diseased brains of deceased athletes with CTE? Alpha Mu Omega Tau Chi Question 81 - Fill in the blanks with the correct word: A cerebral concussion is a "clinical syndrome characterized by _________ and _________ impairment of neurologic function secondary to _____ forces" Answer 1 - immediate Answer 2 - transient Answer 3 - mechanical Question 82 - Sacralization occurs when the 1st vertebrae disassociates from the sacrum and becomes the 6th lumbar vertebrae? A.) True B.) False Question 83 - With reference to disc herniation, stages 3 extrusion and 4 sequestration are considered to be “complete” herniations because the annulus fibrosis is completely ruptured and the nuclear material leaks into the epidural space of the spinal canal? A.) True B.) False Question 84 - The posterior longitudinal ligament is NOT innervated and, therefore does not contribute to low back pain if damaged? A.) True B.) False Question 85 - A bilateral and displaced fracture of the pars interarticularis is referred to as which of the following: A.) Spondylolisthesis B.) Spondylosis C.) Spondylopathy D.) Spondylitis E.) Spondylolysis Question 86 - When referring to motion of the cervical and lumbar spine, each vertebrae contributes a portion to the overall movement. This is known as _____ motion? A.) Segmented B.) Spasmodic C.) Oscillatory D.) Sagittal E.) Axial Question 87 - Most brachial plexus injuries in sport fall under which category? A.) Neurotmesis B.) Neurapraxia C.) Axonotmesis Question 88 - Induced moderate controlled hypothermia applied after a suspected spinal cord injury is used for all of the following reasons, except? A.) Induce coma B.) Lower core body temperature to 92°F C.) Limit inflammation and secondary tissue damage D.) Lower tissue demand for oxygen E.) Lower metabolic rate Question 89 - Which of the following would best characterize the type of fracture to C1 (Atlas)? A.) greenstick B.) wedge C.) comminuted D.) spiral E.) teardrop Question 90 - A hangman’s fracture (C2 Axis) affects which region of the vertebrae? A.) dens (odontoid process) B.) body C.) spinous process D.) lamina E.) pedicle Question 91 - ______ was the year that the NCAA enacted a rule barring “spearing” which subsequently greatly reduced the incidence of catastrophic cerbial spine injuries? Fill in the blank - 1976 Question 92 - A brachial plexopathy most commonly affects which cervical nerve roots? A.) C1/C2 B.) C5/C6 C.) C2/C3 D.) C6/C7 E.) C7/T1 Question 93 - Spinal cord injury at which vertebral level(s) is/are considered the threshold level for retaining functional independence? A.) C7/T1 B.) C5/C6 C.) C1/C2 D.) C4/C5 E.) C2/C3 Question 94 - The most important immediate treatment goal for a cervical or lumbar sprain/strain is to do which of the following? A.) limit swelling B.) improve flexibility C.) break the pain-spasm-pain cycle D.) control inflammation E.) increase strength Question 95 - All of the following are potential causes of sciatica, except? A.) erector spinae strain B.) piriformis syndrome C.) spondylolythesis D.) herniated disc Question 96 - Which of the following fall under the “B” category according to the American Spinal Injury Association Impairment Scale? A.) Complete: No sensory or motor function is preserved below neurologic level. B.) Normal: Sensory and motor functions are normal. C.) Incomplete: Sensory and motor function is preserved below the neurologic level. Most key muscles below the neurologic level have muscle grade greater than or equal to 3. D.) Incomplete: Sensory, but not motor, function is preserved below the neurologic level. E.) Incomplete: Sensory and motor function is preserved below the neurologic level. Most key muscles below the neurologic level have muscle grade less than 3. Question 97 - What mechanism causes most catastrophic cervical spine injuries in football? A.) rotation with hyperextension B.) hyperextension C.) lateral flexion with rotation D.) axial loading E.) forward flexion with rotation Question 98 - What is the daily growth rate for regenerating axons following spinal cord injury? A.) 1 foot/day B.) 5 mm/day C.) 1 inch/day D.) 1 cm/day E.) 1 mm/day Question 99 - The ____ is the region that anchors the disc to the vertebral body and provides a means for diffusion of water and nutrients to the disc? ​ A.) ring aprophysis B.) nucleus pulposis C.) facet joint D.) lamellae E.) end-plate Question 100 - Spondylogenic conditions of the lumbar spine occur at which anatomic region? A.) transverse process B.) facet joint C.) pedicle D.) pars interarticularis E.) lamina Question 101 - A brachial plexopathy most commonly affects which cervical nerve roots? A.) C1/C2 B.) C5/C6 C.) C2/C3 D.) C6/C7 E.) C7/T1 Question 102 - Spinal cord injury at which vertebral level(s) is/are considered the threshold level for retaining functional independence? A.) C7/T1 B.) C5/C6 C.) C1/C2 D.) C4/C5 E.) C2/C3 Question 103 - The most important immediate treatment goal for a cervical or lumbar sprain/strain is to do which of the following? A.) limit swelling B.) improve flexibility C.) break the pain-spasm-pain cycle D.) control inflammation E.) increase strength Question 104 - All of the following are potential causes of sciatica, except? A.) erector spinae strain B.) piriformis syndrome C.) spondylolisthesis D.) herniated disc Question 105 - Following a spinal cord injury of the cervical spine which cells are responsible for assisting in recovery by releasing growth factors for axonal repair and regeneration: A.) chondrocytes B.) fibrocytes C.) osteoclasts D.) Schwann E.) glial Question 106 - The main difference between a pneumothorax from blunt trauma and a spontaneous pneumothorax is: A.) tracheal deviation B.) compression of uninjured, contralateral lung C.) dyspnea D.) gradual weakening of the lung tissue E.) myocardial compression Question 107 - Asymmetrical breathing is a sign of which abdomino-thoracic condition: A.) multiple rib fracture B.) costochondritis C.) pulmonary contusion D.) tension pneumothorax E.) acute appendicitis Question 108 - The development of a tension pneumothorax is a potentially life-threatening condition and involves all of the following, EXCEPT: A.) severe gastric distension B.) impaired contralateral lung function C.) tracheal deviation D.) impaired O2/CO2 gas exchange E.) impaired of heart function Question 109 - The worst case scenario for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, commotio cordis and cardiac arrhythmia syndromes is the development of ____ which quickly leads to sudden cardiac arrest. A.) dyspnea B.) chest pain C.) atrial tachycardia D.) ventricular fibrillation Question 110 - A wrestler is slammed to the mat directly on his back. He complains of point tenderness in the upper left quadrant, nausea, and a dull ache in the left shoulder. Given this history and symptoms, you would suspect and injury to the: A.) stomach B.) kidney C.) spleen D.) bladder E.) liver Question 111 - Which sign or symptoms does not apply to an athlete with an intra-abdominal hemorrhage? A.) increasing blood pressure B.) referred pain C.) increasing pulse rate D.) rigid abdomen E.) rebound tenderness Question 112 - Which of the following is FALSE when characterizing Commotion Cordis? A.) Common cause of sudden cardiac death in youth sports B.) Carries a 65% fatality rate C.) Produces significant structural damage to heart muscle D.) Caused by a direct blow to chest during ventricular repolarization E.) Disrupts normal heart rhythm Question 113 - What section of the heart is most severely impacted in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy? A.) right atrium B.) left ventricle C.) right ventricle D.) left atrium Question 114 - Damage to which internal organ causes hematuria? A.) pancreas B.) liver C.) stomach D.) kidney E.) spleen Question 115 - What is the primary reason a person with the “wind knocked out”of them cannot catch their breath? A.) their lungs are punctured B.) they are fearful of dying C.) their celiac plexus is shut down D.) their diaphragm is in spasm E.) their mouth is kept closed Question 116 - With reference to intra-abdominal injuries, dull aching pain perceived at a site unrelated to the area of injury is known clinically as ___ pain? A.) referred B.) myotomal C.) acute D.) spondylogenic E.) radicular Question 117 - A direct blow to the chest (precordial region) during the ___ segment of the cardiac cycle may cause ventricular fibrillation otherwise known as commotio cordis? A.) QT B.) ST C.) QRS D.) P wave E.) T wave Question 118 - An athlete with intra-abdominal hemorrhage may present with which of the following signs and symptoms: 1.​ Rebound tenderness 2.​ Reflex sympathetic dystrophy 3.​ Rigid abdomen 4.​ Referred pain 5.​ Increase blood pressure A.) 2 and 5 B.) 1, 3 and 4 C.) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 D.) 1, 2, 3 and 5 E.) 1 and 5 Question 119 - Match the heart condition with the best descriptor. commotio cordis - agitation of the heart hypertrophic cardiomyopathy - enlarged heart wall cardiac arrhythmia - electric defect ventricular fibrillation - racing heart Question 120 - Clavicular fractures most often occur at which section of the bone? A.) lateral third B.) medial third C.) distal tip D.) middle third Question 121 - A _____ lesion results from structural damage to the glenoid labrum. Could be more than one answer. A.) SLAP B.) Bankart C.) Hill-Sachs Question 122 - Which articulation of the shoulder complex is stabilized without ligamentous support? A.) glenohumeral B.) scapulothoracic C.) sternoclavicular D.) acromioclavicular Question 123 - All of the following are true concerning carpal tunnel syndrome, EXCEPT: A.) caused by an overuse mechanism B.) usually treated conservatively C.) involves neural impingement D.) caused by acute blunt force trauma E.) main sign/symptom is tingling/numbness into hand Question 124 - An athlete under your supervision sustains an obvious glenohumeral dislocation. From taking a basic care and prevention course which of the following would you do to manage this injury? 1.) attempt to relocate the dislocation 2.) check for any neurovascular damage 3.) perform passive range of motion tests 4.) immobilize the affected extremity 5.) if possible, apply ice to the joint SELECT EITHER: A.) 1,4 & 5 B.) 1, 2, 3 & 5 C.) 1, 3 & 5 D.) 2, 4 & 5 E.) 3, 4, & 5 Question 125 - During overhead activity such as swimming fatigue of the rotator cuff muscles can lead to subacromial impingement? A.) True B.) False Question 126 - Little league elbow is also known as group: tennis elbow, wrist extensors A.) tennis elbow, wrist extensors B.) medial epicondylitis, wrist flexors​ C.) medial epicondylitis, wrist extensors D.) lateral epicondylitis, wrist flexors E.) lateral epicondylitis, wrist extensors Question 127 - Which of the following are true concerning thoracic outlet syndrome? 1.​ caused by overuse 2.​ eccentric overload mechanism 3.​ involves compression and shear forces 4.​ causes neurovascular impingement 5.​ overstretching of the forearm flexor muscles SELECT EITHER: A.) 4 only B.) 0 2,3 & 5 C.) 3,4 & 5 D.) 1,3 & 4 E.) 2 only Question 128 - A 'chip' fracture off the head of the humeral head secondary to a glenohumeral dislocation is known as: A.) Bennett's fracture B.) Stener lesion C.) Bankart lesion D.) epicondylitis E.) Hill-Sachs lesion Question 129 - Which injury leads to an unstable 1st metacarpo-phalangeal (MCP) joint? A.) gamekeepers thumb B.) colles’ fracture C.) bennett’s fracture D.) navicular fracture E.) carpal tunnel syndrome Question 130 - Which fracture if not recognized and treated properly will likely result in a condition known as avascular necrosis? A.) bennet’s B.) scaphoid C.) hills-sachs D.) colles’ E.) radial head Question 131 - The mechanism for an elbow dislocation involves which of the following? May be multiple answers (check all that apply). A.) forced hyperextension of the elbow B.) hyperflexion with pronation C.) falling on the outstretched hand D.) valgus overloading of elbow E.) hyperflexion with supination Question 132 - The tunnel of Guyon houses which nerve? A.) radial B.) ulnar C.) median Question 133 - A Smith fracture is caused by a falling on the outstretched hand with the wrist extended? A.) True B.) False Question 134 - Which bone lies directly under the anatomical snuffbox? A.) triquetrum B.)scaphoid C.) capitate D.) lunate E.) hamate Question 135 - Mallet finger results from "jamming" the tip of the finger with a forced flexion of the distal interphalangeal joint? A.) True B.) False Question 136 - Which of the following tarsal bones plays the role of the "keystone" in the MEDIAL LONGITUDINAL arch? A.) cuboid B.) talus C.) cuneiform D.) navicular E.) calcaneus Question 137 - Immediate treatment following a severe (grade IIl) quadriceps contusion should include which of the following: (check all that apply, may be more than one answer) A.) P.R.I.C.E. with the knee positioned in flexion B.) active range of motion exercises C.) vigorous massage to induce vasodilation D.) ultrasound to break up the hematoma Question 138 - Which of the following are correct with regards to a Jones fracture? (Check all that apply, may be more than 1 answer) A.) occurs at the base of the 5th metatarsal B.) fracture line penetrates the inter-metatarsal joint C.) fracture line penetrates the tarso-metatarsal joint D.) considered to be an overuse injury E.) caused by inverting or twisting the foot Question 139 - An excessive Q-angle has been implicated in all of the following injuries/conditions, EXCEPT: A.) patellar dislocations B.)hamstring strains C.) ACL tears. D.) chondromalacia patellae Question 140 - Most ankle sprains involve the ligaments of the medial ankle? A.) True B.) False Question 141 - Which hamstring muscle has the highest incidence of strain injury in sports? A.) biceps femoris B.) semimembranosus C.) semitendinosus Question 142 - Which of the following injuries is/are characterized as nagging deep groin pain? (check all that apply) A.) hematoma auris B.) athletic pubalgia C.) hip pointer D.) osteitis pubis E.) pectineus syndrome Question 143 - With femoro-acetabular impingement a ________ deformity affects the head/neck of the femur and a _________ deformity affects the outer rim of the acetabulum A.) pincer, cam B.) cam pincer Question 144 - The lower extremity is ________; while the hip is _____ stable and ______ mobile than the shoulder; the legs are primarily used for ________ and the foot ________ loads and propels the body. A.) non-weight bearing, more, less, posture, dissipates B.) weight bearing, more, less, posture, absorbs C.) weight bearing, less, more, locomotion, absorbs D.) non-weight bearing, less, more, locomotion, dissipates E.) weight bearing, more, less, locomotion, absorbs Question 145 - A condition in which the nerves are entrapped between the metatarsal heads, producing swelling with radiating pain into the web space between the affected toes is known as: A.) plantar fasciitis B.)hallux valgus C.) metatarsalgia D.) Morton's neuroma Question 146 - Which ligament is considered to be the "Watchdog" of the knee? A.) medial collateral B.) posterior cruciate C.)medial patellar D.) anterior cruciate E.) lateral collateral Question 147 - Degenerative softening or wear and tear of the cartilage on the undersurface of the patella is known as: A.) chondromalacia patellae B.) Osgood Schlatter’s disease C.) jumper’s knee D.) runner’s knee Question 148 - Which of the following is NOT associated with Tarsal Tunnel Syndrome? A.) a fallen medial longitudinal arch B.) fractured metacarpal C.) nerve/blood vessel impingement D.) numbness/tingling of the plantar surface of the foot E.) overpronation Question 149 - What is the ratio for ACL tears between females and males? A.) 25:2 B.) 16-20:1 C.) 10-150:1 D.) 1:1 E.) 4-8: 1 Question 150 - When evaluating an athlete's foot for PLANTAR FASCIITIS, you MAY find point tenderness where the plantar fascia inserts on the calcaneus. From the lecture what is the common complication that develops at this site? A.) tarsal tunnel syndrome B.) Sever's disease C.) Morton's neuroma D.) heel spur E.) turf toe Question 151 - The anterior drawer test at the ankle is used as a special test to evaluate damage to which ligament? A.) anterior talonavicular ligament​ B.) anterior talofibular ligament​ C.) anterior calcaneofibular ligament​ D.) anterior calcaneonavicular ligament Question 152 - The main objective of patellar bracing is to: A.) increase patello-femoral joint compression forces B.) limit superior/inferior migration of patella C.) prevent abnormal patellar tracking during knee function D.) limit tibial rotation on the femur E.) limit tibiofemoral range of motion (ROM) Question 153 - Athletes need adequate time to adapt to significant changes in environmental conditions such as heat and cold. This process is known as: A.) thermoregulation B.) periodization C.) proprioception D.) acclimatization E.) thermal facilitation Question 154 - What percentage (%) of carbohydrate should sports drink (e.g. Gatorade) have for optimal gastric emptying to occur? A.) 4 B.) 2 C. 10 D.) 6 E.) 8 Question 155 - All of the following must occur in order for the sweat mechanism to activate, EXCEPT? A.) blood vessels in skin constrict to limit blood flow B.) heated blood is shunted from the core to the peripheral capillary beds C.) sweat must be squeezed from the sweat gland to the pore on the skin surface D.) core body temperature must exceed threshold for sweating E.) water and electrolytes must diffuse from capillaries to sweat glands Question 156 - All of the following are accurate descriptors of exertional heat stroke, EXCEPT: A.) athlete will present with an altered mental status B.) produces extremely high core temperatures (>105°F) C.) potentially life threatening D.) more common than exertional heat exhaustion E.) impairs the ability to activate the sweat mechanism Question 157 - Which of the following IS NOT a mechanism by which the body loses heat? A.) convection B.) evaporation C.) radiation D.) osmosis E.) conduction Question 158 - Of the following statements, which is the MOST important initial emergency care procedure for victims of exertional heat stroke? A.) replace lost electrolytes B.) rapid rehydration C.)rapidly cool the body D.) treat immediately for shock Question 159 - Which of the following methods cools the body by way of a medium (e.g. air or water) passing over or by the body? A.) evaporation B.) convection C.) radiation D.) conduction Question 160 - During acclimatization all of the following physiological adaptations occur, ЕХСЕРТ: A.) Increase in sodium content of sweat B.) Increase in blood (plasma) volume C.) Increases in the rate and volume of sweat D.) Become more tolerant to heat stress E.) Sweating occurs at a lower core body temperature Question 161 - During exercise in hot weather, athletes need to be encouraged to drink on a regular basis. Which one of the following is the recommended minimum water intake protocol during practice? A.) 30 ounces every 10 minutes B.) 1 ounce every 10 minutes C.) 4-6 ounces every 60 minutes D.) 10-12 ounces every 30 minutes Question 162 - __________ is a device that includes both a dry-bulb and a wet-bulb thermometer and is used by athletic trainers to measure ambient temperature relative humidity: A.) psychrometer B.) tensiometer C.) covecto-meter D.) physiometer E.) humido-meter Question 163 - When using weight charts to monitor weight loss during preseason football practices, what is the threshold level of weight loss between practice sessions in which an athlete should be withheld from practice? A.) 215% B.) 210% C.) 28% D.) 6% E.) 212% Question 164 - Exertional hyponatremia is an electrolyte imbalance caused by the excessive loss of potassium in sweat with intense exercise without replenishment during rehydration? A.) True B.) False Question 165 - Cramps typically affect smaller, one joint muscles that are over-exerted during physical activity? A.) True B.) False Question 166 - Which of the following are correct with regards to exertional sickling? (check all that apply, may be more than one answer) A.) can cause arterial ischemia B.) triggered by consumption of fluids C.) causes spleen enlargement| D.) alters shape of RBCs Question 167 - All of the following adequately characterize exertional muscle cramps, except? A.) extremely painful B.) activated voluntarily C.) sudden onset D.) fasciculations Question 168 - The primary trigger for exertional sickling is..... A.) high ambient temperature B.) intense exercise C.) high relative humidity D.) high altitude E.) hypohydration Question 169 - Renal failure is a major complication of exertional rhabdomyolysis and is caused by obstruction of the renal tubules by which of the following? A.) potassium B.) myoglobin C.) glycogen D.) calcium Question 170 - Which of the following favor heat dissipation during exercise in the hot environments? (check all that apply, may be more than one answer) A.) windy conditions B.) hydrated athlete C.) low relative humidity D.) acclimatized athlete E.) negative fluid balance in the body Question 171 - What 2 clinical signs are most important for differentiating exertional heat stroke from exertional heat exhaustion? A.) syncope B.) core temperature C.) pulse rate and quality D.) altered mental status E.) sweating F.) skin Question 172 - From the list below select the type of skin pathogen or reaction that best matches the condition below. Viral - herpes simplex Fungal - tinea Allergy - uticaria Bacterial - staphylococcus Question 173 - Which of the following does not apply to fungal infections? A.) infects keratinized tissues of the body B.) appear in the form parasitic molds or yeast C.)requires a host cell to survive D.) thrives in moist, warm conditions Question 174 - Which of the following is FALSE with regards to herpes simplex? A.) requires a host cell to survive B.) can be fully eradicated by oral medication C.) caused by virus D.) brought on by emotional or physical stress E.) transmitted through direct contact with open wounds or mucosal membranes Question 175 - All of the following are important characteristics of malignant melanoma that you should evaluate and recognize, A.) asymmetry B.) size (diameter) C.) border irregularity D.) coloration E.) temperature Question 176 - Which form of skin cancer rarely metastasizes? A.)Basal cell carcinoma B.) Squamous cell carcinoma C.) Malignant melanoma Question 180 - Plantar warts are caused by which one of the following organisms? A.) fungi B.) bacteria C.) viruses D.) insect bite Question 181 - All of the following are TRUE concerning the skin, EXCEPT: A.) protects the body from external irritants B.) helps regulate body temperature C.) acts as a sensory organ D.) largest organ in the body E.) composed of two layers: epidermis and subcutaneous Question 182 - A hypertrophic scar grows beyond the normal boundaries of a wound a can form a nodule or tumor-like appearance? A.) True B.) False Question 183 - Skin infections caused by a staphylococcus and streptococcus micro-organism are classified as infections: A.) allergenic B.) bacterial C.) fungal D.) viral Question 184 - Lacerations are smaller than incisions and result from a slice from a very sharp object? A.) True B.) False Question 185 - For prevention of sunburn related to ultraviolet (UV) exposure, a sunscreen product with a sun protection factor (SPF) of ____ will protect up to 97% of UV radiation hitting the skin? A.) 30 B.) 65 C.) 3 D.) 10 Question 186 - Influenza is a type of viral infection that primarily affects which of the following organ-systems: A.) brain/central nervous system B.) skin/integumentary C.) lungs/respiratory D.) stomach/digestive Question 187 - All of the following are TRUE with regard to type Il diabetes, except? A.) considered to be adult-onset B.) affected athletes are more prone to hyperglycemic episodes C.) cannot regulate blood glucose levels due to damage to insulin producing cells of the pancreas D.) can be controlled with diet and exercise modifications E.) affected athletes are insulin independent Question 188 - What is the greatest risk factor for athletes in contact sports who contract mononucleosis? A.) anaphylaxis B.) cardiac arrhythmias C.) hypoglycemia D.) chronic diarrhea E.) splenomegaly Question 189 - Which statement is FALSE concerning exercise-induced asthma? A.) affects 12-15% of the general population B.) is triggered by breathing moist, humid air C.) results in bronchospasm and difficulty breathing D.) can be prevented by properly warming up prior to exercise E.) can be effectively treated by using an inhaler Question 190 - Lyme disease is an infection that is transmitted by the bite of a deer tick and the infecting micro-organism is which one of the following? A.) bacterial B.) yeast C.) protozoa D.) virus E.) fungi Question 191 - Fruity (or acetone) breath odor in an athlete with diabetes may indicate which one of the following? A.) acute pancreatitis B.) Keto-acidosis C.) hepatitis D.) hypoglycemia E.) renal failure Question 192 - Gastro-intestinal viruses are a concern for athletes mainly because they run the risk of...........? A.) contracting hepatitis B.) high fever C.) indigestion D.) dehydration E.) abdominal cramping Question 193 - Type I diabetes is caused by impairment to what internal organ? A.) pancreas B.) liver C.) spleen D.) gall bladder E.) kidney Question 194 - A.) True B.) False A.) B.) C.) D.) E.)